0% found this document useful (0 votes)
48 views34 pages

Solution (232425)

The document contains a series of physics and chemistry problems, including topics such as magnetic fields, gravitational forces, electrochemistry, and chemical reactions. Each section presents multiple-choice questions and calculations related to the principles of physics and chemistry. The problems involve theoretical concepts, experimental setups, and mathematical derivations relevant to the respective fields.

Uploaded by

aruagrawal01
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
48 views34 pages

Solution (232425)

The document contains a series of physics and chemistry problems, including topics such as magnetic fields, gravitational forces, electrochemistry, and chemical reactions. Each section presents multiple-choice questions and calculations related to the principles of physics and chemistry. The problems involve theoretical concepts, experimental setups, and mathematical derivations relevant to the respective fields.

Uploaded by

aruagrawal01
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 34

13-04-2025

1001CJA101021240056 JA

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I (i)

1) A region in the form of an equilateral triangle (in x-y plane) of height L has a uniform magnetic
field pointing in the +z-direction. A conducting loop PQR, in the form of an equilateral triangle of
the same height L, is placed in the x-y plane with its vertex P at x = 0 in the orientation shown in the
figure. At t = 0, the loop starts entering the region of the magnetic field with a uniform velocity
along the +x-direction. The plane of the loop and its orientation remain unchanged throughout its

motion. Which of the following graph best depicts the variation


of the induced emf (E) in the loop as a function of the distance (x) starting from x = 0 ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
2) A particle of mass m is under the influence of the gravitational field of a body of mass M (>> m).
The particle is moving in a circular orbit of radius r0 with time period T0 around the mass M. Then,
the particle is subjected to an additional central force, corresponding to the potential energy Vc(r) =
mα/r3, where α is a positive constant of suitable dimensions and r is the distance from the center of
the orbit. If the particle moves in the same circular orbit of radius r0 in the combined gravitational

potential due to M and Vc (r), but with a new time period T1, then is given by :- [G is the
gravitational constant]

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3) A metal target with atomic number Z = 91 is bombarded with a high energy electron beam. The
emission of X-rays from the target is analyzed. The ratio r of the wavelengths of the Kα-line and the
cut-off is found to be r = 8. If the same electron beam bombards another metal target with Z = 41,
the value of r will be

(A) 12.64
(B) 40.5
(C) 0.63
(D) 1.58

4) A thin stiff insulated metal wire is bent into a circular loop with its two ends extending
tangentially from the same point of the loop. The wire loop has mass m and radius r and it is in a
uniform vertical magnetic field B0, as shown in the figure. Initially, it hangs vertically downwards,
because of acceleration due to gravity g, on two conducting supports at P and Q. When a current I is
passed through the loop, the loop turns about the line PQ by maximum angle ฀ given by :-

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

SECTION-I (ii)

1) A small electric dipole , having a moment of inertia I about its center, is kept at a distance r
from the center of a spherical shell of radius R. The surface charge density σ is uniformly distributed
on the spherical shell. The dipole is initially oriented at a small angle θ as shown in the figure. While
staying at a distance r, the dipole is free to rotate about its center. If released from rest, then which
of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? [ε0 is the permittivity of free space.]

(A) The dipole will undergo small oscillations at any finite value of r.
(B) The dipole will undergo small oscillations at any finite value of r > R.

(C)
The dipole will undergo small oscillations with an angular frequency of at r = 2R.

(D)
The dipole will undergo small oscillations with an angular frequency of at r = 10R.

2) A table tennis ball has radius (3/2) × 10−2 m and mass (22/7) × 10−3 kg. It is slowly pushed down
into a swimming pool to a depth of d = 0.7 m below the water surface and then released from rest. It
emerges from the water surface at speed v, without getting wet, and rises up to a height H. Which of
the following option(s) is(are) correct? [Given: π = 22/7, g = 10 ms−2, density of water = 1 × 103 kg
m−3, viscosity of water = 1 × 10−3 Pa-s.]

(A) The work done in pushing the ball to the depth d is 0.077 J.
(B) If we neglect the viscous force in water, then the speed v = 7 m/s.
(C) If we neglect the viscous force in water, then the height H = 1.4 m.
The ratio of the magnitudes of the net force excluding the viscous force to the maximum viscous
(D)
force in water is 250.

