ORACLE

1Z0-062 Oracle Database 12c Installation and Administration

165 questions

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oracle.passit4sure.1z0-062.v2015-04-04.by.concetta.189q.vce

Questions found: 189

Duplicate questions: 24
Unique questions: 165

This document is a free study guide, it likely contains errors.

-ColgateKid
QUESTION 1
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPE VALUE
-------------------------- ------------------------------- ---------------------------
undo_management string AUTO
undo_retentioninteger 12 00
undo_tablespace string UNDOTBS1
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.

B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of
space in the undo tablespace.
C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo
before that time has elapsed.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
real answer.

QUESTION 2
A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to
ensure the following:
1. The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.
2. Data read per session must be limited for the user.
3- The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off automatically.
How would you accomplish this?

A. by granting a secure application role to the user

B. by implementing Database Resource Manager
C. by using Oracle Label Security options
D. by assigning a profile to the user

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Answer is correct.

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about a job chain?

A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.

B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/scheduse009.htm#ADMIN12459

QUESTION 4
The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management (ASSM).
It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.
Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?

A. Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B. Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D. Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user
to the new tablespace
E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero
value

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which three factors influence the optimizer's choice of an execution plan?

A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter

B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14211/optimops.htm

QUESTION 6
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is
displayed.
SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length,
Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits, cpu_wait_time
FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAMEACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS
CPU_WAIT_TIME
----------------------------------- -------------------- -------------------- --------------------- ----------------
OLTP__ORDER__ENTRY1029690 467
OTHES__GROUPS 0 059823664089
60425
SYS_GROUP 1 02420704 914
19540
DS.S_QUERIES4245946603004
55700
Which two statements are true?

A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the
session will be queued.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.

B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn
and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
well answered.

QUESTION 8
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.
NameNull?Type
-------------------------------------------- ------------------------------------- -----------------------------
PROD_IDNOT NULL NUMBER
CUST_IDNOT NULL NUMBER
TIME_IDNOT NULL DATE
CHANNEL_IDNOT NULL NUMBER
PROMO_IDNOT NULL NUMBER
QUANT I TY___S OL DNOT NULL NUMBER (10, 2) AMOUNT SOLDNOT NULL NUMBER (10,
2)
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark.
What should you ensure before the start of the operation?

A. Row movement is enabled.

B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which task would you recommend before using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a
single-instance Oracle 11g R2 database to Oracle Database 12c?

A. shutting down the database instance that is being upgraded

B. executing the catctl.pl script to run the upgrade processes in parallel
C. running the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool
D. copying the listener.ora file to the new ORACLE_HOME

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e23633/upgrade.htm#UPGRD12395

QUESTION 10
Your database is open and the listener LISTNENER is up. You issue the command:
LSNRCTL> RELOAD
What is the effect of reload on sessions that were originally established by listener?

A. Only sessions based on static listener registrations are disconnected.

B. Existing connections are not disconnected; however, they cannot perform any operations until the
listener completes the re-registration of the database instance and service handlers.
C. The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally.
D. All the sessions are terminated and active transactions are rolled back.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true regarding the startup of a database instance?

A. The instance does not start up normally and requires manual media recovery after a shutdown using the
abort option.
B. Uncommitted transactions are rolled back during the startup of the database instance after a shutdown
using the immediate option.
C. There is no difference in the underlying mechanics of the startup whether the database is shut down by
using the immediate option or the abort option.
D. Media recovery is required when the database is shut down by using either the immediate option or the
abort option.
E. Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN
IMMEDIATE.

Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A87860_01/doc/server.817/a76956/start.htm

QUESTION 12
Examine the memory-related parameters set in the SPFILE of an Oracle database:
memory_max_target--6G
memory_target=5G
pga_aggregate_target=500M
sga_max_size=0
sga_target=0
Which statement is true?

A. Only SGA components are sized automatically-

B. Memory is dynamically re-allocated between the SGA and PGA as needed.
C. The size of the PGA cannot grow automatically beyond 500 MB.
D. The value of the MEMORY_TARGET parameter cannot be changed dynamically.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Answer is correct.

QUESTION 13
Which two statements are true about extents?

A. Blocks belonging to an extent can be spread across multiple data files.

B. Data blocks in an extent are logically contiguous but can be non-contiguous on disk.
C. The blocks of a newly allocated extent, although free, may have been used before.
D. Data blocks in an extent are automatically reclaimed for use by other objects in a tablespaee when all
the rows in a table are deleted.

Correct Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference:
Answer is absolute.

QUESTION 14
You execute the commands:
SQL>CREATE USER sidney
IDENTIFIED BY out_standing1
DEFAULT TABLESPACE users
QUOTA 10M ON users
TEMPORARY TABLESPACE temp
ACCOUNT UNLOCK;
SQL> GRANT CREATE SESSION TO Sidney;
Which two statements are true?

A. The create user command fails if any role with the name Sidney exists in the database.
B. The user sidney can connect to the database instance but cannot perform sort operations because no
space quota is specified for the temp tablespace.
C. The user sidney is created but cannot connect to the database instance because no profile is default.
D. The user sidney can connect to the database instance but requires relevant privileges to create objects
in the users tablespace.
E. The user sidney is created and authenticated by the operating system.

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28286/statements_8003.htm

QUESTION 15
Examine the query and its output:
SQL> SELECT REASON, metric_value FROM dba_outstanding_alerts;
REASONMETRIC_VALUE
----------------------------------- -------------------
Tablespace [TEST] is [28 perce 28.125
nt] full
Metrics "Current Logons Count"29
Metrics "Database Time Spent99.0375405
waiting (%)" is at 99.03754 for
event class "Application"
db_recovery_file_dest_size of97
4294967296 bytes is 97.298 used
and has 116228096 remaining
bytes available.
After 30 minutes, you execute the same query:
SQL> SELECT reason, metric_value FROM dba_outstanding_alerets;
REASONMETRIC_VALUE
------------------------------ ---------------
Tablespace [TEST] is [28 percs 28.125
nt] full
What might have caused three of the alerts to disappear?

A. The threshold alerts were cleared and transferred to d0A_alert_history.

B. An Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot was taken before the execution of the second
C. An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADOM) report was generated before the execution of the
second query.
D. The database instance was restarted before the execution of the second query.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which two statements are true?

A. A role cannot be assigned external authentication.

B. A role can be granted to other roles.
C. A role can contain both system and object privileges.
D. The predefined resource role includes the unlimited_tablespace privilege.
E. All roles are owned by the sys user.
F. The predefined connect role is always automatically granted to all new users at the time of their
creation.

Correct Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/network.112/e36292/authorization.htm#DBSEG99878 (the
functionality of roles)
QUESTION 17
Identify three valid options for adding a pluggable database (PDB) to an existing multitenant container
database (CDB).

A. Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB using the files from the SEED.
B. Use the CREATE DATABASE . . . ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to provision a PDB by
copying file from the SEED.
C. Use the DBMS_PDB package to clone an existing PDB.
D. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 12c non-CDB database into an existing CDB.
E. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 11 g Release 2 (11.2.0.3.0) non-CDB database into an
existing CDB.

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation/Reference:
This statement enables you to perform the following tasks:
* (A) Create a PDB by using the seed as a template
Use the create_pdb_from_seed clause to create a PDB by using the seed in the multitenant container
database (CDB) as a template. The files associated with the seed are copied to a new location and the
copied files are then associated with the new PDB.
* (C) Create a PDB by cloning an existing PDB
Use the create_pdb_clone clause to create a PDB by copying an existing PDB (the source PDB) and then
plugging the copy into the CDB. The files associated with the source PDB are copied to a new location and
the copied files are associated with the new PDB. This operation is called cloning a PDB.
The source PDB can be plugged in or unplugged. If plugged in, then the source PDB can be in the same
CDB or in a remote CDB. If the source PDB is in a remote CDB, then a database link is used to connect to
the remote CDB and copy the files.
* Create a PDB by plugging an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB
Use the create_pdb_from_xml clause to plug an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB, using an XML
metadata file.

QUESTION 18
Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries:
Currently, the library cache contains the ideal workload for analysis. You want to analyze some of the
queries for an application that are cached in the library cache.
What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to
improve query performance?

A. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL
Tuning Advisor (STA) on the workload captured in the STS.
B. Run the Automatic Workload Repository Monitor (ADDM).
C. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance
Analyzer (SPA) on the workload captured in the STS.
D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on
the workload captured in the STS.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
recommendations, such as adding or dropping indexes and materialized views. SQL Tuning Advisor makes
other types of recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles and restructuring SQL statements.
* The query optimizer can also help you tune SQL statements. By using SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL
Access Advisor, you can invoke the query optimizer in advisory mode to examine a SQL statement or set of
statements and determine how to improve their efficiency. SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access Advisor
can make various recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles, restructuring SQL statements, creating
additional indexes or materialized views, and refreshing optimizer statistics.
Note:
* Decision support system (DSS) workload
* The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This
cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQL areas and control structures such as locks and library cache
handles.
Reference: Tuning SQL Statements

QUESTION 19
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table in the HR
schema by issuing the following command:
$> sqlldr hr/hr@pdb table=employees
Which two statements are true regarding the command?

A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the
database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* SQL*Loader is invoked when you specify the sqlldr command and, optionally, parameters that establish
session characteristics.

QUESTION 20
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as
follows:

After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with zero.
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?

A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.

B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.

Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
values for full Data Redaction polices. By default, 0 is the redacted value when Oracle Database performs
full redaction (DBMS_REDACT.FULL) on a column of the NUMBER data type. If you want to change it to
another value (for example, 7), then you can run the
DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure to modify this value. The modification
applies to all of the Data Redaction policies in the current database instance. After you modify a value, you
must restart the database for it to take effect.
Note:
* The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to
mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or an application.
* UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES Procedure
This procedure modifies the default displayed values for a Data Redaction policy for full redaction.
* After you create the Data Redaction policy, it is automatically enabled and ready to redact data.
* Oracle Data Redaction enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-
privileged users or applications. You can redact column data by using one of the following methods:
/ Full redaction.
/ Partial redaction.
/ Regular expressions.
/ Random redaction.
/ No redaction.
Reference: Oracle Database Advanced Security Guide 12c, About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction
Value

QUESTION 21
You must track all transactions that modify certain tables in the sales schema for at least three years.
Automatic undo management is enabled for the database with a retention of one day.
Which two must you do to track the transactions?

A. Enable supplemental logging for the database.

B. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C. Create a Flashback Data Archive in the tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking.

Correct Answer: DE
Explanation/Reference:
for a table if you have the FLASHBACK ARCHIVE object privilege on the Flashback Data Archive that you
want to use for that table.
D: Creating a Flashback Data Archive
/ Create a Flashback Data Archive with the CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE statement, specifying the
following:
Name of the Flashback Data Archive
Name of the first tablespace of the Flashback Data Archive
(Optional) Maximum amount of space that the Flashback Data Archive can use in the first tablespace
/ Create a Flashback Data Archive named fla2 that uses tablespace tbs2, whose data will be retained for
two years:
CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fla2 TABLESPACE tbs2 RETENTION 2 YEAR;

QUESTION 22
Your are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table containing
several DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data types, and the table's indexes, to another
tablespace.
The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.
Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the
application?

A. Oracle Data Pump.

B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
C. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the
indexes.
D. Online Table Redefinition.
E. Edition-Based Table Redefinition.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
significantly affecting the availability of the table. The mechanism is called online table redefinition.
Redefining tables online provides a substantial increase in availability compared to traditional methods of
redefining tables.
* To redefine a table online:
Choose the redefinition method: by key or by rowid
* By key--Select a primary key or pseudo-primary key to use for the redefinition. Pseudo-primary keys are
unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints. For this method, the versions of
the tables before and after redefinition should have the same primary key columns.
This is the preferred and default method of redefinition.
* By rowid--Use this method if no key is available. In this method, a hidden column named M_ROW$$ is
added to the post-redefined version of the table. It is recommended that this column be dropped or marked
as unused after the redefinition is complete. If COMPATIBLE is set to 10.2.0 or higher, the final phase of
redefinition automatically sets this column unused. You can then use the ALTER TABLE ... DROP
UNUSED COLUMNS statement to drop it.
You cannot use this method on index-organized tables.
Note:
* When you rebuild an index, you use an existing index as the data source. Creating an index in this
manner enables you to change storage characteristics or move to a new tablespace. Rebuilding an index
based on an existing data source removes intra-block fragmentation. Compared to dropping the index and
using the CREATE INDEX statement, re-creating an existing index offers better performance.
Incorrect:
Not E: Edition-based redefinition enables you to upgrade the database component of an application while it
is in use, thereby minimizing or eliminating down time.

QUESTION 23
To implement Automatic Management (AMM), you set the following parameters:
When you try to start the database instance with these parameter settings, you receive the following error
message:
SQL > startup
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings, see alert
log for more information.
Identify the reason the instance failed to start.

A. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter is set to zero.

B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.
C. Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
D. The SGA_MAX_SIZE and SGA_TARGET parameter values are not equal.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Example:
SQL> startup force
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings ORA-
00848: STATISTICS_LEVEL cannot be set to BASIC with SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET

QUESTION 24
What are two benefits of installing Grid Infrastructure software for a stand-alone server before installing and
creating an Oracle database?

A. Effectively implements role separation

B. Enables you to take advantage of Oracle Managed Files.
C. Automatically registers the database with Oracle Restart.
D. Helps you to easily upgrade the database from a prior release.
E. Enables the Installation of Grid Infrastructure files on block or raw devices.

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
for a standalone server before you install and create the database. Otherwise, you must manually register
the database with Oracle Restart.
Desupport of Block and Raw Devices
With the release of Oracle Database 11g release 2 (11.2) and Oracle RAC 11g release 2 (11.2), using
Database Configuration Assistant or the installer to store Oracle Clusterware or Oracle Database files
directly on block or raw devices is not supported. If you intend to upgrade an existing Oracle RAC database,
or an Oracle RAC database with Oracle ASM instances, then you can use an existing raw or block device
partition, and perform a rolling upgrade of your existing installation. Performing a new installation using
block or raw devices is not allowed.
Reference: Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a Standalone Server, Oracle Database, Installation Guide, 12c

QUESTION 25
Identify two correct statements about multitenant architectures.

A. Multitenant architecture can be deployed only in a Real Application Clusters (RAC) configuration.
B. Multiple pluggable databases (PDBs) share certain multitenant container database (CDB) resources.
C. Multiple CDBs share certain PDB resources.
D. Multiple non-RAC CDB instances can mount the same PDB as long as they are on the same server.
E. Patches are always applied at the CDB level.
F. A PDB can have a private undo tablespace.

Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
parallel servers. A new 12c CDB Resource Manager Plan will use so-called "Shares" (resource allocations)
to specify how CPU is distributed between PDBs. A CDB Resource Manager Plan also can use "utilization
limits" to limit the CPU usage for a PDB. With a default directive, you do not need to modify the resource
plan for each PDB plug and unplug.
E: New paradigms for rapid patching and upgrades.
The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching all of its
many pluggable databases. To patch a single pluggable database, you simply unplug/plug to a multitenant
container database at a different Oracle Database software version.
Incorrect:
Not A:
* The Oracle RAC documentation describes special considerations for a CDB in an Oracle RAC
environment.
* Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps customers
reduce IT costs by simplifying consolidation, provisioning, upgrades, and more. It is supported by a new
architecture that allows a container database to hold many pluggable databases. And it fully complements
other options, including Oracle Real Application Clusters and Oracle Active Data Guard. An existing
database can be simply adopted, with no change, as a pluggable database; and no changes are needed in
the other tiers of the application.
Not D: You can unplug a PDB from one CDB and plug it into a different CDB without altering your schemas
or applications. A PDB can be plugged into only one CDB at a time.
not F:
* UNDO tablespace can NOT be local and stays on the CDB level.
* Redo and undo go hand in hand, and so the CDB as a whole has a single undo tablespace per RAC
instance.

