09-04-2025

2701CMD303267240001 MD

PHYSICS

1) If the unit of force is 1 kilonewton, the length is 1 km and time 100 s, what will be the unit of
mass?

(1) 1,000 kg
(2) 10,000 kg
(3) 100 kg
(4) 1 kg

2) The dimensions of Planck's constant are:

(1) [ML2T–1]
(2) [ML2T–2]
(3) [M2L2T2]
(4) [MLT–2]

3) The displacement of a particle is given by x = (t – 2)2 where x is in metres and t in seconds. The
distance covered by the particle in first 4 seconds is

(1) 12 m
(2) 4 m
(3) 16 m
(4) 8 m

4) The angle between

(1) 180°
(2) -45°
(3) 90°
(4) 45°

5) A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in 10
s. Then the coefficient of friction is

(1) 0.03
(2) 0.06
(3) 0.02
(4) 0.01

6) Which of the following is the dimension of coefficient of friction?

 0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
(2) [M2LT–2]
(3) [MLT–2]
(4) [M2LT]

7) A child is sitting on a swing. Its minimum and maximum heights from the ground 0.75 m and 2 m
respectively, its maximum speed will be

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 15 m/s

8) A mass 3m, initially at rest at the origin, explodes into three fragments of equal mass. Two of the
fragments have speed v each and move perpendicular to each other. The third fragment will move
with a speed

(1) v

(2)

(3) v/2

(4)

9) The displacement-time graph of a moving particle is shown. The instantaneous velocity of the

particle is negative at the point

(1) D
(2) F
(3) C
(4) E

10) The acceleration of a solid cylinder rolling down an inclined plane of inclination 30° is

(1) g/3
(2) g/4
(3) g/2
(4) 2g/2

11) Assertion (A): Comets move around the sun in elliptical orbits. The gravitational force on the
comet due to the sun is not normal to the comet's velocity but the work done by the gravitational
force over every complete orbit of the comet is zero.
Reason (R): Gravitational force is a non-conservative force.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

12) The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two wires of same length and of same area
of cross section, one of steel and another of brass are suspended from the same roof. If we want the
lower ends of the wires to be at the same level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires
must be in the ratio of

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

13) Along a streamline,

i. The velocity of a fluid particle remains constant
ii. The velocity of all fluid particles crossing a given position is constant
iii. The velocity of all fluid particles at a given instant is constant
iv. The speed of a fluid particle remains constant

(1) Statement (i) is correct

(2) Statement (ii) is correct
(3) Statement (iv) is correct
(4) Statement (iii) is correct

14)

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

15) The temperature of a silver bar rises by 10.0 C when it absorbs 1.23 kJ of energy by heat. The
mass of the bar is 525 g. Determine the specific heat of silver?

(1) 0.234 kJ/kg. °C

(2) 0.254 kJ/kg. °C
(3) 0.244 kJ/kg. °C
(4) 0.214 kJ/kg. °C

16) During isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does +150 J of work against its surroundings.
This implies that:

(1) No heat is transferred because the process is isothermal

(2) 300 J of heat has been added to the gas
(3) 150 J of heat has been removed from the gas
(4) 150 J of heat has been added to the gas

17) The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is 7R/2. The ratio of specific heat at
constant pressure to that at constant volume is:

(1) 9/7
(2) 8/7
(3) 7/5
(4) 5/7

18) A reversible refrigerator operates between a low temperature reservoir at TC and a high
temperature reservoir at TH . Its coefficient of performance is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Average value of K.E. and P.E. over entire time period is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In a simple harmonic motion, when the displacement is one-half the amplitude, what fraction of
the total energy is kinetic?
(1) 1/2
(2) 0
(3) 3/4
(4) 1/4

21)

Two persons cannot hear each other on the surface of the moon because the moon has:

(1) No atmosphere
(2) Craters
(3) Rocks which absorb sound
(4) Dust suspended all around

22) Electric force between two charged spheres is 18 units. If the distance between the centres of
the sphere is tripled, the electric force will be

(1) 2 units
(2) 54 units
(3) 3 units
(4) 6 units

23) The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are 10 cm apart and have area equal to 2 m2. If the
charge on each plate is 8.85 into 10-10 C, the electric field at a point

(1) Between the plates will be zero

(2) Outside the plates will be zero
(3) Between the plates will be 25 NC–1
(4) Between the plates will change from point to point

24) Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The
capacitance and breakdown voltage of the combination will be:

(1) 3 C, 3 V
(2) C/3, V/3
(3) C/3, 3 V
(4) 3 C, V/3

25) current of 0.8 A flows in a conductor of 40 for 1 minute. The heat produced in the conductor
will be

(1) 1640 J
(2) 1445 J
(3) 1569 J
(4) 1536 J
26) The masses of two cylindrical wires of copper are in the ratio of 1 : 3 and their lengths are in the
ratio of 5 : 3. The ratio of their resistances will be:

(1) 2 : 5
(2) 25 : 3
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 5

27) In a meter bridge experiment, a balance point is obtained at a distance of 60 cm from the left
end when unknown resistance R is in a left gap and 8 ohms resistor is connected in the right gap.
When the position of R and 8 ohm resistor is interchanged the balance point will be at distance of

(1) 40 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 50 cm

28) A piece of wire bent in the form of a circular loop A carries a current I. The wire is then bent into
a circular loop B of two turns and carries the same current. The ratio of magnetic fields at the centre
of loop A to that of loop B will be:

(1) 4
(2) 1/16
(3) 1/4
(4) 16

29) A voltmeter of resistance 2000 , 0.5 V/div is to be converted into a voltmeter to make it to read
2 V/div. The value of high resistance to be connected in series with it is:

(1) 6000
(2) 1000
(3) 5000
(4) 4000

30) An aeroplane having a wingspan of 35m files due north with the speed of 90 m/s, given B = 4 x
10–5 T. The potential difference between the tips of the wings will be

(1) 0.126 V
(2) 1.26 V
(3) 0.013 V
(4) 12.6 V

31) The magnetic field between the Horizontal poles of an electromagnet is uniform at any time, but
its magnitude is increasing at the rate of 0.020 T/s. The area of a horizontal conducting loop in the
magnetic field is 120 cm2, and the total circuit resistance, including the meter, is 5 . Induced emf
and the induced current in the circuit are
(1) 0.18 mV, 0.38 mA
(2) 0.50 mV, 0.048 mA
(3) 0.24 mV, 0.048 mA
(4) 0.12 mV, 0.48 mA

32) The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount in a time . Then
the total quantity of electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during the time is
represented by:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) An LRC series circuit has phase angle 30°. The voltage amplitude of the source is 90.0 V. Voltage
amplitude across the resistor is

(1) 68.7 V
(2) 77.9 V
(3) 74.7 V
(4) 70.7 V

34) Which radiations are used in the treatment of muscles ache?

(1) Ultraviolet
(2) Microwave
(3) Infrared
(4) X-rays

35) The plane faces of two identical plano-convex lenses, each having focal length of 40 cm, are
placed against each other to form a usual convex lens, The distance from this lens at which an object
must be placed to obtain a real, inverted image with magnification one is:

(1) 160 cm
(2) 35 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 15 cm

36) A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod having spherical end of radius of curvature 30
cm. The image formed would be : ( glass = 3/2)

(1) 30 cm left
(2) Infinity
(3) 1 cm to the right
(4) 18 cm to the left

37) A beam of unpolarised light is incident on two polaroids crossed to each other. When one of the
polaroid is rotated through an angle, then 25% of the incident unpolarised light is transmitted by the
polaroids. Then the angle through which polaroid is rotated, is:

(1) 0°
(2) 45°
(3) 25°
(4) 90°

38) A narrow slit of width 2 mm is illuminated by monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm. The
distance between the first minima on either side on a screen at a distance of 1 m, is:

(1) 10 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 0.5 mm
(4) 5 mm

39) A deutron has an energy of 4 MeV when accelerated through a potential difference V. What will
be the energy of an alpha-particle accelerated by the same potential difference V?

(1) 8 MeV
(2) 20 MeV
(3) 12 MeV
(4) 4 MeV

40) If photons of frequency are incident on the surfaces of metals. A & B of threshold frequencies
/2 and /3 respectively, the ratio of the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted from A to that
from B is

(1)

(2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 2 : 3

41) The Bohr model of atom

(1) Predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms

(2) Predicts the same emission spectra for all types of atoms
(3) Assumes that the angular momentum of electrons is quantized
(4) Uses Einstein's photoelectric equation

42) The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10–11 m. What is the radii
of the n = 2 orbit?