3) A positive, singly ionized atom of mass number AM is accelerated from rest by the voltage 192 V.
Thereafter, it enters a rectangular region of width w with magnetic field Tesla, as shown
in the figure. The ion finally hits a detector at the distance x below its starting trajectory. Which of
the following option(s) is(are) correct? [Given: Mass of neutron/proton = (5/3) × 10−27 kg, charge of
the electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C.]

(A) The value of x for H+ ion is 4 cm.


(B) The value of x for an ion with AM = 144 is 48 cm.
(C) For detecting ions with 1 ≤ AM ≤ 196, the minimum height (x1 – x0) of the detector is 52 cm.
The minimum width w of the region of the magnetic field for detecting ions with AM = 196 is 28
(D)
cm.

SECTION-II (i)

Common Content for Question No. 1 to 2


In a Young’s double slit experiment, each of the two slits A and B, as shown in the figure, are
oscillating about their fixed center and with a mean separation of 0.8 mm. The distance between the
slits at time t is given by d = (0.8 + 0.04 sin ωt) mm, where ω = 0.08 rad s−1. The distance of the
screen from the slits is 1 m and the wavelength of the light used to illuminate the slits is 5000 Å. The
interference pattern on the screen changes with time, while the central bright fringe (zeroth fringe)

remains fixed at point O.

1) The 8th bright fringe above the point O oscillates with time between two extreme positions. The
separation between these two extreme positions, in micrometer (μm), is ______.

2) The maximum speed in μ m/s at which the 8th bright fringe will move is __________.

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4


Two particles, 1 and 2, each of mass m, are connected by a massless spring, and are on a horizontal
frictionless plane, as shown in the figure. Initially, the two particles, with their center of mass at x0,
are oscillating with amplitude a and angular frequency ω. Thus, their positions at time t are given
by x1(t) = (x0 + d) + a sin ωt and x2(t) = (x0 – d) − a sin ωt, respectively, where d > 2a. Particle 3 of
mass m moves towards this system with speed u0 = aω/2, and undergoes instantaneous elastic
collision with particle 2, at time t0. Finally, particles 1 and 2 acquire a center of mass speed vcm and
oscillate with amplitude b and the same angular frequency ω.
3) If the collision occurs at time t0 = π/2ω, the value of vcm/(aω) will be __________.

4) If the collision occurs at time t0 = 0, then the value of 4b2/a2 will be ________.

SECTION-II (ii)

1) The dimensions of a cone are measured using a scale with a least count of 1 mm. The diameter of
the base and the height are both measured to be 10.0 cm. The maximum percentage error in the
determination of the volume is ______.

2) A ball is thrown from the location (x0, y0) = (0,0) of a horizontal playground with an initial speed v
at an angle θ0 from the +x-direction. The ball is to be hit by a stone, which is thrown at the same
time from the location (x1, y1) = (L, 0). The stone is thrown at an angle (180 – θ1) from the +x-
direction with a suitable initial speed. For a fixed v0, when (θ0, θ1) = (45°, 45°), the stone hits the ball
after time T1, and when (θ0, θ1) = (60°, 30°), it hits the ball after time T2. In such a case, (T1/T2)4 is
______.

3) A charge is kept at the central point P of a cylindrical region. The two edges subtend a half-angle
θ at P, as shown in the figure. When θ = 60º, then the electric flux through the curved surface of the
cylinder is Φ. If θ = 30º, then the electric flux through the curved surface becomes , where the

value of n is ______.

4) Two equilateral-triangular prisms P1 and P2 are kept with their sides parallel to each other and
very close in vacuum, as shown in the figure. A light ray enters prism P1 at an angle of incidence θ
such that the outgoing ray undergoes maximum deviation in prism P2. If the respective refractive

indices of P1 and P2 are and 2, then , where the value of β (in degree) is ______.
5) An infinitely long thin wire, having a uniform charge density per unit length of 5 nC/m, is passing
through a spherical shell of radius 1 m, as shown in the figure. A 2 nC charge is distributed
uniformly over the spherical shell. If the configuration of the charges remains static, the magnitude

of the potential difference between points P and R, in Volt, is ______. [Given: In SI units =9×

109, ln 2 = 0.7. Ignore the area pierced by the wire.]