QUESTION 26
You upgrade your Oracle database in a multiprocessor environment. As a recommended you execute the
following script:
SQL > @utlrp.sql
Which two actions does the script perform?

A. Parallel compilation of only the stored PL/SQL code

B. Sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
C. Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
D. Sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
E. Parallel recompilation of Java code
F. Sequential recompilation of Java code

Correct Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference:
The utlrp.sql and utlprp.sql scripts are provided by Oracle to recompile all invalid objects in the database.
They are typically run after major database changes such as upgrades or patches. They are located in the
$ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin directory and provide a wrapper on the UTL_RECOMP package. The
utlrp.sql script simply calls the utlprp.sql script with a command line parameter of "0". The utlprp.sql accepts
a single integer parameter that indicates the level of parallelism as follows.
0 - The level of parallelism is derived based on the CPU_COUNT parameter. 1 - The recompilation is run
serially, one object at a time. N - The recompilation is run in parallel with "N" number of threads. Both
scripts must be run as the SYS user, or another user with SYSDBA, to work correctly.
Reference: Recompiling Invalid Schema Objects

QUESTION 27
Which two statements are true concerning dropping a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. The PDB must be open in read-only mode.

B. The PDB must be in mount state.
C. The PDB must be unplugged.
D. The PDB data files are always removed from disk.
E. A dropped PDB can never be plugged back into a multitenant container database (CDB).

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 28
You notice a high number of waits for the db file scattered read and db file sequential read events in the
recent Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report. After further investigation, you find that
queries are performing too many full table scans and indexes are not being used even though the filter
columns are indexed.
Identify three possible reasons for this.

A. Missing or stale histogram statistics

B. Undersized shared pool
C. High clustering factor for the indexes
D. High value for the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter
E. Oversized buffer cache

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation/Reference:
I/O during table scans. It specifies the maximum number of blocks read in one I/O operation during a
sequential scan. The total number of I/Os needed to perform a full table scan depends on such factors as
the size of the table, the multiblock read count, and whether parallel execution is being utilized for the
operation.

QUESTION 29
Which three features work together, to allow a SQL statement to have different cursors for the same
statement based on different selectivity ranges?

A. Bind Variable Peeking

B. SQL Plan Baselines
C. Adaptive Cursor Sharing
D. Bind variable used in a SQL statement
E. Literals in a SQL statement

Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation/Reference:
bind variable when the database performs a hard parse of a statement.
When a query uses literals, the optimizer can use the literal values to find the best plan. However, when a
query uses bind variables, the optimizer must select the best plan without the presence of literals in the
SQL text. This task can be extremely difficult. By peeking at bind values the optimizer can determine the
selectivity of a WHERE clause condition as if literals had been used, thereby improving the plan.
C: Oracle 11g/12g uses Adaptive Cursor Sharing to solve this problem by allowing the server to compare
the effectiveness of execution plans between executions with different bind variable values. If it notices
suboptimal plans, it allows certain bind variable values, or ranges of values, to use alternate execution
plans for the same statement. This functionality requires no additional configuration.

QUESTION 30
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change
caused this performance difference.
Which method or feature should you use?

A. Compare Period ADDM report

B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
awrddrpt.sql script is located in the $ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin directory.
Incorrect:
Not A: Compare Period ADDM
Use this report to perform a high-level comparison of one workload replay to its capture or to another replay
of the same capture. Only workload replays that contain at least 5 minutes of database time can be
compared using this report.

QUESTION 31
You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality estimates for
the CUSTOMERS table in the SH schema.
Examine the following steps:
1. Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS (`SH', `CUSTOMERS')
FROM dual statement.
2. Execute the DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE (null, `SH', 500) procedure.
3. Execute the required queries on the CUSTOMERS table.
4. Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE (`SH', `CUSTOMERS') FROM dual
 statement.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 3, 2, 4, 1

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Oracle must observe a representative workload, in order to determine the appropriate column groups.
Using the new procedure DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE, you tell Oracle how long it should observe
the workload.
Step 2: (3) You don't need to execute all of the queries in your work during this window. You can simply run
explain plan for some of your longer running queries to ensure column group information is recorded for
these queries.
Step 3. (1) Create the column groups
At this point you can get Oracle to automatically create the column groups for each of the tables based on
the usage information captured during the monitoring window. You simply have to call the
DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function for each table.This function requires just two
arguments, the schema name and the table name. From then on, statistics will be maintained for each
column group whenever statistics are gathered on the table.
Note:
* DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE reports column usage information and records all the SQL
operations the database has processed for a given object.
* The Oracle SQL optimizer has always been ignorant of the implied relationships between data columns
within the same table. While the optimizer has traditionally analyzed the distribution of values within a
column, he does not collect value-based relationships between columns.
* Creating extended statisticsHere are the steps to create extended statistics for related table columns
withdbms_stats.created_extended_stats:
1 - The first step is to create column histograms for the related columns.2 Next, we run
dbms_stats.create_extended_stats to relate the columns together. Unlike a traditional procedure that is
invoked via an execute ("exec") statement, Oracle extended statistics are created via a select statement.

QUESTION 32
Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)?

A. All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.

B. The AWR data is stored in memory and in the database.
C. The snapshots collected by AWR are used by the self-tuning components in the database
D. AWR computes time model statistics based on time usage for activities, which are displayed in the
v$SYS time model and V$SESS_TIME_MODEL views.
E. AWR contains system wide tracing and logging information.

Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation/Reference:
performance data in a manner that enables historical performance analysis. The mechanism for this is the
AWR snapshot. On a periodic basis, AWR takes a "snapshot" of the current statistic values stored in the
database instance's memory and persists them to its tables residing in the SYSAUX tablespace.
* AWR is primarily designed to provide input to higherlevel components such as automatic tuning
algorithms and advisors, but can also provide a wealth of information for the manual tuning process.

QUESTION 33
You upgraded your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable
databases (PDBs).
Examine the query and its output:

Which two tasks must you perform to add users with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege to the
password file?

A. Assign the appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, SYSKM.

B. Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.
C. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege and the FORCE
argument set to No.
D. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE arguments
set to Yes.
E. Re-create the password file in the Oracle Database 12c format.

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
* orapwd
/ You can create a database password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
orapwd FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers] [FORCE={y|n}] [ASM={y|n}] [DBUNIQUENAME=dbname]
[FORMAT={12|legacy}] [SYSBACKUP={y|n}] [SYSDG={y|n}] [SYSKM={y|n}] [DELETE={y|n}]
[INPUT_FILE=input-fname]
force - whether to overwrite existing file (optional),
* v$PWFILE_users
/ 12c: V$PWFILE_USERS lists all users in the password file, and indicates whether the user has been
granted the SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSASM, SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges.
/ 10c: sts users who have been granted SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges as derived from the password
file.
ColumnDatatypeDescription
USERNAMEVARCHAR2(30)The name of the user that is contained in the password file
SYSDBAVARCHAR2(5)If TRUE, the user can connect with SYSDBA privileges SYSOPERVARCHAR2(5)If
TRUE, the user can connect with SYSOPER privileges
Incorrect:
not E: The format of the v$PWFILE_users file is already in 12c format.

QUESTION 34
An application accesses a small lookup table frequently. You notice that the required data blocks are
getting aged out of the default buffer cache.
How would you guarantee that the blocks for the table never age out?

A. Configure the KEEP buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
B. Increase the database buffer cache size.
C. Configure the RECYCLE buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
D. Configure Automata Shared Memory Management.
E. Configure Automatic Memory Management-

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
may be quite different. Multiple buffer pools enable you to address these differences. You can use a KEEP
buffer pool to maintain objects in the buffer cache and a RECYCLE buffer pool to prevent objects from
consuming unnecessary space in the cache. When an object is allocated to a cache, all blocks from that
object are placed in that cache. Oracle maintains a DEFAULT buffer pool for objects that have not been
assigned to one of the buffer pools.

QUESTION 35
You conned using SQL Plus to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA
privilege.
The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in the read/write mode.
There are ongoing transactions in both the CDB and PDBs.
What happens alter issuing the SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL statement?

A. The shutdown proceeds immediately.

The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the PDBs are either committed or rolled hack.
B. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
C. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in both the CDB and PDBs are either committed or
rolled back.
D. The statement results in an error because there are open PDBs.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Shuts down a currently running Oracle Database instance, optionally closing and dismounting a database. If
the current database is a pluggable database, only the pluggable database is closed.
The consolidated instance continues to run.
Shutdown commands that wait for current calls to complete or users to disconnect such as SHUTDOWN
NORMAL and SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL have a time limit that the SHUTDOWN command will wait.
If all events blocking the shutdown have not occurred within the time limit, the shutdown command cancels
with the following message:
ORA-01013: user requested cancel of current operation
* If logged into a CDB, shutdown closes the CDB instance.
To shutdown a CDB or non CDB, you must be connected to the CDB or non CDB instance that you want to
close, and then enter
SHUTDOWN
Database closed.
Database dismounted.
Oracle instance shut down.
To shutdown a PDB, you must log into the PDB to issue the SHUTDOWN command.
SHUTDOWN
Pluggable Database closed.
Note:
* Prerequisites for PDB Shutdown
When the current container is a pluggable database (PDB), the SHUTDOWN command can only be used
if:
The current user has SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSBACKUP, or SYSDG system privilege.
The privilege is either commonly granted or locally granted in the PDB.
The current user exercises the privilege using AS SYSDBA, AS SYSOPER, AS SYSBACKUP, or AS
SYSDG at connect time.
To close a PDB, the PDB must be open.

QUESTION 36
You are planning the creation of a new multitenant container database (CDB) and want to store the ROOT
and SEED container data files in separate directories.
You plan to create the database using SQL statements.
Which three techniques can you use to achieve this?

A. Use Oracle Managed Files (OMF).

B. Specify the SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause.
C. Specify the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT initialization parameter.
D. Specify the DB_FILE_NAMECONVERT initialization parameter.
E. Specify all files in the CREATE DATABASE statement without using Oracle managed Files (OMF).

Correct Answer: ABC

Explanation/Reference:
* (A) Oracle Managed Files
* (B) The SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT Clause
* (C) The PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT Initialization Parameter

QUESTION 37
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).
The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:
- Version: Oracle Database 11g Release 2 (11.2.0.2.0) 64-bit
- Character set: AL32UTF8
- National character set: AL16UTF16
- O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:
- Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit
- Character Set: AL32UTF8
- National character set: AL16UTF16
- O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit
Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?

A. Transportable database
B. Transportable tablespace
C. Data Pump full export/import
D. The DBMS_PDB package
E. RMAN

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
- Log into ncdb12c as sys
- Get the database in a consistent state by shutting it down cleanly.
- Open the database in read only mode
- Run DBMS_PDB.DESCRIBE to create an XML file describing the database.
- Shut down ncdb12c
- Connect to target CDB (CDB2)
- Check whether non-cdb (NCDB12c) can be plugged into CDB(CDB2)
- Plug-in Non-CDB (NCDB12c) as PDB(NCDB12c) into target CDB(CDB2).
- Access the PDB and run the noncdb_to_pdb.sql script.
- Open the new PDB in read/write mode.
* You can easily plug an Oracle Database 12c non-CDB into a CDB. Just create a PDB manifest file for the
non-CDB, and then use the manifest file to create a cloned PDB in the CDB.
* Note that to plugin a non-CDB database into a CDB, the non-CDB database needs to be of version 12c as
well. So existing 11g databases will need to be upgraded to 12c before they can be part of a 12c CDB.

QUESTION 38
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) application. The application is undergoing
some major schema changes, such as addition of new indexes and materialized views. You want to check
the impact of these changes on workload performance.
What should you use to achieve this?

A. Database replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
E. Automatic Workload Repository compare reports

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
type of system change. Examples of common system changes include:
.Database upgrades
.Configuration changes to the operating system, hardware, or database .Database initialization parameter
changes
.Schema changes, such as adding new indexes or materialized views .Gathering optimizer statistics
.SQL tuning actions, such as creating SQL profiles
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/intro.htm#CNCPT961

QUESTION 39
An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system privileges.
A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:
THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE
Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB that has
been opened in read only mode?

A. You can conned as a common user by using the connect statement.

B. You can connect as a local user by using the connect statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
F. You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.
Correct Answer: CDEF
Explanation/Reference:
* The choice of threading model is dictated by the THREADED_EXECUTION initialization parameter.
THREADED_EXECUTION=FALSE : The default value causes Oracle to run using the multiprocess model.
THREADED_EXECUTION=TRUE : Oracle runs with the multithreaded model.
* OS Authentication is not supported with the multithreaded model.
* THREADED_EXECUTION
When this initialization parameter is set to TRUE, which enables the multithreaded Oracle model, operating
system authentication is not supported. Attempts to connect to the database using operating system
authentication (for example, CONNECT / AS SYSDBA or CONNECT / ) when this initialization parameter is
set to TRUE receive an ORA-01031"insufficient privileges" error.
F: The new SET CONTAINER statement within a call back function:
The advantage of SET CONTAINER is that the pool does not have to create a new connection to a PDB, if
there is an exisitng connection to a different PDB. The pool can use the existing connection, and through
SET CONTAINER, can connect to the desired PDB. This can be done using:
ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=<PDB Name>
This avoids the need to create a new connection from scratch.

QUESTION 40
Examine the following query output:

You issue the following command to import tables into the hr schema:
$ > impdp hr/hr directory = dumpdir dumpfile = hr_new.dmp schemas=hr
TRANSFORM=DISABLE_ARCHIVE_LOGGING: Y
Which statement is true?

A. All database operations performed by the impdp command are logged.

B. Only CREATE INDEX and CREATE TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
C. Only CREATE TABLE and ALTER TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
D. None of the operations against the master table used by Oracle Data Pump to coordinate its activities
are logged.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
indexes.
The new TRANSFORM option introduced in data pumps import provides the flexibility to turn off the redo
generation for the objects during the course of import. The Master Table is used to track the detailed
progress information of a Data Pump job.
The Master Table is created in the schema of the current user running the Pump Dump export or import,
and it keeps tracks of lots of detailed information.

QUESTION 41
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle database and you want to know which change
has made this performance difference.
You generate the Compare Period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report to further
investigation.
Which three findings would you get from the report?

A. It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
C. It detects the top wait events causing performance degradation.
D. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
E. It shows the difference in the size of memory pools in both time periods.
F. It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
* Full ADDM analysis across two AWR snapshot periods
Detects causes, measure effects, then correlates them
Causes: workload changes, configuration changes
Effects: regressed SQL, reach resource limits (CPU, I/O, memory, interconnect) Makes actionable
recommendations along with quantified impact
* Identify what changed
/ Configuration changes, workload changes
* Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in the
past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to the
users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to compare
database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR Compare
Periods report shows the difference (ABE) between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total of four
snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed performance attributes
and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference: Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

QUESTION 42
Examine the parameter for your database instance:

You generated the execution plan for the following query in the plan table and noticed that the nested loop
join was done. After actual execution of the query, you notice that the hash join was done in the execution
plan:
Identify the reason why the optimizer chose different execution plans.

A. The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.

B. The optimizer chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
C. The optimizer used re-optimization cardinality feedback for the query.
D. The optimizer chose different plan because extended statistics were created for the columns used.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls both when the database gathers dynamic statistics, and the
size of the sample that the optimizer uses to gather the statistics.
Range of values0 to 11

QUESTION 43
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management?

A. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when

they perform better than existing accepted plans.
B. The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
C. It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
D. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform
better than the existing accepted plans.
E. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode,
during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.

Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation/Reference:
evolve process for non-accepted plans. When automatic SQL tuning is in COMPREHENSIVE mode, it runs
a verification or evolve process for all SQL statements that have non-accepted plans during the nightly
maintenance window. If the non-accepted plan performs better than the existing accepted plan (or plans) in
the SQL plan baseline, then the plan is
automatically accepted and becomes usable by the optimizer. After the verification is complete, a persistent
report is generated detailing how the non-accepted plan performs compared to the accepted plan
performance. Because the evolve process is now an AUTOTASK, DBAs can also schedule their own
evolve job at end time.
Note:
* The optimizer is able to adapt plans on the fly by predetermining multiple subplans for portions of the
plan.
* Adaptive plans, introduced in Oracle Database 12c, enable the optimizer to defer the final plan decision
for a statement until execution time. The optimizer instruments its chosen plan (the default plan) with
statistics collectors so that it can detect at runtime, if its cardinality estimates differ greatly from the actual
number of rows seen by the operations in the plan. If there is a significant difference, then the plan or a
portion of it will be automatically adapted to avoid suboptimal performance on the first execution of a SQL
statement.
Reference: SQL Plan Management with Oracle Database 12c

QUESTION 44
You create a new pluggable database, HR_PDB, from the seed database. Which three tablespaces are
created by default in HR_PDB?

A. SYSTEM
B. SYSAUX
C. EXAMPLE
D. UNDO
E. TEMP
F. USERS

Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation/Reference:
created tablespaces in it.
*
* Oracle Database creates both the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces as part of every database.
* tablespace_datafile_clauses
Use these clauses to specify attributes for all data files comprising the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces
in the seed PDB.
Incorrect:
Not D: a PDB can not have an undo tablespace. Instead, it uses the undo tablespace belonging to the CDB.
Note:
* Example:
CONN pdb_admin@pdb1
SELECT tablespace_name FROM dba_tablespaces;
TABLESPACE_NAME
------------------------------
SYSTEM
SYSAUX
TEMP
USERS
SQL>

QUESTION 45
Which two statements are true about variable extent size support for large ASM files?

A. The metadata used to track extents in SGA is reduced.

B. Rebalance operations are completed faster than with a fixed extent size
C. An ASM Instance automatically allocates an appropriate extent size.
D. Resync operations are completed faster when a disk comes online after being taken offline.
E. Performance improves in a stretch cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
requirements for very large databases (A), and improve performance for file create and open operations.
C: You don't have to worry about the sizes; the ASM instance automatically allocates the
appropriate extent size.
Note:
* The contents of ASM files are stored in a disk group as a set, or collection, of data extents that are stored
on individual disks within disk groups. Each extent resides on an individual disk. Extents consist of one or
more allocation units (AU). To accommodate increasingly larger files, ASM uses variable size extents.
* The size of the extent map that defines a file can be smaller by a factor of 8 and 64 depending on the file
size. The initial extent size is equal to the allocation unit size and it increases by a factor of 8 and 64 at
predefined thresholds. This feature is automatic for newly created and resized datafiles when the disk group
compatibility attributes are set to Oracle Release 11 or higher.

QUESTION 46
You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized
that you forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema.
The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted
the FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege.
What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?

A. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO

OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
B. Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
C. Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
D. Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
E. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO
EXAM_RESULTS; connected as the OCP user.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
enables quick recovery of one or more tablespaces in a database to an earlier time without affecting the
rest of the tablespaces and objects in the database.
Fully Automated (the default)
In this mode, RMAN manages the entire TSPITR process including the auxiliary instance. You specify the
tablespaces of the recovery set, an auxiliary destination, the target time, and you allow RMAN to manage all
other aspects of TSPITR.
The default mode is recommended unless you specifically need more control over the location of recovery
set files after TSPITR, auxiliary set files during TSPITR, channel settings and parameters or some other
aspect of your auxiliary instance.

QUESTION 47
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), the HR user executes
the following commands to create and grant privileges on a procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE create_test_v (v_emp_id NUMBER, v_ename VARCHAR2,
v_SALARY NUMBER, v_dept_id NUMBER)
BEGIN
INSERT INTO hr.test VALUES (V_emp_id, V_ename, V_salary, V_dept_id);
END;
/
GRANT EXECUTE ON CREATE_TEST TO john, jim, smith, king;
How can you prevent users having the EXECUTE privilege on the CREATE_TEST procedure from inserting
values into tables on which they do not have any privileges?

A. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with definer's rights.

B. Grant the EXECUTE privilege to users with GRANT OPTION on the CREATE_TEST procedure.
C. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with invoker's rights.
D. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure as part of a package and grant users the EXECUTE privilege the
package.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
should specify that the program unit executes with the privileges of the caller, also known as the invoker.
Invoker's rights can mitigate the risk of SQL injection.
Incorrect:
Not A: By default, stored procedures and SQL methods execute with the privileges of their owner, not their
current user. Such definer-rights subprograms are bound to the schema in which they reside.
not B: Using the GRANT option, a user can grant an Object privilege to another user or to PUBLIC.

QUESTION 48
You created a new database using the "create database" statement without specifying the "ENABLE
PLUGGABLE" clause.
What are two effects of not using the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE database" clause?

A. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.

B. The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container database
(CDB).
C. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.
D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged in.

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
statement creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then
the newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
D: You can create a PDB by plugging in a Non-CDB as a PDB. The following graphic depicts the options for
creating a PDB:
Incorrect:
Not E: For the duration of its existence, a database is either a CDB or a non-CDB. You cannot transform a
non-CDB into a CDB or vice versa. You must define a database as a CDB at creation, and then create
PDBs within this CDB.

QUESTION 49
What is the effect of specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE" clause in a "CREATE
DATABASE" statement?

A. It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
C. It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
D. It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created
database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
Along with the root (CDB$ROOT), Oracle Database automatically creates a seed PDB (PDB$SEED). The
following graphic shows a newly created CDB:
* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then
populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is created. (Here,
we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has
the name PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in
read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is just an optimization device. The create
PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation.

QUESTION 50
You have installed two 64G flash devices to support the Database Smart Flash Cache feature on your
database server that is running on Oracle Linux.
You have set the DB_SMART_FLASH_FILE parameter:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE= `/dev/flash_device_1 `,' /dev/flash_device_2'
How should the DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE be configured to use both devices?

A. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G.

B. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G, 64G
C. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 128G.
D. DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE is automatically configured by the instance at startup.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Oracle 11g.
In this release Oracle has made changes related to both initialization parameters used by DB Smart Flash
cache. Now you can define many files|devices and its sizes for "Database Smart Flash Cache" area. In
previous releases only one file|device could be defined.
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = /dev/sda, /dev/sdb, /dev/sdc
DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE = 32G, 32G, 64G
So above settings defines 3 devices which will be in use by "DB Smart Flash Cache"
/dev/sda size 32G
/dev/sdb size 32G
/dev/sdc size 64G
New view V$FLASHFILESTAT it's used to determine the cumulative latency and read counts of each file|
device and compute the average latency
QUESTION 51
Examine the following parameters for a database instance:
MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0
MEMORY_TARGET=0
SGA_TARGET=0
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=500m
Which three initialization parameters are not controlled by Automatic Shared Memory Management
(ASMM)?

A. LOG_BUFFER
B. SORT_AREA_SIZE
C. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
D. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
E. DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE

Correct Answer: AEF

Explanation/Reference:
Initialization Parameter
/ The log buffer
LOG_BUFFER
/ The keep and recycle buffer caches
DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
DB_RECYCLE_CACHE_SIZE
/ Nonstandard block size buffer caches
DB_nK_CACHE_SIZE
Note:
* In addition to setting SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value, you must set to zero all initialization parameters
listed in the table below to enable full automatic tuning of the automatically sized SGA components.
* Table, Automatically Sized SGA Components and Corresponding Parameters

QUESTION 52
Examine the contents of SQL loader control file:
Which three statements are true regarding the SQL* Loader operation performed using the control file?

A. An EMP table is created if a table does not exist. Otherwise, if the EMP table is appended with the
loaded data.
B. The SQL* Loader data file myfile1.dat has the column names for the EMP table.
C. The SQL* Loader operation fails because no record terminators are specified.
D. Field names should be the first line in the both the SQL* Loader data files.
E. The SQL* Loader operation assumes that the file must be a stream record format file with the normal
carriage return string as the record terminator.

Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation/Reference:
options allow you to delete preexisting data, or to fail with an error if the table is not empty to begin with.
B (not D):
Note:
* SQL*Loader-00210: first data file is empty, cannot process the FIELD NAMES record Cause: The data file
listed in the next message was empty. Therefore, the FIELD NAMES FIRST FILE directive could not be
processed.
Action: Check the listed data file and fix it. Then retry the operation
E:
* A comma-separated values (CSV) (also sometimes called character-separated values, because the
separator character does not have to be a comma) file stores tabular data (numbers and text) in plain-text
form. Plain text means that the file is a sequence of characters, with no data that has to be interpreted
instead, as binary numbers. A CSV file consists of any number of records, separated by line breaks of
some kind; each record consists of fields, separated by some other character or string, most commonly a
literal comma or tab. Usually, all records have an identical sequence of fields.
* Fields with embedded commas must be quoted.
Example:
1997,Ford,E350,"Super, luxurious truck"
Note:
* SQL*Loader is a bulk loader utility used for moving data from external files into the Oracle database.

QUESTION 53
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted the
CREATE TABLE privilege to the common user C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs. You execute the
following command from the root container:
SQL > REVOKE create table FROM C # # A_ADMIN;
What is the result?

A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
B. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C. It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root and
all PDBs.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
E. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all PDBs.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
If the current container is the root:
/ Specify CONTAINER = CURRENT to revoke a locally granted system privilege, object privilege, or role
from a common user or common role. The privilege or role is revoked from the user or role only in the root.
This clause does not revoke privileges granted with CONTAINER = ALL.
/ Specify CONTAINER = ALL to revoke a commonly granted system privilege, object privilege on a
common object, or role from a common user or common role. The privilege or role is revoked from the user
or role across the entire CDB. This clause can revoke only a privilege or role granted with CONTAINER =
ALL from the specified common user or common role. This clause does not revoke privileges granted
locally with CONTAINER = CURRENT. However, any locally granted privileges that depend on the
commonly granted privilege being revoked are also revoked.
If you omit this clause, then CONTAINER = CURRENT is the default.
Reference: Oracle Database SQL Language Reference 12c, Revoke

QUESTION 54
Which two statements are true concerning the Resource Manager plans for individual pluggable databases
(PDB plans) in a multitenant container database (CDB)?

A. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then all sessions for that PDB are treated to an
equal degree of the resource share of that PDB.
B. In a PDB plan, subplans may be used with up to eight consumer groups.
C. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups
across all PDBs in the CDB.
D. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then the PDB share in the CDB plan is dynamically
calculated.
E. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups
based on the shares provided to the PDB in the CDB plan and the shares provided to the consumer
groups in the PDB plan.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation/Reference:
treated equally.
*
In a non-CDB database, workloads within a database are managed with resource plans. In a PDB,
workloads are also managed with resource plans, also called PDB resource plans. The functionality is
similar except for the following differences:
/ Non-CDB Database
Multi-level resource plans
Up to 32 consumer groups
Subplans
/ PDB Database
Single-level resource plans only
Up to 8 consumer groups
(not B) No subplans

QUESTION 55
You use a recovery catalog for maintaining your database backups.
You execute the following command:
$rman TARGET / CATALOG rman / cat@catdb
RMAN > BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
Which two statements are true?

A. Corrupted blocks, if any, are repaired.

B. Checks are performed for physical corruptions.
C. Checks are performed for logical corruptions.
D. Checks are performed to confirm whether all database files exist in correct locations
E. Backup sets containing both data files and archive logs are created.

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
running a command as follows:
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
This form of the command would check for physical corruption. To check for logical corruption, RMAN>
BACKUP VALIDATE CHECK LOGICAL DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;
D: You can use the VALIDATE keyword of the BACKUP command to do the following:
Check datafiles for physical and logical corruption
Confirm that all database files exist and are in the correct locations.
Note:
You can use the VALIDATE option of the BACKUP command to verify that database files exist and are in
the correct locations (D), and have no physical or logical corruptions that would prevent RMAN from
creating backups of them. When performing a BACKUP...VALIDATE, RMAN reads the files to be backed
up in their entirety, as it would during a real backup. It does not, however, actually produce any backup sets
or image copies (Not A, not E).

QUESTION 56
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture?

A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
C. PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.

Correct Answer: BDG

Explanation/Reference:
* A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces.It can also contains other user created
tablespaces in it.
* There is one default temporary tablespace for the entire CDB. However, you can create additional
temporary tablespaces in individual PDBs.
D:
* There is a single redo log and a single control file for an entire CDB
* A log switch is the point at which the database stops writing to one redo log file and begins writing to
another. Normally, a log switch occurs when the current redo log file is completely filled and writing must
continue to the next redo log file.
G: instance recovery
The automatic application of redo log records to uncommitted data blocks when an database instance is
restarted after a failure.
Incorrect:
Not A:
* There is one set of background processes shared by the root and all PDBs.
* High consolidation density. The many pluggable databases in a single container database share its
memory and background processes, letting you operate many more pluggable databases on a particular
platform than you can single databases that use the old architecture.
Not C: There is a separate SYSAUX tablespace for the root and for each PDB.
Not F: There is a separate SYSTEM tablespace for the root and for each PDB. -

QUESTION 57
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.
Which two actions would reduce the job's elapsed time?

A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job's relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job's job class
within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs

Correct Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference:
Note: Group jobs for prioritization
Within the same job class, you can assign priority values of 1-5 to individual jobs so that if two jobs in the
class are scheduled to start at the same time, the one with the higher priority takes precedence. This
ensures that you do not have a less important job preventing the timely completion of a more important one.
C: Set resource allocation for member jobs
Job classes provide the link between the Database Resource Manager and the Scheduler, because each
job class can specify a resource consumer group as an attribute. Member jobs then belong to the specified
consumer group and are assigned resources according to settings in the current resource plan.

QUESTION 58
You plan to migrate your database from a File system to Automata Storage Management (ASM) on same
platform.
Which two methods or commands would you use to accomplish this task?

A. RMAN CONVERT command

B. Data Pump Export and import
C. Conventional Export and Import
D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE . . . command of RMAN
E. DBMS_FILE_TRANSFER with transportable tablespace

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
1. Get the list of all datafiles.
Note: RMAN Backup of ASM Storage
There is often a need to move the files from the file system to the ASM storage and vice versa. This may
come in handy when one of the file systems is corrupted by some means and then the file may need to be
moved to the other file system.
D: Migrating a Database into ASM
* To take advantage of Automatic Storage Management with an existing database you must migrate that
database into ASM. This migration is performed using Recovery Manager (RMAN) even if you are not using
RMAN for your primary backup and recovery strategy.
* Example:
Back up your database files as copies to the ASM disk group.
BACKUP AS COPY INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE
FORMAT '+DISK' TAG 'ORA_ASM_MIGRATION';
Reference: Migrating Databases To and From ASM with Recovery Manager

QUESTION 59
You run a script that completes successfully using SQL*Plus that performs these actions:
1. Creates a multitenant container database (CDB)
2. Plugs in three pluggable databases (PDBs)
3. Shuts down the CDB instance
4. Starts up the CDB instance using STARTUP OPEN READ WRITE
Which two statements are true about the outcome after running the script?

A. The seed will be in mount state.

B. The seed will be opened read-only.
C. The seed will be opened read/write.
D. The other PDBs will be in mount state.
E. The other PDBs will be opened read-only.
F. The PDBs will be opened read/write.

