X

Test Information
Guide:
College-Level
Examination
Program®
2014-15

Information Systems
and Computer
Applications

© 2014 The College Board. All rights reserved. College Board, College-Level Examination
Program, CLEP, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board.
CLEP TEST INFORMATION GUIDE worldwide through computer-based testing programs
FOR INFORMATION SYSTEMS AND and also — in forward-deployed areas — through
paper-based testing. Approximately one-third of all
COMPUTER APPLICATIONS CLEP candidates are military service members.
History of CLEP 2013-14 National CLEP Candidates by Age*
Since 1967, the College-Level Examination Program
Under 18
(CLEP®) has provided over six million people with 10%
the opportunity to reach their educational goals.
CLEP participants have received college credit for 30 years and older
knowledge and expertise they have gained through 26%
18-22 years
prior course work, independent study or work and 41%
life experience.
23-29 years
Over the years, the CLEP examinations have evolved 23%
to keep pace with changing curricula and pedagogy.
Typically, the examinations represent material taught
* These data are based on 100% of CLEP test-takers who responded to this
in introductory college-level courses from all areas survey question during their examinations.
of the college curriculum. Students may choose from
33 different subject areas in which to demonstrate 2013-14 National CLEP Candidates by Gender
their mastery of college-level material.
Today, more than 2,900 colleges and universities
recognize and grant credit for CLEP. 41%

Philosophy of CLEP
Promoting access to higher education is CLEP’s
foundation. CLEP offers students an opportunity to 59%
demonstrate and receive validation of their
college-level skills and knowledge. Students who
achieve an appropriate score on a CLEP exam can
enrich their college experience with higher-level Computer-Based CLEP Testing
courses in their major field of study, expand their
horizons by taking a wider array of electives and The computer-based format of CLEP exams allows
avoid repetition of material that they already know. for a number of key features. These include:
• a variety of question formats that ensure effective
CLEP Participants assessment
CLEP’s test-taking population includes people of all • real-time score reporting that gives students and
ages and walks of life. Traditional 18- to 22-year-old colleges the ability to make immediate credit-
students, adults just entering or returning to school, granting decisions (except College Composition,
home-schoolers and international students who need which requires faculty scoring of essays twice a
to quantify their knowledge have all been assisted by month)
CLEP in earning their college degrees. Currently, • a uniform recommended credit-granting score of
59 percent of CLEP’s test-takers are women and 50 for all exams
49 percent are 23 years of age or older. • “rights-only” scoring, which awards one point per
For over 30 years, the College Board has worked to correct answer
provide government-funded credit-by-exam • pretest questions that are not scored but provide
opportunities to the military through CLEP. Military current candidate population data and allow for
service members are fully funded for their CLEP exam rapid expansion of question pools
fees. Exams are administered at military installations

2
CLEP Exam Development The Committee
Content development for each of the CLEP exams The College Board appoints standing committees of
is directed by a test development committee. Each college faculty for each test title in the CLEP battery.
committee is composed of faculty from a wide Committee members usually serve a term of up to
variety of institutions who are currently teaching four years. Each committee works with content
the relevant college undergraduate courses. The specialists at Educational Testing Service to establish
committee members establish the test specifications test specifications and develop the tests. Listed
based on feedback from a national curriculum below are the current committee members and their
survey; recommend credit-granting scores and institutional affiliations.
standards; develop and select test questions; review
statistical data and prepare descriptive material for Q Chung, Villanova University
use by faculty (Test Information Guides) and students Chair
planning to take the tests (CLEP Official Study Guide).
Tammy Arthur Mississippi College
College faculty also participate in CLEP in other Robert Cerveny Florida Atlantic University
ways: they convene periodically as part of
standard-setting panels to determine the Vicky Seehusen Metropolitan State University
recommended level of student competency for the of Denver
granting of college credit; they are called upon to
Patricia Sendall Merrimack College
write exam questions and to review forms and they
help to ensure the continuing relevance of the CLEP
examinations through the curriculum surveys. The primary objective of the committee is to produce
tests with good content validity. CLEP tests must be
The Curriculum Survey rigorous and relevant to the discipline and the
appropriate courses. While the consensus of the
The first step in the construction of a CLEP exam is committee members is that this test has high content
a curriculum survey. Its main purpose is to obtain validity for a typical introductory Information
information needed to develop test-content Systems and Computer Applications course or
specifications that reflect the current college curriculum, the validity of the content for a specific
curriculum and to recognize anticipated changes in course or curriculum is best determined locally
the field. The surveys of college faculty are through careful review and comparison of test
conducted in each subject every three to five years content, with instructional content covered in a
depending on the discipline. Specifically, the survey particular course or curriculum.
gathers information on:
• the major content and skill areas covered in the The Committee Meeting
equivalent course and the proportion of the course The exam is developed from a pool of questions
devoted to each area written by committee members and outside question
• specific topics taught and the emphasis given to writers. All questions that will be scored on a CLEP
each topic exam have been pretested; those that pass a rigorous
• specific skills students are expected to acquire and statistical analysis for content relevance, difficulty,
the relative emphasis given to them fairness and correlation with assessment criteria are
added to the pool. These questions are compiled by
• recent and anticipated changes in course content, test development specialists according to the test
skills and topics specifications, and are presented to all the committee
• the primary textbooks and supplementary learning members for a final review. Before convening at a
resources used two- or three-day committee meeting, the members
• titles and lengths of college courses that have a chance to review the test specifications and
correspond to the CLEP exam the pool of questions available for possible inclusion
in the exam.

