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Chapter 2 Inverse Trignometery

This document is a promotional PDF for a new edition of a previous year questions (PYQ) question bank that includes updates for the 2025 exam papers. It emphasizes the importance of practicing recent PYQs to adapt to the new CBSE question patterns and warns against relying on sample papers from other publishers. The document also highlights the changes in question paper weightage and the need for comprehensive chapter coverage in preparation for board exams.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
19 views263 pages

Chapter 2 Inverse Trignometery

This document is a promotional PDF for a new edition of a previous year questions (PYQ) question bank that includes updates for the 2025 exam papers. It emphasizes the importance of practicing recent PYQs to adapt to the new CBSE question patterns and warns against relying on sample papers from other publishers. The document also highlights the changes in question paper weightage and the need for comprehensive chapter coverage in preparation for board exams.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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taken to cover all the chapters
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From 2020 onwards, the CBSE Mathematics


Question Paper weightage was changed from 100
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Now forget those old previous years bookish
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questions because CBSE is continuously


increasing their standard of making questions.
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CBSE wants you to habituate and exercise your
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brain so that you can be ready for JEE mains or


CUET or other exams.
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It’s very important to practice all recent PYQs
from all papers because CBSE will somehow twist
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or modify these questions and give in your board


exam.
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Strict Warning
Don’t fall in the trap of sample papers which
others book publishers are selling or Youtubers
are promoting.
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I don’t understand why, when CBSE has officially
provided you the sample papers in their website
then why don’t you download and print it out.
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Those sample papers which Youtubers and Book
publishers are selling only conatins old PYQs and
self-made questions
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Just see the hypocrisy, many book publishers and


edtech platforms has published their new
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questions
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Fact
All book publishers do not include recent board
questions from all question papers.
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Instead, they select some questions from previous


year question papers, reshuffle the question
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sample papers.
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Even some questions are eself-made in their


sample papers.
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Sample papers are just a blueprint or replica of
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question pattern which highlights the number of


questions, their marking and their type.

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Never buy Sample papers


Only Previous Year
Questions (PYQs) are the
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most important.

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Chapter 2

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§ 2024 PYQs
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◎ 2024 Julywww.cbse.page

65/S All Sets

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š 2024 PYQ 1 ¥ 65/S, Set 1


π
µ ¶
−1 13π
Assertion (A) : cos cos is equal to .
6 6
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Reason (R) : The range of the principal value branch of the function
y = cos−1 x is [0, π].
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(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Solution
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
A 1 Marks

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Concept
Builder

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www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
Formula Used:
The key property we use here is the relationship between the cosine
function and its inverse:
cos−1(cos θ) = θ if θ ∈ [0, π]
However, if θ is not within the principal range [0, π], we need to find an
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

equivalent angle within the principal value range.


www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

−1
The principal value branch of y = cos (x) has a range:

[0, π]

13π
Step 1: Simplify cos
6
13π
First, reduce to an equivalent angle within [0, 2π):
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

6
13π π
= 2π +
6 6
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Since 2π represents one full revolution, we know:
13π π
www.cbse.page
cos = cos www.cbse.page

6 6
We also know: p
π 3
cos =
6 2
µ ¶
−1 13π
Step 2: Evaluate cos cos
6
We now evaluate the expression using the principal value of the inverse
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

cosine.
A The range of cos (x) is [0, π].
−1
p
π 3
A Since cos = , we calculate:
6 2
Ãp !
−1 3 π
www.cbse.page
cos = www.cbse.page
2 6
Thus:
π
µ ¶
−1 13π
cos cos =
6 6
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw

=⇒ Assertion (A) is true.


www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Step 3: Analyze the Reason (R)


The reason states that the range of the principal value branch of
y = cos−1 x is:
[0, π]
This is correct, as it defines the principal branch of the inverse cosine
function.
www.cbse.page
=⇒ Reason (R) is true.
www.cbse.page

Step 4: Is the Reason a correct explanation of the Assertion?


13π
A The assertion is true because when we reduce to its equivalent
6
angle, it lies within the principal value range.
A The explanation about the range of cos−1 x supports why we choose
π www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
instead of any other equivalent angle.
6

=⇒ The Reason (R) correctly explains the Assertion (A).

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Final Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
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correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

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www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

š 2024 PYQ 2 ¥ 65/S, Set 1


µ ¶ Ã !
−1 1 1
Find the value of cos − tan − p + cosec−1(−2)
−1
2 3
Solution
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π
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

A 2 Marks
3
µ ¶ Ã !
−1 1 1
cos − tan − p + cosec−1(−2)
−1
2 3
π π π
= + −
3 6 6
π
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=
3

Concept
www.cbse.page Builder
www.cbse.page

Formula Used:
A cos−1(x) is the inverse cosine function with a range of [0, π].
π π
µ ¶
−1
A tan (x) is the inverse tangent function with a range of − , .
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

2 2
π π
µ ¶ · ¸
−1 −1 1
A cosec (x) = sin with a range of − , \ {0}.
x 2 2
µ ¶
−1 1
Step 1: Evaluate cos
2
We know:
π 1
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cos = www.cbse.page

3 2
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Therefore:
π
µ ¶
−1 1
cos =
2 3
à !
−1 1
Step 2: Evaluate tan −p
3
We know:www.cbse.page
π 1 www.cbse.page

tan = p
6 3
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
π π
µ ¶
−1
A Since the input is negative, and the range of tan x is − , :
2 2
à !
−1 1 π
tan −p = −
www.cbse.page
3 6 www.cbse.page

Step 3: Evaluate cosec−1(−2)


Using the relationship:
µ ¶
−1 −1 1
cosec (x) = sin
x
µ ¶
www.cbse.page
−1 −1 1 www.cbse.page

cosec (−2) = sin −


2
We know:
π
µ ¶
1
sin − = −
6 2
Thus:
−1 π
cosec (−2) = −
6
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Step 4: Substitute and Solve


We substitute the values into the given expression:
µ ¶ Ã !
−1 1 −1 1 −1
cos − tan − p + cosec (−2)
2 3

π π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
www.cbse.page
= − − + − www.cbse.page
3 6 6
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

π π π
= + −
3 6 6
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
π π
The terms − cancel out:
6 6
π
=
3
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Final Answer:
π
3

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www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

š 2024 PYQ 3 ¥ 65/S, Set 2


Evaluate :
π p
µ ¶ µ ¶
13π
sin−1 sin + cos−1 cos + tan−1( 3)
6 3
Solution
5π www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
A 2 Marks
6

π p
µ ¶ µ ¶
13π
sin−1 sin + cos−1 cos + tan−1( 3)
6 3
π π π
= + +
6 3 3

= www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

6
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw

www.cbse.page
Concept
www.cbse.page

Builder

Formula Used:
π π
· ¸
−1
A sin (x) is the inverse sine function with a range of − , .
www.cbse.page
2 2
www.cbse.page

A cos−1(x) is the inverse cosine function with a range of [0, π].


π π
µ ¶
−1
A tan (x) is the inverse tangent function with a range of − , .
2 2
µ ¶
−1 13π
Step 1: Evaluate sin sin
6
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

π π
· ¸
13π
First, reduce to its equivalent within the range − , :
6 2 2
13π π
= 2π +
6 6
Since sin is periodic with period 2π:
13π π 1
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sin = sin = www.cbse.page

6 6 2
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
Now, using the range of the inverse sine function:
π
µ ¶
−1 1
sin =
2 6

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

π
µ ¶
−1
Step 2: Evaluate cos cos
3
Since cos−1(x) is the principal value branch with range [0, π]:

π π
µ ¶
−1
cos cos =
3 3
p−1
Step 3: Evaluate tan ( 3)
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We know:
π p
tan = 3
3
Therefore:

−1
p π
tan ( 3) =
www.cbse.page 3 www.cbse.page

Step 4: Substitute and Solve


We substitute the values into the expression:

π p
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 13π −1 −1
sin sin + cos cos + tan ( 3)
6 3
π π π
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= + + www.cbse.page

6 3 3
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
Find the common denominator and add:

π 2π 2π
= + +
6 6 6
π + 2π + 2π 5π
= =
www.cbse.page 6 6 www.cbse.page

Final Answer:

6

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www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

š 2024 PYQ 4 ¥ 65/S, Set 3


Find the value of
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 3π −1 13π −1 1
tan tan + cos cos + sin −
5 6 2
Solution
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− A 2 Marks
5
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 3π −1 13π −1 1
tan tan + cos cos + sin −
5 6 2
2π π π
=− + −
5 6 6
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=−
5
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
Concept
Builder

Formula Used:
π π
µ ¶
−1
A tan (x) is the inverse tangent function with a range of − , .
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

2 2
A cos−1(x) is the inverse cosine function with a range of [0, π].
π π
· ¸
−1
A sin (x) is the inverse sine function with a range of − , .
2 2
µ ¶
−1 3π
Step 1: Evaluate tan tan
www.cbse.page
5 www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

−1
First, note that the principal value range of tan is:
π π
µ ¶
− ,
2 2

is not within this range.
5
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

We reduce it to its equivalent within the principal range. Since


tan(θ + π) = tan(θ):

Find an equivalent angle using θ − π if needed.

3π/5 − π = 3π/5 − 5π/5 = −2π/5


Therefore: µ ¶
−1 3π 2π
www.cbse.page
tan tan =− www.cbse.page

5 5
µ ¶
−1 13π
Step 2: Evaluate cos cos
6
13π
First, reduce to its equivalent within the range [0, π]:
6
13π π
www.cbse.page
= 2π + www.cbse.page

6 6
Since cosine is even and periodic:
13π π
cos = cos
6 6
Now:
π π
µ ¶
−1
cos cos =
www.cbse.page 6 6 www.cbse.page

µ ¶
−1 1
Step 3: Evaluate sin −
2
We know:
π
µ ¶
1
sin − = −
6 2
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

π π
· ¸
Since the range of the inverse sine function is − , :
2 2
π
µ ¶
−1 1
sin − = −
2 6

Step 4: Substitute and Solve


www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
We substitute the values into the expression:
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 3π −1 13π −1 1
tan tan + cos cos + sin −
5 6 2
2π π π
µ ¶
=− + + −
5 6 6
π π
The terms − cancel out:
6 6
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page


=−
5

Final Answer:


5

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www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page
◎ 2024 July www.cbse.page

65(B)/S

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www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

š 2024 PYQ 5 ¥ 65(B)/S, Set 5


Assertion (A) :
−1
p π
The principal value of tan 3 is .
3
π p
Reason (R) : tan = 3.
3
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Solution
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(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
A 1 Marks

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Concept
Builder

Formula Used:
π π
µ ¶
−1
A The principal value of tan (x) lies within the range − , .
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

2 2
p p
A tan−1( 3) is the angle θ such that tan(θ) = 3.
π p
A tan = 3.
3
p
Step 1: Evaluate the Principal Value of tan−1( 3)
We know:
π p
www.cbse.page
tan = 3 www.cbse.page

3
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
π π π
µ ¶
Since is within the range − , :
3 2 2
−1
p π
tan ( 3) =
3
Hence, the Assertion (A) is true.
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Step 2: Evaluate the Reason (R)


