13-04-2025

2001CMD303021250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) When 1014 electrons are removed from a neutral metal sphere, the charge on the sphere becomes
:-

(1) 16 μC
(2) – 16 μC
(3) 32 μC
(4) – 32 μC

2) Two objects are rubbed against each other, the nature of electric force, when they are placed at
some distance is :-

(1) Attractive
(2) Repulsive
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Either (1) or (2)

3) A charge q is placed at the mid-point of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of three
charges will be in equilibrium when q has the value :-

(1) Q/4
(2) Q/2
(3) –Q/4
(4) –Q/2

4) A charge Q1 exerts some force on a second charge Q2. If 3rd charge Q3 is brought near Q1, the
force of Q1 exerted on Q2 :-

(1) will increase

(2) will decrease
(3) will remain unchanged
(4) will increase if Q3 is of the same sign as Q1 and will decrease if Q3 is opposite sign

5) Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of sides 'a'. The force
experienced by the charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is -
(1)

(2)

(3) zero

(4)

6)

A ring of radius r carries a charge Q uniformly distributed over its length. A charge q is placed at its
centre will experience a force equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3) zero
(4) none of these

7) If two bodies attract each other by electric force then :-

(1) Both may be oppositely charged

(2) One may neutral
(3) Both may be like charged
(4) All statements are true

8) Two point charge +8q and -2q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a point
on the x-axis at which the net electric field due to these two point charges is zero is:

(1) 8 L
(2) 4 L
(3) 2 L
(4) L/4

9) Two identical metallic spheres are given equal but opposite charges of +q coulomb and –q
coulomb respectively. After charging :-

(1) Both the spheres still have identical masses.

(2) The positively charged sphere has a smaller mass than the negatively charged sphere.
(3) The negatively charged sphere has a smaller mass than the positively charged sphere.
(4) The variation in their masses do depends on the magnitude of q.

10) In relativistic mechanics m = the equivalent relation in electricity for electric charge
is:-

(1) q = q0

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Number of electrons in one coulomb of charge will be :-

(1) 5.46 × 1029

(2) 6.25 × 1018
(3) 1.6 × 10+19
(4) 9 × 1011

12) Three point charges lie at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown. All three charges have
the same magnitude, but charge A and B are positive and charge C is negative. The net electric force

that charges B and C exert on A.

(1) is in the +x–direction

(2) is in the –x–direction
(3) is in the +y–direction
(4) is in the –y–direction

13) If a glass rod is rubbed with silk it acquires a positive charge because :-

(1) protons are added to it

(2) protons are removed from it
(3) electrons are added to it
(4) electrons are removed from it

14) A few electric field lines for a system of two charges Q1 and Q2 fixed at two different points on
the x-axis are shown in the figure. These lines suggest that :-

(1) |Q1| > |Q2|

(2) |Q2| > |Q1|
(3) at a finite distance to the right of Q2 electric field is zero
(4) (1) and (3) both

15)

Which one of the following pattern of electric line of force can't possible :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two point charges –4Q and 9Q are placed at a distance 2m from each other. The position at
which net electric field is zero from the charge –4Q is :-

(1) 3 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 2 m
(4) 1 m

17)

Two charges equal in magnitude and opposite in polarity are placed at a certain distance apart and
force acting between them is F. If 75 % charge of one is transferred to another, then the force
between the charges becomes

(1)

(2)
(3) F

(4)

18)

Two point charges +3µC and +8µC repel each other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of -5µC is a
added to each of them, then the force between them will become

(1) -10 N
(2) + 10 N
(3) + 20 N
(4) - 20 N

19) Two pith balls each with mass m are suspended from insulating threads. When the pith balls are
given equal positive charge Q, they hang in equilibrium as shown. We now increase the charge on
the left pith ball from Q to 2Q while leaving its mass essentiallty unchanged. Which of the following

diagrams best represents the new equilibrium configuration?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The linear charge density on upper half of a segment of ring is λ and at lower half, it is –λ. The
direction of electrical field at centre O of ring is :-

(1) along OA
(2) along OB
(3) along OC
(4) along OD

21) A water particle of mass 10.0 mg and having a charge of 1.50 × 10–6 C stays suspended in a
room. What is the magnitude and direction of electric field in the room ?

(1) 200/3 N/C, upward

(2) 200/3 N/C, downward
(3) 100/3 N/C, upward
(4) 100/3 N/C, downward

22) Three positive charges of equal value q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle . The
resulting lines of force should be sketched as in

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) Force on the charge q placed at the centre in given figure will be :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A particle of charge +q and mass m is moving on a circular path of radius r. An infinite long
negative charge wire is passing through its centre and perpendicular to plane of circle. Linear
charge density of wire is a constant (–λ). Speed of particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Charges q, 2q, 4q, 8q, ..... are placed along x-axis at r, 2r, 4r, 8r, ..... from origin respectively.
The net electric field at origin is

(1) Infinite

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) What equal charges would have to be placed on earth & moon to neutralize their gravitational
force (mearth = 1025kg, mmoon = 1023 kg)
(1) 8.57 × 1016 C
(2) 8.57 × 1013 C
(3) 2.3 × 1011 C
(4) 1.2 × 1019 C