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At the meeting, the committee determines whether Recommendation of the American
the questions are appropriate for the test and, if not, Council on Education (ACE)
whether they need to be reworked and pretested
again to ensure that they are accurate and The American Council on Education’s College
unambiguous. Finally, draft forms of the exam are Credit Recommendation Service (ACE CREDIT)
reviewed to ensure comparable levels of difficulty and has evaluated CLEP processes and procedures for
content specifications on the various test forms. The developing, administering and scoring the exams.
committee is also responsible for writing and Effective July 2001, ACE recommended a uniform
developing pretest questions. These questions are credit-granting score of 50 across all subjects (with
administered to candidates who take the examination the exception of French Language, German
and provide valuable statistical feedback on student Language, and Spanish Language), representing the
performance under operational conditions. performance of students who earn a grade of C in the
corresponding course. The current ACE
Once the questions are developed and pretested, recommendations for Level 2 (four-semester) world
tests are assembled in one of two ways. In some language examinations representing the expected
cases, test forms are assembled in their entirety. performance of students who earn a grade of C in the
These forms are of comparable difficulty and are corresponding courses are: 60 for German Language,
therefore interchangeable. More commonly, 59 for French Language, and 63 for Spanish
questions are assembled into smaller, Language. Every test title has a minimum score of
content-specific units called testlets, which can then 20, a maximum score of 80 and a cut score of 50.
be combined in different ways to create multiple test However, these score values cannot be compared
forms. This method allows many different forms to across exams. The score scale is set so that a score
be assembled from a pool of questions. of 50 represents the performance expected of a
typical C student, which may differ from one subject
Test Specifications to another. The score scale is not based on actual
Test content specifications are determined primarily performance of test-takers. It is derived from the
through the curriculum survey, the expertise of the judgment of a panel of experts (college faculty who
committee and test development specialists, the teach the course) who provide information on the
recommendations of appropriate councils and level of student performance that would be necessary
conferences, textbook reviews and other appropriate to receive college credit in the course.
sources of information. Content specifications take Over the years, the CLEP examinations have been
into account: adapted to adjust to changes in curricula and
• the purpose of the test pedagogy. As academic disciplines evolve, college
• the intended test-taker population faculty incorporate new methods and theory into
• the titles and descriptions of courses the test is their courses. CLEP examinations are revised to
designed to reflect reflect those changes so the examinations continue to
meet the needs of colleges and students. The CLEP
• the specific subject matter and abilities to be tested program’s most recent ACE CREDIT review was
• the length of the test, types of questions and held in October 2012.
instructions to be used
The American Council on Education, the major
coordinating body for all the nation’s higher education
institutions, seeks to provide leadership and a unifying
voice on key higher education issues and to influence
public policy through advocacy, research and program
initiatives. For more information, visit the ACE
CREDIT website at www.acenet.edu/acecredit.

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CLEP Credit Granting the capabilities of the typical A student, as well as
those of the typical B, C and D students.* Expected
CLEP uses a common recommended credit-granting individual student performance is rated by each
score of 50 for all CLEP exams. panelist on each question. The combined average of
the ratings is used to determine a recommended
This common credit-granting score does not mean, number of examination questions that must be
however, that the standards for all CLEP exams are answered correctly to mirror classroom performance
the same. When a new or revised version of a test is of typical B and C students in the related course.
introduced, the program conducts a standard setting The panel’s findings are given to members of the test
to determine the recommended credit-granting score development committee who, with the help of
(“cut score”). Educational Testing Service and College Board
psychometric specialists, make a final determination
A standard-setting panel, consisting of 15–20 faculty
on which raw scores are equivalent to B and C levels
members from colleges and universities across the of performance.
country who are currently teaching the course, is
appointed to give its expert judgment on the level
*Student performance for the language exams (French, German and Spanish)
of student performance that would be necessary to is defined only at the B and C levels.
receive college credit in the course. The panel
reviews the test and test specifications and defines

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Information Systems and Computer Applications
Description of the Examination • Javascript® is a registered trademark of Oracle
America, Inc.
The Information Systems and Computer
Applications examination covers material that • UML® is a registered trademark of Object
is usually taught in an introductory college-level Management Group, Inc.
business information systems course. Questions test • W3C® is a registered trademark of Massachusetts
knowledge, terminology and basic concepts about Institute of Technology.
information systems as well as the application of
that knowledge. The examination does not Knowledge and Skills Required
emphasize the details of hardware design and Questions on the Information Systems and
language-specific programming techniques. Computer Applications examination require
References to applications such as word processing candidates to demonstrate knowledge of the
or spreadsheets do not require knowledge of a following content. The percentage next to each
specific product. The focus is on concepts and main topic indicates the approximate percentage
techniques applicable to a variety of products and of exam questions on that topic.
environments. Knowledge of arithmetic and
mathematics equivalent to that of a student who 15% Information Systems and Office
has successfully completed a traditional first-year Application Software
high school algebra course is assumed.
• Standard office suite tools (word
The examination contains approximately processors, spreadsheets, presentation
100 questions to be answered in 90 minutes. packages, end-user database packages)
Some of these are pretest questions and will not • Basic user functions of a desktop
be scored. The time candidates spend on tutorials operating system (memory management,
and providing personal information is in addition file management, interfaces, types of OS)
to the actual testing time. • Office systems (e-mail, conferencing,
cooperative work, document imaging,
Information Systems textbooks differ on the precise system resources, voice mail)
definition of the systems development process or • Web browsers (URLs, protocols,
life cycle. To avoid ambiguity, CLEP defines the standards, history, cookies, resource
systems development process as consisting of the allocation)
following discrete phases or stages: • Internet and other online services and
1. Planning methods (World Wide Web, protocol,
2. Analysis Web search engines, Web bots, intranet,
cloud computing, communications,
3. Design push/pull technology, W3C)
4. Implementation
5. Maintenance
The following trademarked terms may appear in
the exam:
• Bluetooth® is a registered trademark of Bluetooth
SIG, Inc.
• Hotbot® is a registered trademark of Lycos, Inc.
• Java® is a registered trademark of Oracle
America, Inc.