The Reason states:
π p
tan = 3
3
This is a correct trigonometric fact. Therefore, Reason (R) is also true.

www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
Step 3: Conclusion
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Since both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R)
correctly explains why Assertion (A) is true, the correct choice is:

Final Answer:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

š 2024 PYQ 6 ¥ 65(B)/S, Set 5


µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 2π −1 2π
Find the principal value of cos cos + sin sin .
3 3

OR
Find the domain of cos−1(3x − 2).
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Solution
A 2 Marks
2π π
Required value = + =π
3 3
OR
−1 ≤ 3x − 2 ≤ 1
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
1
Gives ≤ x ≤ 1 or [1/3, 1]
3

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Concept
Builder

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
Part 1: Find the Principal Value
Formula Used:
A The principal value of cos−1(x) lies within the range [0, π].
π π
· ¸
−1
A The principal value of sin (x) lies within the range − , .
2 2
A cos (cos θ) = θ if θ ∈·[0, π]. ¸
−1

π π
A sin (sin θ) = θ if θ ∈ − , .
−1www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

2 2
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

µ ¶
−1 2π
Step 1: Evaluate cos cos
3
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
Since:

∈ [0, π]
3µ ¶
www.cbse.page
−1 2π 2π www.cbse.page

cos cos =
3 3
µ ¶
−1 2π
Step 2: Evaluate sin sin
3
2π −1
The value is not within the range of the principal branch of sin :
3

www.cbse.page is in the second quadrant. www.cbse.page

3
Using the identity:
π
µ ¶

sin π − = sin
3 3
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
The equivalent angle in the principal range is:

2π π
µ ¶
www.cbse.page 2π www.cbse.page
−1
sin sin = π− =
3 3 3

Step 3: Calculate the Expression


µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 2π −1 2π
cos cos + sin sin
3 3
2π π
www.cbse.page
= + =π www.cbse.page

3 3

Final Answer:
π

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OR www.cbse.page
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Concept
Builder

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−1
Part 2: Find the Domain of cos (3x − 2)
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Formula Used:
−1
A The function cos (x) is defined when x ∈ [−1, 1].
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A Here, 3x − 2 must satisfy the inequality:

−1 ≤ 3x − 2 ≤ 1

Step 1: Solve the Inequality


We are given:
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−1 ≤ 3x − 2 ≤ 1

Solve the Left Inequality:


−1 ≤ 3x − 2
−1 + 2 ≤ 3x
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1
x≥
3

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Solve the Right Inequality:
3x − 2 ≤ 1
www.cbse.page 3x ≤ 3 www.cbse.page
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x ≤1

Combine the Results:


1
≤x ≤1
3

Final Answer: · ¸
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1 www.cbse.page

,1
3

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◎ 65/5 − All Sets


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2024 March

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š 2024 PYQ 7 ¥ 65/5, Set 1


www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
Assertion (A) : Domain of y = cos−1(x) is [−1, 1]
Reason½(R)¾ : The range of the principal value branch of y = cos−1(x) is
π
[0, π] −
2
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(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
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Solution A 1 Marks

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(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
Range of cos−1 x is [0, π]
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Concept
Builder
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Assertion (A): The domain of y = cos−1(x) is [−1, 1].


−1
Reason½(R):¾ The range of the principal value branch of y = cos (x) is
π
[0, π] − .
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2
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Explanation:
A The function cos−1(x) is defined for all x ∈ [−1, 1].
A Hence, the domain of y = cos−1(x) is indeed [−1, 1]. Assertion (A) is
correct.
A The principal value branch of cos (x) has a range of [0, π], which
−1

includes all values from 0 to π.


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π
A However, it does not exclude . The range is continuous and
2
π
includes .
2
A Therefore, Reason (R) is incorrect.
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Final Answer:
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

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š 2024 PYQ 8 ¥ 65/5, Set 1


" Ã p !#
−1 −1 3 π
Find value of k if sin k tan 2 cos =
2 3

Solution A 2 Marks
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" Ã p !#
−1 −1 3 π
sin k tan 2 cos =
2 3
π π
· µ µ ¶¶¸
−1
k tan 2 cos cos = sin
6 3
µ ¶ p
π 3
k tan
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= www.cbse.page

3 2
p
p 3
k 3=
2
1
k=
2

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Concept
Builder

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" Ã p !#
−1 −1 3 π
Find the value of k if sin k tan 2 cos =
2 3
Formula Used:
A cos−1(x) = θ =⇒ cos θ = x and θ ∈ [0, π]
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A sin θ + cos2 θ = 1
2

2 tan θ
A tan(2θ) =
1 − tan2 θ

Step 1: Let Ãp !
3
cos−1

2
Then: www.cbse.page
p
www.cbse.page

3
cos θ =
2
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Using sin θ + cos θ = 1:
2 2
à p !2
2 3 3 1
sin θ = 1 − = 1− =
2 4 4
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1
sin θ =
2

Step 2: Evaluate tan(2θ)


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Using the double-angle identity:
2 tan θ
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tan(2θ) = www.cbse.page

1 − tan2 θ
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sin θ
First, find tan θ = :
cos θ
1
2 1
tan θ = p = p
3 3
2
Now apply the formula:
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1
2·p
3
tan(2θ) = Ã !2
1
1− p
3
2 2
p p
www.cbse.page 3 3 2 3 p www.cbse.page
= = =p · = 3
1 2 3 2
1−
3 3
Step 3: Substitute into the Given Equation
−1
p π
sin (k 3) =
3
This implies:
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π p www.cbse.page

sin = k 3
3
p
3 p
=k 3
2

Step 4: Solve for k p


p 3
k 3=
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p
Since 3 ̸= 0: p
3/2 1
k= p =
3 2

Final Answer:
1
www.cbse.page k= www.cbse.page

2
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š 2024 PYQ 9 ¥ 65/5, Set 2


Ãp ! Ã !
p
µ ¶
−1 2 −1 1 −1 −1 1
If a = sin + cos − and b = tan ( 3) − cot − p
2 2 3
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then find the value of a + b
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Solution A 2 Marks
Ãp ! µ ¶
−1 2 −1 −1
Since a = sin + cos
2 2
à ! µ ¶
−1 1 −1 −1
= sin p + cos
2 2
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π 2π 11π
= + =
4 3 12
à !
−1
p −1 1
b = tan ( 3) − cot − p
3
π 2π −π
= − =
3 3
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11π π
Now, a + b = −
12 3
11π − 4π
=
12

=
12
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Concept
Builder

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Given:
Ãp ! µ ¶
−1 2 −1 1
1. a = sin + cos −
2 2
à !
−1
p −1 1
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2. b = tan ( 3) − cot − p www.cbse.page

3
Find the value of a + b.

Solution:
Step 1: Break Down a into Two Parts
First, a is the sum of two inverse trigonometric functions:
Ãp !
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−1 2
1. sin
2
µ ¶
−1 1
2. cos −
2
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Ãp !
−1 2
Part 1: sin
2
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π π
· ¸
−1
The range of sin is − , .
2 2
We know that: µ ¶ p
π 2
sin =
4 2
Thus: Ãp !
−1 2 π
sin =
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2 4 www.cbse.page
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µ www.cbse.page
¶ www.cuet.pw
−1 1
Part 2: cos −
2
The range of cos−1 is [0, π].
We know that:
π
µ ¶
1
cos =
3 2
For the negative value, cosine is negative in the second quadrant:
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π 2π
µ ¶
1
cos − = π − =
−1
2 3 3
Summing Up a:
Now, add the two results:
π 2π 11π
a= + =
4 3 12
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Step 2: Break Down b into Two Parts


Now, b is the difference of two inverse trigonometric functions:
p
1. tan−1(Ã 3) !
−1 1
2. cot − p
3
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p
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Part 1: tan−1( 3)
π π
µ ¶
−1
The range of tan is − , .
2 2
We know that:
π p
µ ¶
tan = 3
3
Thus:
−1
p π
tan ( 3) =
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3 www.cbse.page

à www.cbse.page
! www.cuet.pw

−1 1
Part 2: cot − p
3
The range of cot−1 is (0, π).
First, consider the positive case:
à !
−1 1 π
www.cbse.page cot p = www.cbse.page

3 3
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For the negative argument, cotangent is negative in the second quadrant:


à !
1 π 2π
cot − p = π − =
−1
3 3 3

Calculating b:
Now, b is defined as:
à !
π 2π π
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−1
p −1 1
b = tan ( 3) − cot − p = − =−
3 3 3 3

Step 3: Find a + b
Now, we have:
11π π 4π
a= , b=− =−
12 3 12
Thus: www.cbse.page
11π 4π 7π www.cbse.page

a +b = − =
12 12 12


Final Answer:
12

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š 2024 PYQ 10 ¥ 65/5, Set 3


" p #
x 3 − 3x 2 1
Simplify: cos−1 x + cos−1 + ; ≤x ≤1
2 2 2

Solution A 2 Marks

Let x = cos θ, "


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p #
x 3 − 3x 2
−1 −1
cos x + cos +
2 2
" p #
−1 cos θ 3
= θ + cos + × sin θ
2 2
π π π
· µ ¶¸
= θ + cos−1
cos − θ = θ + − θ =
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3 3 3

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Concept
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Builder

Problem:
Simplify the expression:
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" p #
−1 −1 x 3 − 3x 2 1
cos x + cos + ; ≤x ≤1
2 2 2

Solution:
Step 1: Define angle
Let θ = cos−1 x, which means:
www.cbse.page p www.cbse.page

cos θ = x and sin θ = 1 − x 2


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π 1
The range for θ is 0 ≤ θ ≤ since ≤ x ≤ 1.
3 2
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Step 2: Simplify second term
The second term can be rewritten as:
à p !
−1 x 3 p
cos + 1 − x2
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2 2 www.cbse.page

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Step 3: Recognize trigonometric identity
Notice that: p
π
µ ¶
1 3 p
x+ 1 − x = cos − θ
2
2 2 3
because:
cos(A − B ) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B
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Step 4: Substitute and simplify
Therefore: " p #
x 3 − 3x 2 π
cos−1
+ = −θ
2 2 3
Now the original expression becomes:
π π
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µ ¶ www.cbse.page

θ+ −θ =
3 3

Final Answer:
π
3

Verification:
For x = 1:
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π π
µ ¶
−1 −1 1
cos (1) + cos = 0+ =
2 3 3
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1
For x = :
2
π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1 3
cos + cos + = +0 =
2 4 4 3 3
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The result holds at both endpoints of the domain.


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◎ 65/4 − All Sets


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2024 March

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š 2024 PYQ 11 ¥ 65/4, Set 1


cos x π
µ ¶
−π
(a) Express tan−1 , Where < x < in the simplest form.
1 − sin x 2 2
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(b) Find the principal value of à !


µ ¶
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−1 −1 1 −1 1 www.cbse.page

tan (1) + cos − + sin − p .