27) Two small spherical balls each carrying a charge Q = 10μC (10 micro-coulomb) are suspended
by two insulating threads of equal lengths 1m each, from a point fixed in the ceiling. It is found that
in equilibrium threads are separated by an angle 60º between them, as show in the figure. What is

the tension in the threads (Given : = 9 × 109 Nm/C2)

(1) 18 N
(2) 1.8 N
(3) 0.18 N
(4) None of the above

28) A regular hexagon of side length a is shown with charges. Calculate force on the charge Q kept
at the centre O :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A charge q is to be divided in two parts. What should be the value of charge on these parts so
that when place at a certain distance apart, the repulsive force between them is maximum.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The correct representation of lines of force between the point charge and the metallic plate is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Two charge particles q1 and q2 placed at certain distance. What amount of charge transfer
between them so that force becomes maximum.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) In a regular polygon of n sides, each corner is at a distance r from the centre. Identical charges

of magnitude Q are placed (n–1) corners. The field at the centre is :-

(1)

(n – 1)k
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Three charges q, q & –Q are located at (0, a), (0, –a) & (2a, 0). If –Q is released then it will :-
(1) execute S.H.M
(2) execute oscillation
(3) be stationary at origin
(4) be displaced towards infinite

34) Three identical particles of charge (q) & mass (m) are kept at corners of equilateral triangle of

side a. If the given system is in equilibrium inpresence of electric and gravitation force the ratio

is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) An infinite number of charges, each of charge 1 µC, are placed on the x-axis with co-ordinates x
= 1, 2, 4, 8, ......... ∞. If a charge of 1 C is kept at the origin, then what is the net force acting on 1 C
charge :-

(1) 9000 N
(2) 12000 N
(3) 24000 N
(4) 36000 N

37) Six charges are placed at the vertices of a regular hexagon as shown in the figure. The electric
field on the point O :-

(1)

(2)

(3) O

(4)

38) A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices electric field at the centre of the cube is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

39) The given figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a charged body. If the electric
fields at A and B are EA and EB respectively and if the displacement between A and B is r, then:-

(1) EA > EB
(2) EA < EB
EA =
(3)

EA =
(4)

40) A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the centre O of the
ring due to the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The electric field at the centre due to the
charge on the part ACDB of the ring is :
(1) E along KO
(2) 3E along OK
(3) 3E along KO
(4) E along OK

41) Consider the following suspended charged ball system. If α > β then at equilibrium which of the

following may be true-

(1) Q1 > Q2 & m1 = m2

(2) Q1 = Q2 & m1 = m2
(3) Q1 > Q2 & m1 < m2
(4) Q1 = Q2 & m1 > m2

42) Determine which force vector in the list below best describes the net Coulomb force on the

negative charge. (Charges are equal in magnitude)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43) Find out the electric field at point ‘O’ due to the distribution of charge shown in the figure (

where ‘λ’ is linear charge density)

(1) zero

(2)
upwards

(3)
horizontal

(4)
downwards

44) The electric field strength due to a ring of radius R at a distance x from its centre on the axis of
ring carrying charge Q is given by

E=
At what distance from the centre will the electric field be maximum -

(1) x = R
(2) x = R/2
x = R/
(3)

(4) x = R

45) In figure, A and B are two identical blocks made of a conducting material. These are placed on a
horizontal frictionless table and connected by a light conducting spring of force constant 'k'.
Unstretched length of the spring is L0. A total charge Q is now given to the system. Consequently,
the spring stretches to an equilibrium length L. Value of Q is:
(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 4πε0k(L–L0)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following statement is correct if the intermolecular force in liquids A, B and C are in
the order A < B < C?

(1) B evaporates more readily than A

(2) B evaporates less readily than C
(3) A evaporates more readily than C
(4) A and B evaporate at the same rate

2) The number of gram equivalents present in 80 g NaOH will be :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3)

Which of the following solution shows positive deviation from Raoult's law :-

(1) CHCl3 + Acetone

(2) Acetone + C2H5OH
(3) Phenol + Aniline
(4) H2O + HNO3

4)

Mole fraction of the benzene in the vapour phase, is in equilibrium with a solution of benzene (P° =
200 Torr) and toluene (P° = 150 Torr) having 5 moles of each, is –

(1) 0·57
(2) 0·25
(3) 0·60
(4) 0·40

5) The vapour pressure of a aqueous solution of glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373 K. The mole fraction
of solute is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Vapour pressure of pure A- = 100 mmHg

Vapour pressure of pure B- = 150 mmHg
A solution containing 2 moles A and 3 moles B will have total vapour pressure, approximately :-

(1) 130 mm Hg
(2) 135 mm Hg
(3) 140 mm Hg
(4) 145 mm Hg

7)

Raoult’s law is obeyed by each constituent of a binary liquid solution when :

the forces of attractions between like molecules are greater than those between unlike
(1)
molecules.
the forces of attractions between like molecules are smaller than those between unlike
(2)
molecules.
the forces of attractions between like molecules are identical with those between unlike
(3)
molecules.
(4) the volume occupied by unlike molecules are different.

8) 2 moles each of liquids A and B are dissolved to form an ideal solution. What will be the mole
0 0
fraction of B in the vapour phase :- pA = 120 torr; pB = 80 torr.

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 2/5
(4) 3/5

9) The vapour pressure of a solvent A is 0.80 atm. When a non-volatile substance B is added to this
solvent its vapour pressure drops to 0.6 atm. What is mole fraction of B in solution?