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15% Use of Technology in Organizations 15% Programming Concepts and Data

• Specialized systems (expert systems, Management
collaborative systems, DSS, GIS, BI, • Programming logic (Boolean,
workflow management, project algorithmic, order of operations, SQL)
management tools) • Methodologies (object-oriented,
• Electronic Data Interchange (standards, structured)
tools, characteristics, types of • Data (concepts, types, structures, digital
transactions) representation of data)
• Enterprise-wide systems (ERP, CRM, • File (types, structures)
SCM) • Database management systems
• Database management systems (data (relational, hierarchical, network,
warehousing, data mining, networking, management strategies)
security, validation, migration, storage, • Web technologies (HTML, XML,
obsolescence) Javascript)
• Knowledge management (capturing, • Web site development (analysis, design,
distributing, summarizing) functionality, accessibility)
• Business strategies (competition, process
re-engineering, process modeling, 25% Social and Ethical Implications and
e-commerce, TQM, Web 2.0) Issues
15% Hardware and Systems Technology • Economic effects (secure transactions,
viruses, malware, cost of security)
• Devices (processing, storage, input and
output, telecommunications, networking) • Privacy concerns (individual, business,
identity theft)
• Functions (computer, telecommunications,
network hardware) • Property rights (intellectual, legal
ownership of materials, open source
• Concepts of network architectures (local software)
area, wide area, VPN, enterprise)
• Effects of information technology on
• Concepts of computer architectures jobs (ergonomics, virtual teams,
(mainframe, client/server, operating telecommuting, job design)
systems)
• Technology’s influence on workforce
• Wireless computing/communication strategies (globalization, virtual teams,
devices (Wi-Fi, cellular, satellite, PDA, telecommuting, outsourcing, insourcing)
GPS)
• Careers in IS (responsibilities,
occupation, career path, certification)
15% Information Systems Software
Development • Computer security and controls (system,
application, personal computer, disaster
• Software development (prototyping, recovery)
SDLC, RAD, CASE, JAD, Agile) • Social networking (benefits, risks, ethics,
• Systems development (feasibility, technology, Web 2.0)
process, systems analysis, systems
design, end-user development, project
management)
• System implementation (testing,
training, data conversion, system
conversion, system maintenance,
post-implementation activities,
post-implementation review,
documentation)
• Information processing methods (batch,
real-time, transaction)
• User interface design (GUI, multimedia)
• Standards (development, purpose,
proprietary, open source)

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Sample Test Questions 4. Which of the following is (are) true about EDI?
The following sample questions do not appear on an I. The EDI documents generally contain the
actual CLEP examination. They are intended to give same information that paper documents do.
potential test-takers an indication of the format and
difficulty level of the examination and to provide II. The speed in which the documents are
content for practice and review. Knowing the correct exchanged is much faster than that of paper
answers to all of the sample questions is not a documents.
guarantee of satisfactory performance on the exam. III. Transmission of EDI documents is less
accurate than that of paper documents.
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete
statements below is followed by five suggested (A) I only
answers or completions. Select the one that is best in (B) II only
each case.
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
1. File extensions such as .txt, .bmp, and .mp3 are (E) I, II, and III
used to identify a file’s
(A) output 5. A spreadsheet contains the values 4 and 6 in
(B) creator cells C4 and D4, respectively. What value will be
(C) size displayed in cell F4 if it contains the formula
(D) location (C4^2+D4/4) ?
(E) format (A) 2.5
(B) 5.5
2. Which of the following network technologies (C) 16
allows secure transmission of data over an (D) 17.5
unsecured public network link between private (E) 128
networks?
(A) Local area network 6. Which of the following would NOT be
(B) Wide area network considered an input device for a computer
(C) Virtual private network system?
(D) Intranet (A) Image scanner
(E) Extranet (B) Webcam
(C) Keyboard
3. Which of the following is a goal of green (D) Mouse
computing? (E) PC speaker
(A) Reducing the potential for a computer to
become infected with malware 7. In a relational database, each column represents
(B) Reducing the number of people experiencing
computer vision syndrome (A) a record
(C) Reducing power consumption of computers (B) an attribute
and peripherals (C) a key
(D) Optimizing the human-computer interface (D) an entity
(E) Building relationships between computer (E) a file
manufacturers and environmental groups

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8. Which of the following is (are) reasons to select 12. What is the principal function of an operating
a virtual team as opposed to an on-site team? system?