2 2
Solution
A 2 Marks

cos x 2x 2x
µ ¶ · ¸
−1
(a) tan ∴ cos x = cos − sin
1 − sin x
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 
2x
 cos − sin  2x
−1 
 2 2  £ 2 2
¤
= tan  µ ¶2  a − b = (a + b)(a − b)

x x 
cos − sin

2 2
x x
 
cos + sin 
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−1 
= tan 
 2 2
x x

cos − sin
2 2
x
 
1 + tan 
−1 
= tan 
 2
x

1 − tan
2
π
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x
 
tan + tan ·
tan A + tan B
¸
−1 
= tan 
 4 2 
 tan(A + B ) =
π x 1 − tan A · tan B
1 − tan tan
4 2
π x
µ ¶
−1
= tan tan +
4 2
π x
= + www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

4 2
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µ ¶ Ã !
−1 1−1 −1 1
(b) tan(1) + cos − + sin − p
2 2
π π
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ µ ¶¶
−1 −1 2π −1
= tan tan + cos cos + sin sin −
4 3 4
π 2π π
= + −
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4 3 4 www.cbse.page


=
3

Concept
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Builder

Problem (a) µ
cos x π π

−1
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Express tan , where − < x < in the simplest form.
1 − sin x 2 2
Detailed Solution
cos x
µ ¶
−1
Let us carefully analyze and simplify the expression tan step
1 − sin x
by step.

Initial Simplification: We begin by examining the argument of the


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arctangent function:
cos x
1 − sin x
To simplify this expression, we employ a common technique of
multiplying the numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the
denominator:
cos x 1 + sin x cos x(1 + sin x)
× =
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1 − sin x 1 + sin x 1 − sin2 x
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Applying Trigonometric Identity: Using the fundamental Pythagorean


identity cos2 x = 1 − sin2 x, we can rewrite the denominator:
cos x(1 + sin x) 1 + sin x
=
cos2 x cos x
This simplifies further to:
1 sin x
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+ = sec x + tan x
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cos x cos x
Connection to Angle Addition Formula: Now, we recall the tangent of a
sum formula:
x
¶ 1 + tan
π x
µ
tan + = 2
4 2 x
1 − tan
2
Through trigonometric identities, this can be shown to be equivalent to
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π www.cbse.page

sec x + tan x. To verify, let’s test with x = :


6
π π 2 1 p
sec + tan = p + p = 3
6µ 6¶ 3 µ ¶3
π π π p
tan + = tan = 3
4 12 3
The equality holds, confirming our identity.
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Range Considerations:
π π
The original problem specifies − < x < .
2 2
This implies:
π x π
− < <
4 2 4
π
Adding to all parts:
4
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π x π
0< + <
4 2 2
This is crucial because it ensures that:
π x π x
µ µ ¶¶
−1
tan tan + = +
4 2 4 2
without any need for periodicity adjustments.
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Final Answer:
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π x
Therefore, the simplified form is +
4 2

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Problem (b)
Find the principal value of
µ ¶ Ã !
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−1 −1 1 1
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−1
tan (1) + cos − + sin − p
2 2

Detailed Solution
We will evaluate each inverse trigonometric function separately, paying
close attention to their principal ranges.
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−1
First Term: tan (1)
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−1 π π
A The arctangent function tan has a principal range of (− , ).
2 2
π
A We know that tan = 1.
4
−1 π
A Therefore, tan (1) = .
4
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µ ¶
www.cbse.page1 −1
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Second Term: cos −


2
A The arccosine function cos−1 has a principal range of [0, π].
1
A We need an angle in this range whose cosine is − .
2
2π 1
A Recall that cos = − .
µ 3¶ 2
−1 1 2π
A Thus, cos − = .
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2 3
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à !
−1 1
Third Term: sin −p
2
−1 π π
A The arcsine function sin has a principal range of [− , ].
2 2
1
A We need an angle in this range whose sine is − p .
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2
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π
µ ¶
1
A We know that sin − = − p .
4 2
à !
−1 1 π
A Therefore, sin − p = − .
2 4

Combining the Results:


Now we sum all three evaluated terms:
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π 2π π 2π
+ − =
4 3 4 3
π 2π
Notice how the terms cancel each other out, leaving us with .
4 3
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Final Answer:s

The principal value of the expression is
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◎ 65/3 All Sets


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2024 March

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š 2024 PYQ 12 ¥ 65/3, Set 1


Evaluate: µ ¶ µ ¶
2 −1 1 2 −1 1
sec tan + cosec cot
2 3
Solution
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page A 2 Marks
µ ¶ µ ¶
2 −1 1 −1 1
sec tan + cosec cot
2 3
· µ ¶¸ · µ ¶¸
2 −1 1 2 −1 1
= 1 + tan tan + 1 + cot cot
2 3
" µ ¶2 # " µ ¶2 #
1 1
= 1+ + 1+
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2 3
85
=
36

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Concept
Builder

Understanding the Problem


We need to evaluate the expression:
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µ ¶ µ ¶
2 −1 1 2 −1 1
sec tan + cosec cot
2 3
This involves two main parts:
2 −1
A Evaluating sec (tan (1/2))
A Evaluating cosec2(cot−1(1/3))
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2 −1
Part 1: Evaluating sec (tan (1/2))

Step 1: Understand the Inner Function tan−1(1/2)

The term tan−1(1/2) represents an angle whose tangent is 1/2.

Let: www.cbse.page µ ¶ www.cbse.page

−1 1
θ = tan
2
So,
1
tan θ =
2
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Step 2: Construct a Right Triangle
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Consider a right-angled triangle where:


A Opposite side = 1 (from tan θ)
A Adjacent side = 2
Using the Pythagorean theorem, the hypotenuse h is:
p p p
h = 12 + 22 = 1 + 4 = 5
Step 3: Find sec θ
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Adjacent 2
cos θ = =p
Hypotenuse 5
p
1 5
sec θ = =
cos θ 2
Step 4: Square sec θ
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à p !2
2 5 5
sec θ = =
2 4

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2 −1
Part 2: Evaluating cosec (cot (1/3))
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−1
Step 1: Understand the Inner Function cot (1/3)
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−1
The term cot (1/3) represents an angle whose cotangent is 1/3.
Let: µ ¶
−1 1
φ = cot
3
So,
1
cot φ =
3
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www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page

Step 2: Construct a Right Triangle


Consider a right-angled triangle where:
A Adjacent side = 1 (from cot φ)
A Opposite side = 3
Using the Pythagorean theorem, the hypotenuse k is:
www.cbse.page
p p p www.cbse.page

k = 12 + 32 = 1 + 9 = 10

Step 3: Find cosec φ


Opposite 3
sin φ = =p
Hypotenuse 10
p
1 10
cosec φ = =
www.cbse.page
sin φ 3 www.cbse.page

Step 4: Square cosec φ


à p !2
2 10 10
cosec φ = =
3 9
Final Calculation
Now, summing the two results:
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2 2 5 10 www.cbse.page

sec θ + cosec φ = +
4 9
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Finding a Common Denominator
The least common multiple of 4 and 9 is 36.
Converting each fraction:
5 5 × 9 45 10 10 × 4 40
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= = , = =www.cbse.page

4 4 × 9 36 9 9 × 4 36
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Adding:
45 40 85
+ =
36 36 36

Final Answer:
85
36
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š 2024 PYQ 13 ¥ 65/3, Set 2


Find the value of
· ½ µ ¶¾ ¸
2 −1 3 2
© −1 ª
sin cos + tan sec (3)
5
Solution
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
A 2 Marks

Required value
· µ ¶¸
2 −1 3
£ 2 ¡ −1 ¢ ¤
= 1 − cos cos + sec sec 3 − 1
µ ¶ 5
9
= 1− + (9 − 1)
25
216
= www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

25

Concept
Builder
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Understanding the Problem


The given expression to evaluate is:
· ½ µ ¶¾ ¸
2 −1 3 2
© −1 ª
sin cos + tan sec (3)
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5 www.cbse.page

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µ µ ¶¶
2 −1 3
Part 1: Evaluating sin cos
5
µ ¶
−1 3
Step 1: Understanding cos
µ ¶ 5
−1 3 3
The term cos represents an angle whose cosine is .
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5 5
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Let: µ ¶
−1 3
θ = cos
5
So,
3
cos θ =
5
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Step 2: Constructing a Right Triangle
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Consider a right-angled triangle where:


A Adjacent side = 3 (from cos θ)
A Hypotenuse = 5
Using the Pythagorean theorem, the opposite side o is:
p p p
o = 52 − 32 = 25 − 9 = 16 = 4
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Step 3: Finding sin θ


Opposite 4
sin θ = =
Hypotenuse 5
Step 4: Squaring sin θ µ ¶2
2 4 16
sin θ = =
5 25
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Part 2: Evaluating tan2 sec−1(3)


¡ ¢

−1
Step 1: Understanding sec (3)
The term sec−1(3) represents an angle whose secant is 3.
Let:
φ = sec−1(3)
So,
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sec φ = 3
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Step 2: Constructing a Right Triangle
Hypotenuse
Since sec φ = = 3, we consider:
Adjacent
A Hypotenuse = 3
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A Adjacent side = 1
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Using the Pythagorean theorem, the opposite side o is:


p p p p
o = 32 − 12 = 9 − 1 = 8 = 2 2

Step 3: Finding tan φ


p
Opposite 2 2 p
tan φ = = =2 2
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Adjacent 1 www.cbse.page

Step 4: Squaring tan φ


³ p ´2
2
tan φ = 2 2 = 4 × 2 = 8

Final Calculation
Now, summing the two results:
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2 2 16
sin θ + tan φ = + 8
25
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Converting to Common Denominator
To add these terms, convert 8 to a fraction with denominator 25:
200
8=
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25 www.cbse.page

Now, adding:

16 200 216
+ =
25 25 25

Verification
2 −1
Verification for sin (cos (3/5))
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Using the identity sin2 θ = 1 − cos2 θ:


µ ¶2
2 3 9 16
sin θ = 1 − = 1− =
5 25 25
This matches our previous result.
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2 −1
Verification for tan (sec (3))
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www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Using the identity tan φ = sec φ − 1:


2 2

2 2
tan φ = 3 − 1 = 9 − 1 = 8

Again, this matches our previous result.