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
D: Pluggable databases can be started and stopped using SQL*Plus commands or the ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.

QUESTION 60
You execute the following piece of code with appropriate privileges:

User SCOTT has been granted the CREATE SESSION privilege and the MGR role.
Which two statements are true when a session logged in as SCOTT queries the SAL column in the view
and the table?

A. Data is redacted for the EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role set.
B. Data is redacted for EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
C. Data is never redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column.
D. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
E. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role
set.

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* DBMS_REDACT.FULL completely redacts the column data.
* DBMS_REDACT.NONE applies no redaction on the column data. Use this function for development
testing purposes. LOB columns are not supported.
* The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to
mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or an application.
* If you create a view chain (that is, a view based on another view), then the Data Redaction policy also
applies throughout this view chain. The policies remain in effect all of the way up through this view chain,
but if another policy is created for one of these views, then for the columns affected in the subsequent
views, this new policy takes precedence.

QUESTION 61
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by
issuing the following command:
1snrctl > STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?
A. They are able to perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
listener will be that no new session can be established from a remote host. Existing sessions are not
compromised.

QUESTION 62
Which three statements are true about using flashback database in a multitenant container database
(CDB)?

A. The root container can be flashed back without flashing back the pluggable databases (PDBs).
B. To enable flashback database, the CDB must be mounted.
C. Individual PDBs can be flashed back without flashing back the entire CDB.
D. The DB_FLASHBACK RETENTION_TARGET parameter must be set to enable flashback of the CDB.
E. A CDB can be flashed back specifying the desired target point in time or an SCN, but not a restore
point.

Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 63
You execute the following PL/SQL:

Which two statements are true?

A. Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) is enabled for the PRICE column in the PRODUCTS table for SELECT
statements only when a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
B. FGA is enabled for the PRODUCTS.PRICE column and an audit record is written whenever a row with
PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
C. FGA is enabled for all DML operations by JIM on the PRODUCTS.PRICE column.
D. FGA is enabled for the PRICE column of the PRODUCTS table and the SQL statements is captured in
the FGA audit trial.

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation/Reference:
* The DBMS_FGA package provides fine-grained security functions.
* ADD_POLICY Procedure
This procedure creates an audit policy using the supplied predicate as the audit condition.
Incorrect:
Not C: object_schema
The schema of the object to be audited. (If NULL, the current log-on user schema is assumed.)

QUESTION 64
You execute the following commands to audit database activities:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRIAL=DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE;
SQL > AUDIT SELECT TABLE, INSERT TABLE, DELETE TABLE BY JOHN By SESSION WHENEVER
SUCCESSFUL;
Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance restarts?

A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE
command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
B. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE
command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or
DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
D. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select command,
and contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or
DELETE command on a table, and contains the execution plan, SQL text, and bind variables used.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* BY SESSION
In earlier releases, BY SESSION caused the database to write a single record for all SQL statements or
operations of the same type executed on the same schema objects in the same session. Beginning with
this release (11g) of Oracle Database, both BY SESSION and BY ACCESS cause Oracle Database to write
one audit record for each audited statement and operation.
* BY ACCESS
Specify BY ACCESS if you want Oracle Database to write one record for each audited statement and
operation.
Note:
If you specify either a SQL statement shortcut or a system privilege that audits a data definition language
(DDL) statement, then the database always audits by access. In all other cases, the database honors the
BY SESSION or BY ACCESS specification.
* For each audited operation, Oracle Database produces an audit record containing this information:
/ The user performing the operation
/ The type of operation
/ The object involved in the operation
/ The date and time of the operation
Reference: Oracle Database SQL Language Reference 12c

QUESTION 65
You support Oracle Database 12c Oracle Database 11g, and Oracle Database log on the same server.
All databases of all versions use Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
Which three statements are true about the ASM disk group compatibility attributes that are set for a disk
group?

A. The ASM compatibility attribute controls the format of the disk group metadata.
B. RDBMS compatibility together with the database version determines whether a database Instance can
mount the ASM disk group.
C. The RDBMS compatibility setting allows only databases set to the same version as the compatibility
value, to mount the ASM disk group.
D. The ASM compatibility attribute determines some of the ASM features that may be used by the Oracle
disk group.
E. The ADVM compatibility attribute determines the ACFS features that may be used by the Oracle 10 g
database.

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
software version for an Oracle ASM instance that can use the disk group. This setting also affects the
format of the data structures for the Oracle ASM metadata on the disk.
B: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute determines the minimum COMPATIBLE
database initialization parameter setting for any database instance that is allowed to use the disk group.
Before advancing the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute, ensure that the values for the COMPATIBLE
initialization parameter for all of the databases that access the disk group are set to at least the value of the
new setting for COMPATIBLE.RDBMS.
For example, if the COMPATIBLE initialization parameters of the databases are set to either 11.1 or 11.2,
then COMPATIBLE.RDBMS can be set to any value between 10.1 and 11.1 inclusively.
Not E:
/The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ADVM attribute determines whether the disk group can contain
Oracle ASM volumes. The value must be set to 11.2 or higher. Before setting this attribute, the
COMPATIBLE.ASM value must be 11.2 or higher. Also, the Oracle ADVM volume drivers must be loaded in
the supported environment.
/ You can create an Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager (Oracle ADVM) volume in a disk group. The
volume device associated with the dynamic volume can then be used to host an Oracle ACFS file system.
The compatibility parameters COMPATIBLE.ASM and COMPATIBLE.ADVM must be set to 11.2 or higher
for the disk group.
Note:
* The disk group attributes that determine compatibility are COMPATIBLE.ASM, COMPATIBLE.RDBMS.
and COMPATIBLE.ADVM. The COMPATIBLE.ASM and COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute settings
determine the minimum Oracle Database software version numbers that a system can use for Oracle ASM
and the database instance types respectively. For example, if the Oracle ASM compatibility setting is 11.2,
and RDBMS compatibility is set to 11.1, then the Oracle ASM software version must be at least 11.2, and
the Oracle Database client software version must be at least 11.1. The COMPATIBLE.ADVM attribute
determines whether the Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager feature can create an volume in a disk
group.

QUESTION 66
To enable the Database Smart Flash Cache, you configure the following parameters:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = `/dev/flash_device_1' , `/dev/flash_device_2'
DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE=64G
What is the result when you start up the database instance?
A. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.
B. One 64G flash cache file will be used.
C. Two 64G flash cache files will be used.
D. Two 32G flash cache files will be used.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
finely answered.

QUESTION 67
You executed this command to create a password file:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 10 ignorecase = N
Which two statements are true about the password file?

A. It will permit the use of uppercase passwords for database users who have been granted the SYSOPER
role.
B. It contains username and passwords of database users who are members of the OSOPER operating
system group.
C. It contains usernames and passwords of database users who are members of the OSDBA operating
system group.
D. It will permit the use of lowercase passwords for database users who have granted the SYSDBA role.
E. It will not permit the use of mixed case passwords for the database users who have been granted the
SYSDBA role.

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
* Adding Users to a Password File
When you grant SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges to a user, that user's name and privilege information are
added to the password file. If the server does not have an EXCLUSIVE password file (that is, if the
initialization parameter REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is NONE or SHARED, or the password file is
missing), Oracle Database issues an error if you attempt to grant these privileges.
A user's name remains in the password file only as long as that user has at least one of these two
privileges. If you revoke both of these privileges, Oracle Database removes the user from the password file.
* The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
ORAPWD FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers]
[FORCE={Y|N}] [IGNORECASE={Y|N}] [NOSYSDBA={Y|N}]
* IGNORECASE
If this argument is set to y, passwords are case-insensitive. That is, case is ignored when comparing the
password that the user supplies during login with the password in the password file.

QUESTION 68
Identify three valid methods of opening, pluggable databases (PDBs).

A. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN ALL ISSUED from the root

B. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN ALL ISSUED from a PDB
C. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from the seed
D. ALTER DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from the root
E. ALTER DATABASE OPEN issued from that PDB
F. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from another PDB
G. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN issued from that PDB

Correct Answer: AEG

Explanation/Reference:
running the corresponding ALTER DATABASE statement. This functionality is provided to maintain
backward compatibility for applications that have been migrated to a CDB environment.
AG: When you issue an ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN statement, READ WRITE is the default
unless a PDB being opened belongs to a CDB that is used as a physical standby database, in which case
READ ONLY is the default.
You can specify which PDBs to modify in the following ways:
List one or more PDBs.
Specify ALL to modify all of the PDBs.
Specify ALL EXCEPT to modify all of the PDBs, except for the PDBs listed.

QUESTION 69
You administer an online transaction processing (OLTP) system whose database is stored in Automatic
Storage Management (ASM) and whose disk group use normal redundancy.
One of the ASM disks goes offline, and is then dropped because it was not brought online before
DISK_REPAIR_TIME elapsed.
When the disk is replaced and added back to the disk group, the ensuing rebalance operation is too slow.
Which two recommendations should you make to speed up the rebalance operation if this type of failure
happens again?

A. Increase the value of the ASM_POWER_LIMIT parameter.

B. Set the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute to a lower value.
C. Specify the statement that adds the disk back to the disk group.
D. Increase the number of ASMB processes.
E. Increase the number of DBWR_IO_SLAVES in the ASM instance.

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
instance for disk rebalancing. The higher the limit, the faster rebalancing will complete. Lower values will
take longer, but consume fewer processing and I/O resources.
D:
* Normally a separate process is fired up to do that rebalance. This will take a certain amount of time. If you
want it to happen faster, fire up more processes. You tell ASM it can add more processes by increasing the
rebalance power.
* ASMB
ASM Background Process
Communicates with the ASM instance, managing storage and providing statistics
Incorrect:
Not B: A higher, not a lower, value of DISK_REPAIR_TIME would be helpful here. Not E: If you implement
database writer I/O slaves by setting the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter, you configure a single (master)
DBWR process that has slave processes that are subservient to it. In addition, I/O slaves can be used to
"simulate" asynchronous I/O on platforms that do not support asynchronous I/O or implement it inefficiently.
Database I/O slaves provide non-blocking, asynchronous requests to simulate asynchronous I/O.

QUESTION 70
You are administering a database and you receive a requirement to apply the following restrictions:
1. A connection must be terminated after four unsuccessful login attempts by user.
2. A user should not be able to create more than four simultaneous sessions.
3. User session must be terminated after 15 minutes of inactivity.
4. Users must be prompted to change their passwords every 15 days.
How would you accomplish these requirements?

A. by granting a secure application role to the users

B. by creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to
FALSE
C. By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameter to 4
D. By Implementing Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) and setting the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE
parameter to NONE.
E. By implementing the database resource Manager plan and setting the
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameters to 4.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
in, provided the user meets criteria that you specify. To do so, you create a secure application role, which is
a role that is associated with a PL/SQL procedure (or PL/SQL package that contains multiple procedures).
The procedure validates the user: if the user fails the validation, then the user cannot log in. If the user
passes the validation, then the procedure grants the user a role so that he or she can use the application.
The user has this role only as long as he or she is logged in to the application. When the user logs out, the
role is revoked.
Incorrect:
Not B: REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT specifies whether remote clients will be authenticated with the value of the
OS_AUTHENT_PREFIX parameter.
Not C, not E: SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS specifies the number of authentication attempts
that can be made by a client on a connection to the server process. After the specified number of failure
attempts, the connection will be automatically dropped by the server process. Not D:
REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE specifies whether Oracle checks for a password file.
Values:
shared
One or more databases can use the password file. The password file can contain SYS as well as non-SYS
users.
exclusive
The password file can be used by only one database. The password file can contain SYS as well as non-
SYS users.
none
Oracle ignores any password file. Therefore, privileged users must be authenticated by the operating
system.
Note:
The REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter is deprecated. It is retained for backward compatibility only.

QUESTION 71
A senior DBA asked you to execute the following command to improve performance:
SQL> ALTER TABLE subscribe log STORAGE (BUFFER_POOL recycle);
You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table containing one million
rows.
What could be a reason for this recommendation?

A. The keep pool is not configured.

B. Automatic Workarea Management is not configured.
C. Automatic Shared Memory Management is not enabled.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
E. All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten to a materialized view.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 72
Which three tasks can be automatically performed by the Automatic Data Optimization feature of
Information lifecycle Management (ILM)?

A. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace
B. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace
C. Tracking insert time by row for table rows
D. Tracking the most recent write time for a table block
E. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace
F. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
Incorrect:
Not E, Not F When Heat Map is enabled, all accesses are tracked by the in-memory activity tracking
module. Objects in the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces are not tracked.
* To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access and
modification.
Heat Map provides data access tracking at the segment-level and data modification tracking at the segment
and row level.
* To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access and
modification. You can also use Automatic Data Optimization (ADO) to automate the compression and
movement of data between different tiers of storage within the database.
Reference: Automatic Data Optimization with Oracle Database 12c
with Oracle Database 12c

QUESTION 73
Which two partitioned table maintenance operations support asynchronous Global Index Maintenance in
Oracle database 12c?

A. ALTER TABLE SPLIT PARTITION

B. ALTER TABLE MERGE PARTITION
C. ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION
D. ALTER TABLE ADD PARTITION
E. ALTER TABLE DROP PARTITION
F. ALTER TABLE MOVE PARTITION

Correct Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference:
enables global index maintenance to be delayed and decoupled from a DROP and TRUNCATE partition
without making a global index unusable. Enhancements include faster DROP and TRUNCATE partition
operations and the ability to delay index maintenance to off-peak time.
Reference: Oracle Database VLDB and Partitioning Guide 12c

QUESTION 74
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection?

A. User session data

B. Stack space
C. Private SQL area
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
including stuff like package-level variables, cursor state, etc. Note that, with shared server, the UGA is in
the SGA. It has to be, because shared server means that the session state needs to be accessible to all
server processes, as any one of them could be assigned a particular session. However, with dedicated
server (which likely what you're using), the UGA is allocated in the PGA.
C: The Location of a private SQL area depends on the type of connection established for a session. If a
session is connected through a dedicated server, private SQL areas are located in the server process'
PGA. However, if a session is connected through a shared server, part of the private SQL area is kept in
the SGA.
Note:
* System global area (SGA)
The SGA is a group of shared memory structures, known as SGA components, that contain data and
control information for one Oracle Database instance. The SGA is shared by all server and background
processes. Examples of data stored in the SGA include cached data blocks and shared SQL areas.
* Program global area (PGA)
A PGA is a memory region that contains data and control information for a server process. It is nonshared
memory created by Oracle Database when a server process is started. Access to the PGA is exclusive to
the server process. There is one PGA for each server process. Background processes also allocate their
own PGAs. The total memory used by all individual PGAs is known as the total instance PGA memory, and
the collection of individual PGAs is referred to as the total instance PGA, or just instance PGA. You use
database initialization parameters to set the size of the instance PGA, not individual PGAs.
Reference: Oracle Database Concepts 12c

QUESTION 75
Which two statements are true about Oracle Managed Files (OMF)?

A. OMF cannot be used in a database that already has data files created with user-specified directions.
B. The file system directions that are specified by OMF parameters are created automatically.
C. OMF can be used with ASM disk groups, as well as with raw devices, for better file management.
D. OMF automatically creates unique file names for table spaces and control files.
E. OMF may affect the location of the redo log files and archived log files.