(1) 3.42 × 10–10 m

(2) 5.32 × 10–10 m
(3) 2.12 × 10–10 m
(4) 6.22 × 10–10 m

43) How much energy will approximately be released if all the atoms of 1 kg of deuterium could
undergo fusion? [Assume energy released per deuterium nucleus is 2 MeV]

(1) 9 × 1013 MeV

(2) 6 × 1027 calorie
(3) 2 × 107 kWh
(4) 9 × 1013 J

44) The function of heavy water in a reactor is to

(1) Stop the neutrons

(2) Absorb the neutrons
(3) Increase the speed of the neutron
(4) Slow down the neutrons

45) In p-type semiconductor,

A. Major current carrier are electrons
B. Major carrier are mobile negative ions
C. Major carrier are mobile holes
D. Number of holes and electrons are equal

(1) Option C
(2) Option A
(3) Option D
(4) Option B

CHEMISTRY

1) Consider the following compounds

The correct order of boiling point is

(1) (I) > (II) > (III)

(2) (III) > (I) > (II)
(3) (II) > (III) > (I)
(4) (I) > (III) > (II)

2) Fluorine is a stronger oxidizing agent than chlorine

because
a. F-F bond has a low enthalpy of dissociation
b. Fluoride ion (F–) has high hydration enthalpy
c. Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is more negative than chlorine
Choose the correct option from the following

(1) b and c only

(2) a and b only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c

3) For which of the following reaction, the value of is lowest at 298.15 K?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) Consider the following reaction, for which KC= 50. If 0.1 mole of
each of the reactant and product are mixed in a 500 mL flask, then the reaction quotient and the
spontaneous direction of the system will be

(1) QC = 10; the equilibrium shifts to the left

(2) QC = 25; the equilibrium shifts to the left
(3) QC = 25; the equilibrium shifts to the right
(4) QC = 10; the equilibrium shifts to the right

5) The correct IUPAC official name of an element with atomic number 104 is
(1) Rutherfordium
(2) Lawrencium
(3) hassium
(4) Bohrium

6) Which among the following elements has maximum electron affinity ?

(1) O
(2) S
(3) Te
(4) Po

7) During the electrolysis of aqeous Na2SO4 using Pt electrode the products obtained are

(1) H2 at cathode
(2) O2 at anode
(3) Na at cathode
(4) Both (1) and (2)

8) The compound with maximum covalent character is

(1) LiI
(2) LiBr
(3) LiCl
(4) LiF

9) The radius ratio of second orbit of Li2+ to third orbit of He+ is

(1) 1/8
(2) 4/3
(3) 9/4
(4) 8/27

10) Consider the following statements regarding interstitial

compounds.
(a) They are usually non-stoichiometric
(b) They have melting points lower than pure metals
(c) They lose metallic conductivity
(d) They are chemically inert
The correct statements are

(1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (d) only
11) Oxidation state of central bromine atom in Br3O8 is

(1) 0
(2) +2
(3) +4
(4) +6

12) Amount of CO2 produced from 20 g of 50% pure CaCO3 is

(1) 2.2 g
(2) 8.8 g
(3) 4.4 g
(4) 17.6 g

13) The heat of combustion of ethanol determined in a bomb calorimeter is –670.48 kCal mol–1 at
27°C. What is H at 27°C for the reaction:–

(1) –335.24 kCal

(2) –671.08 kCal
(3) –670.48 kCal
(4) +670.48 kCal

14) For given reaction, the correct expression for rate of reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Number of chiral carbons present in β – D – (+) –glucopyranose is

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3

16) Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv
(2) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii
(3) a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii
(4) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i

17) Number of atoms in 1 mol H2O at STP will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Prussian blue colour is observed on addition of Na4[Fe(CN)6] in

(1) FeCl2
(2) FeCl3
(3) CuCl2
(4) CuCl

19) Addition of AgNO3 is a salt solution gives white precipitate, solution may contain

(1) Cl–
(2) Br–
(3) I–

(4)

20) Which among the following will give iodoform test?

(a) CH3CHO
(b) CH3CH2CHO
(c) CH3COCH3
(d) HCHO

(1) (a) only

(2) (a) & (b) only
(3) (a) & (c) only
(4) (a), (b) & (c) only

21) The correct structure of DDT is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The most basic hydroxide among the following is

(1) Tb(OH)3
(2) Dy(OH)3
(3) Er(OH)3
(4) Pr(OH)3

23) Statement–I:– Sulphur exhibits +8 oxidation state in H2SO5.

Statement–II:– H2SO5 contains peroxide linkage.

