09-03-2025

9610ZMD801235240019 MD

PHYSICS

1) The r.m.s. current in an AC circuit is 2A. If the wattless current be , what is the power factor?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A time varying potential difference is applied between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of
capacitance 2.5 μF. The dielectric constant of the medium between the capacitor plates is 1. It
produces an instantaneous displacement current of 0.25 mA in the intervening space between the
capacitor plates, the magnitude of the rate of change of the potential difference will be ………… Vs–1.

(1) 100
(2) 200
(3) 300
(4) 400

3) A plane electromagnetic wave propagates along the +x direction in free space. The components of
the electric field, and magnetic field, associated with the wave in Cartesian frame are : -

(1) Ey, Bx
(2) Ey, Bz
(3) Ex, By
(4) Ez, By

4) Calculate the quality factor of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0 H,C = 2µF and R = 10 Ω.

(1) 200
(2) 100
(3) 300
(4) 400

5) Two sphere of mass 4 kg and 8 kg are placed such that their centre are 12 m away from each
other. Find net gravitational force intensity at their centre of mass.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth at a height h from its surface. (M is mass of the earth

and its radius is R). Match the columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Kinetic energy of the satellite (p)

Potential energy of the

(b) (q)
satellite

(c) Total energy of the satellite (r)

Binding energy of earth -

(d) (s)
satellite system
(1) a→q; b→p; c→r; d→q
(2) a→q; b→p; c→q; d→s
(3) a→q; b→p; c→q; d→r
(4) a→s; b→r; c→p; d→q

7) An electric charge 10–6mC is placed at origin (0, 0) m of X –Y co-ordinate system. Two points P and
Q are situated at and respectively. The potential difference between the points
P and Q will be : -

(1)
(2)
(3) 0 V
(4) 3 V

8) Given below are two statements : one is labelled a Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion (A) : Work done by electric field on moving a positive charge on an equipotential surface
is always zero.
Reason (R) : Electric lines of forces are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below : -
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

9) Two charges of –4 μC and +4 μC are placed at the points A(1, 0, 4)m and B(2, –1, 5) m located in
an electric field . The magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is
, Where α = _____.

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 4

10) A physical quantity σ is given by . The percentage error in the measurements of P, Q,

R and S are 2%, 1%, 3%, 6% respectively. Then find out the % error in σ.

(1) 14%
(2) 12%
(3) 16%
(4) 8%

11) Assertion :- Light year and year, both measure time.

Reason :- Light year is the time taken by the light to reach the earth from the sun.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion and reason both are false

12) On the basis of increasing energy gap, correct order is :

(1) Conductor, Semiconductor, Insulator

(2) Insulator, Conductor, Semiconductor
(3) Conductor, Insulator, Semiconductor
(4) Semiconductor, Conductor, Insulator

13) All the diodes are ideal. The current flowing in 2Ω resistor connected between the diodes D1 and
D2 is :-
(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 3A
(4) Zero

14) A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity of 3 ×
106 ms–1. The velocity of the particle is (Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)

(1) 3 × 10–31 ms–1

(2) 2.7 × 10–21 ms–1
(3) 2.7 × 10–18 ms–1
(4) 9 × 10–2 ms–1

15) If the mass number of an atom is A = 40 and its electron configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6,
the number of neutrons and protons in its nucleus will be

(1) 22,18
(2) 18,22
(3) 20,20
(4) 18,18

16) v vs t curve is shown in diagram, then amplitude of SHM will be:

(1) 10 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 100 cm

17) A simple pendulum of frequency n falls freely under gravity. Its frequency of oscillation will : -

(1) become infinity

(2) be greater than n
(3) be less than n
(4) become zero

18) A tuning fork with frequency 800 Hz produces resonance in a resonance column tube with upper
end open and lower end closed by water surface. Successive resonance are observed at length 9.75
cm, 31.25 cm and 52.75 cm. The speed of sound in air is : -

(1) 500 m/s

(2) 156 m/s
(3) 344 m/s
(4) 172 m/s

19) The ratio of velocity of sound in hydrogen and oxygen at STP is : -

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

20) A Particle of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. A force acts on it whose magnitude changes with time.

The force time graph is shown below :- The velocity of the particle
after 10 s is :-

(1) 20 ms–1
(2) 10 ms–1
(3) 50 ms–1
(4) 26 ms–1

21) A mass 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is

(i) lifted up with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2.
(ii) lowered with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2.
The ratio of the tensions is :-

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

22) On increasing the temperature of gas by 5°C it's pressure increases by 0.5% from it's initial
value at constant volume then what is initial temperature of gas :-
(1) 1000°C
(2) 1000 K
(3) 500°C
(4) 500 K

23) In an ideal refrigerator, heat from inside at 277K is transferred to a room at 300 K. How many
joules of heat will be delivered to the room for each joule of electric energy consumed?

(1) 12 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 13 J
(4) 25 J

24) On Celsius scale temp of a body increases by 30°C, then the increase in temperature on
Fahrenheit scale (°F) will be :-

(1) 50°
(2) 40°
(3) 30°
(4) 54°

25) Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic
conductor.
Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I
and Column-II with appropriate relations.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Drift Velocity (P)

(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q)

(C) Relaxation Period (R)

(D) Current Density (S)

(E) Mobility (T)

(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(T), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q), (E)-(S)

(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q), (E)-(T)
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(T), (D)-(Q), (E)-(S)
(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P), (E)-(T)

26) Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The

ratio of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The effective capacitances of two capacitors are 2µF and 9 µF, when they are connected in
series and parallel respectively. The capacitance of two capacitors are :

(1) 4 µF, 5 µF
(2) 3 µF, 6 µF
(3) 4.5 µF, 4.5 µF
(4) 18 µF, 1 µF

28) The Charge supplied by the source in the arrangement shown in figure is :

(1) 300 µC
(2) 150 µC
(3) 250 µC
(4) 200 µC

29) The radius of a soap bubble is increased from cm to cm. If the surface tension of water is
30 dynes per cm, then the work done will be

(1) 180 ergs

(2) 360 ergs
(3) 720 ergs
(4) 960 ergs

30) A spherical ball of radius 3.0 × 10–4 m and density 104 kgm–3 falls freely uner gravity through a
distance h before entering a tank of water. If after entering the water the velocity of the ball does
not change, what is the value of h (Viscosity of water is 9.8 × 10–6 Nsm–2) :-

(1) 1.65 × 103 m

(2) 2.65 × 102 m
(3) 3.65 × 104 m
(4) 1.45 × 102 m

31) A particle of mass m and charge of magnitude q is moving with a velocity v. It enters a region of
uniform magnetic field B as shown in the figure. The particle strikes the wall at a distance d from the
entrance slit. If the particle's velocity stays the same but its charge to mass ratio is doubled,

distance from the entrance slit where the particle strike the wall is , then find n.