Correct Answer: DE
Explanation/Reference:
D: The database internally uses standard file system interfaces to create and delete files as needed for the
following database structures:
Tablespaces
Redo log files
Control files
Archived logs
Block change tracking files
Flashback logs
RMAN backups
Note:
* Using Oracle-managed files simplifies the administration of an Oracle Database. Oracle- managed files
eliminate the need for you, the DBA, to directly manage the operating system files that make up an Oracle
Database. With Oracle-managed files, you specify file system directories in which the database
automatically creates, names, and manages files at the database object level. For example, you need only
specify that you want to create a tablespace; you do not need to specify the name and path of the
tablespace's datafile with the DATAFILE clause.
http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/9i/oracle-managed-files.php http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10500_01/
server.920/a96521/omf.htm Reference: What Are Oracle-Managed Files?

QUESTION 76
Which three statements are true when the listener handles connection requests to an Oracle 12c database
instance with multithreaded architecture enabled In UNIX?

A. Thread creation must be routed through a dispatcher process

B. The local listener may spawn a now process and have that new process create a thread
C. Each Oracle process runs an SCMN thread.
D. Each multithreaded Oracle process has an SCMN thread.
E. The local listener may pass the request to an existing process which in turn will create a thread.

Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation/Reference:
Answer is updated.

QUESTION 77
Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle?

A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table

B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
C. Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
D. Move partitions of a range-partitioned table
E. Rename partitions of a range partitioned table
F. Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index

Correct Answer: ABF

Explanation/Reference:
operations on multiple partitions.
A: Merge Multiple Partitions:
The new "ALTER TABLE ... MERGE PARTITIONS " help merge multiple partitions or subpartitions with a
single statement. When merging multiple partitions, local and global index operations and semantics for
inheritance of unspecified physical attributes are the same for merging two partitions.
B: Drop Multiple Partitions:
The new "ALTER TABLE ... DROP PARTITIONS " help drop multiple partitions or subpartitions with a
single statement.
Example:
view plaincopy to clipboardprint?
SQL> ALTER TABLE Tab_tst1 DROP PARTITIONS
Tab_tst1_PART5, Tab_tst1_PART6, Tab_tst1_PART7;
Table altered
SQL>
Restrictions :
- You can't drop all partitions of the table.
- If the table has a single partition, you will get the error: ORA-14083: cannot drop the only partition of a
partitioned.

QUESTION 78
You are connected using SQL* Plus to a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privileges
and execute the following sequence statements:

What is the result of the last SET CONTAINER statement and why is it so?

A. It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user has the required privileges.

B. It fails because common users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
C. It fails because local users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
D. If fails because the SET CONTAINER statement cannot be used with PDB$SEED as the target
pluggable database (PDB).

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 79
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR)
report:
What are three possible causes for the latch-related wait events?

A. The size of the shared pool is too small.

B. Cursors are not being shared.
C. A large number COMMITS are being performed.
D. There are frequent logons and logoffs.
E. The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.

Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 80
You enabled an audit policy by issuing the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SCOTT;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SYS, SYSTEM;
For which database users and for which executions is the audit policy now active? Select two.

A. SYS, SYSTEM
B. SCOTT
C. Only for successful executions
D. Only for failed executions
E. Both successful and failed executions

Correct Answer: AE
Explanation/Reference:
parameter settings. By default, this policy is not enabled.

QUESTION 81
A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:

All users have their default set of system privileges.

For which three situations will data not be redacted?

A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E. SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F. SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session

Correct Answer: ADF

Explanation/Reference:
* SYS_CONTEXT
This is a twist on the SYS_CONTEXT function as it does not use USERENV. With this usage
SYS_CONTEXT queries the list of the user's current default roles and returns TRUE if the role is granted.
Example:
SYS_CONTEXT('SYS_SESSION_ROLES', 'SUPERVISOR')
conn scott/tiger@pdborcl
SELECT sys_context('SYS_SESSION_ROLES', 'RESOURCE')
FROM dual;
SYS_CONTEXT('SYS_SESSION_ROLES','SUPERVISOR')
---------------------------------------------
FALSE
conn sys@pdborcl as sysdba
GRANT resource TO scott;
conn scott/tiger@pdborcl
SELECT sys_context('SYS_SESSION_ROLES', 'RESOURCE')
FROM dual;
SYS_CONTEXT('SYS_SESSION_ROLES','SUPERVISOR')
---------------------------------------------
TRUE

QUESTION 82
What is the result of executing a TRUNCATE TABLE command on a table that has Flashback Archiving
enabled?

A. It fails with the ORA-665610 Invalid DDL statement on history-tracked message

B. The rows in the table are truncated without being archived.
C. The rows in the table are archived, and then truncated.
D. The rows in both the table and the archive are truncated.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
TABLE statement to retrieve the contents of a table that has been truncated.

QUESTION 83
Which three activities are supported by the Data Recovery Advisor?

A. Advising on block checksum failures

B. Advising on inaccessible control files
C. Advising on inaccessible block change tracking files
D. Advising on empty password files
E. Advising on invalid block header field values
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation/Reference:
/ (B) Components such as datafiles and control files that are not accessible because they do not exist, do
not have the correct access permissions, have been taken offline, and so on
/ (A, E) Physical corruptions such as block checksum failures and invalid block header field values
/ Inconsistencies such as a datafile that is older than other database files
/ I/O failures such as hardware errors, operating system driver failures, and exceeding operating system
resource limits (for example, the number of open files)
* The Data Recovery Advisor automatically diagnoses corruption or loss of persistent data on disk,
determines the appropriate repair options, and executes repairs at the user's request. This reduces the
complexity of recovery process, thereby reducing the Mean Time To Recover (MTTR).

QUESTION 84
You create a table with the PERIOD FOR clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of
Oracle Database 12c.
Examine the table definition:

Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the
EMPLOYEES table?

A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF
TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
D. The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.
E. Setting the session valid time using
DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets the visibility for data manipulation
language (DML), data definition language (DDL), and queries performed by the session.

Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation/Reference:
table which is having TV enabled using the new clause Period For in the Create Table for the newly created
tables or in the Alter Table for the existing ones. The columns that are used can be defined while creating
the table itself and will be used in the Period For clause or you can skip having them in the table's definition
in the case of which, the Period For clause would be creating them internally.
E: ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME Procedure
This procedure enables session level valid time flashback.

QUESTION 85
Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU)?

A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU

B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E. The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.

Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation/Reference:
conversion steps of the migration process.
D: Exceed column limit
The cell data will not fit into a column after conversion.
E: Need conversion
The cell data needs to be converted, because its binary representation in the target character set is
different than the representation in the current character set, but neither length limit issues nor invalid
representation issues have been found.
* Oracle Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU) is a unique next-generation migration tool
providing an end-to-end solution for migrating your databases from legacy encodings to Unicode.
Incorrect:
Not C: The release of Oracle Database must be 10.2.0.4, 10.2.0.5, 11.1.0.7, 11.2.0.1, or later.

QUESTION 86
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before installing the
Oracle Database server. The database and listener are configured by using Oracle Restart.
Examine the following command and its output:
$ crsctl config has CRS-4622: Oracle High Availability Services auto start is enabled.
What does this imply?

A. When you start an instance on a high with SQL *Plus dependent listeners and ASM disk groups are
automatically started.
B. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance
is still started.
C. When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart
configuration.
D. When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter, it is
automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Oracle Restart ensures that Oracle components are started in the proper order, in accordance with
component dependencies. For example, if database files are stored in Oracle ASM disk groups, then
before starting the database instance, Oracle Restart ensures that the Oracle ASM instance is started and
the required disk groups are mounted. Likewise, if a component must be shut down, Oracle Restart
ensures that dependent components are cleanly shut down first. Oracle Restart also manages the weak
dependency between database instances and the Oracle Net listener (the listener): When a database
instance is started, Oracle Restart attempts to start the listener. If the listener startup fails, then the
database is still started. If the listener later fails, Oracle Restart does not shut down and restart any
database instances. http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17636/restart.htm#ADMIN12710

QUESTION 87
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains some pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the
following command in the root container:
Which two statements are true?

A. Schema objects owned by the C# # A_ADMIN common user can be shared across all PDBs.
B. The C # # A_ADMIN user will be able to use the TEMP_TS temporary tablespace only in root.
C. The command will, create a common user whose description is contained in the root and each PDB.
D. The schema for the common user C # # A_ADMIN can be different in each container.
E. The command will create a user in the root container only because the container clause is not used.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 88
You performed an incremental level 0 backup of a database:
RMAN > BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE;
To enable block change tracking after the incremental level 0 backup, you issued this command:
SQL > ALTER DATABASE ENABLE BLOCK CHANGE TRACKING USING FILE
` /mydir/rman_change_track.f';
To perform an incremental level 1 cumulative backup, you issued this command:
RMAN> BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 CUMULATIVE DATABASE;
Which three statements are true?

A. Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
B. The change tracking file must always be backed up when you perform a full database backup.
C. Block change tracking will always reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
D. More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a single
block.
E. The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will not
read the change tracking file to discover changed blocks.

Correct Answer: CDE

Explanation/Reference:
Oracle Block Change Tracking
Once enabled; this new 10g feature records the modified since last backup and stores the log of it in a
block change tracking file using the CTW (Change Tracking Writer) process. During backups RMAN uses
the log file to identify the specific blocks that must be backed up. This improves RMAN's performance as it
does not have to scan whole datafiles to detect changed blocks. Logging of changed blocks is performed
by the CTRW process which is also responsible for writing data to the block change tracking file.
Note:
* An incremental level 0 backup backs up all blocks that have ever been in use in this database.
QUESTION 89
You find this query being used in your Oracle 12c database:

Which method a used by the optimizer to limit the rows being returned?

A. A filter is added to the table query dynamically using ROWNUM to limit the rows to 20 percent of the
total rows
B. All the rows are returned to the client or middle tier but only the first 20 percent are returned to the
screen or the application.
C. A view is created during execution and a filter on the view limits the rows to 20 percent of the total rows.
D. A TOP-N query is created to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
answer is absolute.

QUESTION 90
Flashback is enabled for your multitenant container database (CDB), which contains two pluggable
database (PDBs). A local user was accidently dropped from one of the PDBs.
You want to flash back the PDB to the time before the local user was dropped. You connect to the CDB and
execute the following commands:
SQL > SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE
SQL > STARTUP MOUNT
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE to TIME "TO_DATE (`08/20/12' , `MM/DD/YY')";
Examine following commands:
1. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE ALL OPEN;
2. ALTER DATABASE OPEN;
3. ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;
Which command or commands should you execute next to allow updates to the flashback back schema?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. 3 and 1
E. 1 and 2

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
updated answer.

QUESTION 91
Examine the commands executed to monitor database operations:
$> conn sys oracle/oracle@prod as sysdba
SQL > VAR eid NUMBER
SQL > EXEC: eid := DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION (`batch_job' , FORCED_TRACKING =>
`Y');
Which two statements are true?

A. Database operations will be monitored only when they consume a significant amount of resource.
B. Database operations for all sessions will be monitored.
C. Database operations will be monitored only if the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL
and CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS is set DIAGNISTIC + TUNING.
D. Only DML and DDL statements will be monitored for the session.
E. All subsequent statements in the session will be treated as one database operation and will be
monitored.

Correct Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference:
DIAGNOSTIC+TUNING (default) enables monitoring of database operations. Real-Time SQL Monitoring is
a feature of the Oracle Database Tuning Pack.
Note:
* The DBMS_SQL_MONITOR package provides information about Real-time SQL Monitoring and Real-
time Database Operation Monitoring.
*(not B) BEGIN_OPERATION Function
starts a composite database operation in the current session.
/ (E) FORCE_TRACKING - forces the composite database operation to be tracked when the operation
starts. You can also use the string variable 'Y'.
/ (not A) NO_FORCE_TRACKING - the operation will be tracked only when it has consumed at least 5
seconds of CPU or I/O time. You can also use the string variable 'N'.

QUESTION 92
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database
(CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)?

A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B. Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D. Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user
before the common user can grant privileges to other users.

Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation/Reference:
enable all local and common users to exercise these privileges in this PDB only.
C: A user can only perform common operations on a common role, for example, granting privileges
commonly to the role, when the following criteria are met:
The user is a common user whose current container is root.
The user has the SET CONTAINER privilege granted commonly, which means that the privilege applies in
all containers.
The user has privilege controlling the ability to perform the specified operation, and this privilege has been
granted commonly
Incorrect:
Note:
* Every privilege and role granted to Oracle-supplied users and roles is granted commonly except for
system privileges granted to PUBLIC, which are granted locally.

QUESTION 93
Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.

A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.

B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing objects.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block
corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.

Correct Answer: AE
Explanation/Reference:
*All internal errors (ORA-600), block corruption errors (ORA-1578), and deadlock errors (ORA-60) that
occur
* Administrative operations, such as CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements and STARTUP,
SHUTDOWN, and ARCHIVELOG statements
* Messages and errors relating to the functions of shared server and dispatcher processes
* Errors occurring during the automatic refresh of a materialized view
* The values of all initialization parameters that had nondefault values at the time the database and
instance start
Note:
* The alert log file (also referred to as the ALERT.LOG) is a chronological log of messages and errors
written out by an Oracle Database. Typical messages found in this file is: database startup, shutdown, log
switches, space errors, etc. This file should constantly be monitored to detect unexpected messages and
corruptions.

QUESTION 94
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump export and import operations?

A. You can detach from a data pump export job and reattach later.
B. Data pump uses parallel execution server processes to implement parallel import.
C. Data pump import requires the import file to be in a directory owned by the oracle owner.
D. The master table is the last object to be exported by the data pump.
E. You can detach from a data pump import job and reattach later.

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
performance.
D: For export jobs, the master table records the location of database objects within a dump file set. / Export
builds and maintains the master table for the duration of the job. At the end of an export job, the content of
the master table is written to a file in the dump file set. / For import jobs, the master table is loaded from the
dump file set and is used to control the sequence of operations for locating objects that need to be imported
into the target database.

QUESTION 95
Examine the query and its output executed In an RDBMS Instance:

Which three statements are true about the users (other than sys) in the output?

A. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN only.
B. The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.
C. The C # # A_ADMIN user can perform wallet operations.
D. The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage
Management (ASM).
E. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL* Plus.

Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation/Reference:
B: SYSDG administrative privilege has ability to perform Data Guard operations (including startup and
shutdown) using Data Guard Broker or dgmgrl.
D: SYSASM
The new (introduced in 11g) SYSASM role to manage the ASM instance, variable extent sizes to reduce
shared pool usage, and the ability of an instance to read from a specific disk of a diskgroup
E (Not A): SYSDBA is like a role in the sense that it is granted, but SYSDBA is a special built-in privilege to
allow the DBA full control over the database
Incorrect:
Not C: SYSKM. SYSKM administrative privilege has ability to perform transparent data encryption wallet
operations.
Note:
Use the V$PWFILE_USERS view to see the users who have been granted administrative privileges.

QUESTION 96
In your Database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT FREE
parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using information Lifecycle Management (ILM)
to automate data movement?

A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a
different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a
different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
D. Setting the target tablespace offline
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different
storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED

Correct Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference:
The value for TBS_PERCENT_USED specifies the percentage of the tablespace quota when a tablespace
is considered full. The value for TBS_PERCENT_FREE specifies the targeted free percentage for the
tablespace. When the percentage of the tablespace quota reaches the value of TBS_PERCENT_USED,
ADO begins to move data so that percent free of the tablespace quota approaches the value of
TBS_PERCENT_FREE. This action by ADO is a best effort and not a guarantee.

QUESTION 97
Which three statements are true about Flashback Database?

A. Flashback logs are written sequentially, and are archived.

B. Flashback Database uses a restored control file to recover a database.
C. The Oracle database automatically creates, deletes, and resides flashback logs in the Fast Recovery
Area.
D. Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a reset logs operation.
E. Flashback Database can recover a data file that was dropped during the span of time of the flashback.
F. Flashback logs are used to restore to the blocks' before images, and then the redo data may be used to
roll forward to the desired flashback time.