(1) 0.90
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.25

10) A solution contains 3 moles of water, 2 moles of ethyl alcohol and 1 mole of methyl alcohol. What
is the mole fraction of water :-

(1) 0.33
(2) 0.16
(3) 0.50
(4) 1.0

11) Mole fraction of component A in vapour phase is X1 and that of component A in liquid mixture is
X2; then (p°A = vapour pressure of pure A; p°B = vapour pressure of pure B), the total vapour
pressure of liquid mixture is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Solutions which distill without any change in composition in liquid and vapour phase :-

(1) Saturated
(2) Supersaturated
(3) Ideal
(4) Azeotrope

13) 3g urea is dissolved in 45g of water, The relative lowering of vapour pressure is :-

(1) 0.05
(2) 0.04
(3) 0.0196
(4) 0.1

14) Vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon

(1) Temperature
(2) Surface area
(3) Number of moles
(4) None

15) If two substances A and B have PA° : PB° = 1 : 2 and have mole fraction in solution in the ratio 1 :
2 then mole fraction of A in vapour phase :-
(1) 0.33
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.20
(4) 0.52

16) At 27° C vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 70 torr. This liquid makes ideal solution with liquid
B. The mole fraction of B in solution is 0.2 and the total vapour pressure of the solution at 27°C has
been found to be 84 torr What is the vapour pressure of pure liquid B at 27°C :-

(1) 14 torr
(2) 140 torr
(3) 56 torr
(4) 70 torr

17) The vapour pressure of 10% mole glucose solution is: ( = 100 mm of Hg)

(1) 10
(2) 100
(3) 90
(4) 95

18) 5 mL of acetone is mixed with 100 mL of H2O. The vapour pressure of water above the solution
at constant temperature is :-

(1) Equal to the vapour pressure of pure water

(2) Equal to the vapour pressure of the solution
(3) Less than the vapour pressure of pure water
(4) More than the vapour pressure of pure water

19) Which of the following is correct for an non-ideal solution ?

(1) ΔHmix = 0
(2) ΔVmix = 0
(3)
(4) ΔSmix > 0

20) The vapour pressure curves of the same non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute in the same solvent
are shown. The curves are parallel to each other and do not intersect. The concentrations of

solutions are in order of :

(1) I < II < III

(2) I = II = III
(3) I > II > III
(4) I > III > II

21) Which statement about the composition of vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene
and toluene is correct ? Assume the temperature is constant at 25°C.
Vapour pressure data (at 25°C) :
Benzene 75 mm Hg
Toluene 22 mm Hg

(1) The vapour will contain higher percentage of benzene

(2) The vapour will contain higher percentage of toluene
(3) The vapour will contain equal amount of benzene and toluene
(4) Not enough information is given to make a prediction

22) Two liquids A and B form ideal solution at 300 K. The vapour pressure of a solution containing
one mole of A and four mole of B is 560 mm of Hg. At the same temperature if one mole of B is taken
out from the solution, the vapour pressure of solution decreases by 10 mm of Hg. Vapour pressures
of A and B in pure state will be-

(1) 330, 550

(2) 200, 300
(3) 400, 600
(4) 800, 1200

23) Liquids A and B form an ideal solution. If XA and YA are the mole fractions of A in the solution and
0 0
in vapour phase in equilibrium, then (Given PA > PB )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘A’ & ‘B’ are 300 and 800 torr respectively at 25°C. When these
two liquids are mixed at this temperature to form a solution in which mole percentage of ‘B’ is 90,
then the total vapour pressure is observed to be 720 torr. Which of the following is true for this
solution?

(1) ΔVmix > 0

(2) ΔHmix < 0
(3) ΔVmix = 0
(4) ΔSmix < 0

25) If the total vapour pressure of the liquid mixture A and B is given by the equation:
P = (180XA + 90) mm Hg
then the ratio of the vapour pressure of the pure state for liquids A and B is given by:

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

26) For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total pressure of the solution is given as:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) Pure benzene freezes at 5.45 °C at a certain place but a 0.374 m solution of tetrachloroethane in
benzene freezes at 3.55 °C, The Kf for benzene is-

(1) 5.08 K kg mol–1

(2) 508 K Kg mol–1
(3) 0.508 K Kg mol–1
(4) 50.8 °C kg mol–1

28) Elevation of boiling point was found to be 0.52°C when 8g of a compound was dissolved in 200g
of water. The molecular mass of 'x' will be [Given : Kb(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1)]

(1) 40
(2) 50
(3) 60
(4) 80

29) Which of the following plots correctly represents the variation of vapour pressure with mole
fraction of solvent and solute present in a solution containing non-volatile and non electrolyte ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The azeotropic mixture of water and ethonal boils at 78.15°C. When this mixture is distilled, it is
possible to obtain:

(1) Pure H2O

(2) Pure C2H2OH
(3) Pure H2O as well as pure C2H5OH
(4) Neither H2O nor C2H5OH in their pure state

31) In a mixture of A and B, components show negative deviation when:

(1) A - B interaction is stronger than A - A and B - B interaction

(2) A - B interaction is weaker than A - A and B - B interaction
(3)
(4)

32) Calculat the molarity of the solution containing 5g of NaOH in 450 mL solution.