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 6

32) A square loop of conducting wire is placed near a long straight current carrying wire as shown.
Match the statements in column-I with the corresponding results in column-II:
 Column-I Column-II

(p) Induced current in

(A) If the magnitude of
the loop will be
current I is increased
clockwise.

(q) Induced current in

(B) If the magnitude of
the loop will be
current I is decreased
anticlockwise.

(C) If the loop is moved (r) Wire will attract the

away from the wire loop

(D) If the loop is moved (s) Wire will repel the

towards the wire loop
(1) A(q, s), B(p, r), C(p, r), D(q, s)
(2) A(r, q), B(r, p), C(q, p), D(r, p)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) A(p, q), B(r, p), C(q, s), D(r, p)

33) A fixed square loop of side 1m is placed in a perpendicular magnetic field. Half of the area of the
loop is inside the magnetic field. A battery of emf 10 V and negligible internal resistance is
connected in the loop. The magnetic field changes with time according to relation B = 0.01 – 2t
Tesla. The resultant current in the loop will be(given resistance of loop is 1 ohms)

(1) 1 A
(2) 11 A
(3) 10 A
(4) 9 A

34) A magnet is heated so as to reduce its magnetic moment by 19%. What will be the effect on time
period of oscillation then the magnet is put in a uniform magnetic field ?

(1) Decrease by 21%

(2) Increase by 11%
(3) Decrease by 19%
(4) Increase by 19%

35) A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The
associated magnetic moment m is given by :-

(1)

(2) qvR2

(3)

(4) qvR

36) A ball rolls off the top of a stairway with horizontal velocity u. The steps are 0.1 m high and 0.1
m wide. The minimum velocity u with which that ball just hits the step 5 of the stairway will
be ms–1 where x = _____
[use g = 10 m/s2].

(1)
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4)

37) The figure shows the position-time graph of a particle moving in a straight line path. What is

magnitude of average velocity of the particle over 10 seconds.

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) –2 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

38) An object placed 10 cm in front of a lens has a image 20 cm behind the lens. What is the power
of the lens (in dioptres)?
(1) 1.5
(2) 3.0
(3) –15.0
(4) +15.0

39) An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The
seperation between the objective and the eye-piece is 36 cm. The final image is formed at infinity.
The focal length f0 of the objective and fe of the eye-piece are :-

(1) 45 cm and –9 cm
(2) 50 cm and 10 cm
(3) 7.2 cm and 5 cm
(4) 30 cm and 6 cm

40) In single slit Fraunhoffer diffraction width of slit is 1000 nm and wavelength of light is 500 nm.
Distance between the slit and the screen is 2 m. Angular width of the central maxima will be :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 70°

41) A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two fragments which fly off with velocities 27 : 1. The ratio of
radius of fragments :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

42) A body of mass m is moving with constant velocity parallel to x-axis. The angular momentum
with respect to origin :

(1) Increases with time

(2) Decreases with time
(3) Does not change
(4) None of above

43) A body is rolling down on inclined plane. If K.E. of rotation is 40% of K.E. of translatory motion,
then the body is a-

(1) Ring
(2) Cylinder
(3) Hollow ball
(4) Solid ball
44) A particle of mass 100 g is performing vertical circular motion as shown in the figure. Find

tangential acceleration at the given position :-

(1) 500 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 0.5 m/s2
(4) 100 m/s2

45) A force given by the relation F = 8t acts on a body of mass 2 kg initially at rest. The work done
by this force on the body during first 2 sec of its motion is :-

(1) 64 J
(2) zero
(3) 128 J
(4) 256 J

CHEMISTRY

1) The rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the :–

(1) Concentration of the reactant

(2) Concentration of the product
(3) Volume of the reaction container
(4) Temperature

2) For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g), the rate of disappearance of H2 is 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1s–1. The
rate of appearance of HI will be :

(1) 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

(2) 2.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 0.50 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 4.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

3)

The temperature dependence of the rate constant k is expressed as k = When a plot

between log k and 1/T is plotted we get the graph as shown. What is the value of slope in the graph ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Salt bridge contains :

(1) calomel
(2) corrosive sublimate
(3) H2O
(4) agar-agar Paste

5) Consider the cell potentials and . The best reducing agent

would be :

(1) Mg2+
(2) Fe3+
(3) Mg
(4) Fe

6) Consider the following relations for emf of a electrochemical cell :

(a) emf of cell =(Oxidation potential of anode) – (Reduction potential of cathode)
(b) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
(c) emf of cell = (Reduction potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)
(d) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Oxidation potential of cathode)
Which of the above relations are correct :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (c) and (a)

7) When a substance is dissolved in a solvent, the vapour pressure of solvent decreases. It brings.

(1) A decrease in boiling point of solution

(2) An increase in boiling point of the solution
(3) A decrease in freezing point of the solution
(4) An increase in freezing point of the solution

8) The molal depression constant for water is 1.86°C mole–1. If 342 gm of canesugar (C12H22O11) are
dissolved in 1000gm of water, the solution will freeze at

(1) –1.86° C
(2) 1.86° C
(3) –3.92° C
(4) 2.42° C

9) The correct I.U.P.A.C numbering in compound is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Order of acidic strength in the following carboxylic acids :

(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) II > III > IV > I
(3) III > II < IV > I
(4) I > IV > II > III

11) A very common adsorbent used in column chromatography is :

(1) Powdered charcoal

(2) Alumina
(3) Chalk
(4) Sodium carbonate

12) Which of the following compounds will give Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen?

(1) NH2NH2
(2) NH2OH
(3) NaCN
(4) NaNO3

13) What is the correct order of decreasing stability of the following cations?

I.

II.

III.

(1) II > I > III

(2) II > III > I
(3) III > I > III
(4) I > II > III

14) Which of the following alkanes cannot be produced by Kolbe electrolysis of sodium or potassium
salts of carboxylic acids?

(1) Methane
(2) Ethane
(3) Butane
(4) Hexane

15) Which of the following compounds will show cis-trans isomerism?

(1) (CH3)2C=CH–C2H5
(2) H2C=CCl2
(3) CH3HC=CClCH3
(4) HClC=CH2

16) The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only carbon dioxide) in the production of 270 kg of
Al metal from bauxite by Hall process is :

(1) 270 kg
(2) 540 g
(3) 90 kg
(4) 180 g

17) Change in volume of the system does not alter the number of moles in which of the following
equilibriums ?

