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Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar

The document contains a custom practice test focused on physics concepts related to sound waves, wave properties, and harmonic frequencies. It includes multiple-choice questions addressing topics such as frequency changes, wave propagation, and resonance in various media. Each question presents a scenario or assertion followed by possible answers, testing the understanding of sound wave behavior and related principles.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
13 views14 pages

Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar

The document contains a custom practice test focused on physics concepts related to sound waves, wave properties, and harmonic frequencies. It includes multiple-choice questions addressing topics such as frequency changes, wave propagation, and resonance in various media. Each question presents a scenario or assertion followed by possible answers, testing the understanding of sound wave behavior and related principles.

Uploaded by

jkreddy248
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

4. A sitar wire is replaced by another wire of the same 8. The wave described by y = 0.25 sin(10πx + 2πt), 11. The correct figure that shows, schematically, the
Physics length and material but with double the radius. If the where x and y are in meters and t in seconds, is a wave pattern produced by the superposition of two
1. Given below are two statements: tension in the wire remains the same, the wave traveling along the: waves of frequencies 9 Hz and 11 Hz, is:
Sound waves in a gas are pressure fundamental frequency will become: +ve X-direction with frequency 1 Hz and

1. nine times 1.
waves, but these are also wavelength λ = 0.2 m
Assertion (A): 2. double
accompanied by changes in local −ve X-direction with amplitude 0.25 m and
1.
3. half 2.
temperature. wavelength λ = 0.2 m
Sound waves are propagated in gas 4. one-ninth
3. −ve X-direction with frequency 2 Hz
through an adiabatic process and +ve X-direction with frequency π Hz and
Reason (R): 5. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same 4.
hence accompanied by temperature wavelength λ = 0.2 m
variations. material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of
frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
2.
decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency 9. The echo of a gunshot is heard 10 seconds after it
1.
explanation of (A). of B will be: is fired. If the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, the
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 1. 524 Hz 2. 536 Hz distance of the surface which reflects the sound is:
2. 1. 33 m
correct explanation of (A). 3. 537 Hz 4. 523 Hz
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. 3300 m
3. 135 m 3.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 4. 1650 m
6. A tuning fork, placed in a room, vibrates according
2πt
to the equation: Y = (10
−4
m) sin ( ) where 10. A uniform thin rope of length 12 m and mass 6
2. An unknown tuning fork sounded together with a 0.01 s
kg hangs vertically from a rigid support and a block
Y is the displacement of the tip of a prong. The
tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz emits two beats per of mass 2 kg is attached to its free end. A transverse
speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. The amplitude of
second. On loading the tuning fork of frequency 256
vibration of the prong is: short wave-train of wavelength 6 cm is produced at 4.
Hz, the number of beats heard is 1 per second. The the lower end of the rope. What is the wavelength of
frequency of the unknown tuning fork is: 1. 10 m
−4

the wavetrain (in cm) when it reaches the top of the


1. 257 Hz 2. 2 × 10 m
−4

rope?
2. 258 Hz 3. 10 m
−6

1. 12
3. 256 Hz 4. 2 × 10 m
−6

2. 9 12. When a travelling wave is reflected off a fixed


4. 254 Hz 3. 3 end, the reflected wave has:
7. Two organ pipes closed at one end produce 5 4. 6 1. the same frequency
3. When sound waves produced under water emerge beats per second in fundamental mode. If the ratio of
into the air, then: their lengths is 10 : 11, then their frequencies (in Hz) 2. a lower frequency
the frequency increases, and wavelength are: 3. a higher frequency
1. 1. 55, 50 2. 105, 100
decreases. 4. a higher or a lower frequency
the frequency remains constant, but the 3. 75, 70 4. 100, 95
2.
wavelength decreases.
the frequency decreases, wavelength remains 13. The length of the string of a musical instrument is
3. 90 cm and has a fundamental frequency of 120 Hz.
constant.
the frequency remains constant but the Where should it be pressed to produce a fundamental
4. frequency of 180 Hz?
wavelength increases.
1. 75 cm 2. 60 cm
3. 45 cm 4. 80 cm

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Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

14. A tuning fork, placed in a room, vibrates 19. The addition of two waves with slightly different 21. Two sound waves move in the same direction in 25. A waveform propagating along the x-axis is
according to the equation: frequencies results in the production of beats or a the same medium. The pressure amplitudes of the given by;
the beat frequency. The result can be monitored using an waves are equal but the wavelength of the first wave
2πt
Y = (10
−4
m) sin ( ) where Y is x −1
0.01 s
oscilloscope. Consider the two figures shown below: is double the second. Let the average power y(x, t) = (2 mm) sin 2π[(300 s )t − 1.5 m ]
displacement of the tip of a prong. The speed of transmitted across cross-section by the first wave be The wavenumber of this wave is (in SI):
sound in air is 330 m/s. P and that by the second wave be P . Then:
1 2 1
If an additional tuning fork of frequency 102 Hz is 1. 300 2.
1. P = P 2. P = 4P 300
sounded together with this, then a beat frequency of:
1 2 1 2