(1) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct

(2) Statement–I is correct and Statement–II is incorrect
(3) Statement–I is incorrect and Statement–II is correct
(4) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are incorrect

24) The compound which reacts at fastest rate with aqueous AgNO3 solution is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Consider the following reaction sequence

Major product B is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) The compound which reacts fastest with ZnCl2 and conc. HCl

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Consider the following reaction sequence

Product C is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with n = 4 and l = 3 is

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 16

30) In the reaction,

when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made

to react for completion, then

(1) 1.5 mol H2O will be produced

(2) 1 mole of H2O will be produced
(3) 1 mole of NO will be produced
(4) All the oxygen will be consumed

31) The number of oxygen atoms in 2.2 g of CO2 is approximately

(1) 3.012 × 1023

(2) 6.023 × 1023
(3) 6.023 × 1022
(4) 3.012 × 1022

32) The compound A with following sequence of reaction gave benzoic acid.
The compound A is

(1) Nitrobenzene
(2) Benzylamine
(3) Aniline
(4) Benzaldehyde

33) Which among the following pair of elements has half filled f-subhell ?

(1) Tb and Cm
(2) Eu and Am
(3) Gd and Pu
(4) Sm and Bk

34) Which of the given species can undergo disproportionation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Assertion (A):– Geometry of complex ion [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is octahedral

Reason (R):– The spin only magnetic moment of [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is 1.73 BM.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

36) Which among the following is not a respresentative element ?

(1) Ba
(2) Se
(3) Zr
(4) As

37) The period number and group number respectively of an element with atomic number 47 is

(1) 4, 11
(2) 5, 11
(3) 5, 12
(4) 6, 10
38) For the galvanic cell Zn (s) | Zn2+ (aq) (0.1M) | Ni2+(aq)(0.01M)Ni(s) Ecell at 250C will be

(1) 0.03 V
(2) 0.48 V
(3) 0.9 V
(4) 1.28 V

39) Assertion (A):– For the equilibrium addition of acetate ions results
in decreasing the pH of the solution.
Reason (R):– Common ion effect is a phenomenon based on the Le Chatelier’s principle.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

40) Which among the following will not give aldol condensation ?

(1) CH3CHO
(2) CH3COCH3
(3) CH3CH2CHO

(4)

41) Statement–I:– The product of reaction of phenol with bromine depends on the nature of solvent.
Statement–II:– Reaction of phenol with bromine in CHCl3 gives monosubstituted bromo derivative
whereas reaction of phenol with bromine water yields trisubstituted bromo derivative of phenol.

(1) Statement–I is incorrect and Statement–II is correct

(2) Both Statement–I and Statement–I are correct
(3) Both Statement–I and Statement–I are incorrect
(4) Statement–I is correct and Statement–II is incorrect

42) If rate of reaction becomes four times on doubling the concentration of reactant, the unit of rate
constant for this rection will be

(1) mol L–1 s–1

(2) mol–1 L s–1
(3) s–1
(4) mol-2 L–1 s–1

43) Which among the following is most reactive in electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The product formed in the following chemical reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) N/10 acetic acid was titrated with N/10 NaOH. When 25%, 50% and 75% of titration is over then
the pH of solution will be:– [Ka = 10–5]

(1) 5 + log 1/3, 5, 5 + log 3

(2) 5 + log 3, 4, 5 + log 1/3
(3) 5 – log 1/3, 5, 5 – log 3
(4) 5 – log 1/3, 4, 5 + log 1/3
 BIOLOGY

1) Select the correct statement from the given below.

(1) The highest taxonomic category in plants is division

(2) Growth is an intrinsic property of living organisms
(3) In living organism growth is from outside
(4) The metabolic processes which involves synthesis of molecules are called catabolism

2) Which of the given plants have leaf spines?

(1) Cactus
(2) Pea
(3) Onion
(4) Nepenthes

3) Staminode is

(1) Modification of petiole

(2) Fleshy stem
(3) A sterile stamen
(4) Flattened stem

4) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Hypodermis is absent in roots of both dicots and monocots

(2) Conjoint closed vascular bundles are found in monocot stems
(3) Pith is large and well developed in the roots of dicot plants
(4) In dicot roots, pericycle gives rise to lateral roots

5) When chromosomes are stained with dyes, the euchromatin region found is
a. Genetically inactive
b. Loosely packed DNA
c. Darkly stained

(1) Only a is correct

(2) Only b is correct
(3) Only c is correct
(4) Both a and b are correct

6) Assertion (A): Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason (R): These plants can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true and Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false

7) During metaphase of mitosis,

(1) Chromosomes are found thin and thread like

(2) Morphology of chromosome is best studied
(3) Chromatids move towards the opposite poles
(4) Nucleolus, ER and Golgi body reappear

8) Cyclic photophosphorylation

(1) Is connected with photolysis of water

(2) Synthesises both ATP as well as NADPH
(3) Is performed by photosystem I independently
(4) Requires an external source of electron donor

9) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen grain.