(1) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)

(2) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(4) SO2Cl2(g) ⇌ SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

18) Difference in wavelength of two extreme lines of Lyman series in emission spectrum of He+
would be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of an aqueous buffered solution of HA, in which 50%
of the acid is ionized, is :

(1) 9.5
(2) 7.0
(3) 4.5
(4) 2.5
20) For reaction
2A(g) + 3B(g) → 4C(g) + D(s)
Calculate work involved during reaction if reaction occurs at constant pressure and 300 K :

(1) 600 cal

(2) 300 cal
(3) 150 cal
(4) 1200 cal

21) Equivalent weight of NH3 is the change N2 → NH3 is :

(1)

(2) 17

(3)

(4)

22) The surface tension of lyophilic sols is

(1) Lower than H2O

(2) More than H2O
(3) Equal to H2O
(4) None of the above

23) Successive ionisation potentials of an element M are 8.3, 25.1, 37.9, 259.3 and 340.1 eV. The
formula of its bromide is

(1) MBr5
(2) MBr4
(3) MBr3
(4) MBr2

24) Which of the following is not different for an atom and its corresponding ion :-

(1) Number of electrons

(2) Nuclear charge
(3) Size
(4) None of these

25) Match the following

List-1 List-2
(High value is observed for)
(A) Ionisation potential (1) Chlorine
(B) Electro positivity (2) Caesium
(C) Electron affinity (3) Helium
(D) Oxidation state (4) Fluorine
(5) Osmium
The correct match is

(1) A → 4 ; B → 3 ; C → 2 ; D→ 1
(2) A → 3 ; B → 2 ; C → 1 ; D→ 5
(3) A → 1 ; B → 2 ; C → 3 ; D→ 4
(4) A → 2 ; B → 1 ; C → 4 ; D→ 5

26) Two pi and half sigma bonds are present in

(1)
(2) N2
(3)
(4) O2

27) Statement (I):- A π bonding MO has lower electron density above and below the inter-nuclear
axis.
Statement (II):- The π* antibonding MO has a node between the nuclei.
Answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(3) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
(4) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.

28) The following compounds are to be arranged in order of their increasing thermal stabilities.
Identify the correct order.
1. K2CO3 2. MgCO3
3. CaCO3 4. BeCO3

(1) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4

(2) 4 < 2 < 3 < 1
(3) 4 < 2 < 1 < 3
(4) 2 < 4 < 3 < 1

29) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) :- According to the Law of Octaves, the elements were arranged in the increasing
order of their atomic number.
Statement (II) :- Meyer observed a periodically repeated pattern upon plotting physical properties
of certain elements against their respective atomic numbers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
30) What is the oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+ ion ?

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +1
(4) 0

31) A platinum complex of ammonia and chorine produces four ions per molecule in the solution. It
is :

(1) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3
(2) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
(4) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2

32) Select incorrect statement.

(1) cis-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] is an anticancer compound.

(2) Cobalt cation is present in Vitamin B12.
(3) Mn cation is present in chlorophyll
(4) EDTA4– is used to estimate Ca2+ and Mg2+ cations.

33) Select correct statement.

(1) Lead poisoning is removed by carbon mono oxide by complex formation.

(2) Hardness of water is estimated by EDTA4–.
(3) Ag+ does not form cyano complex with excess KCN.
(4) TiCl3(aq) is colourless while TiCl4(aq) is coloured.

34) SiCl4 on hydrolysis gives :

(1) Silica
(2) Silicic acid
(3) Silicone
(4) Silicate

35) The correct order of decreasing ionic nature of lead dihalides is:

(1) PbF2 > PbCl2 > PbBr2 > PbI2

(2) PbF2 > PbBr2 > PbCl2 > PbI2
(3) PbF2 < PbCl2 > PbBr2 < PbI2
(4) PbI2 < PbBr2 < PbCl2 < PbF2

36) Statement-I Sodium dichromate is more soluble than potassium dichromate.

Statement-II Potassium dichromate is prepared by heating the solution of sodium dichromate with
potassium chloride.
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.

37) Assertion (A) : Aqueous solution of Mohr's salt exhibits the test for NH4+, Fe2+ and SO42– ions.

Reason (R) : Mohr's salt is a double salt.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

38) Assertion (A) :- Bimolecular dehydration of alcohol is not suitable method to obtaine ethyl
methyl ether.
Reason (R) :- n propyl alcohol gives 1-chloropropane with conc. H—Cl.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not right explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(4) If both (A) and (R) is wrong.

39) Assertion (A) :- R-2-chlorobutane gives S-2-methoxy butane on reaction with sodium methoxide
Reason (R) :- Reaction will be SN2

(1) Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not right explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(4) Both (A) and (R) is wrong.

40) Which of the following pair is differentiated by iodoform test?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

41) Which of the following yield But-2-ene on dehydration with con. H2SO4 ?

(1) 2-Methyl-2-butanol
(2) 2-Propanol
(3) 2-Methyl-2-propanol
(4) Butan-2-ol

42) Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation
followed by heating ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43)
A is :-

(1) Identical structure

(2) Position isomers
(3) Geometrical isomers
(4) None of the above

44) Hydrolysis of optically active 2-bromobutane gives-

(1) (d)-butan-2-ol
(2) (ℓ)-butan-2-ol
(3) (dℓ)-butan-2-ol
(4) None of these
45) Vitamin C is called :

(1) Antisterility
(2) Antiscurvy
(3) both of these
(4) None of these

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following features are correct for Homo erectus?

(i) Had a large brain around 900 c.c.
(ii) Probably ate meat.
(iii) Appeared about 1.5 mya year ago.
(iv) Evolved from H. habilis.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) None of these
(4) All of these

2) Assertion : Organic compounds first evolved in earth required for origin of life were protein and
nucleic acid.
Reason : All life forms were in water environment only.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

3) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A Wallace I Essay on population

B Malthus II Biston moth

C Hardy-Weinberg law III p2+2pq+q2=1

D Industrial melanism IV Co-proposer of natural selection

(1) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(3) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(4) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II

4) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding PCR?

(1) In PCR, two primers are used.

(2) Taq DNA polymerase is related for PCR.
(3) Taq DNA polymerase is not thermostable.
(4) Multiple copies of gene can be synthesized in PCR.

5) Match the items of column-I with those in column-II and choose the correct option.