6) A spherical soap bubble inside an air chamber at pressure P0 = 105 Pa has a certain radius so that
the excess pressure inside the bubble is ΔP = 36 Pa. Now, the chamber pressure is reduced to
8P0/27 so that the bubble radius and its excess pressure change. In this process, all the
temperatures remain unchanged. Assume air to be an ideal gas and the excess pressure ΔP in both
the cases to be much smaller than the chamber pressure. The new excess pressure ΔP in Pa is
______.

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I (i)

1) According to Bohr's model, the lowest kinetic energy is associated with the electron in the :

(A) first orbit of H atom


(B) first orbit of He+
(C) third orbit of He+
(D) second orbit of Li2+

2) In a metal deficient oxide sample, MxY2O4 (M and Y are metals), M is present in both +2 and +3

oxidation states and Y is in +3 oxidation state. If the fraction of M2+ ions present in M is , the
value of X is _______.
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.89
(C) 0.67
(D) 0.75

3) In the following reaction sequences, the major product R is: D-Glucose P

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4) At room temperature, disproportionation of an aqueous solution of in situ generated nitrous acid


(HNO2) gives the species

(A) H3O+, and N2O


(B) H3O+, and NO2
+ –
(C) H3O , NO and NO2
(D) H3O+, and NO

SECTION-I (ii)

1) An aqueous solution of hydrazine (N2H4) is electrochemically oxidized by O2, thereby releasing


chemical energy in the form of electrical energy. One of the products generated from the
electrochemical reaction is N2(g).
Choose the correct statement(s) about the above process :

OH– ions react with N2H4 at the anode to form N2(g) and water, releasing 4 electrons to the
(A)
anode.
At the cathode, N2H4 breaks to N2(g) and nascent hydrogen released at the electrode reacts with
(B)
oxygen to form water.
(C) At the cathode, molecular oxygen gets converted to OH–.
(D) Oxides of nitrogen are major by-products of the electrochemical process.

2) The option(s) with correct sequence of reagents for the conversion of P to Q is(are) :

+
(A) i) NaBH4 ; ii) SnCl2/HCl ; iii) H3O ; iv) Lindlar's catalyst, H2
+
(B) i) Lindlar's catalyst, H2 ; ii) H3O ; iii) SnCl2/HCl ; iv) NaBH4
+
(C) i) Lindlar's catalyst, H2 ; ii) SnCl2/HCl ; iii) NaBH4 ; iv) H3O
+
(D) i) Lindlar's catalyst, H2 ; ii) NaBH4 ; iii) SnCl2/HCl ; iv) H3O

3) Among the following options, select the option(s) in which each complex in Set-I shows
geometrical isomerism and the two complexes in Set-II are ionization isomers of each other.

en = H2NCH2CH2NH2 ;

Set-I : [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] and [PdCl2(PPh3)2]


(A)
Set-II : [Co(en)2(NH3)NO3] SO4 and [Co(en)2(NH3)SO4] NO3
Set-I : [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2] and [PdCl2(PPh3)2]
(B)
Set-II : [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6]
Set-I : [Pt(py)2(NH3)2Cl2]Br2 and [Co(en)Br2(NH3)2]
(C)
Set-II : [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Cl
Set-I : [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl and [Co(pn)3]Cl3
(D)
Set-II : [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Br2 and [Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2

SECTION-II (i)

Common Content for Question No. 1 to 2


An organic compound P with molecular formula C9H18O2 decolorizes bromine water and also shows
positive iodoform test. P on ozonolysis followed by treatment with H2O2 gives Q and R. While
compound Q shows positive iodoform test, compound R does not give positive iodoform test. Q and
R on oxidation with pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC) followed by heating give S and T, respectively.
Both S and T show positive iodoform test.
Complete copolymerization of 510 moles of Q and 510 moles of R gives one mole of a single acyclic
copolymer U.
[Given, atomic mass : H = 1, C =12, O = 16]

1) Sum of number of sp3 carbon atoms in S and T is ________.