Final Answer:
www.cbse.page
216 www.cbse.page

25

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š 2024 PYQ 14 ¥ 65/3, Set 3


Evaluate : ½ µ ¶¾
−1 1
cot2 cosec−1 3 + sin2
© ª
cos
3
Solution
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A 2 Marks
· µ ¶¸
2 −1 2 −1 1
£ ¡ ¢ ¤
cosec cosec 3 − 1 + 1 − cos cos
µ ¶ 3
1
= (9 − 1) + 1 −
9
80
=
9
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Concept
Builder

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Understanding the Problem


The given expression to evaluate is:
½ µ ¶¾
2 2 −1 1
© −1 ª
cot csc 3 + sin cos
3
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2
¡ −1 ¢
Part 1: Evaluating cot csc (3)
Step 1: Understanding csc−1(3)
The term csc−1(3) represents an angle whose cosecant is 3.
Let:
θ = csc−1(3)
So, www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

csc θ = 3
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Step 2: Constructing a Right Triangle
Hypotenuse
Since csc θ = = 3, we consider:
Opposite
A Hypotenuse = 3
A Opposite side = 1
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Using the Pythagorean theorem, the adjacent side a is:


p p p p
a = 32 − 12 = 9 − 1 = 8 = 2 2

Step 3: Finding cot θ


p
Adjacent 2 2 p
cot θ = = =2 2
Opposite 1
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Step 4: Squaring cot θ


³ p ´2
2
cot θ = 2 2 = 4 × 2 = 8

µ µ ¶¶
2 −1 1
Part 2: Evaluating sin cos
3
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µ ¶
−1 1
Step 1: Understanding cos
µ ¶ 3
−1 1 1
The term cos represents an angle whose cosine is .
3 3
Let: µ ¶
−1 1
φ = cos
3
So, www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

1
cos φ =
3
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Step 2: Constructing a Right Triangle
Consider a right-angled triangle where:
A Adjacent side = 1 (from cos φ)
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A Hypotenuse = 3
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Using the Pythagorean theorem, the opposite side o is:


p p p p
o = 32 − 12 = 9 − 1 = 8 = 2 2

Step 3: Finding sin φ


p
Opposite 2 2
sin φ = =
Hypotenuse 3
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Step 4: Squaring sin φ Ã p !2


2 2 2 8
sin φ = =
3 9

Final Calculation
Now, summing the two results:
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2 2 8 www.cbse.page

cot θ + sin φ = 8 +
9
Converting to Common Denominator
To add these terms, convert 8 to a fraction with denominator 9:

72
8=
9
Now, adding:
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72 8 80
+ =
9 9 9

Verification
2 −1
Verification for cot (csc (3))
Using the identity cot2 θ = csc2 θ − 1:
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2 2
cot θ = 3 − 1 = 9 − 1 = 8

This matches our previous result.


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Verification for sin2(cos−1(1/3))
Using the identity sin2 φ = 1 − cos2 φ:
µ ¶2
2 1 1 8
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sin φ = 1 − = 1− = www.cbse.page

3 9 9
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Again, this matches our previous result.

Final Answer:
80
9

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◎ 65/2 All Sets


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2024 March

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š 2024 PYQ 15 ¥ 65/2, Set 1


Find the value of à ! à !
π
· µ ¶¸
−1 1 −1 1 −1
tan − p + cot p + tan sin −
3 3 2

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OR www.cbse.page

−1
¡ 2 ¢
Find the domain of the function f (x) = sin x − 4 . Also, find its range.
Solution
A 2 Marks
−π π π −π
The given expression = + − =
6 3 4 12
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OR www.cbse.page

2
−1 É x −4 É 1
2
⇒ 3Éx É5
p p p p
Domain = [− 5, − 3] ∪ [ 3, 5]
π π
· ¸
Range = − ,
2 2
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Concept
Builder
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Problem 1: Evaluating the Trigonometric Expression


We need to evaluate:
à ! à !
π
· µ ¶¸
−1 1 −1 1 −1
tan − p + cot
www.cbse.page p + tan sin − www.cbse.page

3 3 2
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à !
−1 1
Step 1: Evaluating tan −p
3
−1 π π
The range of tan (x) is − to .
2 2
We know that:
π
µ ¶
1
www.cbse.page tan − = − p www.cbse.page

6 3
Thus, Ã !
−1 1 π
tan − p = −
3 6

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à !
−1 1
Step 2: Evaluating cot
www.cbse.page p www.cbse.page

3
The range of cot (x) is 0 to π. We know that:
−1

π
µ ¶
1
cot =p
3 3
Thus,
à !
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−1 1 π www.cbse.page

cot p =
3 3

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π
· µ ¶¸
−1
Step 3: Evaluating tan sin −
2
π
µ ¶
First, compute sin − :
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2 www.cbse.page

π
µ ¶
sin − = −1
2
−1
Now, evaluate tan (−1):

−1 π
tan (−1) = −
4

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www.cuet.pw
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Step 4: Summing Up the Results


Now, adding all three evaluated terms:
π π π
− + −
6 3 4
Finding a common denominator (12):

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2π 4π 3π π www.cbse.page
− + − =−
12 12 12 12

Final Answer:
π

12

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OR www.cbse.page

Problem 2: Domain and Range of the Function f (x) = sin (x 2 − 4) −1

Step 1: Finding the Domain


The function f (x) = sin−1(x 2 − 4) is defined when:

−1 ≤ x 2 − 4 ≤ 1

Breaking it into two inequalities:


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A x 2 − 4 ≥ −1 leads to:
2
x ≥3
p p
x ≤ − 3 or x ≥ 3
A x 2 − 4 ≤ 1 leads to:
2
x ≤5
p p
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− 5≤x ≤ 5 www.cbse.page

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Combining both inequalities, the domain is:
p p p p
x ∈ [− 5, − 3] ∪ [ 3, 5]

Step 2: Finding the Range


p p
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p p www.cbse.page

For x ∈ [− 5, − 3] ∪ [ 3, 5]:
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p
A At x = ± 3: p 2
y = ( 3) − 4 = 3 − 4 = −1
p
A At x = ± 5: p 2
y = ( 5) − 4 = 5 − 4 = 1
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Since y varies from −1 to 1, the range of f (x) is:
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π π
− ≤ f (x) ≤
2 2

Final Answers:
p p p p
A Domain: [− 5, − 3] ∪ [ 3, 5]
π π
· ¸
A Range: − ,
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2 2

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š 2024 PYQ 16 ¥ 65/2, Set 3


Find the value of
µ ¶ Ã p ! µ ¶
−1 1 −1 3 −1 4π
sin − + cos − + cot tan
2 2 3

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OR www.cbse.page

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2 −1
¡ ¢
Find the domain of f (x) = cos 1 − x . Also, find its range.
Solution
A 2 Marks
π π 5π
µ ¶
−π
The given expression =
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+ π− + = www.cbse.page
6 6 6 6
OR
− 1 É 1 − x2 É 1
⇒ 0 É x2 É 2
p p
Domain = [− 2, 2]
Range = [0, π]
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Concept
Builder
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Problem 1: Evaluating the Trigonometric Expression


We need to evaluate:
µ ¶ Ã p ! µ ¶
−1 1 −1 3 −1 4π
sin − + cos −
www.cbse.page + cot tan www.cbse.page

2 2 3
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µ ¶
−1 1
Step 1: Evaluating sin −
2
−1 π π
The range of sin (x) is − to . We know that:
2 2
π
µ ¶
1
sin − = −
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6 2 www.cbse.page

Thus,

π
µ ¶
−1 1
sin − = −
2 6

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à p !
−1 3
Step 2: Evaluating cos −
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2
The range of cos−1(x) is 0 to π. We know that:
µ ¶ p
5π 3
cos =−
6 2
Thus,
à p !
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−1 3 5π www.cbse.page

cos − =
2 6

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µ ¶
−1 4π
Step 3: Evaluating cot tan
3

First, compute tan :
3
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π π p
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶

tan = tan π + = tan = 3
3 3 3
p
Now, evaluate cot−1( 3):
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The range of cot−1(x) is 0 to π, and:
π p
µ ¶
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cot = 3 www.cbse.page

6
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Thus,
−1
p π
cot ( 3) =
6

Step 4: Summing Up the Results


Now, adding all three evaluated terms:
π 5π π
www.cbse.page − + + www.cbse.page

6 6 6
Simplifying:
π π
µ ¶
5π 5π 5π
− + + = 0+ =
6 6 6 6 6

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Final Answer:
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5π www.cbse.page

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−1 2
Problem 2: Domain and Range of the Function f (x) = cos (1 − x )

Step 1: Finding the Domain


The function f (x) = cos−1(1 − x 2) is defined when:
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2
−1 ≤ 1 − x ≤ 1

Breaking it into two inequalities:


A 1 − x 2 ≥ −1 leads to:
2
−x ≥ −2
2
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x ≤2 www.cbse.page

p p
− 2≤x ≤ 2
A 1 − x 2 ≤ 1 leads to:
2
−x ≤ 0
2
x ≥0
Which is always true for all real x.
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Thus, the domain is: p p


x ∈ [− 2, 2]
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Step 2: Finding the Range


p p
For x ∈ [− 2, 2]:
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A At x = 0:
y = 1−0 = 1
p
A At x = ± 2: p 2
y = 1 − ( 2) = 1 − 2 = −1
Since y varies from −1 to 1, the range of f (x) is:

cos (y) varies from cos (1) = 0 to cos (−1) = π


−1
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−1 −1
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Final Answers:
p p
A Domain: [− 2, 2]
A Range: [0, π]
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◎ 65/1 All Sets


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2024 March

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š 2024 PYQ 17 ¥ 65/1, Set 1


If a function f : X → Y defined as f (x) = y is one-one and onto, then we
can define a unique function g : Y → X such that g (y) = x, where x = X
and y = f (x), y ∈ Y . Function g is called the inverse of function f .
The domain of sine function is R and
function sine : R → R is neither one-one nor onto. The following graph
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shows the sine function.

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Let sine function be defined from set A to [−1, 1] such that inverse of sine
function exists, i.e., sin−1 x is defined fron [−1, 1] to A

On the basis of the above information, answer the following questions :


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(i) If A is the interval other than principal value branch, give an


example of one such interval.
−1
(ii) If sin (x) is defined
µ from
¶ [−1, 1] to its principal value branch, find
−1 1 −1
the value of sin − − sin (1)
2
−1
(iii) Draw the graph of sin x from [−1, 1] to its principal value branch.
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OR
−1
(iii) Find the domain and range of f (x) = 2 sin (1 − x)
Solution
A 4 Marks

π 3π
· ¸
(i) , or any other interval corresponding to the domain [−1, 1]
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2 2
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µ ¶
−1
−1 −1
(ii) sin − sin (1)
2
−π π
= −
6 2
−4π −2π
= or
6 3
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(iii)

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OR
(iii) f (x) = 2 sin−1(1 − x)
−1 ≤ 1 − x ≤ 1
⇒ −2 ≤ −x ≤ 0
⇒0≤x ≤2
Domain = [0, 2]
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−π −1 π
≤ sin (1 − x) ≤
2 2
−π ≤ 2 sin−1(1 − x) ≤ π

So range = [−π, π]
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Concept
Builder

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Concept Explanation:
The sine function, originally defined as
sin : R → [−1, 1],
is neither one-one nor onto over the set of all real numbers. To make the
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−1
sine function invertible (i.e., to define sin x), we restrict its domain to a
suitable interval where it is both one-one and onto.
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π π
· ¸
The most common such interval is the principal value branch − , .
2 2
However, there are other intervals of length π where the sine function
can also be made one-one.
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π 3π
· ¸
A For instance, , is also an interval of length π on which the sine
2 2
function is one-one.
−1
A ·The inverse sine function sin x is typically taken to have a range of
π π
¸
− , (the principal value branch).
2 2
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Trick to Solve:
π π
µ ¶
−1 1 −1
A Recall standard inverse sine values: sin − = − and sin (1) = .
2 6 2
A To find alternate intervals for the sine function, pick any contiguous
interval of length π where sin x is strictly monotonic.
−1
A ·To draw¸ the graph of sin x, reflect the graph of sin x (restricted to
π π
− , ) across the line y = x.
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2 2
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(i) Example of an Interval Other than Principal Value Branch


Any interval of length π in which the sine function is strictly monotonic
will work. For example:
π 3π
· ¸
A= ,
2 2
On this interval, the sine function is also one-one and onto [−1, 1].
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µ ¶
−11 −1
(ii) Value of sin − − sin (1)
2
A From the standard inverse sine table:
π π
µ ¶
−1 1 −1
sin − = − , sin (1) = .
2 6 2
A Therefore,
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π π π 3π
µ ¶
−1 1 −1 4π 2π
sin − − sin (1) = − − = − − =− =−
2 6 2 6 6 6 3

−1
(iii) Graph of sin x from [−1, 1] y
to Its Principal Value Branch π −1
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y = sin x
2
To draw y = sin−1 x over [−1, 1]:
1

A Recall that the principal value 0.5


−1
branch¸of sin x has range
·
π π x
− , .
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−1 −0.5www.cbse.page
0.5 1
2 2
−0.5

A The graph can be obtained by −1


¸ y = sin x
reflecting the ·graph of
π π π
(restricted to − , ) across −
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the line y = x.
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OR
−1
To find the domain and range of the function f (x) = 2 sin (1 − x), we
analyze the properties of the inverse sine function (sin−1) and apply the
given transformation.
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The Domain of f (x)


−1
The inverse sine function, sin (u), is defined when u ∈ [−1, 1]. Here,
u = 1 − x, so:
−1 ≤ 1 − x ≤ 1
Solve the inequalities:

1 − x ≥ −1 =⇒ −x ≥ −2 =⇒ x ≤ 2,
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1 − x ≤ 1 =⇒ −x ≤ 0 =⇒ x ≥ 0.