Column–I Column–II

A Recombinant DNA technology I Vector

B Cloning vehicles II Sealing enzyme

C Macromolecular separation III Electrophoresis

D DNA ligase IV Genetic engineering

(1) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(2) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – III; D – II
(4) A – I; B – IV; C – II; D – III

6) The given figure shows a simple stirred tank bioreactor with their parts labelled as A, B, C and D.
Identify A, B, C and D.

(1) A-Motor; B-pH control; C-Foam braker; D-Sterile air

(2) A-pH control; B-Motor; C-Foam braker; D-Sterile air
(3) A-pH control; B-Sterile air; C-Motor; D-Foam braker
(4) A-Motor; B-Sterile air; C-pH control; D-Foam braker

7) Cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins that control :

(1) Cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively.

(2) Cotton borer and cotton bollworms respectively.
(3) Tobacco budworms and nematodes respectively.
(4) Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively.

8) RNA interference involves :

(1) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA.

(2) Synthesis of cDNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase.
(3) Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA.
(4) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA.

9) Which technique would be completely curative in SCID ?

(1) Gene therapy in adult stage.

(2) Gene therapy in embryonic stage.
(3) Bone marrow transplantation.
(4) Enzyme replacement therapy.

10) Which of the following is a correct match.

Cofactors Chemical nature Association

(a) Prosthetic gp Organic Tightly bound

(b) Coenzymes Inorganic Transient association

(c) Metal ion Inorganic Transient association

(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) All of the above

11) Match column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

A GLUT-4 I Hormone

B Insulin II Heteropolymer

C Trypsin III Homopolymer

D Chitin IV Enables glucose transport into cells

(1) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
(2) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(3) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II
(4) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

12) Assertion : In solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acids remains constant.
Reason : A particular property of amino acid is the ionizable nature of -NH2 and -COOH.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(4) Assertion is true but reason is false.

13) How many of the following is observed in the interphase stage of cell ?
Chromatid, Centriole, Nucleolus, Centromere, Kinetochore

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Two

14) In which phase of meiosis the chromosomes do undergo some dispersion but they do not reach
the extremely extended state of the interphase nucleus:-

(1) Prophase-I
(2) metaphase-I
(3) Telophase-I
(4) Prophase-II

15) In which phase of mitosis the homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids
remain associated at their centromeres :

(1) Anaphase
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) No any meaning of this statement

16) In a diploid cell after S-phase quantity of DNA is 20 pico gram then after telophase-II situation
will be in each daughter nucleus :-

(1) Diploid, 10 pico gram DNA

(2) Haploid, 10 pico gram DNA
(3) Haploid, 5 pico gram DNA
(4) Diploid, 5 pico gram DNA

17) Which of the following is true for mitochondria?

(A) Mitochondrial ribosome is smaller than bacterial ribosome.
(B) Single stranded circular DNA is present in matrix.
(C) Mitochondrial matrix can synthesize protein.
(D) Outer membrane is highly folded and form cristae.

(1) A, C and D only

(2) A, B and D only
(3) Only C
(4) A and D only

18) The cellular component at the base of each cilium or flagellum is :-

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Nucleus
(3) Microtubules
(4) Centriole

19) The stroma of chloroplast has :-

(1) Enzyme for protein synthesis

(2) Enzyme for carbohydrate synthesis
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Enzyme for aerobic respiration

20) Elaioplasts help in storage of :-

(1) Fats and oils

(2) Proteins
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Nucleic acids

21) Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(a) FSH (i) Maintain endometrium for implantation

Develop female secondary sexual

(b) LH (ii)
characters

(c) Progesterone (iii) Contraction of uterine wall

(d) Estrogen (iv) Development of corpus luteum

(v) Stimulates follicular development

(1) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v
(4) a-v, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

22) Assertion : Breast feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors
for bringing up a healthy baby.
Reason : The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum which
contain antibodies essential to develop resistance for the new born baby.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

23) Identify A and B and their respective functions:

A B Function of

A B

Trophoblast Inner cell Attach to the Differentiated

(1)
mass Endometrium as embryo

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(2) Trophoblast
mass as embryo Endometrium

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(3) Mesoderm
mass as embryo Endometrium

Attach to the Differentiated

(4) Ectodenn Mesoderm
Endometrium as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Given below are two statements

Statement-I : Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the
ejaculatory duct
Statement-II : The cavity of cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina form birth canal.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

25) Match the following :

Non-medicated Uterus
(A) (a) Oral pill (i)
IUDs unsuitable

Phagocytose
(B) Mala-D (b) Centchroman (ii)
the sperm
 Hormone Check the
(C) (c) Lippe's loop (iii)
releasing IUDs ovulation

Weekly oral
(D) Saheli (d) Progestasert (iv)
pill
(1) A-b-i, B-c-ii, C-d-iii, D-a-iv
(2) A-c-iv, B-a-iii, C-d-i, D-a-ii
(3) A-c-ii, B-a-iii, C-d-i, D-b-iv
(4) A-a-iii, B-c-ii, C-d-ii, D-a-iv

26) Statement-I:- ZIFT – The zygote or early embryo (Up to 8 Blastomere) could be transferred into
the fallopian tube.
Statement-II:- IUT – More then 8 blastomeres stage could be transferred into the fallopion tube.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

27) Identify the likely A, B, C, D in the following life cycle

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Salivary
(1) Sporozoites Gametocytes Liver
gland

Salivary
(2) Gametocytes Sporozoites Liver
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Gametocytes Liver
gland

Salivary
(4) Gametocytes Sporozoites Liver
gland
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Identify the skeletal structure represented in the diagram and mark the drug that belongs to it

and the main function performed by them

(1) LSD - Synthetic drug - Hallucinogen

(2) Cannabinoid - Bhang - Hallucinogen
(3) Opioid - Morphine - Pain killer
(4) Cocaine - Caffeine - Stimulant

29) Assertion (A) :- The bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ.
Reason (R) :- In bone marrow all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.
Choose the correct answer from the given options :-

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

30) Match the disease in column-A with the appropriate item (prevention/treatment) in column-B and
select the appropriate option :-

Column-A Column-B

(a) Amoebiasis (i) Mosquito repellent cream

(b) Diptheria (ii) Use only sterilised food and water

(c) Cholera (iii) DPT vaccine

(d) Dengue (iv) Use of oral rehydration solution and antibiotics

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) ______ is the birth rate of a population.

(1) Natality
(2) Mortality
(3) Sex ratio
(4) Population dynamics

32) What does the shape of the given age pyramids reflects about the growth status of the related

population ?