(1) 2.78 mol/dm3

(2) 27.8 mol/dm3
(3) 0.278 mol/dm3
(4) 278 mol/dm3

33) The vapour pressure of solution found to be 0.845 bar when a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solid
substance having molar mass 170 g/mol is added to 39 g of pure benzene (MM = 78 g/mol).
Calculate the weight of solid substance added. vapour pressure of pure benzene = 0.850 bar.

(1) 0.5g
(2) 0.7g
(3) 1.0g
(4) 0.1g

34) During depression of freezing point in a solution, the following are in equilibrium :

(1) Liquid solvent – solid solvent

(2) Liquid solvent – solid solute
(3) Liquid solute – solid solute
(4) Liquid solute – solid solvent

35) The amount of glucose required to prepare 250 mL of aqueous solution is :

(Molar mass of glucose : 180 g mol–1)

(1) 2.25 g
(2) 4.5 g
(3) 0.44 g
(4) 1.125g

36) Rectified spirit contains 95% ethanol by weight. The mole fraction of ethanol be :-

(1) 0.881
(2) 0.99
(3) 0.118
(4) 0.81

37) If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be :

(1) Halved
(2) Tripled
(3) Unchanged
(4) Dobuled

38) A solution containing 7g of a solute (molecular mass 210 g/mol) in 350 g of acetone raised the
boiling point acetone from 56°C to 56.3°C. The value of ebullioscopic constant of acetone in K kg
mol–1 is :

(1) 2.66
(2) 3.15
(3) 4.12
(4) 2.86

39) V1 c.c. of solution having molarity M1 is diluted have molarity M2. The volume of water required
to be added will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The volume of water which must be added to a mixture of 350 ml of 6M HCl and 650 ml of 3M
HCl to get a resulting solution of 3M concentration is :-

(1) 75 ml.
(2) 150 ml.
(3) 100 ml.
(4) 350 ml.

41) The density of 1.4 molal solution of acetic acid (CH3COOH) is 1.084 g/mL. The molarity of
solution will be :-

(1) 1.3 M
(2) 1.4 M
(3) 1.5 M
(4) 1.6 M

42) Which of the following represents correctly the changes in thermodynamic properties during the
formation of 1 mol of an ideal binary solution :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

43) A non-ideal solution was prepared by mixing 30 mL chloroform and 50mL acetone. The volume
of mixture will be :-

(1) > 80 mL
(2) < 80 mL
(3) = 80 mL
(4) ≥ 80 mL

44) 34 g of H2O2 is present in 1120 mL of solution. This solution is called :-

(1) 10 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 30 V
(4) 40 V

45) 20 gm solute is present in 200 ml solvent. The density of solvent is 0.9 gm/ml. What is the weight
fraction and weight percent of the solute :-

(1) 0.1 and 10

(2) 0.2 and 20
(3) 0.3 and 10
(4) 0.2 and 30

BIOLOGY

1) With respect to the figure given above which of the following is in a proper match

A B C D

(1) Ovary Anther Filament Sepal

(2) Stigma Filament Pollen Sepal

 (3) Ovary Stigma Anther Petal

(4) Ovary Tepal Sporangia Calyx

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) How many of the following are incorrect

(A) Flowers are morphological and embryological marvels and the sites of sexual reproduction.
(B) Much before the actual flower is seen on a plant, the decision that the plant is going to flower
has taken place.
(C) Flowers have always been used as symbols for conveying important human feelings.
(D) Human beings have had a intimate relationship with flowers since time immemorial.
(E) Several hormonal and structural changes are initiated which lead to the differentiation and
further development of floral primordium.
(F) Flowers are objects of aesthetic, ornamental, social, religious and cultural values.

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

3) Which of the following is not a part of the inner most whorl of the flower ?

(1) Stamen
(2) Style
(3) Ovary
(4) Stigma

4) How many types of cell divisions are required for formation of mature male gametophyte from a
microspore mother cell?

(1) Only meiosis

(2) Only mitosis
(3) Two types of divisions, meiosis and mitosis.
(4) It is variable.

5) Ubisch bodies are associated with the development of :-

(1) Embryo sac

(2) Embryo
(3) Pollen grains
(4) Endosperm

6)
Identify the structure A, B, C and D in given figure and select right option :-

A B C D

1 Pollen grains Pollen chamber Line of mid Filament

2 Pollen sac Pollen grains Line of dehiscence Stalk

3 Pollen grains Pollen sacs Line of dehiscence Stalk

4 Pollen grains Megaspo-rangia Line of dehiscence Filament

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.

(2) In some cereals like rice and wheat pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release
In some members of rosaceae, leguminosae and solanaceae, pollen grains maintain viability for
(3)
months
(4) All of the above

8) What would be the ploidy of cells of tetrad?

(1) n
(2) 2n
(3) 3n
(4) 4n

9) From outer to inner, what is the sequence of wall layers in anther lobes?

(1) Epidermis, middle layers, tapetum, endothecium

(2) Epidermis, endothecium, tapetum, middle layers
(3) Epidermis, endothecium, middle layers, tapetum
(4) Tapetum, middle layers, endothecium, epidermis

10) In a flowering plant, how many division/s is/are required for the formation of mature male
gametophyte from mature pollen grain (having two cells) –

(1) 1 meiotic division is required

(2) 1 meiotic and 1 mitotic divisions are required
(3) 1 mitotic division is required
(4) 1 meiotic and 2 mitotic divisions are required

11) How many meiosis are required for the formation of 80 male gametes in a typical flowering
plant?