1
3. P = 2P 4. P = 4P 3. 1.5 4.
1. 1 Hz will be heard. 2 1 2 1
1.5

2. 2 Hz will be heard.
3. 202 Hz will be heard. 22. The first overtone of a closed pipe has a 26. A string 180 cm long resonates in three segments
4. 101 Hz will be heard. frequency f . A frequency that is 2f can be excited
c c with transverse waves produced by a 270 Hz
from an open pipe of the same length but vibrating in vibrator. What is the speed of the waves on the
Keeping the lower frequency wave constant, we its: string?
15. If the temperature is raised by 1 K from 300 K, increase the frequency of the other wave. You would 1. 2 harmonic 2. 3 harmonic
nd rd
1. 162 m/s
then the percentage change in the speed of sound in expect the display on the oscilloscope to go from: 3. 6 harmonic 4. 12 harmonic
th th 2. 324 m/s
the gaseous mixture is: 1. Figure I to Figure II.
3. 364 m/s
(R = 8.31 J/mol-K) 2. Figure II to Figure I. 4. 374 m/s
1. 0.167% There will not be a shift between Figure I and
2. 2% 3. 23. An air column, closed at one end and open at the
Figure II, but the amplitude will increase. 27. A transverse wave is represented by the
3. 1% other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest
There will not be a shift between Figure I and length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length 2π
4. 0.334% 4. equation; y = y0 sin (vt − x).
Figure II, but the display will become brighter. of the column resonating with the same tuning fork λ

will be: For what value of the wavelength, λ, does the


16. Two sound waves with wavelengths of 1 m and maximum particle velocity become twice the wave
1.01 m propagate through a gas, producing 9 beats in
1. 100 cm 2. 150 cm
20. Given below are two statements: velocity?
3 s. The speed of sound in the gas is: 3. 200 cm 4. 66.7 cm πy0
The speed of sound in a given ideal 1. λ = πy0 2. λ =
1. 360 m/s
Assertion (A): gas is proportional to the rms speed 2
2. 303 m/s πy0
of its molecules. 3. λ = 4. λ = 2πy0
3. 337 m/s 24. Given below are two statements: 3
4. 330 m/s Both these speeds depend on the
Standing waves are formed in a string
Reason (R): absolute temperature (T ) of the gas
when waves of equal amplitude and
in the same manner. Assertion (A):
17. The fundamental frequencies of a closed pipe frequency propagating in opposite 28. A student, while performing an experiment with a
and an open pipe are identical. The first overtone for directions superpose. sonometer with bridges separated by a distance of
the closed pipe is f and for the open pipe is f . Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct This occurs as the superposing waves 80 cm, missed some of the observations. However,
c o
1.
fc explanation of (A). coming from opposite directions he claimed that the three resonant frequencies for a
Their ratio is:
fo Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the arrive in exactly opposite phase at given tuning fork were 84 Hz, 140 Hz and 224 Hz.
2. The speed of transverse waves on the wire is:
1. 1 2. 1/2 correct explanation of (A). Reason (R): equidistant points (nodes) – where
3. 2/3 4. 3/2 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. their vibrations cancel; while they 1. 33.30 m/s
reinforce each other between them 2. 330.0 m/s
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
(antinodes). 3. 44.80 m/s
4. 448.0 m/s
18. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have
frequencies of (n − 1), n, and (n + 1). They Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
superimpose to give beats. The number of beats explanation of (A).
produced per second will be: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
1. 1 2. 4 correct explanation of (A).
3. 3 4. 2 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

29. A wire with a linear mass density 9.8 × 10 −3


33. A gas is taken in a closed transparent tube, some 36. A string of length l is fixed at both ends and is 40. If the speed of sound in air is v, then the
kg/m passes over a frictionless pulley as shown in the lycopodium powder is spread within the tube, and vibrating in second harmonic. The amplitude at minimum possible length of the closed-end organ
figure. A transverse wave propagates along the string the tube is placed horizontally. When the mouth of antinode is 2 mm. The amplitude of a particle at a pipe which resonates to frequency f will be:
from end A to B with a speed of 100 m/s. If m = 20 the tube is vibrated with a tuning fork of frequency distance l/8 from the fixed end is: v v
1
1. 2.
kg, the value of m is: 2
1 kHz, and the length of the tube is adjusted: the 2f 4f

powder is observed to collect in a wave-like pattern v v


(take g = 9.8 m/s2) 3. 4.
with adjacent 'maxima' separated by 20 cm. The 3f f

speed of sound in the gas is:

1. 2√2 mm 41. A waveform propagating along the x -axis is


2. 4 mm given by:
)x]. The
−1 −1

3. √2 mm y(x, t) = 3 mm sin 2π[(100 s )t + (20 m

4. 2√3 mm speed of the wave is:


6 20 1. 100 m/s 2. 200 m/s 1. 0.03 mm/s
1. kg 2. kg
5 3 3. 400 m/s 4. 800 m/s
37. Two waves can be expressed as 2. 5 m/s
14 9 3. 0.02 m/s
3. kg 4. kg x = 4 sin(ωt + kx +
π
) and x = 3cos(ωt + kx). 4. 60 m/s

5 7 3

34. When the frequency of the sound produced by a The phase difference between the two waves is:
siren increases from 400 Hz​ to 1200 Hz​ while the 1. rad
π

3
42. Given below are two statements:
30. In the sonometer experiment, a string of mass 18 amplitude remains the same, what is the ratio of the 2. rad
π
In a progressive wave motion, the
6
g having linear mass density 20 g/m oscillates in the intensity of the sound wave at frequency 400 Hz​ to 3. rad
π
Assertion (A): particle velocity remains constant at
fundamental mode (of frequency 50 Hz). The the intensity at frequency 1200 Hz? 2
all times.
4. π rad
velocity of transverse waves in the string is: 1. 1 : 1 During the propagation of sound, the
1. 70 m/s 2. 3 : 1 38. The pressure wave Reason (R): density of the medium is uniform
2. 60 m/s 3. 1 : 9 throughout.
, corresponds to the
−2
P = 0.01 sin(1000t − 3x) Nm
3. 90 m/s 4. 9 : 1
4. 110 m/s sound produced by a vibrating blade on a day when
the atmospheric temperature is 0 C. On some other