Domain of f (x) : [0, 2]


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The Range of f (x)
π π
· ¸
−1
The range of sin (u) is − , . Here, the output is scaled by 2:
2 2
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−1
f (x) = 2 sin (1 − x)

A When x = 0:
π
µ ¶
−1
f (0) = 2 sin (1) = 2 =π
2
A When x = 2:
π
µ ¶
−1
f (2) = 2 sin (−1) = 2 − = −π
2
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As x varies from 0 to 2, f (x) varies from π to −π.


Range of f (x) : [−π, π]
Answer:
A Domain of f (x): [0, 2]
A Range of f (x): [−π, π]
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◎ 65 B www.cbse.page

2024 March

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š 2024 PYQ 18 ¥ 65(B), Set 1


à !
2
−1 π
Assertion (A) : sec p =
3 6
µ ¶ p
π 3
Reason (R) : cos =
6 2
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(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
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Solution
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
A 1 Marks

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Concept
Builder

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Concept Explanation:
A The sec−1 x function is the inverse of the secant function.
For an angle θ in the principal value range of sec−1 x, we have
sec θ = x.
π
½ ¾
A The principal value range of sec x is typically [0, π] \
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−1 www.cbse.page
.
2
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p
π 3
A The reason mentions cos = . While this is true, we must check if
6Ã !2
−1 2 π
it fully explains why sec p = .
3 6
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Formula Explanation:
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1
A sec θ = .
cos θ p
2 3
A If sec θ = p , then cos θ = .
3 2
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p
π 3 π
A Since cos = , we deduce θ =
6 2
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6 www.cbse.page

−1
(within the principal range for sec x).

Step-by-Step Solution:
à !
−12 π
A Assertion (A): sec p = .
3 6
sec x = θ implies sec θ = x.
−1

2
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Here, x = p .
3 p
1 3
Since sec θ = , we get cos θ = .
cos θ p 2
π 3 π
Recognizing cos = , we conclude θ = in the principal range.
6 2 6
à !
−1 2 π
Hence, sec p = .
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3 6
Therefore, Assertion (A) is true.
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µ ¶ p
π 3
A Reason (R): cos = .
6 2
This statement
p is also true. We know from basic trigonometry that
◦ 3
cos 30 = .
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2
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A Evaluate Explanation: p
π 3
While Reason (R) is true, it only states the known fact that cos = .
6 2
à !
−1 2 π
This does not fully explain why sec p equals , because we also
3 6
needed to use the definition of inverse secant and its principal value
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range.

Therefore, both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
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Final Answer: (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason
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(R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

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š 2024 PYQ 19 ¥ 65(B), Set 1


µ ¶ µ ¶
1 1
Find the value of tan−1(1) + cos−1 −1
− + sin − .
2 2

OR
−1 2
¡ ¢
Find the domain of the function y = cos x −4 .
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Solution
A 2 Marks
µ ¶ µ ¶
1 −1 1
tan−1(1) + cos−1 − + sin −
2 2
π 2π π
= + −
4 3 6
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=
4
OR
−1 ≤ x 2 − 4 ≤ 1

3 ≤ x2 ≤ 5
p p p p
⇒ domain = [− 5, − 3] ∪ [ 3, 5]
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Concept
Builder
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Solution 1: Evaluating the given expression


We need to evaluate:
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 −1 1 −1 1
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tan (1) + cos − + sin − www.cbse.page

2 2
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−1
Step 1: Finding tan (1)
A We know that tan−1(1) = θ means tan θ = 1.
π
A The principal value of θ satisfying this is .
4
Thus,
−1 π
tan (1) =
4
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µ ¶
−1 1
Step 2: Finding cos −
2
1
A We need to determine θ such that cos θ = − .
2
2π 1 −1
A We know that cos = − in the principal range of cos x, which is
3 2
[0, π].
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Thus, µ ¶
−1 1 2π
cos − =
2 3
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µ ¶
−1 1
Step 3: Finding sin −
2
1
A We need to determine θ such that sin θ = − .
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¸2
π π
·
−1
A The principal value of sin x lies in − , .
2 2
π
µ ¶
1
A Since sin − = − , we have:
6 2
π
µ ¶
−1 1
sin − = −
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2 6 www.cbse.page

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Step 4: Summing all values
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1−1
tan (1) + cos − + sin −
2 2
π 2π π
µ ¶
= + + −
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Taking LCM of denominators 4, 3, 6, we get LCM = 12.


3π 8π 2π
= + −
12 12 12
3π + 8π − 2π 9π 3π
= = =
12 12 4
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Final Answer:
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4
−1 2
Solution 2: Finding the domain of y = cos (x − 4)
Step 1: Domain condition for cos−1 x
A The function cos−1 x is defined for inputs in the range:
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−1 ≤ x ≤ 1
2
A Here, x − 4 must satisfy:

2
−1 ≤ x − 4 ≤ 1
Step 2: Solving the inequality

2
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−1 ≤ x − 4 ≤ 1 www.cbse.page

Adding 4 throughout,

2
3≤x ≤5
Step 3: Finding valid x values
A Taking square roots:
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p p www.cbse.page

3 ≤ |x| ≤ 5
A This gives two intervals:
p p p p
− 5 ≤ x ≤ − 3 or 3≤x ≤ 5
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Final answer: p p p p
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[− 5, − 3] ∪ [ 3, 5]
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§ 2023 PYQs
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Additional Practice Paper 2


released in September 2023
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š 2023 PYQ 20 ¥ 2023 APQ, Paper 2


If cos α + cos β + cos γ = 3π, then find the value of
−1 −1 −1

α(β + γ) − β(γ + α) + γ(α + β)

OR
(p p )
π
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1 + sin x + 1 − sin x
Reduce cot−1
p p where < x < π in to simplest
1 + sin x − 1 − sin x 2
form.

Solution A 2 Mark

cos−1 α + cos−1 β + cos−1 γ = 3π


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⇒ cos α = π, cos β = π& cos γ = π


−1 −1 −1

∴ α = β = γ = −1
α(β + γ) − β(γ + α) + γ(α + β)

= (−1)(−1 − 1) − (−1)(−1 − 1) + (−1)(−1 − 1)


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= 2−2+2 = 2
OR
s s 
¶2 ¶2 
x x x x 
 µ µ

sin + cos + sin − cos

 

2 2 2 2

 

cot−1 sµ sµ
2 2
x x x x

 ¶ ¶ 
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 sin + cos − sin − cos 

2 2 2 2
 

µ ¶
x x x x 
¶ µ
sin cos sin cos


 + + − 

2 2 2 2
 
−1
= cot
x x x x 
µ ¶ µ ¶

 sin + cos − sin − cos 

 
2 2 2 2

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x
 
2 sin µ
x


−1 
= cot  2  −1
x  = cot tan 2

2 cos
2
π x π x
µ µ ¶¶
−1
= cot cot − = −
2 2 2 2
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Concept
Builder

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Solution 1: Finding the value of α(β + γ) − β(γ + α) + γ(α + β)


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Step 1: Understanding the given equation
cos α + cos β + cos γ = 3π
−1 −1 −1

A The principal value range of cos−1 x is [0, π].


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A The sum of three inverse cosines can be at most 3π only when each
term is π.
A This implies:
cos α = π,
−1
cos β = π,
−1
cos γ = π
−1

A Taking cosine on both sides:


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cos π = α, cos π = β, cos π = γ

A Since cos π = −1, we conclude:


α = −1, β = −1, γ = −1
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Step 2: Evaluating the expression
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α(β + γ) − β(γ + α) + γ(α + β)


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Substituting α = −1, β = −1, and γ = −1:

(−1)(−1 + (−1)) − (−1)(−1 + (−1)) + (−1)(−1 + (−1))

(−1)(−2) − (−1)(−2) + (−1)(−2)


2−2+2 = 2
Final Answer: 2
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OR
Problem 2 Solution:
Simplify: (p p )
1 + sin x + 1 − sin x π
cot −1
p p , <x <π
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1 + sin x − 1 − sin x 2
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−1
Step 1: Simplify the Expression Inside cot
Let: p p
1 + sin x + 1 − sin x
E =p p
1 + sin x − 1 − sin x

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Step 2: Rationalizing the Expression
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p p
Multiply numerator and denominator by 1 + sin x + 1 − sin x:
p p
( 1 + sin x + 1 − sin x)2
E=
(1 + sin x) − (1 − sin x)
Expanding the numerator:
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( 1 + sin x + 1 − sin x)2


p
= (1 + sin x) + (1 − sin x) + 2 (1 + sin x)(1 − sin x)
p
2
= 2 + 2 1 − sin x
Since 1 − sin2 x = cos2 x, we get:
p
= 2 + 2 cos2 x
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Since the denominator simplifies to:

(1 + sin x) − (1 − sin x) = 2 sin x

We obtain: p
2 + 2 cos2 x
E=
2 sin x
p
1 + cos2 x
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=
sin x

Step 3: Evaluate the Square Root


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π
Since < x < π, cos x is negative:
2
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p www.cbse.page

cos2 x = | cos x| = − cos x

Thus:
1 − cos x
E=
sin x

Step 4: Express in Terms of Trigonometric Identities


Using the identity:
1 − cos x x
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µ ¶ www.cbse.page

= tan
sin x 2
Since:
π
cot (tan θ) = − θ
−1
2
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we get:
x π x
µ µ ¶¶
−1 −1
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cot (E ) = cot tan = −
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2 2 2

Final Answer:
π x

2 2

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Additional Practice Paper 1


released in September 2023
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š 2023 PYQ 21 ¥ 2023 APQ, Paper 1


−1 p
If f (x) = cos x, 0 < x < 1, which of the following is equal to f ′(x) ?
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−1 1
(a) p (c) p
1−xwww.cbse.page
2 x(1 − x)
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1 −1
(b) p (d) p
1−x 2 x(1 − x)

Solution A 1 Mark
−1
p
Given: f (x) = cos x, where 0 < x < 1.
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To find f (x), we use the chain rule:
p
1. Let u = x. Then, f (x) = cos−1 u.
−1
2. The derivative of cos u with respect to u is:
d −1 1
cos u = − p
du 1 − u2
p
3. The derivative of u = x with respect to x is:
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du 1
= p
dx 2 x
4. By the chain rule:
′ d −1 du 1 1
f (x) = cos u · = −p · p
du dx 1 − u2 2 x
5. Substitute u 2 = x:
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′ www.cbse.page
f (x) = − p p
2 x 1−x
6. Simplify the denominator:
′ 1
f (x) = − p
2 x(1 − x)

−1
The correct option is: (d) p
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2 x(1 − x)
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Concept
Builder

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Concept Behind the Question:


The given function involves an inverse trigonometric function:
−1
p
f (x) = cos ( x)

To differentiate such functions, we use the chain rule of differentiation


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along with the standard derivative formula for inverse trigonometric


functions.