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 80
(4) 64

12) In angiosperms, the male sex organs are called –

(1) Pistil
(2) Filament
(3) Stamen
(4) Carpel

13) Which wall layer of Microsporangium possess dense cytoplasm and generally has more than one
nucleus?

(1) Middle layer

(2) Tapetum
(3) Epidermis
(4) Endothecium

14) The outer layer of wall of pollen grain

(1) Is made up of sporopollenin which is not resistant to enzymes action

(2) Exhibits a fascinating array of patterns and design which is of taxonomic significance
(3) Has germ pore, where sporopollenin is present
(4) Is made up of pectin and hemicellulose

15) In the transverse section, anther appears :-

(1) Circular
(2) Tetragonal
(3) Triangular
(4) Rectangular

16) How many pollen sacs are present in a mature anther

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 2

17) Meiosis takes place in

(1) Sporogenous tissue

(2) Nucellus
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Gamete mother cell

18) Select the incorrect statement -

(1) The size of pollen grain is measuring about 25μm – 50 μm

Sporopollenin is the hardest inorganic material, which is not degraded by any enzyme, acid and
(2)
alkali
(3) Generative cell is spindle shaped and floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell
(4) The vegetative cell and generative cells are dissimilar in size due to asymmetrical spindle.

19) The chronic respiratory diseases like asthma, bronchitis may be caused due to pollen grains of -

(1) Sea grass

(2) Doob grass
(3) Carrot grass
(4) Ribbon grass

20) Assertion : Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and
race horses.
Reason : Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

21) Statement-I : Pollen grains of Rosaceae and Solanaceae maintain viability for months.
Statement-II : In some cereals such as rice and wheat seed lose viability within 30 minutes of their
release from plants.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

22) Which of the following statement about sporopollenin is incorrect?

(1) Exine is made up of sporopollenin.

(2) Sporopollenin is one of the resistant organic materials
(3) Exine has apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is present
(4) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures and strong acids

23) Read the following statements:

(1) The process of formation of male gamete in the angiosperms is called micro-sporogenesis.
(2) Each cell of sporogeneous tissue is capable of giving rise to microsporetetrad.
(3) Microspore tetrads possess tetraploid nucleus.
(4) Inside each microsporangium several thousands of microspores are formed.
(5) Each cell of sporogeneous tissue is a potential microspore mother cell or pollen mother cell
How many statements are correct?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1 only
(4) All

24) Pollen grains are generally ______ measuring about ______ micrometre in diameter.

(1) Elongted, 25-50

(2) Spherical, 250-1000
(3) Elongted, 250-1000
(4) Spherical, 25-50

25) A typical angiosperm anther is ______ where each lobe contain ______ microsporongia.

(1) Dithecous, two

(2) Bilobed, four
(3) Monothecous, two
(4) Single lobed, four

26) Assertion : Tapetal cells are usually haploid

Reason : Tapetal cells lack cytoplasm

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is the NOT correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

27) A diploid plant body produce __(a)___ gamete, & a haploid plant body produce __(b)___ gamete.

(1) (a) Haploid, (b) Diploid

(2) (a) Diploid, (b) Haploid
(3) (a) Haploid, (b) Haploid
(4) (a) Diploid, (b) Diploid

28) The number of chromosome in shoot tip cells of a maize plant is 20. The number of chromosome
in microspore mother cell of same plant is ____.
(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 5
(4) 40

29) How many male gamete can be produced by 4 pollen mother cell?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 64

30) Fossilization of pollen grains is possible due to the presence of

(1) Cellulose
(2) Lignin
(3) Sporopollenin
(4) Chitin

31) Pollen grains of different species show characteristic difference in :-

(1) Shape, size and colour only

(2) Shape, size colour and ploidy only
(3) Shape, size, colour and design only
(4) Ploidy and viability only

32) Development of male gametophyte is :-

(1) In-vivo
(2) In-situ
(3) Both
(4) In-vitro

33) In grass what happens in microspore mother cell for the formation of mature pollen grain:-

(1) One meiotic and four mitotic divisions

(2) One meiotic and one mitotic division
(3) One meiotic division only
(4) One mitotic division only

34) Which part of the reproductive structure produces both enzyme & hormone :-

(1) Archesporium
(2) Middle layer
(3) Tapetum
(4) Endothecium
35) Assertion :- Endothecium becomes hygroscopic in nature due to presence of fibrous thickening.
Reason :- The dehiscence of anther takes place only from tapetum.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

36) Assertion : Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.

Reason : The intine of pollen grain is composed of cellulose and pectin.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & reason is the correct explain of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & reason is not correct explain of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

37) Assertion: Exine of pollen grain is discontinuous layer.

Reason: Exine is absent at germ pores.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
(1)
the assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of
(2)
the assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

38) Given below is the diagrammatic view of one microsporangium showing wall layers. Identify the

parts labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right option about them :- Options :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) The figure below shows different stages of a pollen grain development.

Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents ?

(1) D-Represents immature pollen grain

(2) A-Represents mature pollen grain
(3) D-Represents mature pollen grain
(4) B-Represents mature pollen grain

40) The following is the diagram of T.S. of anther. Identify the parts labelled A, B and C.