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
35. Consider the situation shown in the figure, where 1.
31. In a stationary wave: day, when the temperature is T , the speed of sound explanation of (A).
a wire with a mass of 4.0 g oscillates in its second produced by the same blade and at the same
1. strain is minimum at the nodes Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
harmonic, causing the air column in the tube to frequency is found to be 336 ms . The approximate 2. correct explanation of (A).
−1

2. strain is maximum at the nodes vibrate in its fundamental mode. Given that the speed value of T is:
3. strain is maximum at the antinodes of sound in air is 340 m/s, the tension in the wire is: 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
1. 4 C

4. amplitude is zero at all points. 2. 12 C∘ 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
3. 11 C∘

4. 15 C∘

32. Two strings A and B, made of the same material, 43. In the equation
are stretched by the same tension. The radius of 39. A 100 cm wire of mass 40 g is fixed at both ends. y = 4 cos( 2πx
) sin(100πt)
A tuning fork, vibrating at a frequency of 50 Hz, sets
50
string A is double of the radius of B. A transverse x and y are in cm and t is in seconds. The node that
wave that travels on A with a speed v and on B the wire into resonance in its fundamental mode.
A
appears at x is equal to (in cm):
with a speed v . The ratio of is:
vA
Then, the tension in the wire is:
B
vB 1. 12.5
1. 400 N 2. 100 N 2. 50
1. 1
2. 2
2
3. 25 N 4. 1600 N 3. 20
3.
1
4. 4
4 4. 100

1. 7.6 N
2. 8.5 N
3. 11.6 N
4. 15.0 N

Page: 5 Page: 6
Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

44. If the angular frequency of the given motion 48. The compound that contains only sp³ hybridized 51. The correct stability order of the resonating 53. Which of the following compounds can show
y = sin(ωt) + cos(ωt) is kω, then value of k is: carbon atoms is: structure of the given compound is: tautomerism?
1. 1/2 1. HCOOH
2. 1 2. (NH ) CO
2
2

3. 2 3. (CH ) COH
3
3

4. none of these 4. CH CH O
3
1. 2.

45. A heavy uniform rope is suspended from the 49. Match the following:
ceiling, and a block equal to 3 times the mass of the Test/Method Reagent A.
rope is suspended from the bottom. The ratio of the (i) Lucas Test (a) C H SO Cl / aq. KOH
6 5 2
speed of a transverse pulse at the top (v ) to its speed
t

tv (ii) Dumas method (b) HNO / AgNO 3 3 3. 4.


at the bottom (v ) of the rope, =
b
v Kjeldahl's
b
(iii) (c) CuO / CO
4 method 2
B.
1.
3 (iv) Hinsberg Test (d) Conc. HCl and ZnCl 2

1. I, II, III, IV
2. √
4
(e) H SO 2 4

3
2. I and II
1. (i)-(d). (ii)-(c), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a) 3. III and IV
3.
3
C.
4 2. (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a) 4. Only II
3 3. (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(e)
4. √
4 4. (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
1. A > B > C 2. B > A > C
54. What is the correct order of acidic strength for the
Chemistry 3. C > A > B 4. B > C > A following
HCOOH, CH3 COOH, CH3 CH2 COOH,
acids?

46. In Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen 50. The compound that does not have sp 2 hybridized
CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH
present in the soil sample, ammonia evolved from carbon among the following is: 52. The total number of possible structural HCOOH < CH3 COOH < CH3 CH2 COOH <
0.75g of sample neutralized 10ml of 1M H2SO4. The 1. Acetone isomers with the molecular formula C5H10O having 1.
percentage of nitrogen in the soil is: 2. Acetic acid CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH
either aldehyde or ketone functional group are:
3. Acetonitrile HCOOH > CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH > CH3 COOH >
1. 37.33 2. 45.85 1. 6 2.
4. Acetamide CH3 CH2 COOH
3. 25.75 4. 43.13 2. 4
HCOOH > CH3 COOH > CH3 CH2 COOH >
3. 5 3.
4. 7 CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH

CH3 COOH > HCOOH > CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH >
47. The given compound is classified as: 4.
CH3 CH2 COOH

55. The maximum -I effect is shown by which one of


the following?
1. −F
1. Alicyclic 2. −NO 2

2. Aromatic 3. −CN
3. Antiaromatic 4. −OH
4. Acyclic

Page: 7 Page: 8
Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

56. Which of the following compounds is not an 60. The number of 𝜎 and 𝜋-bonds in the molecule 63. Use the provided information in the following 65. Which of the following representations of ethane
isomer of 3-ethyl-2-methylpentane? of tetracyanoethylene is: paper chromatogram. depicts its non-staggered conformation?
1.

1. 2.
2.
1. 9𝜎 and 9𝜋
2. 5𝜎 and 9𝜋
3. 3. 9𝜎 and 7𝜋
4. 5𝜎 and 8𝜋 3. 4. None of these

61. ​What is the number of optically active isomers


4. among all the isomers of(C H Br)?
6 13

1. 7 Figure: Paper chromatography for compounds A and


2. 8 B. 66. The IUPAC name of the following compound is:
3. 9 The Rf value of A is Y×10 –1. The value of Y is:
57. The method used for quantitative estimation of 4. 17
halogens is: 1. 2 2. 3
1. Dumas method 62. The compound that gives blood red colour in 3. 4 4. 8
2. Carius method Lassaigne's test is:
3. Kjeldahl's method
4. Combustion method 64. Which of the following options is the correct
IUPAC name for the given compound? 1. 4-Bromo-3-cynaophenol
58. The total number of lone pair of electrons in the 2. 2-Bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile
1. 2. 3. 2-Cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene
given molecule is:
4. 6-Bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile

1. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
2. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
3. 3-Ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
4. 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
3. 4.