Formulae Used:
A The derivative of the inverse cosine function:
d −1 −1 du
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dx 1 − u2 d x
A The derivative of square root function:
d p 1
x= p
dx 2 x

Step-by-Step Solution:
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Step 1: Applying the Chain Rule
−1
p
f (x) = cos ( x)

Differentiating both sides:

′ d −1
p
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f (x) = cos ( x) www.cbse.page
dx
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Using the standard derivative formula:


d −1 −1 du
cos u = p ·
dx 1 − u2 d x
p
where u = x.
du
Step 2: Finding
dx
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d p 1
( x) = p
dx 2 x
Step 3: Substituting Values
′ −1 1
f (x) = p · p
1−x 2 x
−1
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= p www.cbse.page

2 x(1 − x)

Trick to Solve Faster:


A Recognize that cos−1 differentiation follows a standard pattern.
p
A Identify that x is a composite function and apply the chain rule
directly.
A Memorize the derivative formulae for inverse trigonometric
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functions to avoid unnecessary derivations in exams.


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−1
Final Answer: p (Option (d))
2 x(1 − x)
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š 2023 PYQ 22 ¥ 2023 APQ, Paper 1


Find the domain of the function y = cos−1(|x − 1|).
Show your steps.
OR
Draw the graph of the following function:
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y = 2 sin (x), −π ≤ y ≤ π
−1

Solution A 2 Marks

Since the domain of inverse of cosine function is [−1, 1], finds the
domain of the given function as follows:
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So, 0 ≤ x ≤ 2 And,
−1 ≤ 1−x ≤ 1
⇒ 1 ≥ x − 1 ≥ −1
So, 2 ≥ x ≥ 0
Concludes the domain of cos−1(|x − 1|) as [0, 2].
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OR www.cbse.page

Draws the graphs of y = 2 sin−1(x) as shown below.

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Concept
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Builder

Question: Find the domain of the function


−1
y = cos (|x − 1|)
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Concept Behind the Question:


The domain of a function involving inverse trigonometric functions like
cos−1(x) is the set of all values for which the input lies in the principal
domain of the inverse function.
A The domain of cos−1(z) is:

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z ∈ [−1, 1] www.cbse.page

A Hence, for cos−1(|x − 1|) to be defined, we must have:


|x − 1| ∈ [−1, 1]

Step-by-Step Solution:
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We are given:
|x − 1| ≤ 1
Remove the modulus inequality:

−1 ≤ x − 1 ≤ 1

Add 1 throughout:
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0≤x ≤2 www.cbse.page

Trick to Solve:
A Whenever inverse trig functions are involved, first find the principal
domain.
A If modulus is present, convert to compound inequality and solve as
usual.
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Final Answer: Domain is [0, 2]

OR
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◎ 65/C − Compart
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July 2023

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š 2023 PYQ 23 ¥ 65/C, Set 1


−1
p π
Assertion (A) : The principal value of cot ( 3) is .
6
Reason (R) : Domain of cot x is R − {−1, 1}.
−1

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
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(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Solution
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A 1 Mark

(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

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Builder

−1
p π
Assertion (A) : The principal value of cot ( 3) is .
6
Reason (R) : Domain of cot−1 x is R − {−1, 1}.
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Concept Behind the Question:


A The function cot−1 x gives the angle θ in the principal value branch,
i.e., θ ∈ (0, π), such that cot(θ) = x.
A We know:
π p p π
µ ¶
−1
cot = 3 ⇒ cot ( 3) =
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6 6 www.cbse.page

Hence, Assertion (A) is correct.


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A Now consider the domain of cot−1 x. The inverse cotangent function


is defined for all real values of x. So:

Domain of cot −1
x =R

Therefore, the given Reason (R) is incorrect.

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Trick to Solve:
A To find principal value of inverse trigonometric functions, always
refer to the standard angles and their identities.
A Remember:
p p π
cot ( 3) = θ such that cot(θ) = 3 ⇒ θ =
−1
6
A And domain of cot−1 x is all real numbers R.
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Explanation of All Formulae Used:


π p
µ ¶
1 1
A cot = µ ¶= = 3
6 π 1
tan p
6 3
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p π π
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A ⇒ cot ( 3) = as ∈ (0, π)
−1
6 6

Final Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

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š 2023 PYQ 24 ¥ 65/C, Set 1


Simplify :
cos x
µ ¶
−1
tan
1 − sin x

Solution
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A 2 Marks

π
 µ ¶ 
sin − x 
cos x
µ ¶
2

−1 −1 
tan = tan 

π
µ ¶
1 − sin x  
1 − cos − x
2
π x π x
 µ ¶ µ ¶
 2 sin − cos − 
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−1  4 2 4 2 
= tan 
2 π x
µ ¶ 
 
2 sin −
4 2
π x π π x
µ µ ¶¶ µ µ µ ¶¶¶
−1 −1
= tan cot − = tan tan − −
4 2 2 4 2
π x
= +
4 2 www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

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Concept
www.cbse.page Builder
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Question: Simplify:
cos x
µ ¶
−1
tan
1 − sin x
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Concept Behind the Question:
A This expression is of the form that can be simplified using the
trigonometric identity:
cos x π x
µ ¶
= tan −
1 − sin x 4 2
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A Therefore, applying inverse tangent on both sides will help us


simplify.

Step-by-Step Simplification:
Let us first simplify the inner expression:
cos x
µ ¶
−1
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tan www.cbse.page

1 − sin x
Now multiply numerator and denominator by 1 + sin x (rationalization
trick):
cos x(1 + sin x) −1 cos x(1 + sin x)
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1
= tan = tan
(1 − sin x)(1 + sin x) 1 − sin2 x
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Use identity: 1 − sin2 x = cos2 x

−1 cos x(1 + sin x) −1 1 + sin x


µ ¶ µ ¶
= tan 2
= tan
cos x cos x
Now,
1 + sin x π x π x
µ ¶ µ µ ¶¶
−1 −1
tan = tan tan + ⇒ +
cos x 4 2 4 2
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Trick to Solve:
A Recognize the identity:
cos x π x
µ ¶
= tan +
1 − sin x 4 2
A Then use:
π π
µ ¶
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tan (tan θ) = θ when θ ∈ − ,
−1 www.cbse.page

2 2
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A If the resulting angle lies outside this principal value range, adjust it
accordingly.

Explanation of All Formulae Used:


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A Rationalizing: Multiply numerator and denominator by conjugate to


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simplify.
A Trig identity:
1 + sin x π x
µ ¶
= tan +
cos x 4 2
(derived from half-angle formulas and compound angle identities).
A Inverse identity:
π π
µ ¶
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tan (tan θ) = θ for θ ∈ − ,


−1
2 2

Final Answer:
cos x π x
µ ¶
−1
tan = +
1 − sin x 4 2

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š 2023 PYQ 25 ¥ 65/C, Set 2


à !
−1 x −1
³ p ´
Derivative of tan p with respect to sin 2x 1 − x 2 is :
1 − x2
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1 1 1
(a) − (b) (c) 2 (d) −
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2 2
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Solution
1
(b) A 1 Marks
2

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Concept
Builder

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Given: Derivative of
à !
−1 x −1
³ p ´
tan p with respect to sin 2x 1 − x 2
1 − x2

Concept Behind:
A Use standard inverse trigonometric identities to reduce the given
expressions.
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A Use the chain rule to differentiate one function with respect to


another.

Step 1: Simplify each expression


Let à !
−1 x −1
p
f (x) = tan
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1 − x2
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We know:
à !
−1 x −1 −1 x
tan p = sin (x) (because tan(sin (x)) = p )
1 − x2 1 − x2
Also,
p
−1
sin (2x 1 − x 2) = 2x (since sin(2θ) = 2 sin θ cos θ and θ = sin
−1
x)
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Step 2: Apply Chain Rule


Now,
−1 df 1 dg
f (x) = sin (x), g (x) = 2x ⇒ =p , =2
dx 1 − x2 dx
Therefore,
df
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d f dx 1
= = p
d g d g 2 1 − x2
dx
Trick to Solve:
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A Recognize inverse trigonometric patterns quickly from standard


identities.
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A Convert the function into basic forms before differentiating.


A Use the chain rule properly to differentiate with respect to another
function.

1
Final Answer: (b) Option (b)
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◎ 65/C/B − Compart
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July 2023

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š 2023 PYQ 26 ¥ 65/C/B, Set 1


−1
The domain of the function sin (2x) is :
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· ¸ µ ¶
1 1 1 1
(a) [−1, 1] (b) [0, 1] (c) − , (d) − ,
2 2 2 2
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Solution A 1 Mark
· ¸
1 1
(c) − ,
2 2

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Concept
Builder

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Question: The domain of the function

y = sin−1(2x)

Concept Behind:
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A The domain of the inverse sine function sin−1(z) is all values of z


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such that z ∈ [−1, 1].


A Hence, for sin−1(2x) to be defined, the argument 2x must lie in
[−1, 1].

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Step-by-Step Solution:
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We require: − 1 ≤ 2x ≤ 1
1 1
Divide all terms by 2: − ≤x≤
2 2

Trick to Solve:
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A For inverse trigonometric functions, always ensure the argument lies


within the principal domain.
A Solve inequalities carefully when constants are multiplied to x inside
the function.

· ¸
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Final Answer: (c) − ,


2 2

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◎ 65/1 − All Sets
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March 2023

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š 2023 PYQ 27 ¥ 65/1, Set 1


Assertion (A) : The range of the function
π 5π
· ¸
−1 3π
f (x) = 2 sin x + , where x ∈ [−1, 1], is , .
2 2 2
Reason (R) : The range of the principal value
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branch of sin (x) is [0, π].