I. It works better when team members have (A) To provide an interface between the
different physical locations. hardware and the application software
II. It works better when the team is trying to (B) To defragment storage devices to optimize
reach consensus. file access
III. It works better when there are personality (C) To process transaction information
conflicts among team members. (D) To create and maintain organizational
databases
(A) I only
(E) To scan for viruses
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
13. A business often identifies that its software has
(D) I and III only been trademarked by using a unique symbol or
(E) I, II, and III attaching the letters TM to its name. What is the
purpose of the trademark?
9. Conversion of data files is part of which of the (A) To eliminate unauthorized copying and
following phases of the system development distribution
process?
(B) To identify the software as available for use,
(A) Analysis free of charge
(B) Design (C) To identify and differentiate the product’s
(C) Implementation brand
(D) Development (D) To assure the user that the software is
properly licensed and ready to use
(E) Maintenance
(E) To assure the user that the software contains
unique features not found in other products
10. Which of the following technologies does NOT
facilitate knowledge management?
14. Which of the following support tools is NOT
(A) Blogs typically provided as part of a word-processing
(B) Wikis software application?
(C) Web conferencing (A) A spelling checker
(D) Desktop sharing (B) A thesaurus
(E) Biometrics (C) An encyclopedia
(D) Mail-merge capability
11. The American Charity Association, a nonprofit (E) A grammar checker
foundation, has a home page on the World Wide
Web. Which of the following is the most likely
URL for its home page? 15. The special formatting language used to create
Web pages is called
(A) http://www.charity.gov
(A) HTML
(B) http://www.charity.edu
(B) XML
(C) http://www.charity.com
(C) Perl
(D) http://www.charity.org
(D) Java
(E) ftp://www.charity.aca
(E) Script

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16. Which of the following is NOT a tool used for 19. Which of the following best describes how GPS
project management? units function?
(A) A Gantt chart (A) The receiver sends out regular query pulses
(B) Critical path analysis and waits to receive responses from a GPS
satellite.
(C) Program evaluation and review technique
(B) The receiver is passive and listens for the
(D) Material requirements planning
regular signals from GPS satellites, which
(E) Supply chain management are then processed to find the distance from
the satellites.
17. Which of the following is designed to allow a (C) The receiver sends out radio signals that are
team to discuss a topic over an extended period reflected back by satellites and detected by
of time while keeping the responses organized the unit.
by topic? (D) The receiver acts as a homing beacon that is
tracked by the GPS satellites, which
(A) Data library
periodically send out position updates for
(B) File sharing each tracked receiver.
(C) Push technology (E) The receiver can detect an invisible
(D) Internet telephony electronic grid projected onto Earth’s surface
(E) Threaded discussion group and compares the location on this grid to a
stored map of Earth.

18. Which of the following is NOT a correct

characterization of batch processing? 20. Which of the following is the most likely
negative consequence of participating in a social
(A) It allows immediate updating of master files. networking Web site?
(B) It provides physical batch totals to be used in
control procedures. (A) Unintended disclosure of private
information
(C) It provides efficient updating of master files.
(B) Increase in spam
(D) It is most applicable for processing routine
periodic activities. (C) Infection by a virus
(E) It allows efficient scheduling of processing. (D) Download of a cookie containing personal
preferences
(E) Download of spyware

21. Voice and speech recognition technologies can

be found in which of the following applications?

I. Automated transcription
II. Security and access control
III. Batch processing
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

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22. Assume that a file consists of the following 24. What is the primary difference between an
records. intranet Web page and an Internet Web page?
Product Number Product Model Year (A) Transport protocol
BEC111 WIDGET 2005 (B) Transmission rate
ABC123 GADGET 2004 (C) Restriction of access
SBB003 WIDGET 2003 (D) Physical proximity to server
XPL222 GADGET 2004 (E) Use of secure socket layers
MAS120 GADGET 2000
25. Which of the following capabilities permits the
The computer is instructed to sort this file in simultaneous usage of multiple CPUs in a single
ascending order with Product as the primary sort computer system?
key, Model Year as the secondary sort key, and
Product Number as the tertiary sort key. If this (A) Multimedia
file is printed in sorted order, which record will (B) Multiplexing
be the third printed? (C) Multiprocessing
(D) Multiprogramming
(A) BEC111 WIDGET 2005
(E) Multitasking
(B) ABC123 GADGET 2004
(C) SBB003 WIDGET 2003
26. A disaster recovery plan to safeguard a
(D) XPL222 GADGET 2004 company’s computer system can be used for all
(E) MAS120 GADGET 2000 of the following occurrences EXCEPT
(A) a flood, fire, or other natural disaster
23. Which of the following is (are) true of an
(B) a massive long-term power outage
object-oriented database in comparison to a
relational database? (C) system upgrades and hardware maintenance
(D) computer sabotage
I. The object-oriented database is better for (E) a major viral infection of computer systems
storing multimedia data.
II. The object-oriented database generally
retrieves data more quickly. 27. Which of the following is the name given to the
automated tool that is distributed with many
III. The object-oriented database is more software programs and guides the user through
commonly used. the installation process?
(A) I only (A) Installation genie
(B) I and II only (B) Installation guru
(C) I and III only (C) Installation software
(D) II and III only (D) Installation wizard
(E) I, II, and III (E) Installation tool pack

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28. A user has visited several Web sites, making 32. When applied to the development of computer
purchases, initiating searches, and filling out systems, the term “ergonomics” means
online forms. Which of the following could the
user access to revisit the Web sites? (A) designing computer systems to maximize
the cost-benefit ratio
(A) Cookies (B) incorporating human comfort, efficiency,
(B) Main memory and safety into the design of the
(C) Internet preferences human-machine interface
(D) Web privacy settings (C) following the systems development life
cycle
(E) Web browser history
(D) fostering development team interaction
through the use of computer-aided software
29. A network administrator is LEAST likely to engineering tools
recommend which of the following technologies (E) optimizing the throughput rate by adjusting
to share large quantities of information in a the operating system interrupts
knowledge management system?
(A) E-mail 33. What is the term that refers to the downloading
(B) Wiki of live video, audio, or animation in such a
(C) Intranet manner that the user can begin to access the
(D) Discussion board content before the download is complete?
(E) Shared network drive (A) Spooling
(B) Streaming
30. Which of the following is a major benefit of (C) Flaming
object-oriented programming? (D) Spamming
(A) The development of logical steps to achieve (E) Queuing
the object of the program
(B) The use of subroutines that optimize the 34. Which of the following is (are) true about
program’s objective customer relationship management systems?
(C) The creation of objects that can be used or
modified for use in future applications I. They focus on the connection between
suppliers, manufacturers, and customers.
(D) The freedom for programmers to create
objects unique to each program II. They enable employees in all departments to
have a consistent view of customers.
(E) The defining of objects as static entities that
do not relate to each other III. They focus on customer retention.
(A) I only
31. Which of the following is NOT part of input data (B) I and II only
controls in the context of information processing? (C) I and III only
(A) reasonableness checks (D) II and III only
(B) check digit verification (E) I, II, and III
(C) program debugging
(D) syntax checks
(E) batch totals