1. 8
2. 6
3. 5
4. 7

59. Determine the IUPAC name of the compound


with the molecular formula C₆H₁₄ that contains two
tertiary carbon atoms. 1. 2-Methyl pentane
2. 2, 3-Dimethylbutane
3. 2, 2-Dimethylbutane
4. n-Hexane

Page: 9 Page: 10
Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

67. Select the correct option based on the statements 70. Among the following, the compound which is 73. The principle involved in thin-layer 76. Consider the following compounds. The Kjeldahl
below: wrongly named is: chromatography is: method is not applicable for estimating nitrogen in
Chlorine is an electron-withdrawing 1. Partition how many of the given compounds?
group, yet it exhibits ortho- and para- 2. Sublimation
Assertion (A): 3. Adsorption
directing behavior in electrophilic 1. 2-Chloropentanoic acid
aromatic substitution. 4. Solubility
Inductive effect of chlorine
destabilises the intermediate 2-Methylpent-2-en-5-oic 74. Which of these structures is not a valid canonical
2.
carbocation formed during the acid structure?
electrophilic substitution, however 1. CH = CH − CH = CH − NH
2

3

Reason (R): 3. Hex-3-en-2-one 2. CH − CH = CH − CH − NH


⊕ ⊖ ⊕
due to the more pronounced 2 3

resonance effect, the halogen 3. CH − CH = CH − CH = NH



2 3

stabilises the carbocation at ortho and 4. None of the above


4. 4-Methylpentanal
para positions.
75. Match the compounds in Column I with their
corresponding inductive effect in Column II and
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. select the correct option:
explanation of (A).
Column II
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the Column I
2. 71. Which of the following compounds is added to (Nature of
correct explanation of (A). (Compound)
the sodium extract before the addition of silver nitrate inductive effect)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. for testing of halogens?
1. 5 2. 3
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 1. Nitric acid 2. Ammonia
3. 2 4. 4
3. Hydrochloric acid 4. Sodium hydroxide
R groups show +I
(a) (p)
68. If 0.450 grams of an organic compound effect
containing Carbon, Hydrogen & Oxygen on 72. The correct stability order for the following 77. The correct order of C–C bond lengths of the
complete combustion gives 0.735 grams CO2 and compounds is: following molecules are:
1. C H > C H > C H > C H
0.45 grams of water, then the mass % of oxygen in
2 6 2 4 6 6 2 2

R groups show -I 2. C H < C H < C H < C H


the compound is:
2 2 2 4 6 6 2 6
(b) (q) 3. C H > C H > C H > C H
(Report your answer to the nearest integer) effect 2 6 2 2 6 6 2 4

4. C H > C H > C H > C H


I. II.
2 4 2 6 2 2 6 6
1. 31 2. 49
(H2 C = CH −)
3. 44 4. 51 (c) (r) 78. What organic compound yields 17.6 g of 𝐶𝑂2
show +I effect
and 7.2 g of 𝐻2𝑂 when 5.6 g is combusted in excess
69. Among the following, the property that is true oxygen?
III. IV. (d) (s)
(H2 C = CH −)
1. C6H6
about the following compound is: show -I effect
2. C4H8
3. C3H8
1. IV > III > II > I 1. (a) → (q), (b) → (r), (c) → (p), (d) → (s) 4. C2H2
2. IV > I > II > III 2. (a) → (q), (b) → (p), (c) → (r), (d) → (s)
3. IV > III > I > II 3. (a) → (p), (b) → (q), (c) → (s), (d) → (r)
1. Non-planar 4. IV > II > I > III 4. (a) → (r), (b) → (p), (c) → (s), (d) → (q)
2. C is sp -hybridized
+ 2

3. Electrophile can attack C +

4. Does not undergo hydrolysis

Page: 11 Page: 12
Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar Custom Practice Test - 26-Mar
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79. What is the correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec- 83. The correct IUPAC numbering among the 87. Given below is the developed chromatogram of a 90. C3H4 has a total number of ________ isomers:
4-ene? following is: mixture of pigments: 1. 1 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
1. 2. 1. 2.

Biology
91. Given below are two statements:
3. 4. Statement I: Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.
What are the respective Rf values for x and y?
3. 4. x y x y
Statement II: Cartilage is dense regular tissue.
1. , 2. ,
z z y z
z z
3. xz, yz 4. ,
In the light of the above statements, choose the
80. Arrange the following groups in increasing order x y correct answer from the options given below:
based on their +M effect: 1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
84. The electrophilic nature of SO₃ is attributed to: 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
−NH2 , −N(COCH )2 and − NHCOCH3
3
1. Vacant d-orbitals in the sulphur atom. 88. 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
1. −NH 2 > −NHCOCH3 > −N(COCH )2
2. Empty p-orbitals in the sulphur atom.
3
The IUPAC name of 4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
2. −N(COCH 3
)2 > −NH2 > −NHCOCH3 3. Its +6 oxidation state causes electron deficiency. Assertion
H C ≡ C − CH2 − CH = CH2

3. −NHCOCH 4. The bond between sulfur and oxygen is ionic. (A):