(1) Intine is pectocellulosic in nature

(2) Pollen grains are generally spherical
(3) The vegetative cell has abundant food reserve and a small spindle shaped nucleus
(4) Generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell

10) The flowers pollinated by flies and beetles

(1) Have large feathery stigma

(2) Have foul odour
(3) Have well exposed stamens
(4) Produce light and non-sticky pollen grains

11) Which of the given is an autosomal dominant disorder?

(1) Thalassemia
(2) Cystic fibrosis
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) HaemophiliaHaemophilia

12) Assertion:– Monoadelphous statements are found in pea.

Reason:– In pea, stamens are united into one bunch or one bundle.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

13) Which of the following is correct representation for labelled structure/phenomenon?

(1) A – DNA replication, RNA dependent DNA polymerase

(2) B – Transcription, DNA polymerase
(3) B – Transcription, DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(4) C – Transcription, snurps

14) How many nucleosome are present in the nucleus of diploid eukaryotic cell which possess 6.6 ×
109 bp?

(1) 3.3 × 107

(2) 3.3 × 109
(3) 6.6 × 107
(4) 6.6 × 109

15) The technology for biogas production has developed in India mainly due to the efforts of

(1) IARI and IRRI

(2) CSIR and IARI
(3) KVIC and IARI
(4) KVIC and NEERI

16) Number of deaths in the population during a given period is called

(1) Mortality
(2) Natality
(3) Immigration
(4) Emigration

17) The equivalent taxonomic categories of Diptera and Insecta w.r.t. plants are respectively

(1) Anacardiaceae and Sapindales

(2) Poales and Angiospermae
(3) Sapindales and Dicotyledonae
(4) Monocotyledonae and Angiospermae

18) Asexual spore is present in all of the given classes of fungi, except

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Ascomycetes
(4) Basidiomycetes

19) How many statements are correct for Deuteromycetes?

(a) Produces fruiting bodies
(b) Asexual spores are non-motile, exogenous in origin
(c) The mycelium is aseptate and branched
(d) A large number of members are decomposers of litter

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

20) Conjoint open type of vascular bundle is present in

(1) Monocot root

(2) Dicot stem
(3) Dicot root
(4) Monocot stem

21) An angiospermic family in which sweet pea is an ornamental plant with one carpel is
represented by floral formula, which is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. photorespiration

(1) Involves loss of fixed carbon as CO2 in plants in presence high light intensity
(2) Is initiated in chloroplast
(3) Is a wasteful process
(4) Produces ATP or NADPH

23) During electron transport system in inner mitochondrial membrane, which of the given acts as a
mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and IV?

(1) NADH dehydrogenase

(2) Ubiquinone
(3) Cytochrome c
(4) FADH2
24)

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

25) Statements A - If the total amount of adenine in eukaryotic ds DNA is 30% then total pyrimidine
content is 50%
Statements B - Nitrogenous bases don't form par of backbone in DNA

(1) Statement A is incorrect

(2) Statement B is incorrect
(3) Both statement A & B are incorrect
(4) Both statement A & B are correct

26) Which of the given is major component of biogas?

(1) CO2
(2) H2S
(3) CH4
(4) H2

27) According to "Rivet-Popper Hypothesis", removal of which rivets will cause serious threat to
flight safety?

(1) Rivets on wings

(2) Rivets on seats
(3) Rivets on doors
(4) Rivets on windows
28)

(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)

29) India has 1000 varieties of mango with different size, colour and taste due to

(1) Genetic diversity

(2) Species diversity
(3) Ecological diversity
(4) Ecosystem diversity

30) Which of the following features, cannot be regarded as defining feature of all life forms?