(i) (ii)

(1) Expanding Stable

(2) Stable Declining

(3) Expanding Declining

(4) Declining Stable

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Coevolution, Coextinction and Coexistance are observed in :-

(1) Mutualism
(2) Predation
(3) Commensalism
(4) Competition

34) Assertion : Removal of keystone species from any ecosystem leads to the destruction of entire
ecosystem.
Reason : Keystone species drive major ecosystem functions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

35) Assertion : Pyramid of energy is always upright, never be inverted.

Reason : When energy flow from a lower trophic level to heigher trophic level, some energy is
always lost as heat at each step.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

36) Which type of productivity is used in formation of tissues in plant ?

(1) GPP
(2) GSP
(3) NPP
(4) NSP

37) According to Tilman, how species rich biological community show more stability:-

(1) Areas with more species show less year to year variation in total biomass
(2) Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity
(3) Provide resistance to invasions by alien species
(4) All of these

38) Global biodiversity is shown in terms of species in the given groups. Identify the groups - A, B

and C :-

A B C
(1) Angiosperms Algae Mosses
Fern and
(2) Angiosperms Algae
allies
(3) Algae Ferns Lichens
(4) Algae Angiosperms Mosses
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) What is the sequence of genes on chromosome if frequency of crossing over between A-B is 20%,
A-C is 15%, B-C is 5%, A-D is 10% and B-D is 30%?

(1) A B C D
(2) C B D A
(3) D A C B
(4) D A B C

40) Which statement is true for sex determination is honey-bee ?

(1) Sex is determined by sex index ratio

(2) Female is formed by means of parthenogenesis
(3) Females are diploid having 32 chromosome
(4) Male (Drone) produce sperm by meiosis

41) Assertion (A) : Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel to the behaviour of genes.

Reason (R) : Genes are located on the chromosomes.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.

42) During phosphodiester bond formation, a phosphate group is bonded with :-

(1) 5'–OH of one sugar and 2'–OH of next sugar

(2) 3'–OH of one sugar and 5'–OH of next sugar
(3) 3'–OH of one sugar and 2'–OH of next sugar
(4) 5'–OH of one sugar and 1'–OH of next sugar

43) Which of the salient feature is related to genetic code ?

(1) Nearly universal

(2) Nonambigous
(3) Commaless
(4) All of these

44) Which of the following RNA play enzymatic role during translation?

(1) m-RNA
(2) r-RNA
(3) t-RNA
(4) sc-RNA

45) Assertion (A) : The distance between two polynucleotide chains in dsDNA remains constant.
Reason (R) : Always a purine comes opposite to pyrimidine or vice versa.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
46) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column I Column II

i Integumented megasporangium a Anther

ii Female gametophyte b Ovule

iii Microsporophyll c Embryo sac

iv Megasporophyll d Stamen

v Water lily e Carpel

f Stigma

g Tapetum

h Anemophily
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-e, iv-f, v-d
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-e, v-h
(3) i-b ii-c, iii-d, iv-e, v-h
(4) i-g, ii-c, iii-d, iv-f, v-h

47) Assertion : Outbreeding devices promote self-pollination.

Reason : Lupinus arcticus seeds excavated from Arctic Tundra, germinated and flowered after an
estimated record of 10,000 years of dormancy.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

48) Among them how many statements are correct.

I. Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats and help the species to
colonise in other areas.
II. Castor seeds has two cotyledon and endosperm.
III. As the seed matures, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry (10-15 per
cent moisture by density).
IV. Coleoptile is hollow foliar structure enclose leaf primordia in monocot seeds.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

49) Statement-I : Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in juxtamedullary nephrons.

Statement-II : DCT and loop of henle are situated in medullary region of the kidney.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

50) Which of the following are functions of ADH?

(a) Vasodilation (b) High GFR
(c) Low blood pressure (d) Water reabsorption
(e) Vasoconstriction (f) High blood pressure

(1) (b), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (b), (d), (e), (f)
(4) (a), (b), (d), (f)

51) Read the following names :

Mangifera indica, Musca domestica, Solanum nigram, Solanum tuberosum, Solonum melongena,
Homo sapiens, Panthera leo and Panthera pardus.
How many genus and species are present in above set of organisms.

(1) 8, 8 respectively
(2) 5, 8 respectively
(3) 6, 6 respectively
(4) 6, 8 respectively

52) Septate and branched mycelium is found in :-

(1) Basidiomycetes
(2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Ascomycetes
(4) All the above

53) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Commonly known forms of basidiomycetes are mushrooms, bracket fungi or puffballs.
Once perfect stages of members of deuteromycetes were discovered they were often moved to
(2)
ascomycetes and phycomycetes.
(3) The spores possess true walls in slime mould.
(4) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins

54) Select the correct option in respect of given

diagram.
(1) a-Penicillium, b-Agaricus
(2) a-Aspergillus, b-Agaricus
(3) a-Rhizopus, b-Mucor
(4) a-Aspergillus, b-Penicillium

55) For Bryophytes, select the incorrect statement in the followings :-.

The liverworts grow usually in moist, shady habitats such as banks of stream, marshy ground,
(1)
damp soil, bark of trees and deep in the words.
(2) The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is the gametophyte.
Gemmae are green, multicellular asexual buds which develop in small receptacles called
(3)
gemma cup located on the sporophyte.
(4) The zygote produces a sporophyte

56) Consider the genera given below and answer the question asked next to them :
Gelidium, Porphyra, Chlorella, Chara, Polysiphonia, Fucus, Dictyota, Sargassam, Volvox, Chondrus,
Sphagnum
How many belongs to pheophyceae and Rhodophyceae :-

(1) Three and four

(2) Five and four
(3) Four and three
(4) Four and five

57) Which of the following statements is incorrect about Marchantia ?

(1) Thallus is liver shaped

Dorsal surface of thallus bears gemma cups and ventral surface of thallus bears rhizoids &
(2)
scales
(3) Sporophyte is made up of foot, seta & capsule.
(4) The leafy members have tiny leaf-like appendages in two rows on the stem like structures.

58) Statement-I : The epidermal tissue systems are made of epidermal cells, stomata and the
epidermal appendages.
Statement-II : The ground tissue system is differentiated into three zones – cortex, pericycle and
pith in dicot stem.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

59) Identify the given below diagram -

(1) Isobilateral leaf
(2) Monocotyledonous leaf
(3) Dorsiventral leaf
(4) Dicot leaf with undifferentiated mesophyll

60) What is the flower formula of given below floral diagram -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

61) Select the correct statement -

The outermost covering of a seed is the pericarp and its pericarp has two layers, the outer testa
(1)
and the inner tegmen.
The embryo is made up of a radicle, an embryonal axis and two (as in wheat, maize) or one
(2)
cotyledons (as in gram and pea).
(3) A fruit which is formed without fertilisation of the ovary called as a parthenocarpic fruit.
In mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer thin epicarp, a middle stony hard
(4)
mesocarp and an inner fleshy edible endocarp.