3 > −N(COCH )2 > −NH2
3 is pent-4-en-1-yne.
92. The fluid mosaic model for the plasma membrane
4. −NHCOCH 3 > −NH2 > −N(COCH )2 If there is a choice, a triple bond is was proposed by:
3
85. A sample of 0.50 g of an organic compound was Reason
always given a lower locant than a 1. H. Davson and J. Danielli
treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The (R):
double bond. 2. Schleiden and Schwann
81. 29.5 mg of an organic compound containing ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 mL of 0.5 M In light of the above statements, choose answer from 3. Singer and Nicolson
nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl's method H SO . The residual acid required 60 mL of 0.5 M
2 4
the options given below: 4. Robert Brown and Robert Hooke
and the evolved ammonia were absorbed in 20 mL of solution of NaOH for neutralization. The percentage Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of the acid required composition of nitrogen in the compound is: 1.
explanation of (A). 93. All the following will be correct regarding
15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for complete 1. 52% 2. 61%
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
mesosome in a bacterial cell except:
neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the 3. 56 % 4. 54 % 2. 1. They are differentiated form of cell membrane
correct explanation of (A).
compound is: 2. They are essentially infoldings of cell membrane
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 3. They can be in the form of vesicles, tubules and
1. 29.5 2. 23.7
3. 47.4 4. 59.0 86. In Kjeldahl's method of estimation of nitrogen, 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. lamellae
K2SO4 acts as: 4. They contain photosynthetic pigments
1. An oxidizing agent 2. A catalytic agent
82. Methyl group attached to a positively charged 89. During the estimation of nitrogen present in an
3. A hydrolyzing agent 4. A boiling point elevator
carbon atom stabilizes the carbocation due to: organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the
1. -I inductive effect ammonia evolved from 1.3 g of the compound in
2. Electromeric effect Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen, neutralized 10 mL
3. Hyperconjugation of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the
4. Mesomeric effect compound is:
1. 56.00
2. 21.53
3. 33.76
4. 29.34

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94. Regarding the structure and organization of the 97. Which one of the following organelles in the 101. Which of the following statement is correct for 104. Identify the correct statements regarding
frog's brain, consider the following statements: figure correctly matches with its function? the given diagram? connective tissue?
The brain is enclosed in a bony structure called Collagen and Elastin fibres are secreted by cells
I: I:
the brain box or cranium. of all connective tissues
The brain is divided into fore-brain, mid-brain, Matrix (ground substance) is predominantly
II: II:
and hind-brain. polysaccharides
The fore-brain includes the olfactory lobes, Connective tissues link or support other tissues/
III:
III: paired cerebral hemispheres, and unpaired organs of the body
diencephalon.
The hind-brain is characterized by the presence 'C' possesses DNA molecule, RNA molecule and 1. Only I and II
IV: 1.
of optic lobes. 80 S ribosomes 2. Only I and III
Which of the statements given above are correct? 2. 'A' and 'B' have their own specific enzymes 3. Only II and III
1. I and III only 'E' made by inner membrane towards the 4. I, II and III
1. Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis 3.
2. II and IV only intermembrane space
2. Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids
3. I, II, and III only 'B' forms the continuous limiting boundary of the 105. Which of the following epithelial tissues is
3. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis 4.
4. I, II, and IV only organelle primarily responsible for forming a diffusion
4. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of
boundary and is found in the walls of blood vessels
glycoproteins
95. Consider the given two statements: and air sacs of lungs?
Lysosomes are known as the waste 1. Squamous epithelium
98. Consider the given two statements: 102. Consider the given two statements:
disposal system of the cell due to 2. Cuboidal epithelium
Assertion(A): Assertion If the head of a cockroach is cut off, it Compound epithelium has a limited
their role in breaking down cellular Assertion (A): 3. Columnar epithelium
(A): will still live for as long as one week. role in secretion and absorption.
waste and debris. 4. Glandular epithelium
The head holds a bit of a nervous system Their main function is to provide
Lysosomes contain hydrolytic Reason Reason (R): protection against chemical and
while the rest is situated along the 106. Which of the following functions is carried out
enzymes necessary for intracellular (R): mechanical stresses.
ventral (belly-side) part of its body. by the cytoskeleton in a cell?
digestion, enabling the breakdown of
Reason(R): 1. Transportation 2. Nuclear division
various biomolecules including
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A) 3. Protein synthesis 4. Motility
proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and 1.
carbohydrates. explains (A) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not
2.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A)
2. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly correctly explain (A) 107. A basal body is a part of bacterial:
1. 1. Inclusion bodies 2. Chromosomal DNA
explains (A) 3. (A) is True but (R) is False 4. (A) is False but (R) is True
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not 4. Both (A) and (R) are False 3. Flagellum 4. Plasmid
2.
correctly explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False 103. All the following will be true for the middle
99. Which part of the alimentary canal in frog lamella in a typical plant cell except:
4. (A) is False, (R) is True
receives bile from gall bladder and pancreatic juices 1. It is a layer mainly of calcium pectate .
from the pancreas through a common bile duct? 2. It holds or glues the different neighboring cells
together.
96. A major site for synthesis of lipids is: 1. Stomach 2. Duodenum
3. It will never be traversed by plasmodesmata.
1. SER 3. Oesophagus 4. Pharynx 4. It is present on the outer side of the primary cell
2. Symplast wall.
3. Nucleoplasm
4. RER 100. A sheath of dense irregular connective tissue
that groups muscle fibres into bundles or fascicles is
called as:
1. Epimysium 2. Perimysium
3. Endomysium 4. Aponeurosis