2) The value of is _________


where U is molecular weight of copolymer.

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4


When potassium iodide is added to an aqueous solution of potassium ferricyanide, a reversible
reaction is observed in which a complex P is formed. In a strong acidic medium, the equilibrium
shifts completely towards P. Addition of ferric chloride to P in a slightly acidic medium results in
insoluble complex Q.

3) If 3 moles of potassium iodide are taken then X moles of P and Y moles of iodine is formed. Find
the value of (X+4Y).

4) The number of iron present in the molecular formula of Q is ________.

SECTION-II (ii)

1) To form a complete monolayer of acetic acid on 1g of charcoal, 100 mL of 0.6 M acetic acid was
used. Some of the acetic acid ramained unadsorbed. To neutralize the unadsorbed acetic acid, 40 mL
of 1 M NaOH solution was required. If each molecule of acetic acid occupies P × 10–23 m2 surface
area on charcoal, the value of P is ______.
[Use given data : Surface area of charcoal = 1.5 × 102 m2g–1; Avogadro's number (NA) = 6.0 × 1023
mol–1]

2) Vessel-1 contains w2 g of a non-volatile solute X dissolved in w1 g of water. Vessel-2 contains w2 g


of another non-volatile solute Y dissolved in w1 g of water. Both the vessels are at the same
temperature and pressure. The molar mass of X is 60% of that of Y. The van't Hoff factor for X is
20% more than that of Y for their respective concentrations.
The elevation of boiling point for solution in Vessel-1 is ______% of the solution in Vessel-2.

3) For a double strand DNA, one strand is given below:


The amount of energy required to split the double strand DNA into two single strands is _______kcal
mol–1.
[Given : Average energy per H-bond for A-T base pair = 1.0 kcal mol–1, G-C base pair = 1.5 kcal
mol–1, and A-U base pair = 1.25 kcal mol–1. Ignore electrostatic repulsion between the phosphate
groups.]

4) A sample initially contains only U-238 isotope of uranium. With time, some of the U-238
radioactively decays into Pb-206 while the rest of it remains undisintegrated.
When the age of the sample is P × 108 years, the ratio of moles of Pb-206 to that of U-238 in the
sample is found to be 15. The value of P is _______.
[Given : Half-life of U-238 is 4.5 × 109 years]

5) Among [Co(CN)4]4–, [Co(CO)3(NO)], XeF4, [PCl4]+, SF4 , [ICl4]–, [Cu(CN)4]3– , [Ni(CO)4] , [CdCl4]2– ,
C2H4 and P4 the total number of species with tetrahedral geometry is ______.

6) An organic compound P having molecular formula C6H6O3 gives ferric chloride test and does not
have intramolecular hydrogen bond. The compound P reacts with 3 equivalents of NH2OH to
produce oxime Q. Treatment of P with excess methyl iodide in the presence of KOH produces
compound R as the major product. Reaction of R with excess methylmagnesium bromide followed by
treatment with H3O+ gives compound S as the major product.
The total number of methyl (–CH3) group(s) in compound S is ________.

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I (i)

1) Considering only the principal values of the inverse trigonometric functions, the value of

is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 0

2) Let S = . If the area of the


region S is , then α is equal to

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3) Let k ∈ . If , then the value of k is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

4) Let f : be a function defined by f(x) = . Then which of the following


statements is TRUE ?

(A)
f(x) = 0 has finitely many solutions in the interval

(B)
f(x) = 0 has no solutions in the interval

(C)
The set of solutions of f(x) = 0 in the interval is finite

(D)
f(x) = 0 has no solutions in the interval

SECTION-I (ii)

1) Let S be the set of all (α, β) ∈ such that . Then which


of the following is (are) correct ?

(A) (–1, 3) ∈ S
(B) (–1, 1) ∈ S
(C) (1, –1) ∈ S
(D) (1, –2) ∈ S

2) A straight line drawn from the point P(1, 3, 2), parallel to the line , intersects
the plane L1 : x – y + 3z = 6 at the point Q. Another straight line which passes through Q and is
perpendicular to the plane L1 intersects the plane L2 : 2x – y + z = –4 at the point R. Then which of
the following statements is (are) TRUE ?