(1) A - Connective tissue, B - Pollen grains, C - Endothecium

(2) A - Endothecium, B -Connective tissue, C -Pollen grains
(3) A - Pollen grains, B - Connective tissue, C - Endothecium
(4) A - Endothecium, B - Pollen grains, C -Connective tissue

41) Identify A and B in given diagram :

(1) Intine and exine

(2) Exine and intine
(3) Epidermis and endodermis
(4) Epicarp and endocarp

42) Observe the given micrographs of a few pollen grains :

Above micrographs of pollen grains are related to :

(1) Transmission electron microscopy

(2) Scanning electron microscopy
(3) Light microscopy
(4) Compound microscopy

43) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

a – epidermis, b – endothecium, c – middle layers. d – tapetum, e – sporogenous tissue, f –

(1)
connective
b – epidermis, c – endothecium, d – middle layers. e – tapetum, f – sporogenous tissue, a –
(2)
connective
b – epidermis, c – endothecium, f – middle layers, e – tapetum, a – sporogenous tissue, d –
(3)
connective
b – epidermis, c – endothecium, f – middle layers. e – tapetum, d – sporogenous tissue, a –
(4)
connective

44) There are 10 flowers in one individual plant of Crotalaria. Each flower has 10 stamens. In each
microsporangium of every stamen of all the flowers, there are 30 microspore mother cells. How
many pollen grains are formed from that plant?

(1) 4,000
(2) 10,000
(3) 24,000
(4) 48,000

45) Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

(1) –196°C
(2) –80°C
(3) –120°C
(4) –160°C

46) Read the given statements and choose correct option about them :-
(A) Each lobule of testis contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules and it is lined inside
by only columnar cells
(B) The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into vas deferens
(C) Functional maturation of sperms take place in epididymis.
(D) Seminal plasma is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Here path of sperms in mammals is shown :-

A, B & C respectively are -

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Which structures form the extratesticular pathways for sperms?

(1) Seminiferous tubules, Epididymis, Vas deferens

(2) Seminiferous tubules, Vasa efferentia, Epididymis
(3) Epididymis, Vas deferens, Ejaculatory duct
(4) Rete testis, Epididymis, Vas deferens

49) Sperms are stored inside

(1) Cowper's gland

(2) Epididymis
(3) Seminiferous tubules
(4) Vasa efferentia

50) During copulation (coitus) semen released by the penis in to _____________.

(1) Vagina
(2) Cervix
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) Mons pubis

51) Sustentacular or nurse cells are found in

(1) Testis of mammal

(2) Ovary of mammal
(3) Testis of ascaris
(4) Pancreas of frog

52) In mammals, maturation of sperm take place at a temperature

(1) equal to that of body

(2) higher than that of body
(3) lower than that of body
(4) At any temperature

53) Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes ?

(1) Salivary glands

(2) Female accessory glands
(3) Male accessory glands
(4) Liver

54) Seminiferous tubules occur in the

(1) liver
(2) kidney
(3) ovary
(4) testis

55) Function of seminiferous tubules is :

(1) Storage of semen

(2) Provide motility to sperms
(3) Formation of sperms
(4) Release of hormones

56) Storage of sperms takes place in :-

(1) Epididymis
(2) Cowper's gland
(3) Seminal vesicle
(4) Both (1) and (2)

57) Which cells provide nutrition to male germ cells (sperm) ?

(1) Macrophage
(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Leydig cells
(4) Sertoli cells

58) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the
incorrect ones only.
(a) Each testicular lobule contains 750 highly coiled seminiferous tubules, in which sperms are
produced.
(b) Sertoli cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation.
(c) The regions outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces, contain small blood
vessels, Leydig cells, and some immunologically competent cells.
(d) The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes, necessary for
spermatogenesis.
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d).
(2) Statements (a), (b).
(3) Statements (a), (b) and (c).
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d).

59) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system, In which identify ejaculatory

duct :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

60)

Which of the following contributes in the formation of seminal plasma ?

(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Seminal vesicles
(c) Spermatogonia
(d) Leydig cells
(e) Bulbourethral gland
(f) Prostate gland

(1) b, c, e, f
(2) a, b, c, f
(3) b, c, d, e, f
(4) only b, e, f

61) The region outside the seminiferous tubule which contain small blood vessels, interstitial cells
and immunologically competent cells is present called:-

(1) Perivitelline space

(2) Peritesticular space
(3) Interstitial space
(4) Inguinal space

62) The removal of both the testis before puberty results in the subject becomes

(1) Sterile (Absence of spermatogenesis)

(2) Lack of development of 2° sex characters
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Not any effect

63) Two types of cells present in the lining of seminiferous tubules are _______ and _______.

(1) leydig cells, sertoli cells

(2) male germ cells, sertoli cells
(3) spermatogonium, spermatids
(4) primary oocyte, leydig cells

64) True about Penis is :

(1) The male primary sex organ.

(2) The male external genitalia
(3) Facilitate insemination
(4) Both (2) and (3)

65) Sperm are temporarily stored and matured in :-

(1) Prostate
(2) Epididymis
(3) Seminal vesicle
(4) Rete testis

66) Find out A, B, C, D and E respectively :-

A B C D E

Leydig Sertoli
(1) Testis AMH ABP
cells cells

Sertoli
(2) ICSH Testis AMH ABP
cells

Interstitial Sertoli
(3) LH FSH AMH
cells cells
 Leydig Sertoli
(4) ICSH FSH ABP
cells cells

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) How many of the following structures are found in abdomen of adult male.
Vasa-efferentia, rete testis, epididymis, prostate, seminal vesicle, ampulla of vas deferens.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

68)

Vasa efferentia connect the

(1) testes with epididymis

(2) kidneys with cloaca
(3) testes with urinogenital duct
(4) None of the above

69)

Which is unpaired gland in male reproductive system of human?