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108. In the following diagram of alimentary canal of 111. Both the cilium and the flagellum emerge from 115. Which of the following types of epithelium lines 118. Which of the following statements about
cockroach, identify the labels A, B, C and D centriole-like structure called the: the walls of blood vessels? inclusion bodies is incorrect?
respectively. 1. basal body 1. Ciliated epithelium 1. These are involved in the ingestion of food
2. kinetoplastid 2. Squamous epithelium particles.
3. phragmoplast 3. Cuboidal epithelium 2. They lie freely in the cytoplasm.
4. kinocilium 4. Columnar epithelium 3. These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
4. They are not bound by any membrane.
112. Match List - I with List - II 116. Given below are two statements:
List - I List - II 119. Identify the incorrectly labeled parts in the given
Dense Regular Mycoplasma can pass through less diagram of areolar tissue:
(a) Bronchioles (i) Statement I:
Connective Tissue than 1 micron filter size.
(b) Goblet cell (ii) Loose Connective Tissue Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell
Statement II:
(c) Tendons (iii) Glandular Tissue walls.
(d) Adipose Tissue (iv) Ciliated Epithelium
A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Malpighian tubules, D- In the light of the above statements, choose the most
1.
Hepatic caeca appropriate answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given
A-Oesophagus, B-Crop, C-salivary glands, D- 1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
2. below:
Hepatic caeca correct.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caeca, D- 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 1. Only A
3. 1. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Malpighian tubules 2. Only B and C
2. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) 4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
A-Gizzard, B-Hepatic caeca, C-Malpighian 3. Only A and B
4. 3. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) incorrect.
tubules, D- Cilia 4. A, B and C
4. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
117. Match List I with List II related to digestive 120. What structures are used for excretion and
109. Plant and animal cells are different. Identify the system of cockroach: osmoregulation in Periplaneta americana?
correct difference: 113. Like mitochondria, the chloroplasts: List I List II 1. Protonephridia 2. Nephridia
Plant cells possess cell walls, plastids and a large I: are also double membrane bound. The structures used 3. Malpighian tubules 4. Antennal glands
I: A. I. Gizzard
central vacuole which are absent in animal cells. also contain small, double-stranded circular DNA for storing of food.
II:
Animal cells have centrioles which are absent in molecules and ribosomes. Ring of 6-8 blind
II: tubules at junction
almost all plant cells. B. II. Gastric Caeca 121. Match List-I with List-II:
1. Only I is correct 1. Only I is correct of foregut and List-I List-II
2. Only II is correct 2. Only II is correct midgut.
Squamous Goblet cells of alimentary
3. Both I and II are correct Ring of 100-150 A. I.
3. Both I and II are correct Epithelium canal
4. Both I and II are incorrect 4. Both I and II are incorrect yellow coloured thin
Inner lining of pancreatic
C. filaments at junction III. Malpighian tubules B. Ciliated Epithelium II.
ducts
110. Many parts of frog brains correspond with those 114. Cytoskeleton in a eukaryotic cells is an of midgut and
hindgut. Glandular
of humans. Which structure of human brain has elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous C. III. Walls of blood vessels
Epithelium
no corresponding structure in frogs? structures consisting of all the following except: The structures used
D. for grinding the IV. Crop Compound Inner surface of Fallopian
1. Olfactory lobe 2. Optic lobe 1. microtubules D. IV.
food. Epithelium tubes
3. Pons 4. Cerebellum 2. microfilaments
3. intermediate filaments Choose the correct answer from the options given
4. FtsZ elements Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
below: 1. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV
3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 4. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II
4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

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122. Sometimes a few chromosomes have non- 125. Liver in frog: 129. Heart of a frog: 135. The membranes of which of the following cell
staining secondary constrictions at a constant 1. secretes a lot of digestive enzymes. I: has three chambers organelle are not included in the endomembrane
location. This gives 2. does not have digestive function. II: is a muscular pump system of a eukaryotic cell?
the appearance of a small fragment called the: 1. Vacuole
3. secretes bile that is stored in the gall bladder. III: is covered by pericardium
1. telomere 2. Lysosome
2. satellite secretes bile that is not stored as frogs do not have 3. Plastid
4.
a gall bladder. 1. Only I and II are correct
3. bands 4. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. chromomere 2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct 136. Identify the correct statement regarding the
123. Match the following components of the cell 126. Consider the given two statements: 4. I, II and III are correct given figure?
membrane with their characteristics: The fore limbs in frogs end in five
Column I digits and they are larger and
Column II (Characteristic) Statement I:
(Component) muscular than hind limbs that end in
four digits. 130. Twelve pairs of cranial nerves are present in all
Embedded in the bilayer, can the following except:
A. Phospholipids 1. Feet in frogs have webbed digits that
be integral or peripheral Statement II: 1. Mammals 2. Birds
help in swimming.
Provides rigidity and stability 3. Reptiles 4. Amphibians
B. Cholesterol 2. 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
to the membrane
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
Forms a bilayer with polar
C. Proteins 3. 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
heads and non-polar tails 131. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
Often attached to proteins or from:
D. Carbohydrates 4. lipids on the extracellular Columnar epithelial
127. Consider the given two statements regarding 1. 2. Chondrocytes
surface cells
frogs:
In water, skin acts as aquatic Compound epithelial Squamous epithelial ‘A’ links a pair of sister chromatids together
Options: 3. 4. I:
Statement I: respiratory organ (cutaneous cells cells during cell division.
1. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 ‘B’ is a disc-shaped protein structure associated
respiration).
2. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 with duplicated chromatids in eukaryotic cells
3. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 On land, the buccal cavity, skin and II:
Statement II: 132. Intercalated discs are characteristically seen in: where the spindle fibers attach during cell
4. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 lungs act as the respiratory organs.
1. Cardiac muscles division to pull sister chromatids apart.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Myelinated neurons 1. Only I
124. Match List-I with List-II. 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Exocrine glands 2. Only II
List-I List-II 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Smooth muscles 3. Both I and II
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
A. F1 Particles I. Chromosomes 4. Neither I nor II
B. Histones II. Cilia 133. Types of cell junctions that are found in the
128. When compared to eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic
C. Axoneme III. Golgi apparatus epithelium and other tissues that facilitate the cells to 137. Identify the correct statements:
cells:
communicate with each other by connecting the Frog eye does not have closable eye
D. Cisternae IV. Mitochondria 1. are smaller and generally divide at a slower rate. Statement I:
cytoplasm of adjoining cells are: lids.
Choose the correct answer from the options given 2. are smaller and generally divide at a faster rate.
1. Tight junctions 2. Adhering junctions A nictitating membrane provides
below: 3. are smaller and generally divide at a similar rate.
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 4. are larger and generally divide at a slower rate. 3. Gap junctions 4. Plasmodesmata Statement II: protection to the eye, especially when
2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III the frog is swimming.
3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 134. In some prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, there 2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
are membranous extensions into the cytoplasm which 3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
contain pigments. These are called as 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
1. Carboxysomes
2. Magnetosomes
3. Chromatophores
4. Mesosomes