Correct Answer: BCF

Explanation/Reference:
them in the fast recovery area (C). You can only use Flashback Database if flashback logs are available. To
take advantage of this feature, you must set up your database in advance to create flashback logs.
* To enable Flashback Database, you configure a fast recovery area and set a flashback retention target.
This retention target specifies how far back you can rewind a database with Flashback Database.
From that time onwards, at regular intervals, the database copies images of each altered block in every
data file into the flashback logs. These block images can later be reused to reconstruct the data file
contents for any moment at which logs were captured. (F)
Incorrect:
Not E: You cannot use Flashback Database alone to retrieve a dropped data file. If you flash back a
database to a time when a dropped data file existed in the database, only the data file entry is added to the
control file. You can only recover the dropped data file by using RMAN to fully restore and recover the data
file.
Reference: Oracle Database Backup and Recovery User's Guide 12c R

QUESTION 98
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?

A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.

B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express (EM Express) is a web-based database management tool
that is built inside the Oracle Database. It supports key performance management and basic database
administration functions. From an architectural perspective, EM Express has no mid-tier or middleware
components, ensuring that its overhead on the database server is negligible.
QUESTION 99
Examine the following command;
ALTER SYSTEM SET enable_ddl_logging = TRUE;
Which statement is true?

A. Only the data definition language (DDL) commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert log file.
B. All DDL commands are logged in the alert log file.
C. All DDL commands are logged in a different log file that contains DDL statements and their execution
dates.
D. Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new segments are logged.
E. All DDL commands are logged in XML format in the alert directory under the Automatic Diagnostic
Repository (ADR) home.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
also the log.xml file.
Note:
* By default Oracle database does not log any DDL operations performed by any user. The default settings
for auditing only logs DML operations.
* Oracle 12c DDL Logging ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING
The first method is by using the enabling a DDL logging feature built into the database. By default it is
turned off and you can turn it on by setting the value of ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING initialization parameter to
true.
* We can turn it on using the following command. The parameter is dynamic and you can turn it on/off on
the go.
SQL> alter system set ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING=true;
System altered.
Elapsed: 00:00:00.05
SQL>
Once it is turned on, every DDL command will be logged in the alert log file and also the log.xml file.

QUESTION 100
In which two scenarios do you use SQL* Loader to load data?

A. Transform the data while it is being loaded into the database.

B. Use transparent parallel processing without having to split the external data first.
C. Load data into multiple tables during the same load statement.
D. Generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.

Correct Answer: AD
Explanation/Reference:
/ (A) Manipulate the data before loading it, using SQL functions. / (D) Generate unique sequential key
values in specified columns.
etc:
/ Load data into multiple tables during the same load session.
/ Load data across a network. This means that you can run the SQL*Loader client on a different system
from the one that is running the SQL*Loader server.
/ Load data from multiple datafiles during the same load session.
/Specify the character set of the data.
/ Selectively load data (you can load records based on the records' values).
/Use the operating system's file system to access the datafiles.
/ Load data from disk, tape, or named pipe.
/ Generate sophisticated error reports, which greatly aid troubleshooting.
/ Load arbitrarily complex object-relational data.
/ Use secondary datafiles for loading LOBs and collections.
/ Use either conventional or direct path loading. While conventional path loading is very flexible, direct path
loading provides superior loading performance.
Note:
* SQL*Loader loads data from external files into tables of an Oracle database. It has a powerful data
parsing engine that puts little limitation on the format of the data in the datafile.

QUESTION 101
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE. You execute the following:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = `*' SCOPE = SPFILE;
Which is true about the result of this command?

A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.

B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is
restarted.
D. Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* In a container architecture, the parameters for PDB will inherit from the root database. That means if
statistics_level=all in the root that will cascade to the PDB databases.
You can over ride this by using Alter system set, if that parameter is pdb modifiable, there is a new column
in v$system_parameter for the same.

QUESTION 102
Which two are prerequisites for performing a flashback transaction?

A. Flashback Database must be enabled.

B. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
C. EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user flashing back
transaction.
D. Supplemental logging must be enabled.
E. Recycle bin must be enabled for the database.
F. Block change tracking must be enabled tor the database.

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Oracle Database Advanced Application Developer's Guide 11g, Using Oracle Flashback
Technology

QUESTION 103
A database is stored in an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disk group, disk group, DGROUP1 with
SQL:

There is enough free space in the disk group for mirroring to be done.
What happens if the CONTROLLER1 failure group becomes unavailable due to error of for maintenance?

A. Transactions and queries accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1
will fall.
B. Mirroring of allocation units will be done to ASM disks in the CONTROLLER2 failure group until the
CONTROLLER1 for failure group is brought back online.
C. The data in the CONTROLLER1 failure group is copied to the controller2 failure group and rebalancing
is initiated.
D. ASM does not mirror any data until the controller failure group is brought back online, and newly
allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the controller2 failure group, without mirroring.
E. Transactions accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1 will fail but
queries will succeed.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
* For Oracle ASM to mirror files, specify the redundancy level as NORMAL REDUNDANCY (2-way
mirroring by default for most file types) or HIGH REDUNDANCY (3-way mirroring for all files).

QUESTION 104
On your Oracle 12c database, you Issue the following commands to create indexes
SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id)
INVISIBLE;
SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customers_id, sales_rep_id);
Which two statement are correct?

A. Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_COSTOMER index is visible.
B. The optimizer evaluates index access from both the Indexes before deciding on which index to use for
query execution plan.
C. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is created.
D. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is created.
E. Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted In the orders table.

Correct Answer: AE
Explanation/Reference:
as default. Using this feature we can test a new index without effecting the execution plans of the existing
sql statements or we can test the effect of dropping an index without dropping it.

QUESTION 105
Your multitenant container database has three pluggable databases (PDBs): PDB1, PDB2, and PDB3.
Which two RMAN commands may be; used to back up only the PDB1 pluggable database?

A. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the root container

B. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the PDB1 container
C. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the PDB1 container
D. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the boot container
E. BACKUP PLUGGABLE database PDB1 while connected to PDB2

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
to the PDB.
* (A) If you connect to the root, you must use the PLUGGABLE DATABASE syntax in your RMAN
commands. For example, to back up a PDB, you use the BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.
* (C)If instead you connect directly to a PDB, you can use the same commands that you would use when
connecting to a non-CDB. For example, to back up a PDB, you would use the BACKUP DATABASE
command.
Reference: Oracle Database Backup and Recovery User's Guide 12c, About Backup and Recovery of
CDBs

QUESTION 106
Identify three benefits of Unified Auditing.

A. Decreased use of storage to store audit trail rows in the database.

B. It improves overall auditing performance.
C. It guarantees zero-loss auditing.
D. The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
E. It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.

Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation/Reference:
Unified auditing. You don't have to turn on or off all of the different auidting types individually and as a
matter of fact auditing is enabled by default right out of the box. The AUD$ and FGA$ tables have been
replaced with one single audit trail table. All of the audit data is now stored in Secure Files table thus
improving the overall management aspects of audit data itself.
B: Further the audit data can also be buffered solving most of the common performance related problems
seen on busy environments.
E: Unified Auditing is able to collect audit data for Fine Grained Audit, RMAN, Data Pump, Label Security,
Database Vault and Real Application Security operations.
Note:
* Benefits of the Unified Audit Trail
The benefits of a unified audit trail are many:
/ (B) Overall auditing performance is greatly improved. The default mode that unified audit works is Queued
Write mode. In this mode, the audit records are batched in SGA queue and is persisted in a periodic way.
Because the audit records are written to SGA queue, there is a significant performance improvement.
/ The unified auditing functionality is always enabled and does not depend on the initialization parameters
that were used in previous releases
/ (A) The audit records, including records from the SYS audit trail, for all the audited components of your
Oracle Database installation are placed in one location and in one format, rather than your having to look in
different places to find audit trails in varying formats. This consolidated view enables auditors to co-relate
audit information from different components. For example, if an error occurred during an INSERT
statement, standard auditing can indicate the error number and the SQL that was executed. Oracle
Database Vault-specific information can indicate whether this error happened because of a command rule
violation or realm violation. Note that there will be two audit records with a distinct AUDIT_TYPE. With this
unification in place, SYS audit records appear with AUDIT_TYPE set to Standard Audit.
/ The management and security of the audit trail is also improved by having it in single audit trail.
/ You can create named audit policies that enable you to audit the supported components listed at the
beginning of this section, as well as SYS administrative users. Furthermore, you can build conditions and
exclusions into your policies.
* Oracle Database 12c Unified Auditing enables selective and effective auditing inside the Oracle database
using policies and conditions. The new policy based syntax simplifies management of auditing within the
database and provides the ability to accelerate auditing based on conditions.
* The new architecture unifies the existing audit trails into a single audit trail, enabling simplified
management and increasing the security of audit data generated by the database.

QUESTION 107
You upgraded from a previous Oracle database version to Oracle Database version to Oracle Database
12c. Your database supports a mixed workload. During the day, lots of insert, update, and delete operations
are performed. At night, Extract, Transform, Load (ETL) and batch reporting jobs are run. The ETL jobs
perform certain database operations using two or more concurrent sessions.
After the upgrade, you notice that the performance of ETL jobs has degraded. To ascertain the cause of
performance degradation, you want to collect basic statistics such as the level of parallelism, total database
time, and the number of I/O requests for the ETL jobs.
How do you accomplish this?

A. Examine the Active Session History (ASH) reports for the time period of the ETL or batch reporting runs.
B. Enable SQL tracing for the queries in the ETL and batch reporting queries and gather diagnostic data
from the trace file.
C. Enable real-time SQL monitoring for ETL jobs and gather diagnostic data from the V$SQL_MONITOR
view.
D. Enable real-time database operation monitoring using the
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION function, and then use the
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR function to view the required information.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Real-Time Database Operations Monitoring enables you to monitor long running database tasks such as
batch jobs, scheduler jobs, and Extraction, Transformation, and Loading (ETL) jobs as a composite
business operation. This feature tracks the progress of SQL and PL/SQL queries associated with the
business operation being monitored. As a DBA or developer, you can define business operations for
monitoring by explicitly specifying the start and end of the operation or implicitly with tags that identify the
operation.

QUESTION 108
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and
ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file `/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp'
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status
Identify two ways to rectify the error.
A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the
database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then
bring the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the
database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.

Correct Answer: AE
Explanation/Reference:
RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it
can automatically re-create them when needed.
* If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control files to
standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files, online redo logs,
standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

QUESTION 109
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:

Which two statements are true about redefining the table?

A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in
the table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online
redefinition.

Correct Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference:
Used to indicate to copy VPD policies automatically
* DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY
/ The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control administrative interface, which is used
to implement Virtual Private Database (VPD).DBMS_RLS is available with the Enterprise Edition only.
Note:
* CONS_USE_PK and CONS_USE_ROWID are constants used as input to the "options_flag" parameter in
both the START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure and CAN_REDEF_TABLE Procedure. CONS_USE_ROWID
is used to indicate that the redefinition should be done using rowids while CONS_USE_PK implies that the
redefinition should be done using primary keys or pseudo- primary keys (which are unique keys with all
component columns having NOT NULL constraints).
* DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used. These logs
keep track of the changes to the master tables and are used by the materialized views during refresh
synchronization.
* START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure
Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty interim table (in the same schema as the
table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the post-redefinition table, and then call this procedure
to initiate the redefinition.

QUESTION 110
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the
v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column?

A. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX
tablespace from its current tablespace.
B. The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX
tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 111
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?

A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user
connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (LREG) process of each
database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to
allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
suitable answer.

QUESTION 112
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You use RMAN to
back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata regularly. You lost an
ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data?

A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the
existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed- up disk
group and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group specification,
failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
D. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed- up disk
group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore the data.
E. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications for
failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.

Correct Answer: ACF

Explanation/Reference:
The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created by the md_backup
command.
md_restore can't restore data, only metadata.

QUESTION 113
Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two pluggable
databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database.
You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the
default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.
What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in
ACCOUNTS_PDB?

A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE
IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
The rest of the database remains open and available for users to access data. Conversely, you can bring
an offline tablespace online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available to database users.
The database must be open to alter the availability of a tablespace.

QUESTION 114
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?

A. Oracle Data Pump

B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
good answer.

QUESTION 115
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG
mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
1. Mount the CDB.
2. Close all the PDBs.
3. Open the database.
4. Apply the archive redo logs.
5. Restore the data file.
6. Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7. Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.
8. Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.
9. Open the database with RESETLOGS.
10. Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?

A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;
* Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing "all pdb files lost". Cannot
close the pdb as the system datafile was missing...
So only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb (10)
startup mount; (1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable database
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system tablespace of
PDB.
* Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an
inconsistent backup by backing up data files while a database is closed, either:
/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances)
/ After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN ABORT
Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs
created since the backup are available.
* Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;

QUESTION 116
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c
when it is enabled?

A. Reduced logical I/O

B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O
F. Reduced CPU utilization

Correct Answer: BCF

Explanation/Reference:
Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run
different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users--either one
process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases are
multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users
simultaneously.
Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and
applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance
simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
* In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in
Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to execute as
operating system threads in separate address spaces.

QUESTION 117
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the
partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access
it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?

A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.

B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation/Reference:
the same time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while
the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not supported
when creating or rebuilding an index online.
D: Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables
Because index-organized tables are primarily stored in a B-tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as
a consequence of incremental updates. However, you can use the ALTER TABLE...MOVE statement to
rebuild the index and reduce this fragmentation.
C: If a table can be compressed in the new tablespace, also it can be compressed in the same tablespace.
Incorrect:
Not B, not E: Local and Global indexes can be automatically rebuild with UPDATE INDEXES when you
move the table.

QUESTION 118
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)

A. The ADDM requires at least four AWR snapshots for analysis

B. The ADDM runs after each AWR snapshot is collected automatically by MMON
C. The results of the ADDM analysis are stored in the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)
D. The ADDM analysis provides only diagnostics information but does not provide recommendations
E. The ADDM calls other advisors if required, but does not provide recommendations about the advisors

Correct Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference:
sophisticated answer.

QUESTION 119
In your production database, data manipulation language (DML) operations are executed on the SALES
table.
You have noticed some dubious values in the SALES table during the last few days. You are able to track
users, actions taken, and the time of the action for this particular period but the changes in data are not
tracked. You decide to keep track of both the old data and new data in the table long with the user
information.
What action would you take to achieve this task?

A. Apply fine-grained auditing.

B. Implement value-based auditing.
C. Impose standard database auditing to audit object privileges.
D. Impose standard database auditing to audit SQL statements.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
Good answer.

QUESTION 120
The user SCOTT owns the CUST table that is placed in the SALES tablespace. The user SCOTT opens a
session and executes commands as follows:
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(101, 'JACK');
1 row created.
SQL> INSERT INTO cust VALUES(102, 'SMITH');
1 row created.
As a DBA, you execute the following command from another session:
ALTER TABLESPACE sales READ ONLY;
Which statement is true regarding the effect of this command on the transaction in Scott's session?

A. The command fails as a transaction is still pending.

B. The transaction in Scott's session is rolled back and the tablespace becomes readonly.
C. The command waits and the user SCOTT can execute data manipulation language (DML) statements
only as part of the current transaction.
D. The command hangs until all transactions on the objects in the tablespace commit or rollback, and then
the tablespace is placed in readonly mode.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
processing transactions. After the statement is issued, the tablespace is put into a transitional read-only
state. No transactions are allowed to make further changes (using DML statements) to the tablespace. If a
transaction attempts further changes, it is terminated and rolled back. However, transactions that already
made changes and that attempt no further changes are allowed to commit or roll back.