(1) Bartholin gland

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Prostate gland
(4) Cowper's gland

70) All of the following structures are included in male sex accessory ducts except

(1) Seminiferous tubules

(2) Vasa efferentia
(3) Rete testis
(4) Epididymis

71) Statement-I: Male germ cells undergo mitotic division finally leading to sperm formation.
Statement-I: Sertoli cells provide nutrition to Leydig cells.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

72) Statement -I: Spermatogenesis results in the formation of sperm.

Statement -II: The process of formation of mature female gamete is oogenesis.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

73) Testes of humans are located in

(1) Inside abdominal cavity

(2) Within a tunnel like structure
(3) Within Scrotum
(4) More than one option is correct

74) Ejaculatory duct is formed by the fusion of

(1) duct of seminal vesicle and epididymis

(2) epididymis and vas deferens
(3) duct of seminal vesicle and vas deferens
(4) prostate duct and urethra

75) pH of semen is _____

(1) Slightly acidic

(2) Slightly alkaline
(3) Neutral
(4) More acidic

76) Choose the correct match :-

(1) Seminal plasma - secretion of only seminal vesicles

(2) Foreskin - Loose fold of skin which cover the complete ovary
(3) Interstitial cells - Secrete testicular hormone androgen
(4) Each testis - 700 testicular lobules

77) Penis helps in :-

(1) Semination
(2) Insemination
(3) Gametogenesis
(4) Spermiation
78) In which of the following embryonic stages does the implantation take place ?

(1) Blastocyst
(2) Morula
(3) Gastrula
(4) Zygote

79) Testicular hormones are :-

(1) Androgen
(2) Estrogen
(3) Both
(4) None

80) Which of the following is hypothalamic hormone due to which spermatogenesis begins at
puberty is :-

(1) Testosterone
(2) ABP
(3) FSH
(4) GnRH

81) Seminal vesicles are located in

(1) Caput epidydimis

(2) Uterus
(3) Above Cowper's glands
(4) Glans penis.

82) Urethral meatus refers to the

(1) Urinogenital duct

(2) Opening of vas deferens into urethra
(3) External opening of the urinogenital duct
(4) Muscles surrounding the urino genial duct

83) The vasa efferentia leave the testes and open into :

(1) Epididymis located along the posterior surface of each testis

(2) Epididymis located along the anterior surface of each testis
(3) Rete testis
(4) Testicular lobules

84) If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the
gametes will not be transported from
(1) Vagina to uterus
(2) Testes to epididymis
(3) Epididymis to vas deferens
(4) Ovary to uterus

85) The seminiferous tubules open into _____through _____.

(1) Vasa efferentia ; epididymis

(2) Testicular tubules; epididymis
(3) Vasa efferentia ; rete testes
(4) Rete testes; vasa efferentia

86) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The seminal plasma along with the sperms constitute the semen.
Statement II: Oogenesis is initiated after birth and continues throughout the life of a female.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.'

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.'
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.'
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.'

87) Statement-I: The Leydig cells are present outside the seminiferous tubules.
Statement-II: Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

88) Statement-I: Presence of testis in the abdominal cavity throughout the life may cause sterility
in man.
Statement-II: Lower temperature of abdominal cavity causes destruction of spermatogonial cell.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

89) Which gland releases a small amount of fluid just prior to ejaculation to decrease acidity in the
urethra caused by urine?

(1) Prostate
(2) Glans penis
(3) Seminal vesicle
(4) Bulbourethral gland
90) Which of the following statements is true regarding the differences in reproductive events
between males and females in humans?

(1) Sperm formation ceases in men around the age of fifty years.
(2) Formation of ovum continues in women even in old age.
(3) Sperm formation continues in men even in old age.
(4) Both men and women cease gamete formation around the age of fifty years.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 1 2 4 4 4 3 2 1 1 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 1 1 3 2 2 3 2 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 4 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 2 1 4 1 3 3 4 3 1 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 2 2 4 1 1 1 2 4 1 3 1 1 1 1 3 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 1 3 3 2 4 1 3 3 2 3 2 2 2 4 1 2 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 2 4 1 4 3 1 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 4 4 1 2 2 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 1 4 2 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 2 4 2 4 3 1 3 1 4 3 3 3 2 3 2 1 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 1 2 3 1 3 1 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3)

4) Will remain unchanged

6)

At the center of uniformly charged Ring E = 0

9)

For charging any object negatively we need to add electron which intorn increases the mass.

10)

Charge is invariant, not depend upon velocity.

12)

The component of forces will be in -y direction only So, answer is (4).

16) on solving we get x = 4m

19) tanθ =
Fe = Electrostatic force.

26) fe = fg
 By solving q = 8.57 × 1013 C

27)

In the following figure, in equilibrium

Fe = T sin 30º, r = 1 m

⇒ ⇒ ⇒T=
1.8 N

28)

= 2F + 2F = 4F =

31)

Let q1 + q2 = Q for maximum force between charges, if amount x is transferred then

for fmax →

and q1 = , =
⇒
⇒ q1 – x = q2 + x

x=

35) Problem Explanation

We need to express the number of missing electrons n in terms of F, given Coulomb's force law
and the electrostatic constant K.