−1

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
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(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Solution A 1 Mark

(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

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Concept
Builder

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Assertion (A): The range of the function ·


π 5π
¸
−1 3π
f (x) = 2 sin x + , where x ∈ [−1, 1], is , .
2 2 2
Reason (R): The range of the principal value branch of sin (x) is [0, π].
−1

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Concept Behind:
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−1
A The range of sin (x), for x ∈ [−1, 1], is:
π π
· ¸
− ,
2 2
A Multiply this range by 2:
2 sin−1(x) ∈ [−π, π]
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A Now, add to the entire range:
2
π 5π
· ¸ · ¸
3π 3π 3π
−1
f (x) = 2 sin (x) + ∈ − π, + π = ,
2 2 2 2 2
A So the assertion is correct.
A But Reason is incorrect because the range of principal value branch
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−1
of sin (x) is:
π π
· ¸
− ,
2 2

Trick to Solve:
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A Use transformation of function ranges step-by-step: multiply first,


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then add.
A Memorize the principal value branch ranges of all inverse trig
functions for quick elimination.

Final Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

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š 2023 PYQ 28 ¥ 65/1, Set 1


Evaluate : µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 3π −1 3π
sin sin + cos cos + tan−1(1)
4 4

Solution A 2 Mark
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π 3π π 5π
Required value = + + =
4 4 4 4

Concept
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Builder

Solution:
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We need to evaluate the expression:
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µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 3π −1 3π −1
sin sin + cos cos + tan (1)
4 4

µ ¶
−1 3π
Step 1: Evaluate sin sin
4
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π π
· ¸
−1
A The principal range of sin is − ,
2 2 µ
π π

3π 3π
A is not in this range, but sin = sin π − = sin
4 4 4 4
π
A Since is within the principal range:
4
π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 3π −1
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4 4 4
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µ ¶
−1 3π
Step 2: Evaluate cos cos
4
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A The principal range of cos−1 is [0, π]



A lies within this range, so:
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µ ¶
−1 3π 3π
cos cos =
4 4

Step 3: Evaluate tan−1(1)


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π π
µ ¶
−1
A The principal range of tan
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is − , www.cbse.page
2 2
π π
A tan = 1, and is within the principal range:
4 4
−1 π
tan (1) =
4

Step 4: Sum the Results


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π 3π π 5π
+ + =
4 4 4 4

Final Answer:

4
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◎ 65/2 − All Sets
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March 2023

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š 2023 PYQ 29 ¥ 65/2, Set 1


¢2 2
Assertion (A) : : Maximum value of cos x is π .
−1
¡

−π π
¸ ·
−1
Reason (R) : Range of the principal value branch of cos x is , .
2 2
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
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correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
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Solution A 1 Mark

(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

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Concept
Builder

Assertion (A): Maximum value of


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2
cos x is π2
−1
¡ ¢

π π
· ¸
−1
Reason (R): Range of the principal value branch of cos x is − ,
2 2
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Concept Behind:
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−1
A For the function cos x, the domain is [−1, 1]
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A The principal value branch of cos−1 x is:


π π
· ¸
[0, π] (not − , )
2 2
A So, maximum value of cos x is π and hence:
−1

¢2 2
cos x ≤ π
−1
¡
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A Thus, Assertion (A) is true.


π π
· ¸
A But Reason (R) is false since the correct range is [0, π], not − ,
2 2

Trick to Solve:
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A Memorize ranges of inverse trig functions carefully:


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– cos−1(x) ∈ [0, π]
π π
· ¸
−1 −1
– sin (x), tan (x) ∈ − ,
2 2
– cot−1(x), sec−1(x), csc−1(x) ∈ (0, π)
A Use maximum value of a function to find max of its square.

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Final Answer: (c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

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š 2023 PYQ 30 ¥ 65/2, Set 1


(a) Evaluate µ ¶

−1
sin sin + cos−1(cos π) + tan−1(1).
4
OR
−1
(b) Draw the graph of cos x, where x ∈ [−1, 0].
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Also, write its range.

Solution A 2 Mark
µ ¶

−1
(a) sin sin + cos−1(cos π) + tan−1(1)
4
π π 3π
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= +π+ =
4 4 2
OR
(b)

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π
· ¸
Range : ,π
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Concept
Builder

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Evaluate the expression:


µ ¶

−1
sin sin + cos−1(cos π) + tan−1(1)
4

Concept Behind:
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A The inverse·trigonometric functions return principal values:


π π
¸
−1
– sin (x) ∈ − ,
2 2
– cos−1(x) ∈ µ[0, π] ¶
−1 π π
– tan (x) ∈ − ,
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π π
· ¸
A So, for sin (sin θ), if θ ∈ − , , then the value is θ. Otherwise, it is
−1
2 2
adjusted to the equivalent value within the principal value branch.

Step-by-step Evaluation:
µ ¶
−1 3π
A sin sin
4
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3π π π π
· ¸
Since > , we reduce it to its equivalent value in − ,
4 2 2 2
p Ãp !
3π 2 −1 2 π
sin = ⇒ sin =
4 2 2 4
A cos−1(cos π) = π Because π ∈ [0, π], which is the principal value range
of cos−1
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−1 π π
A tan (1) = Because tan = 1
4 4

Final Calculation:
π π 3π
µ ¶

−1
sin sin + cos (cos π) + tan (1) = + π + =
−1 −1
4 4 4 2
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Final Answer:
2
OR
−1
y Range of y = cos x for x ∈ [−1, 0] :
(−1, π)
π
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π
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· ¸

2

Explanation:

y = cos−1 x A At x = −1: cos−1(−1) = π


−1 π
A At x = 0: cos (0) =
2
π π A In the interval x ∈ (−1, 0):
(0, )
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2 2 cos−1 x is a decreasing function.


Why it decreases:
dy d ¡ −1
¢ 1
= cos x = − p <0
dx dx 1 − x2
for x ∈ (−1, 0)
x
−1
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−0.5 Thus, the function is strictly


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decreasing over this interval.


Graphical Features:
A Starts at point (−1, π)
π
A Ends at point (0, )
2
A Smooth, strictly decreasing curve with no vertical asymptotes.
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Key Takeaway:
−1
For x ∈ [−1, 0], cos x covers all angles from the second quadrant, where
cosine is negative.

Hence, the range is:


π
· ¸
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◎ 65/3 − All Sets
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March 2023

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š 2023 PYQ 31 ¥ 65/3, Set 1


Assertion (A) : Range of sin x + 2 cos x is [0, π].
£ −1 −1
¤

π π
· ¸
−1
Reason (R) : Principal value branch of sin x has range − , .
2 2
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
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correct explanation of the Assertion (A).


(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

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Solution A 1 Mark

(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

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Concept
Builder

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Assertion (A) : Range of sin x + 2 cos x is [0, π].
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£ −1 −1
¤ www.cbse.page

π π
· ¸
−1
Reason (R) : Principal value branch of sin x has range − , .
2 2
Concept Behind:
A For x ∈ [−1, 1], the principal value:
π π
· ¸
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−1
sin x ∈ − , , cos−1
x ∈ [0, π]
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2 2
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A So,
π π π 5π
· ¸ · ¸
−1 −1
sin x + 2 cos x ∈ − + 2(0), + 2(π) = − ,
2 2 2 2
A But we need to find the actual range over the domain x ∈ [−1, 1]. So
consider the function:

f (x) = sin−1 x + 2 cos−1 x


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A Let’s evaluate at key points:


– At x = −1:
π π 3π
−1
sin (−1) = − , cos (−1) = π ⇒ f (−1) = − + 2π =
−1
2 2 2
– At x = 0:
π π
−1
sin (0) = 0,
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cos (0) = ⇒ f (0) = 0 + 2 · = π
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2 2
– At x = 1:
−1 π −1 π π
sin (1) = , cos (1) = 0 ⇒ f (1) = + 0 =
2 2 2
A Therefore,
π 3π
· ¸
Range of f (x) = ,
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which is not equal to [0, π].


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Final Answer: (d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

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š 2023 PYQ 32 ¥ 65/3, Set 1


à ! Ãp !
1 3
(a) Evaluate : 3 sin−1 p + 2 cos−1
+ cos−1
(0)
2 2

OR
(b) Draw the graph of
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" #
−1 1 1
f (x) = sin x, x ∈ − p , p .
2 2
Also, write range of f (x).

Solution
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3π 2π π 19π
(a) Given expression = + + =
4 6 2 12
(b)

Here, the points A, B, C and D are


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respectively
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¶ Ã ! Ã !
π π
µ ¶ µ
1 1
0, , 0, − , p , 0 , − p , 0 .
4 4 2 2

π π
· ¸
Range = − ,
4 4

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Concept
Builder

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We need to evaluate:
à ! Ãp !
−1 1 −1 3 −1
3 sin p + 2 cos + cos (0)
2 2

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à !
1
−1
Step 1: Evaluate sin p
2
We know: Ã !
π π
µ ¶
1 −1 1
sin = p ⇒ sin p =
4 2 2 4
So: Ã !
−1 1 π 3π
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2 4 4
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Ãp !
−1 3
Step 2: Evaluate cos
2
We know: µ ¶ p Ãp !
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π 3 −1 3 π www.cbse.page

cos = ⇒ cos =
6 2 2 6
So: Ãp !
−1 3 π π
2 cos = 2· =
2 6 3
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−1
Step 3: Evaluate cos (0)
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We know:
π π
µ ¶
−1
cos = 0 ⇒ cos (0) =
2 2
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Step 4: Add all the values


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à ! Ãp ! www.cbse.page

1 3 3π π π
3 sin−1 p + 2 cos−1 −1
+ cos (0) = + +
2 2 4 3 2
LCM of 4, 3, 2 is 12:
3π 9π π 4π π 6π
= , = , =
4 12 3 12 2 12

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9π + 4π + 6π 19π
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Sum = =
12 12

19π
Final Answer:
12
OR
à !
1 π
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p ,
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π 2 4
4 y
−1
y = sin x

x
1 1
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−p p www.cbse.page

2 2

π

4
à !
1 π
−p , −
2 4
" #
−1 1 1
Range of f (x) = sin
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2 2
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π π
· ¸
A Range: − ,
4 4

Explanation:
A Behavior of sin−1 x: Ã !
1 −1 1 π
• When x = − p : sin − p = −
2
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−1
• When x = 0: sin (0)Ã= 0 !
1 −1 1 π
• When x = p : sin p =
2 2 4
dy 1
• The function is monotonically increasing since =p >0
dx 1 − x2

A Graph Features:
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à !
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à !
1 π 1 π
A Passes through points − p , − , (0, 0), p ,
2 4 2 4
−1 −1
A Symmetric about the origin, since sin (−x) = − sin x
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Graph Preview:
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π π
A The graph shows a smooth increasing curve from − to
4 4
1
A The x-axis is labeled at key points ± p , and the y-axis in terms of π
2

Key Takeaway:
" #
1 1
A For x ∈ − p , p ,
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2 2
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−1 π π
the function f (x) = sin x covers all angles between − and ,
4 4
which is the principal range of arcsine restricted to this domain.

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◎ 65/4 − All Sets
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March 2023

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š 2023 PYQ 33 ¥ 65/4, Set 1


Assertion (A) : All trigonometric functions have their inverses over their
respective domains.

Reason (R) : The inverse of tan−1 x exists for some x ∈ R.