QUESTION 121
You plan to implement the distributed database system in your company. You invoke Database
Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create a database on the server. During the installation, DBCA prompts
you to specify the Global Database Name.
What must this name be made up of?

A. It must be made up of a database name and a domain name.

B. It must be made up of the value in ORACLE_SID and HOSTNAME.
C. It must be made up of the value that you plan to assign for INSTANCE_NAME and HOSTNAME.
D. It must be made up of the value that you plan to assign for ORACLE_SID and SERVICE_NAMES.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
3. Database Identification: Enter the Global Database Name in The form database_name.domain_name,
and the system identifier (SID). The SID defaults lo the database name and uniquely identifies the instance
associated with the database.
4. Management Options: Use this page to set up your database so that it can be managed with Oracle
Enterprise Manager. Select the default: "Configure the Database with Enterprise Manager." Optionally, this
page allows you to configure alert notifications and daily disk backup area settings.
Note: Yon must configure the listener before you can configure Enterprise Manager (as shown earlier).

QUESTION 122
Which two statements are true about standard database auditing? (Choose two.)

A. DDL statements can be audited.

B. Statements that refer to standalone procedure can be audited.
C. Operations by the users logged on as SYSDBA cannot be audited.
D. Only one audit record is ever created for a session per audited statement even though it is executed
more than once.

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation/Reference:
true answer.

QUESTION 123
You executed the following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 5 ignorecase=N
Which statement describes the purpose of the above password file?

A. It records usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role
B. It contains usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled
C. It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
D. It records usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to OSDBA or OSOPER
operating groups

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 124
Which two statements are true about the RMAN validate database command?

A. It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.

B. It can detect corrupt pfiles.
C. It can detect corrupt spfiles.
D. It checks the database for interblock corruptions.
E. It can detect corrupt block change tracking files.

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
Block corruptions can be divided Into Interblock corruption and intrablock corruption. In intrablock
corruption. th« corruption occurs within the block itself and can be either physical or logical corruption. In
interblock corruption, the corruption occurs between blocks and can only be logical corruption.
(key word) * The VALIDATE command checks for intrablock corruptions only. Only DBVERIFY and the
ANALYZE statement detect Interblock corruption.
VALIDATE Command Output . .> List of Control File and SPFILE.
File TYPE >»» SPFILE or Control File.
Status >»» OK if no corruption, or FAILED If block corruption is found. Blocks Failing »»» The number of
blocks that fail the corruption check. These blocks are newly corrupt.
Blocks Examined »»» Total number of blocks in the file.
Oracle' Database Backup and Recovery User's Guide
12c Release 1 (12.1) - 16 Validating Database Files and Backups

QUESTION 125
In your multitenant container database (CDB) with two pluggable database (PDBs). You want to create a
new PDB by using SQL Developer.
Which statement is true?

A. The CDB must be open.

B. The CDB must be in the mount stage.
C. The CDB must be in the nomount stage.
D. Alt existing PDBs must be closed.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then
populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is created. (Here,
we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has
the name PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in
read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is just an optimization device. The create
PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation. The size of the seed PDB is
only about 1 gigabyte and it takes only a few seconds on a typical machine to copy it.

QUESTION 126
Which two resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases when creating a
multitenant container database plan (CDB plan) using Oracle Database Resource Manager?

A. Maximum Undo per consumer group

B. Maximum Idle time
C. Parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. Exadata I/O
F. Local file system I/O

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 127
Which two statements are true when row archival management is enabled?

A. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column visibility is controlled by the ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session
parameter.
B. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that could reference activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows only.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if referenced in the select list of a query.
E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the Oracle Server based on activity
tracking columns, to Indicate that a row is no longer considered active.

Correct Answer: AB
Explanation/Reference:
allowing us to see all of the rows that have been logically deleted:
alter session set row archival visibility = all;
We can then turn-on row invisibility back on by changing row archival visibility = "active":
alter session set row archival visibility = all;
B: To use ora_archive_state as an alternative to deleting rows, you need the following settings and
parameters:
1. Create the table with the row archival clause
create table mytab (col1 number, col2 char(200)) row archival;
2. Now that the table is marked as row archival, you have two methods for removing rows, a permanent
solution with the standard delete DML, plus the new syntax where you set ora_archive_state to a non-zero
value:
update mytab set ora_archive_state=2 where col2='FRED';
3. To make "invisible rows" visible again, you simply set the rows ora_archive_state to zero:
update mytab set ora_archive_state=0 where col2='FRED';
Note:
* Starting in Oracle 12c, Oracle provides a new feature that allow you to "logically delete" a row in a table
without physically removing the row. This effectively makes deleted rows "invisible" to all SQL and DML, but
they can be revealed at any time, providing a sort of "instant" rollback method.
To use ora_archive_state as an alternative to deleting rows.

QUESTION 128
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute
the following commands in the root container:

Which two statements are true?

A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B. The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
D. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E. The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.

Correct Answer: AC
Explanation/Reference:
USER, ALTER USER, CREATE ROLE, GRANT, REVOKE, and ALTER SYSTEM statements.
* * CREATE ROLE with CONTAINER (optional) clause
/ CONTAINER = ALL
Creates a common role.
/ CONTAINER = CURRENT
Creates a local role in the current PDB.

QUESTION 129
You want to flash back a test database by five hours.
You issue this command:
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP (SYSDATE - 5/24);
Which two statements are true about this flashback scenario?

A. The database must have multiplexed redo logs for the flashback to succeed.
B. The database must be MOUNTED for the flashback to succeed.
C. The database must use block change tracking for the flashback to succeed.
D. The database must be opened in restricted mode for the flashback to succeed.
E. The database must be opened with the RESETLOGS option after the flashback is complete.
F. The database must be opened in read-only mode to check if the database has been flashed back to the
correct SCN.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation/Reference:
best suitable answer.

QUESTION 130
You Execute the Following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = `+DATA/PROD/orapwprod entries = 5 ignorecase = N format = 12'
Which two statements are true about the password file?

A. It records the usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role.
B. It contains the usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled.
C. Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
D. It records the usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to the OSDBA or OSOPER
operating system groups.
E. It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.

Correct Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference:
actual answer.

QUESTION 131
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all
users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database.
SCOTT's password is TIGER. The service mane "HQ" is used to connect to the remote HQ database.
Which command would you execute to create the database link?

A. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING 'HQ';

B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CXJRRENT_USER USING HQ' S
C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING 'HQ';
D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING 'HQ';

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 132
What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the
maintenance window opens.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 133
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following
specifications:
- Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.
- The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
- The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.
Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation

B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory
Management (AMM) enabled
D. a default database configuration

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.oracledistilled.com/oracle-database/administration/creating-a-database- using-
database-configuration-assistant/

QUESTION 134
Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database?

A. An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B. An extent can span multiple segments,
C. Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.

Correct Answer: BD
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e40540/logical.htm#CNCPT250

QUESTION 135
Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database
structures?

A. A segment cannot span data files.

B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C. An extent cannot span data files.
D. The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.

Correct Answer: BC
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://mohibalvi.wordpress.com/tag/alter-tablespace/

QUESTION 136
Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).

B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/process.htm (see log writer process
(LGWR))

QUESTION 137
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user
connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes.
Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?

A. connecting by using an external naming method

B. connecting by using the easy connect method
C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this
service for creating a local naming service"
D. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the
tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E. connecting by using a directory naming method

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 138
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table?

A. partitioning the table

B. creating an invisible index
C. updating the table by using an update statement
D. creating a public synonym
E. creating a view

Correct Answer: DE
Explanation/Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/tables013.htm#ADMIN01507

QUESTION 139
Your database has the SRV1 service configured for an application that runs on middle-tier application
server. The application has multiple modules. You enable tracing at the service level
by executing the following command:
SQL > exec DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE (`SRV1');
The possible outcome and actions to aggregate the trace files are as follows:
1. The command fails because a module name is not specified.
2. A trace file is created for each session that is running the SRV1 service.
3. An aggregated trace file is created for all the sessions that are running the SRV1 service.
4. The trace files may be aggregated by using the trcess utility.
5. The trace files be aggregated by using the tkprof utility.
Identify the correct outcome and the step to aggregate by using tkprof utility?

A. 1
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
E. 3 and 5

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
collect it into a single file.
Incorrect:
Not 1: Parameter service_name
Name of the service for which tracing is enabled.
module_name
Name of the MODULE. An optional additional qualifier for the service.
Note:
* The procedure enables a trace for a given combination of Service, MODULE and ACTION name. The
specification is strictly hierarchical: Service Name or Service Name/MODULE, or Service Name, MODULE,
and ACTION name must be specified. Omitting a qualifier behaves like a wild- card, so that not specifying
an ACTION means all ACTIONs. Using the ALL_ACTIONS constant achieves the same purpose.
* SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE Procedure
This procedure will enable SQL tracing for a given combination of Service Name, MODULE and ACTION
globally unless an instance_name is specified.
* DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE(
service_name IN VARCHAR2,
module_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_MODULE,
action_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_ACTION,
waits IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT TRUE,
binds IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT FALSE,
instance_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL);

QUESTION 140
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains pluggable databases (PDBs), you are connected to
the HR_PDB. You execute the following command:
SQL > CREATE UNDO TABLESPACE undotb01
DATAFILE `u01/oracle/rddb1/undotbs01.dbf' SIZE 60M AUTOEXTEND ON;
What is the result?

A. It executes successfully and creates an UNDO tablespace in HR_PDB.

B. It falls and reports an error because there can be only one undo tablespace in a CDB.
C. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not specified in the command.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not specified in the
command.
E. It executes successfully but neither tablespace nor the data file is created.

Correct Answer: E
Explanation/Reference:
Multitenant architecture the undo tablespace resides at the CDB level and PDBs all share the same UNDO
tablespace.
When the current container is a PDB, an attempt to create an undo tablespace fails without returning an
error.

QUESTION 141
Which three statements are true about SQL plan directives?
A. They are tied to a specific statement or SQL ID.
B. They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate
a more optimal plan.
C. They are used to gather only missing statistics.
D. They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the
optimizer are incorrect.
E. They instruct the optimizer to create only column group statistics.
F. Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX
tablespace.

Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation/Reference:
directives. During SQL compilation, the optimizer examines the query corresponding to the directive to
determine whether missing extensions or histograms exist (D). The optimizer records any missing
extensions. Subsequent DBMS_STATS calls collect statistics for the extensions.
The optimizer uses dynamic sampling whenever it does not have sufficient statistics corresponding to the
directive. (B, not C)
E: Currently, the optimizer monitors only column groups. The optimizer does not create an extension on
expressions.
Incorrect:
Not A: SQL plan directives are not tied to a specific SQL statement or SQL ID.
Note:
* A SQL plan directive is additional information and instructions that the optimizer can use to generate a
more optimal plan. For example, a SQL plan directive can instruct the optimizer to record a missing
extension.

QUESTION 142
Examine these two statements:

Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace?

A. The MRKT tablespace is created as a small file tablespace, because the file size is less than the
minimum required for big file files.
B. The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C. Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the
MRKT tablespace.
D. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E. The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the
MRKT tablespace.

Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 143
In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are automatically
terminated after a specified period of time.
How would you accomplish this?

A. Setting a metric threshold

B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
sessions. (It's only like sniping on ebay in that a time is set for an action to occur.)
Oracle has several ways to disconnect inactive or idle sessions, both from within SQL*Plus via resources
profiles (connect_time, idle_time), and with the SQL*net expire time parameter. Here are two ways to
disconnect an idle session:
Set the idle_time parameter in the user profile
Set the sqlnet.ora parameter expire_time

QUESTION 144
Which four actions are possible during an Online Data file Move operation?

A. Creating and dropping tables in the data file being moved

B. Performing file shrink of the data file being moved
C. Querying tables in the data file being moved
D. Performing Block Media Recovery for a data block in the data file being moved
E. Flashing back the database
F. Executing DML statements on objects stored in the data file being moved

Correct Answer: ACEF

Explanation/Reference:
copy and rename Files. This can even be used to move Datafiles from or to ASM.
- New in Oracle Database 12c: FROM METAUNK. Physical Standby Database is in Active Data Guard
Mode (opened READ ONLY and Managed Recovery is running):
It is now possible to online move a Datafile while Managed Recovery is running, ie. the Physical Standby
Database is in Active Data Guard Mode. You con use this Command to move the Datafile
- A flashback operation does not relocate a moved data file to its previous location. If you move a data file
online from one location to another and later flash back the database to a point in time before the move,
then the Data file remains in the new location, but the contents of the Data file ore changed to the contents
at the time specified in the flashback. Oracle0 Database Administrator's Guide 12c Release 1 (12.1)

QUESTION 145
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains a pluggable database, HR_PDB. The default
permanent tablespace in HR_PDB is USERDATA. The container database (CDB) is open and you connect
RMAN.
You want to issue the following RMAN command:
RMAN > BACKUP TABLESPACE hr_pdb:userdata;
Which task should you perform before issuing the command?

A. Place the root container in ARHCHIVELOG mode.

B. Take the user data tablespace offline.
C. Place the root container in the nomount stage.
D. Ensure that HR_PDB is open.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation/Reference:
Genuine answer.

QUESTION 146
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze
impact on the performance of SQL statements.

A. Change in the Oracle Database version

B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade

Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation/Reference:
which compares the performance of the statements in a tuning set before and after a database change.
The database change can be as major or minor as you like, such as:
* (E) Database, operating system, or hardware upgrades.
* (A,C) Database, operating system, or hardware configuration changes.
* Database initialization parameter changes.
* Schema changes, such as adding indexes or materialized views.
* Refreshing optimizer statistics.
* Creating or changing SQL profiles.

QUESTION 147
You install a non-RAC Oracle Database. During Installation, the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) prompts
you to enter the path of the Inventory directory and also to specify an operating system group name.
Which statement is true?

A. The ORACLE_BASE base parameter is not set.

B. The installation is being performed by the root user.
C. The operating system group that is specified should have the root user as its member.
D. The operating system group that is specified must have permission to write to the inventory directory.

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
Providing a UNIX Group Name
If you are installing a product on a UNIX system, the Installer will also prompt you to provide the name of
the group which should own the base directory.
You must choose a UNIX group name which will have permissions to update, install, and deinstall Oracle
software. Members of this group must have write permissions to the base directory chosen.
Only users who belong to this group are able to install or deinstall software on this machine.
QUESTION 148
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database as a pluggable database (PDB) to a multitenant
container database (CDB).
The following are the possible steps to accomplish this task:
1. Place all the user-defined tablespace in read-only mode on the source database.
2. Upgrade the source database to a 12c version.
3. Create a new PDB in the target container database.
4. Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the VERSION parameter set to 12 using
the expdp utility.
5. Copy the associated data files and export the dump file to the desired location in the target database.
6. Invoke the Data Pump import utility on the new PDB database as a user with the
DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role and specify the full transportable import options.
7. Synchronize the PDB on the target container database by using the DBMS_PDS.SYNC_ODB function.
Identify the correct order of the required steps.

A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
E. 1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
1. Set user tablespaces in the source database to READ ONLY.
2. From the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 {11.2.0.3) environment, export the metadata and any data
residing in administrative tablespaces from the source database using the FULL=Y and
TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS parameters. Note that the VER$ION=12 parameter is required only when
exporting from an Oracle Database llg Release 2 database:
3. Copy the tablespace data files from the source system to the destination system. Note that the log file
from the export operation will list the data files required to be moved.
4. Create a COB on the destination system, including a PDB into which you will import the source database.
5. In the Oracle Database 12c environment, connect to the pre-created PDB and import the dump file. The
act of importing the dump file will plug the tablespace data files into the destination PDB Oracle White
Paper - Upgrading to Oracle Database 12c -August 2013

QUESTION 149
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Direct Network File system (DNFS)?