62) Choose the incorrect statements -

A. In racemose type of inflorescences the main axis continues to grow, the flowers are borne
laterally in an basipetal succession.
B. In palmately compound leaves, the leaflets are attached at a common point, i.e., at the tip of
petiole, as in silk cotton.
C. A bud is absent in the axil of petiole in both simple and compound leaves, but present in the axil
of leaflets of the compound leaf.
D. In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen, which is called the pulvinus.
E. The region of the stem where leaves are born are called internodes while nodes are the portions
between two nodes.

(1) A, D and C
(2) C, B and E
(3) A, C and E
(4) B, C and D

63) A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency shows
high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen
utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant ?

(1) C3 Plant
(2) C4 Plant
(3) CAM
(4) Nitrogen fixer

64) During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, when electrons are lost from the reaction centre at PS
II, what is the source which replaces these electrons?

(1) Oxygen
(2) Water
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Light

65) When two CO2 molecule is fixed as one molecule of triose phosphate, which of the following
photochemically made, high energy chemical intermediates are used in the reduction phase ?

(1) 1 ATP + 1 NADPH

(2) 1 ATP + 2 NADPH
(3) 2 ATP + 4 NADPH
(4) 2 ATP + 2 NADPH

66) How much amount of energy present in glucose, get released during lactic acid and alcohol
fermentation?

(1) 7 percent
(2) less than seven percent
(3) more than seven percent
(4) always 2 percent
67) After entry of pyruvic acid in mitochondrial matrix, which of the following does not take place?

(1) oxidation
(2) decarboxylation
(3) oxidative - decarboxylation
(4) Reduction of NADP+

68) The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine
triphosphate (ATP) is form because :-

(1) A proton gradient forms across the inner membrane

There is a change in the permeability of the inner mitochondrial membrane toward adenosine
(2)
diphosphate (ADP)
(3) High energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial proteins
(4) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space

69) Apical dominance means :-

(1) Suppression of growth of apical bud by axillary buds

(2) Suppression of growth of axillary buds by the presence of apical bud.
(3) Stimulation of growth of axillary buds by removal of apical bud
(4) Inhibition of growth of axillary buds by removal of apical bud.

70) Abscisic acid treatment results in -

(1) Leaf expansion

(2) Stem elongation
(3) Stomatal closure
(4) Root elongation

71) Count the correct number of statements which are not related to the members of class
chondrichthyes
(a) terminal mouth
(b) placoid scales on skin
(c) presence of air bladder
(d) poikilothermal
(e) internal fertilization
(f) vivipary

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

72) Assertion: Most sponge’s body are said to be asymmetrical.

Reason: Body of most sponge can’t be divided into two equal half by any plane pass through the
centre of body.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

73) How many of the following characteristics are present in humans

Muscular diaphragm Seven cervical vertebrae Mammary glands

Body hair Oviparity Corpus callosum
Four chambered heart Direct development Thecodont dentition
One pair of forelimbs and one pair of hindlimbs
(1) Seven
(2) Eight
(3) Nine
(4) Ten

74) Assertion: Ciliated epithelium mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like
bronchioles and fallopian tube.
Reason: Cilia are microvilli.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

75) Which statements are true?

(A) In loose connective tissue, cells and fibres are loosely arranged in a semi fluid ground
substance.
(B) Areolar connective tissue provide support for epithelium beneath the skin.
(C) Adipose tissue located mainly beneath the skin

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B
(3) B, C
(4) A, C

76) Identify correctly matched (a), (b), (c)

(1) Colon, Mesenteron, Crop
(2) Ileum, Mesenteron, Gizzard
(3) Ileum, Mesenteron, Crop
(4) Colon, Mesenteron, Gizzard

77) Assertion: Frog shows sexual dimorphism

Reason: Male frog can be distinguished from female by presence of vocal sacs.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

78)

Name the blank space A, B, C and D given in the following table :

Microbes Commercial
name product

A Lactic acid

B Cyclosporin-A

C Penicillin

D Statins
(1) A-Lactobacillus; B-Trichoderma; C-Penicillium; D-Aspergillus
(2) A-Trichoderma; B-Aspergillus; C-Lactobacillus; D-Penicillium
(3) A-Lactobacillus; B-Trichoderma; C-Penicillium notatum; D-Monascus
(4) A-Lactobacillus; B-Trichoderma; C-Penicillium; D-Streptococcus

79) Match the column I with column II :-

Column–I Column–II
 (a) Ball and socket joint (i) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

(b) Cartilaginous joint (ii) Between Atlas and Axis

(c) Pivot joint (iii) Between the femur and acetabulum

(d) Saddle joint (iv) Pubic symphysis

Select the correct option from the following
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), d-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), d-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), d-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), d-(iv)

80) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(a) facial bone (i) Ileum

(b) cranial (ii) Inferior turbinals

(c) Knee bone (iii) sphenoid

(d) Coxal bone (iv) patella

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), d-(i)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), d-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), d-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), d-(i)

81) The sliding filament theory can be best explained as :

When myofilaments slide pass each other actin filaments shorten while myosin filaments does
(1)
not shorten.
(2) Actin and myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other.
(3) Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other.
When myofilaments slide pass each other, the myosin filaments shorten while actin filaments
(4)
does not shorten.

82) Match the following respiratory volumes with their definitions:

Column-I Column-II

I Tidal Volume (TV) A Air remaining in lungs after forceful exhalation.

II Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) B Air that can be forcibly exhaled after normal expiration.

Normal volume of air inspired or expired during quiet

III Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) C
breathing.

IV Residual Volume (RV) D Additional volume of air that can be inspired forcefully
(1) I → C, II → D, III → B, IV → A
(2) I → D, II → A, III → C, IV → B
(3) I → A, II → C, III → D, IV → B
(4) I → B, II → C, III → A, IV → D

83) Which of the following statements is incorrect about gas exchange?

Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the blood due to a higher partial pressure of oxygen in the
(1)
alveoli.
(2) Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood mainly as bicarbonate.
(3) The rate of diffusion of gases is not influenced by the thickness of the alveolar membrane.
(4) Carbon dioxide has a much higher solubility than oxygen in blood.

84) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) A person of 'O' blood group has anti 'A' and anti 'B' antibodies in his blood plasma.
(2) A person of 'B' blood group cannot donate blood to a person of 'A' blood group.
(3) Blood group is designated on the basis of presence of only antibodies in the blood plasma.
(4) Person of AB blood group is a universal recipient.