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35. In the case of a power failure, the contents of 39. Which of the following can support cloud-based
RAM will be application development and deployment?
(A) automatically printed out (A) Communications as a service
(B) automatically saved on disk (B) Platform as a service
(C) displayed on the screen (C) Infrastructure as a service
(D) lost (D) Software as a service
(E) refreshed (E) Network as a service

36. Which of the following is (are) true about 40. Application software is designed to be
open-source software? compatible with the

I. It is copyrighted. (A) Internet browser

II. Its source code is freely available. (B) LAN configuration
III. It is shareware. (C) operating system
(D) programming language
(A) I only
(E) hardware interface
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
41. An online storefront developer should test the
(D) II and III only different versions of which of the following in
(E) I, II, and III order to ensure usability for all users?
(A) Database management systems
37. Which of the following is a database whose data
(B) Hypertext markup languages
are scattered across several physical servers?
(C) Compilers
(A) Data mine (D) Web browsers
(B) Data warehouse (E) Search engines
(C) Relational database
(D) Distributed database 42. Which of the following statements is true
(E) Integrated database regarding client/server architecture?
(A) The server computer accepts commands
38. When developing a Web site, which of the from a number of computers that are its
following activities should occur closest to the clients.
end of the process?
(B) The server computer manages a number of
(A) Creating the navigation structure computers that it services.
(B) Purchasing a domain name (C) The server computer is connected to a
(C) Verifying all the hyperlinks number of computers that provide it with
services.
(D) Designing the style sheets
(D) The client computer is connected to a
(E) Finalizing the graphics number of computers that provide it with
clients.
(E) The client computer manages a number of
computers being served by it.

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43. For which of the following consumer 47. Which of the following problem-solving
applications would there be the LEAST techniques allows users to start with high-level
justification to access a national credit history information and then select more specific,
database? lower-level details?
(A) Credit card (A) Ad hoc analysis
(B) Mortgage (B) Exception reporting
(C) Student loan (C) Drill-down analysis
(D) Savings account (D) RFM analysis
(E) Automobile lease (E) Cluster analysis

44. Metadata is best described as which of the 48. The Bluetooth standard uses what transmission
following? method for data transfer?
(A) End-user data (A) Infrared
(B) Data about data (B) Ethernet cable
(C) Data stored in a Web file format (C) Radio waves
(D) Data gathered by spyware (D) Satellite
(E) Data returned by an Internet search engine (E) Wi-Fi

45. Asking a group of users to evaluate the 49. Which of the following is (are) legal for the
functionality of a prelaunch graphical user purchaser of a DVD?
interface is a component of which of the
following? I. Copying the DVD for personal use
II. Copying the DVD and giving the copy to
(A) Prototyping
a friend for free
(B) Phased implementation
III. Copying the DVD and giving the copy to
(C) Process management a friend for a fee
(D) Resource management
(A) None
(E) Feasibility assessment
(B) I only
(C) II only
46. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of
having an entire department using the same (D) I and II only
office software suite? (E) I, II, and III

(A) Lower cost per application than if purchased

individually 50. Which of the following describes a Web site that
provides access to multiple services such as
(B) Ease of moving data between suite
news, weather, sports, and stock indexes?
applications
(C) Ease of moving data between users in the (A) Host
same department (B) Portal
(D) Ease of installation and maintenance (C) Domain
(E) Optimal functionality of individual (D) Hyperlink
application packages (E) Home page

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51. The required components for a LAN include 54. Developers quickly develop a version of a
each of the following EXCEPT a system and give it to the users for feedback. The
developers then use the users’ feedback to revise
(A) networking protocol the system. This process repeats until the users
(B) cabling standard approve the system. This method of developing a
(C) network interface card system is called
(D) unique address for each node (A) waterfall
(E) print server (B) prototyping
(C) object-oriented
52. Which of the following is true about user (D) end-user development
passwords? (E) joint application design
(A) They should be changed only by the
administrator. 55. Which of the following best characterizes data in
(B) They must be no more than eight characters a data warehouse?
in length.
(A) Historical
(C) They are requested by CAPTCHAs.
(B) Dynamic
(D) They are most secure when they consist of
letters, numbers, and special characters. (C) Random
(E) They are required to be unique. (D) Volatile
(E) Fragmented
53. Which of the following statements is (are) true
concerning multiuser database management 56. Which of the following information technology
systems? processes is used to produce corporate reports
that are duplicate, uneditable digital copies?
I. They can increase the standardization
of data. (A) Word processing
II. They can increase the need to store data in (B) Photocopying
many different locations in the database. (C) Document imaging
III. They can increase access to and availability (D) Desktop publishing
of information. (E) OCR scanning
(A) I only
(B) II only 57. Which of the following is NOT a means of
(C) I and II only secondary storage?
(D) I and III only (A) External hard drive
(E) I, II, and III (B) Cache memory
(C) USB flash drive
(D) Cloud storage
(E) CD-R