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138. In cockroach: 141. Identify the correctly matched pairs: 144. Match List - I with List - II 147. Which of the following is not easily visible
The haemolymph is composed of colourless Anton Von first saw and described a List -I List - II under the light microscope in a typical eukaryotic
I: I: cell, unless stained specifically by a vital dye?
plasma and haemocytes. Leeuwenhoek live cell Primary constriction in
a. Cristae i. 1. Chloroplast 2. Mitochondria
The heart lies along mid ventral line of thorax II: Robert Brown discovered the nucleus chromosome
II:
and abdomen. III: Matthias Schleiden was a German zoologist Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi 3. Nucleus 4. Endoplasmic reticulum
b. Thylakoids ii.
1. Only I is correct IV: Theodor Schwann was a British botanist apparatus
2. Only II is correct c. Centromere iii. Infoldings in mitochondria
3. Both I and II are correct 1. Only I and II Flattened membranous sacs in 148. What is the mode of fertilization in frogs and
4. Both I and II are incorrect d. Cisternae iv. how do they typically lay their eggs?
2. Only I and III stroma of plastids
3. I, II, III and IV 1. External fertilization; eggs are laid in water
139. Consider the given two statements: Choose the correct answer from the options given 2. Internal fertilization; eggs are laid on leaves
4. Only III and IV
Ribosomes are non-membrane bound below: 3. External fertilization; eggs are laid on damp soil
Statement organelles found in both prokaryotic and 4. Internal fertilization; eggs are laid in water
I: eukaryotic cells, and they are the sites of (a) (b) (c) (d)
protein synthesis. 142. Match the type of epithelium to their correct 149. Consider the given two statements:
1. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Several ribosomes may attach to a single location: The mitochondria, chloroplast and
Statement 2. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
mRNA and form a chain called 1. Columnar epithelium - Alveoli of lungs Assertion(A): peroxisomes are not considered
II: 3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) as part of the endomembrane system.
polyribosomes or polysome. 2. Squamous epithelium - Lining of the intestine 4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) The mitochondria, chloroplast and
3. Cuboidal epithelium - Kidney tubules
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct Reason (R): peroxisomes are single membrane
4. Ciliated epithelium - Ovarian surface bound organelles.
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 145. Some of the functions of eukaryotic cells [like
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct electron transport for ATP synthesis] are performed in
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect143. In frogs: prokaryotic cells by 1.
explains (A).
1. the heart is two chambered 1. vesicles
2. ribosomes Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2. lymphatic system is absent 2.
3. nucleoid correctly explain (A).
140. Read the following statements and choose the 3. sinus venosus joins the right atrium
4. the plasma membrane 3. (A) is True; (R) is False
correct option: RBCs are not nucleated and do not contain
4. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False
Polar molecules cannot pass through haemoglobin
Statement 146. Consider the two statements:
lipid bilayer of plasma membrane by
I: The cells of testes and ovaries have
self.
Assertion (A): abundance of Smooth Endoplasmic
Polar molecules require carrier proteins
Statement Reticulum.
to facilitate their transport across the
II: The cells of testes and ovaries secrete
membrane. Reason (R):
steroid hormones.

1. Both Statements I and II are correct


2. Both Statements I and II are incorrect
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly
3. Only Statement I is correct 1.
explains (A).
4. Only Statement II is correct
2. (A) is true but (R) is False.
Both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) ​d oes not
3.
explain (A).
4. (A) is false but Reason is true.

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150. Match List-I with List-II: 153. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 157. An elaborate network of filamentous 161. Consider the given two statements:
List-I List-II as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason proteinaceous structures consisting of microtubules, The outer nuclear membrane usually
Establish a barrier that prevents (R): microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in Statement remains continuous with the
Adhering The skin of a frog is always kept the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells is collectively I: endoplasmic reticulum and also bears
(a) (i) leakage of extracellular Assertion (A):
junctions moist and has a mucus covering. referred to as the: ribosomes on it.
things across a layer of cells
Tight Functions like rivets and fasten Frogs respire through the skin as 1. cytoskeleton 2. MTOC Nuclear pores are the passages through
(b) (ii) Reason (R):
junctions cells together into strong sheets well. 3. Contractile elements 4. vimentin which movement of RNA from nucleus
Statement
Pass information through to the cytoplasm and protein molecules
Gap In the light of the above statements choose the II:
(c) (iii) neurotransmitters from one cell from the cytoplasm to the nucleus takes
junctions correct answer from the options given below: 158. What is ‘X’ in the given diagram? place.
to another
Provide cytoplasmic channels Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
Synaptic 1. 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
(d) (iv) from one cell to an adjacent cell explanation of (A).
junctions 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
for communication
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
correct explanation of (A).
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
Choose the correct answer from the options given 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
below 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