85) Pick the incorrect statement :-

(1) Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood

(2) Globulins primarily are involved in defence mechanism.
(3) Albumins primarily involved in defence mechanism.
(4) Plasma without the clotting factors called serum.

86) During development of action potential in a nerve fibre, positive and negative charges on outer
and inner side of axon membrane are reversed due to:-

(1) Excretion of all K+ ions

(2) More K+ ions enter than Na+ ions leave the axon
(3) More Na+ ions enter the axon than K+ ions leaving the axon
(4) All Na+ ions enter the axon

87)

Which part of brain contains centres for cardiovascular reflex, respiration and gastric secretion ?

(1) Mid brain

(2) Pons
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum

88) GnRH hormone, related to reproduction acts on:-

(1) Posterior pituitary gland & stimulates secretion of oxytocin & FSH.
(2) Anterior pituitary gland & stimulates secretion of LH & FSH
(3) Testis, Ovary & stimulates secretion of testosterone, estrogen respectively
(4) Anterior pituitary gland & stimulates secretion of LH & oxytocin

(1) 2 & 3
(2) 2 only
(3) 3 & 4
(4) 2 & 4

89) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

A TSH i Fights infectious agents

B Antibody ii Enables glucose transport into cells

C Cortisol iii Adenohypophysis

D GLUT-4 iv Life saving Hormone

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

90) Which one of the following hormone has extracellular receptor ?

(1) Insulin
(2) Cortisol
(3) Thyroid hormone
(4) Both (2) and (3)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 2 1 1 3 4 1 2 4 1 1 3 1 3 4 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 3 4 2 2 2 4 3 1 1 1 4 2 1 3 1 4 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 4 1 2 3 1 1 3 3 1 1 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 2 1 1 4 3 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 2 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 4 3 3 1 1 3 2 3 4 3 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 1 1 3 3 4 2 4 1 1 3 1 4 1 3 4 4 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 4 3 2 4 2 2 3 1 4 1 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 2 2 1 2 4 1 2 3 2 1 3 3 1 2 1 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) iWL = irms sinϕ ⇒

⇒ ϕ = 60° so power factor = cosϕ = cos60° =

2)

= 100

3)
Direction of propagation

4) Quality factor (Q) =

=
= 100

5)

x=

Inet = I2 – I1

= =

6)

Theory Based
7) Potential difference =

As
So potential difference = 0

8) Electric line of force are always perpendicular to equipotential surface so angle between
farce and displacement will always be 90°. So work done equal to 0.

9)

10)

= ± [4+3+3+2] = ± 12%

11)

Light year used to measure distance.

year to measure time
One light year is equal to distance travelled by Light in One year.

12) Eg for
Conductor zero
Semiconductor 0.7eV > Eg > 2eV
Insulator Eg > 2eV
13)

D1, D2 are forward baised and D4 reverse baised.

I= ; I1 = I2 = 1A

14) De broglie wave length

As both particle and electron having same wave length therefore their momentum will be
equal.

15) Number of protons = 2 + 2 + 6 + 2 + 6 = 18

Number of neutrons = 40 – 18 = 22.

16) According to graph,

T = 1 sec
ω = 2π/T = 2π rad/sec
and In SHM, vmax = ωA

17) For freely falling case the effective g is zero, so that frequency of oscillation will be zero.

As,
∴f=0

18) Separation between two successive resonating lengths

λ = 43.0 cm
As v = nλ
v = 344 ms–1
 19) Velocity of sound, v =

=4:1

20)

21) T1 = m (g + a) = 1 ×

T2 = m (g – a) = 1 ×

22)

Pv = mRT

P∝T

ΔT = 5°C = 5 K

23)

24)

ΔF = 54°

25)
(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

(E) Mobility =

26)

[V is same for r2 & r3]

27)

28)
29)
= 720 erg.

30) Before entering the water the velocity of ball is If after entering the water this
velocity does not change, then this value should be equal to the terminal velocity. Therefore,

31)

Particle strikes at

So, n = 2

32) (A) Due to current carrying wire, the magnetic field in loop will be inwards the paper. As
current is increased, magnetic flux associated with loop increases. So a current will be
induced so as to decrease magnetic flux inside the loop. Hence induced current in the loop
will be anticlockwise. The current in left side of loop shall be downwards and hence repelled
by wire. The current in right side of loop is upwards and is hence attracted by wire. Since left
side of loop is nearer to wire, repulsive force will dominate. Hence wire will repel the loop.
(B) Options in (B) will be opposite of that in (A).
(C) When the loop is moved away from wire magnetic flux decreases in the loop. Hence the
options for this case shall be same as in (B).
(D) When the loop is moved towards the wire magnetic flux increases in the loop. Hence the
options for this case shall be same as in (A).
33) Given B = 0.01 – 2t Tesla ;
Induced emf

Since magnetic field (×) decreasing so according to Lenz's law direction of induced current in
upper part of square will be clockwise i.e., from A to C or in other words emf induces in a
direction opposite to the main emf so resultant emf = 10 – 1 = 9 V.

Therefore current, .

34)

35) μ = i.A = (πR2) =

36)
The ball needs to just cross 4 steps to just hit 5th step
Therefore, horizontal range (R) = 0.4 m
 R = u.t
Similarly, in vertical direction

u2 = 2

Therefore, x = 2

37)

vavg =
vavg = –2 m/s

38)

u = –10cm, v = +20 cm

⇒P=

P = +15D

39)

0
m=5= f = 5fe
L = f0 + fe = 36
6fe = 36
⇒ fe = 6 cm, f0 = 5fe = 30 cm

40)

= 2 × 30º = 60º

41)

M1V1 = M2V2

⇒
 42)

or
here r sinθ is constant
rsinθ = distance of line of motion from origin.

43)

(K.E)R = 40% (K.E)T

44)

at = g sin 30° = 5 m/s2

45) W = Δk, F = 8t =

⇒ v – 0 = 2t2

= 64 J

CHEMISTRY

46)

Given : 1st order

rate constant depends upon activation energy and temperature. It does not depends on
concentration of any reactant or product and volume of container.

47)
48)

log k = log A –

slope =

49)

agar-agar Paste

50) R.A. itself gets oxidised easily, i.e., Mg.

Reducing character ∝ SOP value

51)

Ecell = (ERP)cathode – (ERP)Anode

= (ERP)Cathode + (EOP)Anode
(∴ ERP = – EOP)
= (EOP)Anode – (EOP)Cathode

53) (1) ; ∴ Tf = –1.86° C.

54)
Acc. to lower number rule the first substituent should get lowest number.