(A) The length of the line segment PQ is


The perimeter of the triangle PQR is
(B)

(C)
The centroid of the triangle PQR is
(D) The coordinates of R are (1, 6, 3)

3) Let A1, B1, C1 be three points in the xy-plane. Suppose that the lines A1C1 and B1C1 are tangents to
the curve y2 = 8x at A1 and B1, respectively. If O = (0, 0) and C1 = (–8, 0), then which of the following
statements is (are) TRUE ?
(A) The length of the line segment OA1 is
(B) The length of the line segment A1B1 is 16
(C) The orthocentre of the triangle A1B1C1 is (0, 0)
(D) The orthocentre of the triangle A1B1C1 is (–8, 0)

SECTION-II (i)

Common Content for Question No. 1 to 2


Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and X be the set of all relations R from S to S that satisfy both the following
properties :
i. R has exactly 6 elements.
ii. For each (a, b) ∈ R, we have |a – b| ≥ 2.
Let Y = {R ∈ X : The range of R has exactly one element} and
Z = {R ∈ X : R is a function from S to S}
Let n(A) denote the number of elements in a set A.

1) If n(X) = mCp, then the maximum value of m + p is

2) If the value of n(Z) – n(Y) is k2, then is

Common Content for Question No. 3 to 4

Let f : be the function defined by f(x) = cos2x and let g : be the

function defined by g(x) = .

3) The value of , then α + 2 is

4) The value of is

SECTION-II (ii)

1) Let f : be a function such that f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) for all x, y ∈ and g : → (0, ∞) be a

function such that g(x + y) = g(x) g(y) for all x, y ∈ . If f = 12 and g = 2, then the value

of is

2) A bag contains N balls out of which 3 balls are white, 6 balls are green and the remaining balls
are blue. Assume that the balls are identical otherwise. Three balls are drawn randomly one after
the other without replacement. For i = 1, 2, 3, let Wi, Gi and Bi denote the events that the ball drawn
in the ith draw is a white ball, green ball and blue ball, respectively. If the probability

and the conditional probability , then N equals

3) Let the function f : be defined by

.
Then the number of solutions of f(x) = 0 in is

4) Let and . If for some real numbers α, β and γ, we have


, then the value of 19γ is

5) A normal with slope is drawn from the point (0, –α) to the parabola x2 = –4ay, where a > 0. Let
L be the line passing through (0, –α) and parallel to the directrix of the parabola. Suppose that L
intersects the parabola at two points A and B. Let r denote the length of the latus rectum and s
denote the square of the length of the line segment AB. If r : s = 1 : 32, then the value of 24a is

6) Let the function f : [1, ∞) → be defined by

f(t) =

Define g(x) = , x ∈ (1, ∞). Let α denote the number of solutions of the equation g(x) = 0 in

the interval (1, 10] and . Then the value of α + β is equal to


ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I (i)

Q. 1 2 3 4
A. C D B C

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 5 6 7
A. B,C A,B A,B,C,D

SECTION-II (i)

Q. 8 9 10 11
A. 501.25 20.00 0.25 0.25

SECTION-II (ii)

Q. 12 13 14 15 16 17
A. 3 4 3 23 135 24

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I (i)

Q. 18 19 20 21
A. C B B D

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 22 23 24
A. A,C A,D A,C,D

SECTION-II (i)

Q. 25 26 27 28
A. 5.00 5271.00 9.00 7.00

SECTION-II (ii)

Q. 29 30 31 32 33 34
A. 1250 200 48 180 7 9

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I (i)

Q. 35 36 37 38
A. D C B A

SECTION-I (ii)

Q. 39 40 41
A. A,B,C,D A,B,C A,B

SECTION-II (i)

Q. 42 43 44 45
A. 34.00 6.00 2.00 1.00

SECTION-II (ii)

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51
A. 50 10 1 26 24 6
SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : PHYSICS

1) 0 to L

L to 2L

at x =
emf = 0

2)
3)

4) Let loop makes angle θ with vertical.

5) The electric field inside sphere is zero. So dipole will oscillate when r > R.