(1) Consciousness the most obvious and technically complicated feature

(2) The production of new individuals of same kind by the grown up individuals
(3) Metabolic processes occurring in the body of living organisms
(4) Cellular organisation of the body

31) The scientific name of makoi is correctly printed as

(1) Solanum Nigrum

(2) solanum nigrum
(3) Solanum nigrum
(4) SOLANUM NIGRUM

32) Select the features which are true for all members of
kingdom Monera
a. Prokaryotic organisms
b. Without nuclear membrane
c. Nucleolus absent
d. Ribosomes-70 S type
e. Presence of histone and non-histone proteins
f. Cellulosic cell wall present

(1) a, b and e
(2) All except f
(3) c, d, e, and f
(4) All except e and f

33) Members of Phaeophyceae differ from that of Rhodophyceae in having

(1) Photosynthetic pigment

(2) Motile gametes
(3) Cell wall
(4) Autotrophic mode of nutrition

34) Identify the organism which is not a moss.

(1) Funaria
(2) Polytrichum
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Sargassum

35) Statement-A:– Pinus is monoecious whereas Cycas is dioecious.

Statement-B:– Gymnosperms have haploid endosperm.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

36) Statement-A:– Bud is absent in the axil of leaflets of a compound leaf.

Statement-B:– In onion and garlic, fleshy leaves store food.

(1) Only A is incorrect

(2) Only B is incorrect
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

37) Identify the correctly matched pair.

(1) Parenchyma – Thick walled dead tissue

(2) Collenchyma – Living mechanical tissue
(3) Sclerenchyma – Lignified living cells with protoplasm
(4) Permanent tissue– Have ability to divide continuously

38) Which of the following group is essential component for survival of an ecosystem ?

(1) Primary carnivores & producers

(2) Primary producers & decomposers
(3) Primary consumers & top consumers only
(4) Herbivores and carnivores only
39) Cytokinesis differs in plant cells and animal cells. In the animal cells, it takes place by furrow
formation whereas in the plant cells it takes place by

(1) Cell plate formation

(2) Constriction in cell wall
(3) Wall formation at the corners only
(4) Both (1) and (2)

40) Select the correct match.

(1) Zygotene – Homologous chromosomesstart pairing together

(2) G2 phase – Metabolically inactive stage
(3) S phase – Chromosome number becomes double
(4) Diplotene – Formation of synaptonemal complex

41) Read the following statements and select the

correct pair of statements.
A. Water splitting complex is associated with the PS II in higher plants
B. In C3 plants, the Calvin cycle takes place in bundle sheath cells only
C. RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme on earth
D. In C4 plants, photorespiration occurs in mesophyll cells

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) C and D

42) The number of NADH+H+, FADH2 and GTP produced during Krebs’ cycle, if one molecule of
Acetyl CoA enters into the cycle is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

43) Read the given statements and select the option stating
true (T) or false (F).
a. Cytokinins were discovered from the autoclaved herring sperm DNA
b. ABA increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses
c. Ethylene prevents senescence
d. Auxin help to initiate rooting in stem cutting

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

44) Refer to the given figure and identify the correct label for A, B and C

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

45) The growth equation for a population provided with unlimited resources is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

46) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) In all protochordates, notochord is present only in larval tail and is absent in adult
(2) Vertebrates possess notochord during their embryonic period
(3) Fishes, amphibians and reptiles lack the capacity to regulate their body temperature
Presence of feathers, beak, wings, pneumatic bones and air sacs in birds highlight some of the
(4)
aerial adaptations
47) All cells of the body and cellular functions need to be continuously regulated jointly by neural
and endocrine system. Although neural system provides a point-topoint rapid coordination among
organs, still there is an obvious need of endocrine system, as

(1) Action of neural system is long-lived

(2) Endocrine system is receptor dependent
(3) Nerve fibres do not innervate all cells of the body
(4) Coordination through hormones is faster

48) Choose the correct pairing of function of given structure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49) ____ is the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia. Choose the option which fills the blank correctly

(1) Chordata
(2) Mollusca
(3) Annelida
(4) Arthropoda

50) Choose the correct feature w.r.t. Periplaneta americana.

(1) Only female cockroaches possess antennae

(2) Development is hemimetabolous
(3) Blood vascular system is closed type
(4) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and double

51) Grinding of food particles and removal of excretory matter from haemolymph is carried out in
cockroach respectively by

(1) Spiracles and nephridia

(2) Teeth and gizzard
(3) Gizzard and malpighian tubules
(4) Spermatheca and spiracles

52) Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t hormonal oral pills.