55)

Acidic strength increase due to increase in stability of carboxylate ion.

Stability of carboxylate ion ∝ Acidic strength of carboxylic acid.
Acidic strength ∝ electron withdrawing group. Hence apply DNP rule : Distance is dominant
over number and number is dominant over power.

56) Alumina is the common adsorbent used in column chromatography.

57) The compound must contain both N and C.

58) Stability of the given cations can be understood by the following structures.
Hence, the stability of carbocation decreases
II > I > III

59) In Kolbe’s electrolysis, the alkane is formed when an aqueous solution of Na or K salt of
carboxylic acid is electrolysed. The alkane formed has, two or more carbon atoms. This method
can be used to prepare alkanes with even number of carbon atoms.

60)

61)
108 g Al is produced by consuming = 36 g carbon
∴ 270 × 103 g Al will be produced by consuming

carbon
3
= 90 × 10 g = 90 kg carbon

62) Δng = 0 for (1).

63)

64)

pH = pKa + log = 4.5

pOH = 9.5
65) Δng = 4 – (2+3) ⇒ (–1)
w = –ΔngRT = +1 × 2 × 300 = 600 cal

66)

67) The surface tension of lyophilic sols is lower than that of surface tension of water as
lyophilic colloids have great affinity towards the water solvent which decreases the surface
tension.

68)

There is a significant jump between the 3rd and 4th Ionization potential this indicates that
removing the 4th e– requires a much larger amount of energy.
Since M can lose 3e– to form a stable ion therefore the formula of the bromide will be MBr3.

69)

An atom & its corresponding ion have the same number of protons (Nuclear charge)

70)

Fact based

71)

According to MOT.

72)

A π bonding molecular orbital has higher electron density above and below inter nuclear axis.

73)

Thermal stability
75) [Fe+1(H2O)5(NO)]2+ ion

76)

[Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 produces four ions per molecule

[Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 produces five ions per molecule
[Pt(NH3)2Cl4] produces 0 ion per molecule
[Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 produces three ions per molecule in the solution.

77) Magnesium cation is present in chlorophyll.

78) EDTA4– can form complex with Mg2+ and Ca2+ ions. Hard water mainly contain Mg2+ and
Ca2+ salt.

79) SiCl4 on hydrolysis gives Silicic acid Si(OH)4.

80) As size of anion increases, polarization of anion increases and covalent character
increases.

81) Sodium dichromate is more hygroscopic than potassium dichromate and more soluble.

82) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

83)

Two different alcohol gives mixture of ethers.

R—OH + R'—OH R—OR + R—O—R' + R'—O—R'

Primary alcohol does not react with H—Cl

85) Condition for Iodoform test :- presence of methyl keto group is must.

For Example :-
∴ Option 2 is correct

86)

87)

88)
 A is Position isomers.

89)

90)

Vit. C → Anti scury

Vit E → Anti sterility

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Page # 124125

92)

NCERT Page # 111-112

93)

NCERT Page # 118-120

94)

NCERT Page # 172

95)

NCERT Page # 166,167,170

96)

NCERT Page # 174

97)

NCERT Page # 179

98)

NCERT Page # 180

99)

NCERT Page # 182

100)

NCERT Page # 118

101)

NCERT Page # 109, 111

102)

NCERT Page # 106

103)

NCERT-XI, Page # 121, 10.1 Interphase

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 127

105) No any meaning of this statement

106) S Phase → 4C = 20pg (Diploid)

Telophase I → 2C = 10pg (Haploid)
Telophase II → C = 5pg (Haploid)

107) NCERT XI Pg.#135, 8.5.4

108) NCERT Pg. # 137

109) NCERT-XI, Pg # 136

110) NCERT Pg. # 135, 8.5.5

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 33, 34, 35

112) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 30

 113)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 37

114)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 27,30

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 44, 45

116) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 48

117)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 132

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143

119)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138

120)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 130, 131

123)

A. Co-evolution: Mutualistic species evolve together to maintain their relationship (e.g., bees
and orchid flowers).
B. Co-extinction: If one mutualistic species goes extinct, the other may also disappear (e.g., a
plant relying on a specific pollinator).
C. Co-existence: Mutualistic species coexist and benefit each other (e.g., lichens - a mutualism
between fungi and algae).

Thus, mutualism is the interaction where all three-coevolution, coextinction, and coexistence-
are observed.✓

127) According to Tilman, species rich biological community show more stability:-
Areas with more species show less year to year variation in total biomass.
Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
Provide resistance to invasions by alien species.
 129) Solution:
Given recombination frequencies:

A. A - B = 20%
B. A - C = 15%
C. B - C = 5%
D. A - D = 10%
E. B - D = 30%

Step-by-step analysis:
1. B-C = 5%: This is the smallest recombination frequency, meaning B and C are closest to each
other. So, B and C must be adjacent.
2. A-C 15%: Since the distance between A and C is 15%, A and C are also fairly close but further
apart than B and C.
3. A-B 20%: The distance between A and B is 20%, which is larger than the distance between A and
C, but still smaller than A-D.
4. A-D10%: The distance between A and D is 10%, which places D closer to A than B, C, or B-D.
5. B-D30%: The distance between B and D is the largest (30%), so D is placed at the opposite end.
Constructing the gene sequence:

A. Since B and C are closest (B - C = 5%) , we place B and C together.

B. A is closer to D (A - D = 10%) and also not too far from C, so A is placed next to D.
C. Given that A - B = 20% A should come before B in the sequence.

Thus, the correct sequence of genes is: D A C B

The correct answer is: 3. D A C B.

130)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 71

131) NCERT-XII Pg # 65

132) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 96

133) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 112, 2nd para

134) Module-1 Pg # 146

135)

NCERT Pg. # 81

136) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 4-11

137) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 13

138) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 14-21

139)

NCERT Page # 208

140)

NCERT Page # 212

141) NCERT Pg. # 7

143)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 18

144) NCERT (XI) Eng. Pg. # 23 Fig. 2.5 (b) & (c)

145) NCERT XI Pg. # 34 to 36

146) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 31-35

147) NCERT XI pg.# 34

161)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 47, 48

162)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 38, 40

163)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 50, 51

164)

OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101

165)

OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

166)

OLD NCERT-XI, Pg. # 113

167)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 80

168) NCERT XIIth Pg # 181, 182, 183

169)

NCERT, XI Page # 227

170)

NCERT XI, Page # 224,226

171)

NCERT XI, Page # 223

172)

NCERT XI, Page # 187

173)

NCERT XI, Page # 188

174) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 280

179) NCERT Pg #-147