(a) (b) (c) (d) 162. Organelle involved in the synthesis of oils,
phospholipids, and steroids in a eukaryotic cell will
1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 154. Which organ is primarily used by frogs for gas be:
2. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) exchange when they are active on land? 1. Lysosome
3. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 1. Skin 2. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 2. Lungs 3. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)
1. Collateral Gland 2. Phallic Gland
3. Buccal cavity 4. Golgi apparatus
4. Gills 3. Mushroom Gland 4. Corpora Allata

151. Which of the following functions is associated 163. Identify the accurate description regarding the
with the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)? 155. Select the correct route for the passage of development of P. americana:
sperms in male frogs: 159. Which cells produce and maintain cartilage
1. Synthesis of steroid hormones The development is holometabolous, with a
Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal matrix?
2. Detoxification of drugs and poisons 1. 1. complete metamorphosis including larval and
Vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca 1. Osteocytes
3. Synthesis of proteins destined for secretion pupal stages.
2. Chondrocytes
4. Storage of calcium ions Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → The nymphs of P. americana do not resemble the
2. 3. Adipocytes 2.
Ureter → Cloaca adult form at all.
4. Fibroblasts
152. Which of the following is not membrane- Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's The nymphs of P. americana undergo about 13
3.
bound? canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca 3. moults to reach the adult form, with the
160.
1. Vacuoles Testes → Bidder's canal→ Kidney→ Vasa penultimate nymphal stage having wing pads.
2. Ribosomes 4. Statement It is a non-membrane bound organelle
efferentia → Urinogenital duct→ Cloaca which helps in cell division Both nymphs and adults have fully developed
3. Lysosome I: 4.
Statement It forms the basal body of cilia and wings.
4. Mesosomes
II: flagella.
156. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
eukaryotic cells: Above statements are true for:
1. Nucleus
1. Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycans
2. Centromere
80S type of ribosomes are present in the 3. Centriole
2.
cytoplasm 4. Golgi apparatus
3. Mitochondria contain circular DNA
4. Membrane bound organelles are present

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164. The figure shows the female reproductive 168. Which of the following statements regarding 174. The type of connective tissue shown below is 178. The structure of collagen, discovered by G. N.
system of a frog. Identify A, B, C and D: epithelium is not correct? seen in: Ramachandran, is described as:
Blood capillaries and alveoli are lined with simple 1. A left-handed alpha helix
1. 2. A beta pleated sheet
sqamous epithelium
2. Fallopian tubes are lined with ciliated epithelium 3. A double helix
4. A triple helix
Proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron is
3.
lined with compound cuboidal epithelium
179. Identify whether the given statements are true
Columnar brush bordered epithelium [with
4. [T] or false [F] regarding frog:
microvilli] is found in the lining of small intestine
I: Bile emulsifies fat.
Pancreatic juices digest carbohydrates and
II:
169. Eukaryotic cells differ from prokaryotic cells in proteins.
A B C D all the following features except: Digested food is absorbed by the numerous
1. Tendon 2. Ligament III: finger-like folds in the inner wall of intestine
1. Ova Ovary Ureter Urinary bladder 1. Extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm.
3. Skin 4. Bone called villi and microvilli.
2. Ovary Oviduct Ureter Urinary bladder 2. The presence of membrane bound organelles.
3. Ova Oviduct Urethra Urinary bladder 3. An organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope. The undigested solid waste moves into the
IV:
4. Ova Oviduct Ureter Cloaca 4. Genetic material organised into chromosomes. rectum and passes out through cloaca.
175. Chromatophores take part in?
170. A characteristic 9 + 2 arrangement of axonemal 1. Photosynthesis
I II III IV
microtubules is seen in: 2. Growth
165. The cells in connective tissue that are involved 3. Movement 1. T T F T
1. Cilia and flagella
in the immune response and secrete histamine and 4. Respiration 2. F T T F
2. Centriole
heparin are called: 3. T T T T
3. Filaments in axons of neurons
1. Macrophages 176. Which alphabet represents telocentric 4. T F F T
4. Actin myofilaments
2. Mast cells chromosomes in the given figure?
3. Fibroblasts
4. Adipocytes 171. What type of epithelium lines the inner surface
of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian 180. Consider the given two statements:
tubes? All prokaryotes have a cell wall
166. All bacterial cells are:
1. Ciliated Statement I: surrounding the cell membrane
1. motile.
2. Brush-bordered except in mycoplasma.
2. enclosed by peptidoglycan cell wall. 3. Pseudostratified No organelles, like the ones in
3. prokaryotic. 4. Stratified Statement II: eukaryotes, are found in prokaryotic
4. capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen. cells except for ribosomes.
172. What organelle in a eukaryotic cell is the major 1. A
site for synthesis of lipid? 2. B
3. C 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
167. Eyes in a frog: 1. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
2. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum 4. D 2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
I: are situated in the orbit in skull.
3. Golgi Apparatus 3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
are compound eyes possessing a large number of
II: 4. Mitochondria 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
units. 177. In cockroach, ommatidia are related to:
1. Only I is correct 173. In the nervous system of cockroaches, how 1. Excretion and osmoregulation
2. Only II is correct many ganglia are present in the thorax? 2. Male reproductive structure
3. Both I and II are correct 1. Two 3. Delivery of oxygen to tissues
4. Both I and II are incorrect 2. Three 4. Vision
3. Six
4. Eight

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