(1) Inhibit motility and secretory activity of fallopian tubes

(2) Change in cervical mucus impairing transport of sperms
(3) Alteration in uterine myometrium to make it unsuitable for implantation
(4) Inhibit ovulation
53) Assertion (A):– Visceral organs located in the haemocoel are bathed in haemolymph in
Periplaneta.
Reason (R):– Cockroach has an open circulatory system and blood in haemocoel transports the
oxygen to different parts of body.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true

54) The membrane of the pre and post synaptic neurons are separated by a fluid filled space called

(1) Synaptic vesicles

(2) Synaptic knob
(3) Synaptic bulb
(4) Synaptic cleft

55) If a woman has high plasma level of T3, cortisol and prolactin activity with slightly increase in
blood pressure. The most likely explanation is that

(1) She has been treated with TSH

(2) She has an adrenocortical tumor
(3) She is in the third trimester of pregnancy
(4) She has beeen subjected to chronic stress

56) During joint diastole in cardiac cycle

(1) Action potential is transmitted by the bundle of His to the entire ventricular musculature
(2) Maximum filling of ventricles takes place
(3) Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves occurs producing first heart sound (Lub)
(4) Ventricular pressure increases forcing blood into aorta and pulmonary trunk

57) Consider the various pulmonary capacities and choose the option with incorrect formula/value.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
58) Choose the incorrect match.

(1) ICSI – Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection

(2) GIFT – Gamete intrafallopian transfer
(3) IVF – In vitro fertilization
(4) ZIFT – Zygote inter-fundus transfer

59) Component of blood involved in the coagulation or clotting of blood is

(1) Erythrocytes
(2) Monocytes
(3) Basophils
(4) Thrombocytes

60) T-wave in a normal electrocardiogram represents

(1) Return of ventricles from excited to normal state

(2) Initiation of ventricular contraction
(3) Electrical excitation of the atria
(4) Depolarisation of the ventricles

61) Excess use of pesticides or herbicides resulted in

selection of resistant varieties in a much lesser time
scale. It explains
(a) Evolution by anthropogenic action
(b) Disruptive selection
(c) Evolution is not a direct process in the sense of determinism but is a stochastic process based on
chance events in nature and chance mutations in the organisms.

(1) (b) only

(2) (a) only
(3) (a), (b) only
(4) (a), (c) only

62) What was the feeding habit of orignal species of Darwin finches ?

(1) Insectivorous
(2) Piscivorous
(3) Cactus eater
(4) Seed eater

63) Which of the following parameters is incorrectly matched with its value present in a healthy
adult human being?

(1) Hemoglobin – 12-16 g/100 ml blood

(2) Thrombocytes – 1,50,000-3,50,000 mm–3
(3) Optimum pH of blood – 7.4
(4) Glomerular filtration rate – ~ 17.5 L/hour

64) The type of joint characterised by the presence of a fluid filled synovial cavity between the
articulating surfaces of the two bones is found

(1) As sutures, between the flat skull bones

(2) Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column
(3) As pubic symphysis between two halves of pelvic girdle
(4) Between atlas and axis

65) During muscle contraction, the immediate event after ATP hydrolysis on the globular head of
meromyosin is

(1) Formation of cross bridge

(2) Release of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum into sarcoplasm
(3) ‘Z’ lines come closer and sarcomere shortens
(4) Myosin head releases ADP and Pi and goes back to relaxed state

66) Read the following statements A and B carefully and choose the correct answer
A. Morphine used clinically as analgesics (Pain killer)
B. Morphine has their receptors in CNS

(1) Both statment A and B are correct

(2) Both statment A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statment A is correct
(4) Only statment B is correct

67) The right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called

(1) Cerebral aqueduct

(2) Corpus callosum
(3) Thalamus
(4) Brain stem

68) Hypothyroidism does not causes

(1) Defective development of growing baby

(2) Stunted growth or cretinism
(3) Mental retardation and low intelligence quotient
(4) Protrusion of eyeball

69) Which of the following is not the part of ‘True macromolecular fraction of any living tissue or cell

(1) Protein
(2) Polysaccharide
(3) Polynucleotide
(4) Lipid

70) A non-proteinaceous enzyme among the following is

(1) Pvu–I
(2) Ribozymes
(3) DNA ligase
(4) Succinic dehydrogenase

71) Which part of the sperm is filled with enzymes that help in fertilisation of ovum?