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58. The capability of computerized systems to store 62. Which of the following types of systems
and exchange information poses a potential development methods would be appropriate
threat to the individual’s right to when a company does not have an expert IS
department?
(A) free speech
(B) privacy I. Outsourcing
(C) equal access to information II. Traditional SDLC
(D) assembly III. RAD
(E) consumer protection (A) I only
(B) II only
59. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic (C) III only
of a decision support system, as it is usually (D) I and III only
defined? (E) I, II, and III
(A) It can be used as an aid in solving ad hoc
problems. 63. The process of planning, scheduling, and
(B) It is useful for what-if analysis. overseeing the development of a new
(C) It is intended to help managers make information system is called
decisions. (A) systems analysis
(D) It makes the one best or optimal decision. (B) software engineering
(E) It uses appropriate statistical and (C) feasibility assessment
mathematical models. (D) project management
(E) programming
60. Which of the following uses the Internet, as
opposed to using the public switched network, to
64. Which of the following activities CANNOT be
enable voice communication?
performed in a link in an HTML document?
(A) TCP/IP
(A) Sending an e-mail
(B) VoIP (B) Printing the current Web page
(C) EFT (C) Moving to another location on the current
(D) EDI Web page
(E) PBX (D) Opening another Web page in the current
browser window
61. Which data model uses two-dimensional tables (E) Opening another Web page in a new browser
to represent data structures? window

(A) Relational
(B) Hierarchical
(C) Network
(D) Navigational
(E) Object-oriented

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65. A manager of a small business wants to use a 68. In considering the economic feasibility of a
computer to store information about clients, systems development project, which of the
vendors, inventory (item, number, price), and following would a project manager be LEAST
orders. The manager needs to be able to sort and likely to consider?
group data for various reports. Which of the
(A) The cost of developing the system compared
following types of software packages would be
with the potential benefits of using the
best for this task?
system
(A) Word processor (B) The return on the initial investment on the
(B) Spreadsheet system
(C) Database management system (C) When the project will break even
(D) Presentation software (D) Whether the company can afford the project
(E) System software (E) Whether the hardware can be acquired for
the project

66. In determining whether a risk-management

69. A program written to access and update a master
procedure is cost-effective, which of the database that maintains sales of tickets to an
following should be considered? upcoming concert is called
I. The value of the asset being protected (A) system software
II. The cost of the security control being (B) networking software
considered (C) a transaction processing system
III. The likelihood of damage to the asset (D) an operating system
(A) I only (E) a knowledge management system
(B) II only
(C) III only 70. Which of the following user-based activities
would NOT be part of a Web site design project?
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II, and III (A) Users being asked what information should
appear on the Web site
(B) Users being asked what programming
67. The process of comparing a user ID and
language they are most comfortable with
password with stored information before
allowing access to a system is known as (C) Users being asked about their security
concerns
(A) authentication and authorization (D) Users being asked what statistical feedback
(B) digital certification they would like to receive
(C) password protection (E) Users being instructed to look at similar
Web sites
(D) knowledge management
(E) customer validation

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71. Which of the following is an advantage of 75. The type of network that would most likely be
outsourcing? used to link a corporation’s headquarters with its
four branch offices located throughout a state is
(A) It enables a company to focus on core referred to as
competencies.
(B) It decreases dependence on other (A) a metropolitan area network
organizations. (B) a local area network
(C) It decreases the risk of disclosing (C) an office area network
confidential information. (D) a wide area network
(D) It improves managerial control. (E) a broad area network
(E) It enhances in-house technical expertise.
76. Goals of a supply-chain management system
72. Batch processing is LEAST likely to be include which of the following?
applied to
I. Facilitate upselling of the product
(A) periodic merging of transaction records
II. Deliver the product to the customer more
(B) ad hoc querying of a marketing information rapidly
database
III. Reduce the cost of procurement
(C) creating management reports
(D) transmitting monthly sales projections (A) I only
(E) populating a data warehouse (B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
73. Which of the following is a software agent used (D) II and III only
by some Internet search engines to generate (E) I, II, and III
search results?
(A) Web bot 77. Which of the following is a set of protocols used
to link different types of computers over the
(B) TCP filter
Internet?
(C) Auto responder
(D) Worm (A) HTML
(E) Indexer (B) HTTP
(C) ERP
74. The maintenance phase of the system (D) TCP/IP
development process could include all of the (E) W3C
following activities EXCEPT
(A) correcting errors in the software that were 78. Which of the following does NOT provide data
detected after implementation security or access security?
(B) changing the heading on a report (A) Data encryption
(C) updating entries in the tax table to reflect (B) Password protection
changes in the tax rates (C) Data encoding
(D) adding a new function to an existing system (D) Biometric scan
(E) performing a complete rewrite for an (E) Digital certificate
existing system

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79. Which of the following is the term used when a 82. Having multiple operating systems installed on
Web site automatically downloads data or files to the same personal computer enables the user to
a computer whenever new data are available or at do each of the following EXCEPT
scheduled intervals?
(A) run a proprietary operating system and an
(A) Web streaming open source operating system on the same
(B) Push technology computer
(C) Pipelining (B) run different versions of the same operating
system on the same computer
(D) Spamming
(C) access a larger variety of software
(E) Web crawling
(D) create multiple IP addresses for the
computer
80. A geographic information system must have (E) create a virtual server
which of the following characteristics?