Concept
Coulomb's Law:

F=
Charge on an ion:
q = ne
Coulomb's constant:

K=
Formula

Substituting q = ne and K = into Coulomb's law:

F=
Solving for n :

n2 =

n=
Final Answer
The number of missing electrons per ion is:

n=

36)

F = k(1μC) (1C)

= 9 × 109 × 10–6

= 9 × 103 × = 12 × 103 N

37) This is basically a problem of finding the electric field due to three dipoles. The dipole
moment of each dipole is,

p = Q (2a) Electric field due to each dipole will be,

Enet = E + 2E cos 60°

= 2E

=2×

45)

Assuming that charge carried by the spring is negligible, the charge Q will be distributed
equally on the two blocks. In equilibrium,

∴
CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation:-
Stronger intermolecular forces mean molecules are held together more tightly.
This makes it harder for them to escape into the gas phase (evaporate).
Weaker intermolecular forces mean easier evaporation.
Concept :-
Given A < B < C (intermolecular forces), A has the weakest forces, and C has the strongest.
Therefore, A will evaporate most readily, and C will evaporate least readily.
Answer option 3, (A evaporates more readily than C).

47) Given Data : WNaOH = 80 g

Concept : Number of g. equivalents =

Mm of NaOH = 40

Calculation : Number of g. equivalents =

Final Answer : 2

49)

A – Benzene , B – Toluene

= 200 × 0.5 + 150 × 0.5

= 175 torr

50) SO XB

51)
40 + 90 = 130

52) Raoult's law is followed by ideal solution.

53) Given Data :- In Ideal solution moles of A (nA) = 2

In Ideal solution moles of B (nB) = 2
Vapour pressure of pure A = 120 torr
Vapour pressure of pure B = 80 torr
Concept :-Raoult's law and Dalton's law of partial pressures.
Calculation :-
mole fraction of A ⇒

mole fraction of B ⇒
Partial pressure of A ⇒ PA = = 0.5 × 120 = 60 torr
Partial pressure of B ⇒ PB = = 0.5 × 80 = 40 torr
Total vapour pressure ⇒ PT = PA + PB = 60 + 40 = 100 torr
(∵ YB = mole fraction of B in vapour)

Final answer :-
Correct option- (3)

60)

61)

Ps = P°A XA + P°BXB
84 = 70 × 0.8 + P°B × 0.2
P°B = 140 torr

64)

For non-ideal solution ΔSmix > 0

65)

Concept:

V.P. ∝ ; Tb ∝ Ci

In given graph solution-1 is less concentrated and solution-III is more concentrated because
V.P. of solution-I is less decreases as compared to solution-III. So order to concentrated
solution is I < II < III.
Final Answer : (1) I < II < III

66) A : Benzene B : Toluene

p = pA + pB
0 0
p = pA xA + pB xB

=
 = 37.5 + 11 = 48.5

Mole fraction of benzene in vapour,

Similarly, mole fraction of toluene in vapour, yB = 0.22
∴ The vapour will contain higher percentage of benzene.

67) = 560 .....(1)

= 550 .....(2)

(1) – (2) ×

= 120 ⇒ = 600
From eq (1) = 400

69)

PS < PA + PB (on calculating)

Hence PA + PB = 760 torr = 1 atm

∴ it shows negative deviation

70) xA = 1 [pure A]
= 180 + 90
= 270 mm
xB = 1, xA = 0 [pure B]
= 180 × 0 + 90
= 90 mm
=3:1

0 0
71) PTotal = XAPA + XBPB
0 0
= (1 – XB)PA + XBPB
0 0 0
= PA + XB(PB – PA )

80) Amount of glucose required = ?

nglucose = M × V( ) = mol

= 2.25 g
84)

85)

86)

87)

ΔHmix = 0
ΔGmix < 0
ΔSmix > 0

88)

+ve deviation from identity

ΔVmix = +ve

89)
 V.S =

90)

Weight fraction =

weight % =
0.9×200 = wsolvent
180g = wsolvent
wsolvent = 180 + 20 = 200g

BIOLOGY

91)

XII NCERT Pg # 20

92)

NCERT Page # 19, 20

96) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 21

Fig. No. - 2.2

105) NCERT Pg # 21

110) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 24

111) NCERT Pg. # 24

125)

NCERT XII Page # 5

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 07

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 22 fig. 2.3

129) NCERT XI Page No. 23 (E), Page No. 24(H)

132) NCERT-XII Pg # 23, fig. 2.4

145)

NCERT XII Pg. # 43 Fig. 3.1 (b)

148) NCERT XII - Page - 43

149)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 27

155)

Application type - Allen module.

156)

NCERT Pg. 47

164) This statement is incorrect for FSH and LH- Target cells of both hormones is same

165) Allen module.

176) Statement I: Correct. The seminal plasma along with the sperms indeed constitute the
semen.
Statement II: Incorrect. Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic development stage, and
no more oogonia are formed and added after birth. The process is markedly different from
spermatogenesis and does not continue throughout the life of a female.

179)

NCERT Pg. # 28

180) In human reproductive events, there are differences between males and females. One of
the key differences is that sperm formation continues in men even into old age, whereas in
women, the formation of ovum ceases around the age of fifty years.