For r > R; E =

ω=
when r = 2R

when r = 10 R

6)

(A) wall = kf – ki = 0
wg + wB + wv + wext = 0
mgd –
(slowly v = 0)

wext = ρwvgd – mgd = (1000 × ) gd


wext = =
wext = 77 × 10–3 J = 0.077J
(B) wg + wB = kf – ki (ki = 0)

v = 7 m/s

(C) H =

7) x = 2R

⇒x=2 ⇒x= ⇒x=


Option A

For H+ → m =

∴x= = 4 cm
Option B
For Am = 144

x= = 48 cm
Option C
for Am = 1
x = 4 cm & for Am = 196
x = 56 cm.
so x0 = 4 cm & x1 = 56 cm
∴ x1 – x0 = 52 cm.
Option D
Minimum width = R
for AM = 196
wmin = R = = 28 cm

8)
for 8th fringe

y=

ymax =

ymin =

ymax – ymin =
λ = 5000Å
D = 1m
dmax = 0.34 mm
dmin = 0.76 mm

ymax – ymin = 8 × 5000 × 10–10 × 1

= 8 × 5 × 10–4 ×

9) y =

d = 0.8 + 0.04 sin ωt

for v → max ⇒

For
cos ωt = 1 ⇒ sin ωt = 0

⇒ d = 0.8 mm vmax =

10) At T t0 = 0
Before collision
11) Particles at mean

w.r.t. to cm

12)

V=
∴ % Error in V = 2(% error in D) + % error in H.
∵ Least count is 2mm.

∴ % error in D = = 1%

& % error in H = = 1%
So % error in V = 2 × 1% + 1% = 3%

13) For case I :


arel = 0

For collision
∴ v = v0

So T1 =

∴ T1 = .....(1)
For case II,

arel = 0

For collision,
∴v=

So, T2 =

T2 =

∴ T2 = ........(2)

so, ⇒

14)
Solid angle made by plane surfaces Ω = 2 × 2π(1 – cos θ)
⇒ Ω = 4π – 4πcos θ
So solid angle made by curved surface = 4π – Ω
= 4π – (4π – 4π cos θ) = 4π cos θ

ϕ30° = ϕ =
⇒n=3

15) 2 sin θ = 1 sin 90°


θ = 30°
1 sin θ = sin ϕ

16)
due to wire
dV =

= –2 × 9 × 109 × 5 × 10–9 × 2 × 0.7 = – 126V


due to sphere

vR – vP = =
= –9V
vR – vP = –126 – 9 = – 135V
vP – vR = 135 V

17)

Case–1
P – P = ΔP =
0

Case–2

Constant temperature process


PV = P1V1

→ (Neglected)

R= ⇒ R1 =

ΔP1 = =

PART-2 : CHEMISTRY

18)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19)
Charge balance

8= ×3+ ×2+6
x = 0.89

20)

21)

22) Anode : N2H4(aq) + 4OH–(aq) → N2(g) + 4H2O(l) + 4e–


Cathode : 2H2O(l) + O2(g) + 4e– → 4OH–(aq)

23) Path according to option (A)


Path according to option (D)
25)

S & T shows +ve idoform test.


Total sp3 carbon atoms
present in S, T are = 2 + 3 = 5
Ans. ⇒ 5
Both S and T show positive Iodoform
Total sp3 carbon atoms present in S, T are = 4 + 1 = 5

26)

S & T shows +ve idoform test.


R mf C5H10O3 (M. wt)R = 70 + 48 = 118
Q mf C4H8O3 (M. wt)Q = 56 + 48 = 104

510 mole Q + 510 mole R


U molecular weight = (510 × 118 + 510 × 104) – 1019 × 18
U= 113220 – 18342 = 94878

Value of =
Answer is ⇒ 5271
27)

29) Millimole of acid taken = 100 × 0.5 = 60


Millimole of NaOH used = 40 × 1 = 40
Millimole of acid adsorbed = 60 – 40 = 20
Molecules of acid adsorbed = 20 × 10–3 × 6 × 1023 = 12 × 1021

Surface area occupied per molecule = = 1250 × 10–23

30) Vessel – I :

(ΔTb)1 = i1 × Kb ×
Vessel – 2 :