(1) Nucleus
(2) Tail
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Head

72) Which of the following events in menstrual cycle of human female involves sloughing of
endometrium due to fall in level of progesterone?

(1) Menstruation
(2) Follicular Phase
(3) Ovulatory Phase
(4) Luteal Phase

73) Which of the following is not a autoimmune disorder?

(1) Addison’s disease

(2) Gout
(3) Grave’s disease
(4) Mysthenia gravis

74) The type of natural selection which favours both the peripheral character values and not the
mean character value is called

(1) Stabilising selection

(2) Progressive selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Balancing selection

75) Which of the following explanation would be correct for analogous organs like flippers of
Penguins and Dolphins?

(1) Analogous organs perform different functions

(2) They are a result of divergent evolution
(3) Analogy indicates common ancestry
(4) Analogous organs are anatomically diss
76) Acid in stomach, saliva in mouth and tears which contain lysozymes are included under

(1) Physiological barrier

(2) Physical barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Cytokine barrier

77) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Colostrum provides natural passive immunity to infant

(2) In thymus mature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes.
Micro-organisms or antigens which happen to enter lymph nodes activate lymphocytes present
(3)
there and cause immune response
(4) Secondary immune response is highly intensified due to presence of memory cells

78) Select thecorrect set of bacterial diseases in humans

(1) Dysentery, dengue, hepatitis

(2) Plague, diphtheria, typhoid
(3) Common cold, hepatitis, leprosy
(4) Typhoid, cholera, rabies

79) The most feared property of malignant tumors involves spreading of cancer cells to distant sites
in body through body fluids and this is termed

(1) Metagenesis
(2) Metamerism
(3) Diapedesis
(4) Metastasis

80) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to

(1) Partial pressure of O2

(2) Partial pressure of CO2
(3) Temperature
(4) Pressure

81) Which of the following is a genetically modified crops with enhanced nutritional value?

(1) Golden rice

(2) Bt cotton
(3) Transgenic tobacco
(4) None of these

82) Which of the following is used for introducing nematode specific genes into host tobacco plant
for initiating RNAi?
(1) Retroviral vector
(2) Agrobacterium vector
(3) Alpha-phase
(4) pBR322

83) Choose the odd one w.r.t. natural contraceptive methods

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Oral pills
(3) Periodic abstinence
(4) Lactational amenorrhea

84) In cloning vector pBR322, ampR gene contains sites for

(1) Pvu I and Pst I

(2) Bam HI and Sal I
(3) Bam HI and Eco RI
(4) Pst I and Bam HI

85) Restriction endonucleases used in biotechnology

(1) Produce sticky ends only

(2) Link alien DNA with plasmid DNA
(3) Have been isolated from different strains of bacteriophages/viruses
(4) Cut the two strands of DNA at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbone

86) The completion of meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is induced by

(1) Transport of ovum through fallopian tube

(2) Ovulation
(3) Entry of sperm
(4) Puberty

87) Which of the following acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like hCG and
hPL during pregnancy?

(1) Ovary
(2) Posterior pituitary
(3) Placenta
(4) Fallopian tube

88) Select the option which correctly arranges the brain sizes of given ancestors of man in
descending order.

(1) Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Neanderthal man

(2) Neanderthal man, Homo habilis, Homo erectus
(3) Neanderthal man, Homo erectus, Homo habilis
(4) Homo habilis, Neanderthal man, Homo erectus

89) Chemosensitive receptors present in aortic arch recognise changes in CO2 and H+ concentration
in

(1) Oxygenated blood

(2) Deoxygenated blood
(3) CSF
(4) Tissue fluid

90) Match the following column-I and column-II and choose the option with all correct match

(1) A–p, B–q, C–r, D–s

(2) A–r, B–s, C–q, D–p
(3) A–p, B–s, C–r, D–q
(4) A–q, B–r, C–s, D–p
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 4 3 2 1 1 4 4 1 3 3 2 2 1 4 3 2 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 3 4 2 1 3 1 1 3 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 4 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 1 3 1 2 4 1 4 2 3 3 2 2 1 2 4 2 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 4 3 3 2 1 3 3 2 2 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 3 4 3 1 3 1 3 4 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 1 4 3 1 1 1 2 3 4 2 4 3 3 2 2 1 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 1 1 1 3 4 4 4 3 1 3 4 3 2 2 4 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 4 4 1 1 2 4 4 2 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 2 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 2 2 4 3 3 3 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

BIOLOGY