I. Records have identified geographic 83. Which of the following is an asynchronous

locations. technology that a virtual team can use for
II. The system uses global positioning communication?
satellites.
(A) Conference call
III. The system provides results in a graphic
(B) Videoconferencing
format.
(C) VoIP
(A) I only (D) E-mail
(B) I and II only (E) Webinar
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only 84. Which of the following is NOT true of expert
(E) I, II, and III systems?
(A) They are limited in scope to relatively
81. Managers in an organization often use narrow processes.
spreadsheets to assist with decision making.
(B) They can provide explanations of their
The process of using a spreadsheet to try out
reasoning processes.
alternatives is called
(C) They can use commonsense knowledge.
(A) what-if analysis (D) They can consider multiple hypotheses
(B) data mining simultaneously.
(C) flowcharting (E) They can perform the problem-solving work
(D) querying of humans.
(E) data manipulation

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85. A table called “Students” consists of the 88. Under which of the following conditions can a
following records: public wireless network be used to transmit
confidential data most securely?
Name Credits GPA
Anderson 10 3.0 (A) The local computer has been scanned for
viruses.
Chen 9 3.2
(B) The local computer has the latest operating
Gomez 12 3.1 system and updates.
Jones 12 3.0 (C) The local computer connects to the network
using VPN.
A user entered the following SQL command: (D) All files on the local computer have been
backed up.
Select Name (E) The network password meets all security
From Students criteria.
Where Credits > 9 and GPA > 3
89. Using an ERP system has which of the following
How many names would be returned based on
advantages?
the criteria?
(A) None I. It is easier to install than a typical
transaction processing system.
(B) One
II. It provides a centralized database for
(C) Two organizational data.
(D) Three III. It integrates processes over the
(E) Four organization.
(A) I only
86. The process through which a user is verified and (B) II only
validated to access a computer network/system is
(C) I and II only
referred to as
(D) II and III only
(A) encryption (E) I, II, and III
(B) password protection
(C) authentication 90.
(D) account validation
(E) certification

87. Which of the following is the most effective

means of ensuring security in a cloud computing
environment? The table above shows the contents of 16 cells in a
spreadsheet. Cell E5 of the spreadsheet contains
(A) Restricting user access to relevant the formula "=B$2+$C2". Cell E5 is copied to
applications cell F6. What is the value displayed in cell F6?
(B) Requiring employees to sign a privacy
statement (A) 5
(C) Requiring the vendor to sign a (B) 7
confidentiality agreement (C) 9
(D) Locking down breached databases (D) 10
(E) Appointing a chief security officer (E) 14

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Study Resources
Answer Key
Most textbooks used in college-level introductory
business information systems or information 1. E 46. E
technology courses cover the knowledge and skills 2. C 47. C
in the outline given earlier. The approaches to 3. C 48. C
certain topics and the emphases given to them differ; 4. D 49. B
therefore, it is advisable to study one or more current 5. D 50. B
college textbooks to prepare for the Information 6. E 51. E
Systems and Computer Applications exam. When 7. B 52. D
selecting a textbook, check the table of contents 8. A 53. D
against the knowledge and skills required for this 9. C 54. B
test. 10. E 55. A
11. D 56. C
Visit clep.collegeboard.org/test-preparation for
12. A 57. B
additional study resources. You can also find 13. C 58. B
suggestions for exam preparation in Chapter IV of 14. C 59. D
the Official Study Guide. In addition, many college 15. A 60. B
faculty post their course materials on their schools’ 16. E 61. A
websites. 17. E 62. A
18. A 63. D
19. B 64. B
20. A 65. C
21. C 66. E
22. D 67. A
23. A 68. E
24. C 69. C
25. C 70. B
26. C 71. A
27. D 72. B
28. E 73. A
29. A 74. E
30. C 75. D
31. C 76. D
32. B 77. D
33. B 78. C
34. D 79. B
35. D 80. C
36. B 81. A
37. D 82. D
38. C 83. D
39. B 84. C
40. C 85. B
41. D 86. C
42. A 87. A
43. D 88. C
44. B 89. D
45. A 90. C

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Test Measurement Overview courses at various colleges and universities. These

experts evaluate each question in order to determine
Format the raw scores that would correspond to B and C
levels of performance. Their judgments are then
There are multiple forms of the computer-based test, reviewed by a test development committee, which, in
each containing a predetermined set of scored consultation with test content and psychometric
questions. The examinations are not adaptive. There specialists, makes a final determination. The
may be some overlap between different forms of a standard-setting study is described more fully in the
test: any of the forms may have a few questions, earlier section entitled “CLEP Credit Granting” on
many questions, or no questions in common. Some page 5.
overlap may be necessary for statistical reasons.
Panel members participating in the most recent study
In the computer-based test, not all questions were:
contribute to the candidate’s score. Some of the
questions presented to the candidate are being Beverly Amer Northern Arizona University
pretested for use in future editions of the tests and Scott Beckstrand College of Southern Nevada
will not count toward his or her score. Nora Braun Augsburg College
Richard Bush Lawrence Technological
Scoring Information University
CLEP examinations are scored without a penalty for Q Chung Villanova University
incorrect guessing. The candidate’s raw score is Robert Ellis William Carey University
simply the number of questions answered correctly. Jerry Fjermestad New Jersey Institute of
However, this raw score is not reported; the raw Technology
scores are translated into a scaled score by a process C. Steven Hunt Morehead State University
that adjusts for differences in the difficulty of the Russell Jones Arkansas State University
questions on the various forms of the test. Brian Kovar Kansas State University
Levi Krein University of Mary
Scaled Scores W. Brett McKenzie Roger Williams University
The scaled scores are reported on a scale of 20–80. James Nelson New Mexico State University
Because the different forms of the tests are not Karen Sarratt Scott The University of Texas
always exactly equal in difficulty, raw-to-scale at Arlington
conversions may in some cases differ from form to Paul Schwager East Carolina University
form. The easier a form is judged to be, the higher Dana Schwieger Southeast Missouri State
the raw score required to attain a given scaled score. University
Table 1 indicates the relationship between number Judith Simon University of Memphis
correct (raw score) and scaled score across all forms. Gerhard Steinke Seattle Pacific University
Ward Thrasher University of Bridgeport
The Recommended Credit-Granting MaryAnne Winniford Mesa State College
Score Cecelia Wright- Morgan State University
Brown
Table 1 also indicates the recommended
credit-granting score, which represents the After the recommended credit-granting scores are
performance of students earning a grade of C in the determined, a statistical procedure called scaling is
corresponding course. The recommended B-level applied to establish the exact correspondences
score represents B-level performance in equivalent between raw and scaled scores. Note that a scaled
course work. These scores were established as the score of 50 is assigned to the raw score that
result of a Standard Setting Study, the most recent corresponds to the recommended credit-granting
having been conducted in 2009. The recommended score for C-level performance, and a high but usually
credit-granting scores are based upon the judgments less than perfect raw score is selected and assigned a
of a panel of experts currently teaching equivalent scaled score of 80.