(ΔTb)2 = i2 × Kb ×

× 100 = × 100 = 200%

31) A = T 2 H-bond
G≡C 3 H-bond
Number of A=T pair = 6
Number of G ≡ C pair = 8
Number of H-bond involve in A = T = 6 × 2 = 12
Number of H-bond involve in G ≡ C = 8 × 3 = 24
Energy required for A = T = 12 × 1 = 12
Energy required for G ≡ C = 24 × 1.5 = 36
Total energy required 12 + 36 = 48

0
6 –1β
238
32) 92U → Pb206
82 + 8 2He4 +
t = 0 N0 = 1 + 15 = 16 0
t=t Nt = 1 15
As per 1st order kinetics :

f = age = 4 × f1/2
= 4 × 4.5 × 109 yrs.
= 18 × 109 yrs.
= 180 × 108 yrs.
34)
No. of –CH3 group (methyl group) in S is → 9

PART-3 : MATHEMATICS

35)

36)
Area = =

37)

= (1∞ form)

⇒ k2 – 1 = 3 ⇒ k = 2

38)

n ∈ I+

(A)

→ finite solutions

(B)

→ 9 solutions

(C) → infinite solutions

(D)

→ (9.8, 96.1) approx


more than 25 solutions

39)

Now, if αβ + 3 > 0,
∴ limit = 0 if αβ + 3 > 0

40)
Line passing through 'P' is
C1 (λ + 1, 2λ + 3, λ + 2)
put C1 in L → (λ + 1) – (2λ + 3) + 3(λ + 2) = 6
⇒ λ = 1 ⇒ Q(2, 5, 3)

Also, line through Q is


C2 (k + 2, 5 – k, 3k + 3)
put in L2 → k = –1 ⇒ R(1, 6, 0)

41)

ty = x + at2 → (–8, 0) ⇒ 0 = –8 + 2t2 ⇒ t = ±2


P(at2, 2at) = P(2t2, 4t)
A1(8, 8), B1(8, –8), C1(–8, 0), O(0, 0)
(A) OA1 =
(B) A1B1 = 16
(D) orthocentre is (4, 0)

42)

Number of elements in S × S = 36
Number of possible ordered pairs which satisfy given condition = 36 – 16 = 20
n(X) = 20C6
m = 20

43)

Maximum number of pre-images of any elements is 4


therefore no six ordered pairs can have same images
n(Y) = 0
All functions have six ordered pairs
number of possible function form S to S
n(Z) = 4 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 4 = 42 × 34
n(Y) + n(Z) = 42 × 34 = k2
k = 36

44)

Let ...(1)

...(2)
2I1 – I2 = 0

45)

– (0 + 0) =

46)

f(0) = 0


f(2x) = 2f(x)
f(3x) = f(2x) + f(x) = 3f(x)
f(4x) = 4f(x)
f(5x) = 5f(x)
f(nx) = nf(x)

x= ,n=5 f(3) = 5f = –60


n = 1, x = 1 f(3) = 3f(1) = –60 ⇒ f(1) = –20

n = 4, x = f(1) = 4f ⇒ –20 = 4f ⇒
g(x + y) = g(x) g(y)
g(0) = g2(0) ⇒ g(0) = 1
g(nx) = gn(x)

n = 6, x = – g(–2) = g6 = (2)6 = 64
g(0)
(–5 + 64 – 9) × 1 = 50

47)

P(W1 ∩ G2 ∩ B3) =

⇒ N = 65, 10

Also


⇒ N = 10

48)

f(x) = 0 ⇒ x2025 + 2024x + 2025 = 0


As LHS is strictly increasing, number of solutions is '1'
(sinx + 4 ≠ 0 if x ∈ R)

49)

= (1 + 3) – (2 – 3) + (–2, –1) =
Given equation
=

50)

x2 = –4ay
2x = –4ay'

equation of normal

y + 6a = –2a
y = –2a – 6a = –8a
α = 8a
Equation of line L
y = –8a
x2 = –4ay
x2 = +32a2 ⇒

S = 128a2
r = 4a

⇒a=1

51)

Graph of f(t)

Number of solution of equation g(x) = 0 in (1, 10] is 4


α=4

Apply L'Hospital
α+β=4+2=6

You might also like