A. It utilizes the OS file system cache.

B. A traditional NFS mount is not required when using Direct NFS.
C. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
D. Direct NFS is available only in UNIX platforms.
E. Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.

Correct Answer: CE
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* To enable Direct NFS Client, you must replace the standard Oracle Disk Manager (ODM) library with one
that supports Direct NFS Client.
Incorrect:
Not A: Direct NFS Client is capable of performing concurrent direct I/O, which bypasses any operating
system level caches and eliminates any operating system write-ordering locks
Not B:
* To use Direct NFS Client, the NFS file systems must first be mounted and available over regular NFS
mounts.
* Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more
scalable access to NFS storage located on NAS storage devices (accessible over TCP/IP).
Not D: Direct NFS is provided as part of the database kernel, and is thus available on all supported
database platforms - even those that don't support NFS natively, like Windows.
Note:
* Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more
scalable access to NFS storage located on NAS storage devices (accessible over TCP/IP). Direct NFS is
built directly into the database kernel - just like ASM which is mainly used when using DAS or SAN storage.
* Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an internal I/O layer that provides faster access to large NFS files than
traditional NFS clients.

QUESTION 150
Examine the parameters for your database instance:

Which three statements are true about the process of automatic optimization by using cardinality feedback?

A. The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if there is
a huge difference in optimizer estimates and execution statistics.
B. The optimizer can re optimize a query only once using cardinality feedback.
C. The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
D. The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn statistics are
enabled.
E. After the optimizer identifies a query as a re-optimization candidate, statistics collected by the collectors
are submitted to the optimizer.

Correct Answer: ACD

Explanation/Reference:
D: if multi-column statistics are not present for the relevant combination of columns, the optimizer can fall
back on cardinality feedback.
(not B)* Cardinality feedback. This feature, enabled by default in 11.2, is intended to improve plans for
repeated executions.
optimizer_dynamic_sampling
optimizer_features_enable
* dynamic sampling or multi-column statistics allow the optimizer to more accurately estimate selectivity of
conjunctive predicates.
Note:
* OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls the level of dynamic sampling performed by the optimizer.
Range of values. 0 to 10
* Cardinality feedback was introduced in Oracle Database 11gR2. The purpose of this feature is to
automatically improve plans for queries that are executed repeatedly, for which the optimizer does not
estimate cardinalities in the plan properly. The optimizer may misestimate cardinalities for a variety of
reasons, such as missing or inaccurate statistics, or complex predicates. Whatever the reason for the
misestimate, cardinality feedback may be able to help.

QUESTION 151
You created an encrypted tablespace:

You then closed the encryption wallet because you were advised that this is secure.
Later in the day, you attempt to create the EMPLOYEES table in the SECURESPACE tablespace with the
SALT option on the EMPLOYEE column.
Which is true about the result?

A. It creates the table successfully but does not encrypt any inserted data in the EMPNAME column
because the wallet must be opened to encrypt columns with SALT.
B. It generates an error when creating the table because the wallet is closed.
C. It creates the table successfully, and encrypts any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the
wallet needs to be open only for tablespace creation.
D. It generates error when creating the table, because the salt option cannot be used with encrypted
tablespaces.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation/Reference:
* The environment setup for tablespace encryption is the same as that for transparent data encryption.
Before attempting to create an encrypted tablespace, a wallet must be created to hold the encryption key.
* Setting the tablespace master encryption key is a one-time activity. This creates the master
encryption key for tablespace encryption. This key is stored in an external security module (Oracle wallet)
and is used to encrypt the tablespace encryption keys.
* Before you can create an encrypted tablespace, the Oracle wallet containing the tablespace master
encryption key must be open. The wallet must also be open before you can access data in an encrypted
tablespace.
* Salt is a way to strengthen the security of encrypted data. It is a random string added to the data before it
is encrypted, causing repetition of text in the clear to appear different when encrypted. Salt removes the one
common method attackers use to steal data, namely, matching patterns of encrypted text.
* ALT | NO SALT By default the database appends a random string, called "salt," to the clear text of the
column before encrypting it. This default behavior imposes some limitations on encrypted columns:
/ If you specify SALT during column encryption, then the database does not compress the data in the
encrypted column even if you specify table compression for the table. However, the database does
compress data in unencrypted columns and encrypted columns without the SALT parameter.

QUESTION 152
On your Oracle Database, you issue the following commands to create indexes:
SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id) INVISIBLE;
SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id);
Which two statements are true?

A. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index created.

B. Both the indexes are updated when a row is inserted, updated, or deleted in the ORDERS table.
C. Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 is used by the optimizer for
queries on the ORDERS table.
D. The ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is not used by the optimizer even when the
OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameters is set to true.
E. Both the indexes are created and used by the optimizer for queries on the ORDERS table.
F. Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the optimizer for
queries on the ORDERS table.

Correct Answer: BF
Explanation/Reference:
B: The invisible index ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 and the bitmap index are both updated by DML operations
on the Orders table.
F: Since ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 is invisible only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the query optimizer.
Not C,Not D,Not E:
* ord_customer_ix1 is an invisible index and is therefore not used by the optimizer.
* VISIBLE | INVISIBLE Use this clause to specify whether the index is visible or invisible to the optimizer. An
invisible index is maintained by DML operations, but it is not be used by the optimizer during queries unless
you explicitly set the parameter OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES to TRUE at the session or system
level.
Note: Specify BITMAP to indicate that index is to be created with a bitmap for each distinct key, rather than
indexing each row separately. Bitmap indexes store the rowids associated with a key value as a bitmap.
Each bit in the bitmap corresponds to a possible rowid. If the bit is set, then it means that the row with the
corresponding rowid contains the key value. The internal representation of bitmaps is best suited for
applications with low levels of concurrent transactions, such as data warehousing.

QUESTION 153
A warehouse fact table in your Oracle 12c Database is range-partitioned by month and accessed frequently
with queries that span multiple partitions
The table has a local prefixed, range partitioned index.
Some of these queries access very few rows in some partitions and all the rows in other partitions, but
these queries still perform a full scan for all accessed partitions.
This commonly occurs when the range of dates begins at the end of a month or ends close to the start of a
month.
You want an execution plan to be generated that uses indexed access when only a few rows are accessed
from a segment, while still allowing full scans for segments where many rows are returned.
Which three methods could transparently help to achieve this result?

A. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table
partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
B. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the
table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
C. Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table,
which retains the existing local partitioned column.
D. Converting the partitioned table to a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the monthly
 tables, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for the
table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
F. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the
table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.

Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* Oracle 12c now provides the ability to index a subset of partitions and to exclude the others.
Local and global indexes can now be created on a subset of the partitions of a table. Partial Global indexes
provide more flexibility in index creation for partitioned tables. For example, index segments can be omitted
for the most recent partitions to ensure maximum data ingest rates without impacting the overall data model
and access for the partitioned object.
Partial Global Indexes save space and improve performance during loads and queries. This feature
supports global indexes that include or index a certain subset of table partitions or subpartitions, and
exclude the others. This operation is supported using a default table indexing property. When a table is
created or altered, a default indexing property can be specified for the table or its partitions.

QUESTION 154
You use the segment advisor to help determine objects for which space may be reclaimed.
Which three statements are true about the advisor given by the segment advisor?

A. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
B. It may advise the use of segment shrink for tables in dictionary managed tablespaces it the no chained
rows.
C. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D. It will detect and advise about chained rows.
E. It may advise the use of segment shrink for free list managed tables.

Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation/Reference:
* If the Segment Advisor determines that an object has a significant amount of free space, it recommends
online segment shrink. If the object is a table that is not eligible for shrinking, as in the case of a table in a
tablespace without automatic segment space management, the Segment Advisor recommends online table
redefinition (C).
* (D) If the Segment Advisor encounters a table with row chaining above a certain threshold, it records that
fact that the table has an excess of chained rows.

QUESTION 155
You have altered a non-unique index to be invisible to determine if queries execute within an acceptable
response time without using this index.
Which two are possible if table updates are performed which affect the invisible index columns?

A. The index remains invisible.

B. The index is not updated by the DML statements on the indexed table.
C. The index automatically becomes visible in order to have it updated by DML on the table.
D. The index becomes unusable but the table is updated by the DML.
E. The index is updated by the DML on the table.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
* Oracle 11g allows indexes to be marked as invisible. Invisible indexes are maintained like any other index,
but they are ignored by the optimizer unless the OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameter is set
to TRUE at the instance or session level. Indexes can be created as invisible by using the INVISIBLE
keyword, and their visibility can be toggled using the ALTER INDEX command.

QUESTION 156
The persistent configuration settings for RMAN have default for all parameters.
Identify four RMAN commands that produce a multi-section backup.

A. BACKUP TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;

B. BACKUP AS COPY TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;
C. BACKUP ARCHIVELOG ALL SECTION SIZE 25M;
D. BACKUP TABLESPACE "TEMP" SECTION SIZE 10M;
E. BACKUP TABLESPACE "UNDO" INCLUDE CURRENT CONTROLFILE SECTION SIZE 100M;
F. BACKUP SPFILE SECTION SIZE 1M;
G. BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 TABLESPACE SYSAUX SECTION SIZE 100M;

Correct Answer: ABEG

Explanation/Reference:
Answer is sophisticated.

QUESTION 157
The following parameter are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:
OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=FALSE
OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE
You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:
1. Set the evolve task parameters.
2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
3. Implement the recommendations in the task by using the
DBMS_SPM.IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
4. Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
5. Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM.REPORT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
Identify the correct sequence of steps:

A. 2, 4, 5
B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
*
2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function. This function
creates an advisor task to prepare the plan evolution of one or more plans for a specified SQL statement.
The input parameters can be a SQL handle, plan name or a list of plan names, time limit, task name, and
description.
1. Set the evolve task parameters.
SET_EVOLVE_TASK_PARAMETER
This function updates the value of an evolve task parameter. In this release, the only valid parameter is
TIME_LIMIT.
4. Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function. This function
executes an evolution task. The input parameters can be the task name, execution name, and execution
description. If not specified, the advisor generates the name, which is
returned by the function.
3: IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK
This function implements all recommendations for an evolve task. Essentially, this function is equivalent to
using ACCEPT_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE for all recommended plans. Input parameters include task name,
plan name, owner name, and execution name.
5. Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM_EVOLVE_TASK function. This function displays the
results of an evolve task as a CLOB. Input parameters include the task name and section of the report to
include.
Reference: Oracle Database SQL Tuning Guide 12c, Managing SQL Plan Baselines

QUESTION 158
In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high number of
buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list managed segments.
On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks.
Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?

A. Decreasing PCTUSED
B. Decreasing PCTFREE
C. Increasing the number of DBWN process
D. Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E. Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation

Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
managing space within a segment. It completely eliminates any need to specify and tune the
pctused,freelists, and freelist groups storage parameters for schema objects created in the tablespace. If
any of these attributes are specified, they are ignored.
* Oracle introduced Automatic Segment Storage Management (ASSM) as a replacement for traditional
freelists management which used one-way linked-lists to manage free blocks with tables and indexes.
ASSM is commonly called "bitmap freelists" because that is how Oracle implement the internal data
structures for free block management.
Note:
* Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the data buffer
pool (db_cache_size, etc.).
* The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR) contention tuning,
adding freelists (or ASSM), and adding missing indexes.

QUESTION 159
Examine this command:
SQL > exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS (`SH', `CUSTOMERS', `PUBLISH', `false');
Which three statements are true about the effect of this command?

A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending
statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending
statistics.

Correct Answer: CDE

Explanation/Reference:
This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified schema.
* Example:
Using Pending Statistics
Assume many modifications have been made to the employees table since the last time statistics were
gathered. To ensure that the cost-based optimizer is still picking the best plan, statistics should be gathered
once again; however, the user is concerned that new statistics will cause the optimizer to choose bad plans
when the current ones are acceptable. The user can do the following:
EXEC DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS('hr', 'employees', 'PUBLISH', 'false');
By setting the employees tables publish preference to FALSE, any statistics gather from now on
will not be automatically published. The newly gathered statistics will be marked as pending.

QUESTION 160
Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle
database (source):
Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command?

A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database with the
DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user on the source
database with the DATAPUMP_EXD_FULL_DATABASE role.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same platform with the same endianness.
E. The path of data files on the target database must be the same as that on the source database.
F. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.

Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation/Reference:
different then we have to first perform conversion.

QUESTION 161
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database?

A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.

B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.

Correct Answer: DE
Explanation/Reference:
well developed answer.

QUESTION 162
Examine the current value for the following parameters in your database instance:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M
SGA_TARGET = 700M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 124M
LOG_BUFFER = 200M
You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;
Which statement is true?

A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.

B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.
D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within
SGA_MAX_SIZE.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation/Reference:
SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter, and it can also be reduced.
* Example:
For example, suppose you have an environment with the following configuration:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M
SGA_TARGET = 512M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, the value of SGA_TARGET can be resized up to 1024M and can also be reduced until one
or more of the automatically sized components reaches its minimum size. The exact value depends on
environmental factors such as the number of CPUs on the system. However,
the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE remains fixed at all times at 128M
* DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE
Size of cache for 8K buffers
* For example, consider this configuration:
SGA_TARGET = 512M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, increasing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16 M to 144M means that the 16M is taken away from
the automatically sized components. Likewise, reducing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16M to 112M means that
the 16M is given to the automatically sized components.

QUESTION 163
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.

B. The PDB must be dosed.
C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.

Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation/Reference:
D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode
information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion of such
columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an
endianness difference.
E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the
source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that the PDB's datafiles can remain in place.
Reference: Oracle White Paper, Oracle Multitenant

QUESTION 164
Examine the following command:
CREATE TABLE (prod_id number(4),
Prod_name varchar2 (20),
Category_id number(30),
Quantity_on_hand number (3) INVISIBLE);
Which three statements are true about using an invisible column in the PRODUCTS table?
A. The %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL to access a row will not display the invisible column
in the output.
B. The DESCRIBE commands in SQL *Plus will not display the invisible column in the output.
C. Referential integrity constraint cannot be set on the invisible column.
D. The invisible column cannot be made visible and can only be marked as unused.
E. A primary key constraint can be added on the invisible column.

Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation/Reference:
show the invisible columns in the table. For example, the following operations do not display invisible
columns in the output:
* SELECT * FROM statements in SQL
* DESCRIBE commands in SQL*Plus
* %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL
* Describes in Oracle Call Interface (OCI)
Incorrect:
Not D: You can make invisible columns visible.
You can make a column invisible during table creation or when you add a column to a table, and you can
later alter the table to make the same column visible.
Reference: Understand Invisible Columns

QUESTION 165
You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT.
You issue the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYS;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYSTEM;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SCOTT;
For which database users is the audit policy now active?

A. All users except SYS

B. All users except SCOTT
C. All users except sys and SCOTT
D. All users except sys, system, and SCOTT

Correct Answer: B
Explanation/Reference:
EXCEPT users, then Oracle Database uses the last exception user list, not any of the users from the
preceding lists. This means the effect of the earlier AUDIT POLICY ... EXCEPT statements are overridden
by the latest AUDIT POLICY ... EXCEPT statement.
Note:
* The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings.
By default, this policy is not enabled.
* You can use the keyword ALL to audit all actions. The following example shows how to audit all actions on
the HR.EMPLOYEES table, except actions by user pmulligan.
Example Auditing All Actions on a Table
CREATE AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol
ACTIONS ALL ON HR.EMPLOYEES;
AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol EXCEPT pmulligan;
Reference: Oracle Database Security Guide 12c, About Enabling Unified Audit Policies