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 Table 1: Information Systems and Computer Applications
Interpretive Score Data
American Council on Education (ACE) Recommended Number of Semester Hours of Credit: 3

Course Grade Scaled Score Number Correct

80 85-90
79 84
78 83
77 81-82
76 80-81
75 79
74 78
73 76-77
72 75
71 74
70 73
69 71-72
68 70
67 69
B 66 67-68
65 66-67
64 65
63 63-64
62 62-63
61 61
60 60
59 58-59
58 57-58
57 56
56 54-55
55 53-54
54 52
53 50-51
52 49-50
51 48
C 50* 46-47
49 45-46
48 44
47 42-43
46 41-42
45 39-40
44 38-39
43 37-38
42 35-36
41 34-35
40 33
39 31-32
38 30-31
37 29
36 27-28
35 26-27
34 25
33 23-24
32 22
31 20-21
30 19-20
29 18
28 16-17
27 15
26 13-14
25 12
24 11
23 9-10
22 8
21 6-7
20 0-6

*Credit-granting score recommended by ACE.

Note: The number-correct scores for each scaled score on different forms may vary depending on form difficulty.

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Validity Reliability
Validity is a characteristic of a particular use of the The reliability of the test scores of a group of
test scores of a group of examinees. If the scores are examinees is commonly described by two statistics:
used to make inferences about the examinees’ the reliability coefficient and the standard error of
knowledge of a particular subject, the validity of the measurement (SEM). The reliability coefficient is
scores for that purpose is the extent to which those the correlation between the scores those examinees
inferences can be trusted to be accurate. get (or would get) on two independent replications
of the measurement process. The reliability
One type of evidence for the validity of test scores is coefficient is intended to indicate the
called content-related evidence of validity. It is stability/consistency of the candidates’ test scores,
usually based upon the judgments of a set of experts and is often expressed as a number ranging from
who evaluate the extent to which the content of the .00 to 1.00. A value of .00 indicates total lack of
test is appropriate for the inferences to be made stability, while a value of 1.00 indicates perfect
about the examinees’ knowledge. The committee stability. The reliability coefficient can be interpreted
that developed the CLEP Information Systems and as the correlation between the scores examinees
Computer Applications examination selected the would earn on two forms of the test that had no
content of the test to reflect the content of questions in common.
Information Systems and Computer Applications
courses at most colleges, as determined by a Statisticians use an internal-consistency measure to
curriculum survey. Since colleges differ somewhat in calculate the reliability coefficients for the CLEP
the content of the courses they offer, faculty exam.1 This involves looking at the statistical
members should, and are urged to, review the relationships among responses to individual
content outline and the sample questions to ensure multiple-choice questions to estimate the reliability
that the test covers core content appropriate to the of the total test score. The SEM is an estimate of the
courses at their college. amount by which a typical test-taker’s score differs
from the average of the scores that a test-taker
Another type of evidence for test-score validity is would have gotten on all possible editions of the test.
called criterion-related evidence of validity. It It is expressed in score units of the test. Intervals
consists of statistical evidence that examinees who extending one standard error above and below the
score high on the test also do well on other measures true score for a test-taker will include 68 percent of
of the knowledge or skills the test is being used to that test-taker’s obtained scores. Similarly, intervals
measure. Criterion-related evidence for the validity extending two standard errors above and below the
of CLEP scores can be obtained by studies true score will include 95 percent of the test-taker’s
comparing students’ CLEP scores with the grades obtained scores. The standard error of measurement
they received in corresponding classes, or other is inversely related to the reliability coefficient. If the
measures of achievement or ability. CLEP and reliability of the test were 1.00 (if it perfectly
the College Board conduct these studies, called measured the candidate’s knowledge), the standard
Admitted Class Evaluation Service or ACES, for error of measurement would be zero.
individual colleges that meet certain criteria at Scores on the CLEP examination in Information
the college’s request. Please contact CLEP for Systems and Computer Applications are estimated to
more information. have a reliability coefficient of 0.93. The standard
error of measurement is 2.96 scaled-score points.
1
The formula used is known as Kuder-Richardson 20, or KR-20, which is equivalent
to a more general formula called coefficient alpha.

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