(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
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correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Solution
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(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

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Concept
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Builder

Assertion (A) : All trigonometric functions have their inverses over their
respective domains.
Reason (R) : The inverse of tan−1 x exists for some x ∈ R.
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Concept Behind:
A A function has an inverse if and only if it is one-one and onto over its
domain and codomain.
A Trigonometric functions like sin x, cos x, tan x are not one-one over
their full domain R, so their inverses do not exist over the entire real
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line.
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A Hence, to define their inverses, we restrict their domains (called


principal value branches):
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π π
· ¸
−1
– sin x : [−1, 1] → − ,
2 2
µ → [0,¶π]
−1
– cos x : [−1, 1]
π π
– tan x : R → − ,
−1
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2 2
A So Assertion is false — not all trig functions have inverses over their
full domains.
A But Reason is true — inverse of tan x exists for all x ∈ R (over its
restricted domain).

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Correct Option: (d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

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š 2023 PYQ 34 ¥ 65/4, Set 1


−1 2
¡ ¢
Find the domain of y = sin x −4

OR
Evaluate : · µ ¶¸
−1 7π
www.cbse.page cos cos − www.cbse.page

Solution A 2 Marks
−1
Domain of sin x is −1 ≤ x ≤ 1

∴ −1 ≤ x 2 − 4 ≤ 1
2 2
or x ≥ 3, x ≤ 5
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p p p p
⇒ x ≥ 3 or x ≤ − 3, x ≤ 5 or x ≥ − 5

p p p p
∴ Domain is [− 5, − 3] ∪ [ 3, 5]
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OR
· µ ¶¸ · µ ¶¸
−1 7π −1 7π
cos cos − = cos cos
3 3
π
· µ ¶¸
−1
= cos cos 2π +
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3 www.cbse.page

π π
· ¸
−1
= cos cos = .
3 3

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Concept
Builder

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To find: Domain of the function


−1 2
y = sin (x − 4)

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Concept Behind:
A The inverse sine function sin−1(z) is defined only when z ∈ [−1, 1].
−1 2
A So, for y = sin (x − 4) to be defined, the expression inside must lie
in [−1, 1].

Step-by-step:
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We want:
2
−1 ≤ x − 4 ≤ 1
Add 4 to all sides:
2
3≤x ≤5
Now solve for x:
2
p p p p
www.cbse.page x ∈ [3, 5] ⇒ x ∈ [− 5, − 3] ∪ [ 3, 5]
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Trick to Solve:
−1
A Whenever dealing with inverse functions like sin ( f (x)), restrict
f (x) to be in [−1, 1].
A For quadratic expressions like x 2 − 4, treat it as a compound
2
inequality and solve for x .
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Final Answer: p p p p
Domain is [− 5, − 3] ∪ [ 3, 5]

OR
To evaluate: · µ ¶¸
−1 7π
www.cbse.page cos cos − www.cbse.page

Concept Behind:
A For inverse cosine, the principal value branch (range) is
[0, π]

A We first simplify the inner angle to its equivalent angle in [0, 2π].
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A Then use the property that cos−1(cos θ) = θ if θ ∈ [0, π], else return the
equivalent angle in [0, π] with the same cosine.

Step-by-step:
First simplify the angle:
7π π
− = −2π −
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Now, add 2π to get an equivalent angle in [0, 2π]:


7π 7π 6π π
− + 2π = − + =−
3 3 3 3
Now add 2π again to get a positive coterminal angle:
π 5π
− + 2π =
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3 3 www.cbse.page

So, µ ¶ µ ¶
7π 5π
cos − = cos
3 3
Now apply inverse cosine:
· µ ¶¸
−1 5π
cos cos
3
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Since ∉ [0, π], we use:
3
cos−1(cos θ) = the angle in [0, π] having the same cosine as θ

So, we find angle φ ∈ [0, π] such that:


µ ¶

cos(φ) = cos
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3 www.cbse.page

But,
π
µ ¶ µ ¶

cos = cos
3 3
So,
π π
· µ ¶¸ · µ ¶¸
−1 7π −1
cos cos − = cos cos =
3 3 3
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Trick to Solve:
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A Always reduce the angle to the interval [0, 2π] using coterminal
angles.
A Then map the cosine value to its principal value branch [0, π].

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Final Answer:
π
3

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◎ 65/5 − All Sets
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March 2023

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š 2023 PYQ 35 ¥ 65/5, Set 1


π
· µ ¶¸
−1 1
sin + sin is equal to
3 2
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1 1 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
2 3 4
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Solution A 1 Marks

(a) 1

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Concept
Builder

To evaluate:
π
· µ ¶¸
−1 1
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sin + sin www.cbse.page

3 2

Concept Behind:
A Use the identity:
sin(A + B ) = sin A cos B + cos A sin B

A Use principal value of inverse sine:


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π
µ ¶
−1 1
sin =
2 6
π π π π
µ ¶ · ¸
1
because sin = and ∈ − ,
6 2 6 2 2
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Step-by-step:
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π π π
· µ ¶¸ µ ¶
−1 1
sin + sin = sin +
3 2 3 6
2π + π π
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶

= sin = sin = sin
6 6 2
π
µ ¶
sin =1
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Trick to Solve:
A Remember key inverse values like sin (1/2) = π/6
−1

A Add angles with common denominators for faster simplification.


A sin(π/2) = 1 is a commonly used identity.
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Final Answer: 1

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š 2023 PYQ 36 ¥ 65/5, Set 1


Write the domain and range (principle value branch) of the following
functions :
f (x) = tan−1 x

Solution
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A 2 Marks

π π
µ ¶
Domain = R; Range = − ,
2 2

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Concept
Builder

Function:
−1
www.cbse.page f (x) = tan x www.cbse.page

1. Domain of tan−1 x:
−1
A The domain of tan x is all real numbers.
A Mathematically:
R (i.e., x ∈ (−∞, ∞))
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Explanation: The tangent function tan θ is defined for all real numbers
π
except where cos θ = 0 (i.e., θ = + nπ, n ∈ Z).
2
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However, its inverse tan x exists for all x ∈ R because the tangent
−1

function is bijective when restricted to its principal branch.


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−1
2. Range (Principal Value Branch) of tan x:
π π
µ ¶
−1
A The range of tan x is the open interval − , .
2 2
A Mathematically:
π π
µ ¶
− ,
2 2
Explanation: To makeµ tan θ ¶invertible, we restrict its domain to the
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π π
principal branch θ ∈ − , . This ensures:
2 2
A Bijectivity: tan θ is strictly increasing and one-to-one in this interval.
A Principal Values: The output of tan−1 x is always the smallest angle
(in magnitude) whose tangent is x.

Key Points to Remember:


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A Domain: Unlike sin−1 x and cos−1 x (which are defined only for
x ∈ [−1, 1]), tan−1 x is defined for all real x.
π π
A Range: The output is always between − and (but never equal to
2 2
these values).
A Behavior:
−1 π −
– As x → ∞, tan x →
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2
π +
– As x → −∞, tan−1 x → −
2

Graphical Insight:
π y
The graph of y = tan−1 x is an 2
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S-shaped curve passing through
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y = tan−1 x
the origin, with horizontal
π x
asymptotes at y = ± . −10−8−6−4−2 2 4 6 8 10
2

π

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Why Not Closed Interval?


A The range is open because:
π− π
– tan θ → ∞ as θ → , but θ never actually reaches .
2 2
π+ π
– Similarly, tan θ → −∞ as θ → − , but θ never reaches − .
2 2

Final Answer:
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A Domain: R
π π
µ ¶
A Range (Principal Value Branch): − ,
2 2

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š 2023 PYQ 37 ¥ 65/5, Set 1


à !
−1 1 −1
³ p ´
Differentiate sec p w.r.t. sin 2x 1 − x2
1 − x2

Solution A 3 Marks
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Let x = sin θ. Then


à ! µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1
U = sec = sec
cos θ
p
1 − sin θ
2

= sec−1(sec θ) = θ = sin−1 x
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dU 1
⇒ =p
dx 1 − x2
½ q
−1
2 sin θ 1 − sin2 θ
ª
and V = sin

= sin [2 sin θ cos θ] = 2θ = 2 sin


−1 −1
x

dV
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2 dU dU /d x 1 www.cbse.page

⇒ =p ⇒ = =
dx 1 − x2 dV dV /d x 2

1
Note: If the substitution is made as x = cos θ, answer will be −
2
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Concept
Builder

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Solution
Given:
à !
−1 1
y = sec p
1 − x 2
³ p ´
−1
u = sin 2x 1 − x 2
dy
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To Find:
du
Step 1: Simplify y and u
Rewrite y using the identity:
µ ¶
1 ³p ´
sec−1(a) = cos−1 ⇒ y = cos−1 1 − x2
a
For u, let x = sin θ ⇒ θ = sin−1 x
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Then: ³ p ´
u = sin−1 2x 1 − x 2 = sin−1(sin 2θ)
Now depending on the range of x, u becomes:
" #
1 1 −1
A Case 1: x ∈ − p , p ⇒ u = 2θ = 2 sin x
2 2
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à #
1
A Case 2: x ∈ p , 1 ⇒ u = π − 2 sin−1 x
2
" !
1
A Case 3: x ∈ −1, − p ⇒ u = −π − 2 sin−1 x
2

Step 2: Differentiate
p y and u w.r.t. x
−1
For y = cos ( 1 − x 2), use chain rule:
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à !
dy 1 d p 2
1 −x x
= −q p · ( 1 − x ) = − p · p = p
dx d x x 2 1 − x 2 |x| 1 − x 2
1 − ( 1 − x 2)2
sgn(x)
=p
1 − x2
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For u:
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−1 du 2
A Case 1: u = 2 sin x⇒ =p
dx 1 − x2
du 2
A Cases 2 & 3: u = π − 2 sin x or u = −π − 2 sin
−1 −1
x⇒ = −p
dx 1 − x2

Sign Function: The sign function, denoted as sgn(x), is a mathematical


function that extracts the sign of a real number x. It is defined as:
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 1 if x > 0,
sgn(x) = 0 if x = 0,


−1 if x < 0.

Explanation:
A For x > 0: sgn(x) = 1 (positive sign).
A For x = 0: sgn(x) = 0 (no sign; sometimes considered undefined in
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some contexts).
A For x < 0: sgn(x) = −1 (negative sign).

In the Given Problem:


dy
The expression for the derivative includes sgn(x) to reflect the
du
direction of change:
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dy 1
A If x > 0 ⇒ sgn(x) = 1, so =
du 2
dy 1
A If x < 0 ⇒ sgn(x) = −1, so =−
du 2
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Example:
à #
1 dy 1
A For x ∈ 0, p , we have sgn(x) = 1 ⇒
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2 du 2
" !
1 dy 1
A For x ∈ − p , 0 , we have sgn(x) = −1 ⇒ =−
2 du 2

Step 3: Use Chain Rule


d y d y/d x
=
d u d u/d x
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p
dy sgn(x) 1 − x 2 sgn(x)
A Case 1: =p · =
du 1 − x2 2 2
à p !
dy sgn(x) 1 − x2 sgn(x)
A Cases 2 & 3: =p · − =−
du 1 − x2 2 2
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Final Answer:
 Ã # " !
 1 1 1
if x ∈ 0, p or x ∈ −1, − p ,



dy  2 2 ! 2
= " Ã #
du  1 1 1
− 2 if x ∈ − p , 0 or x ∈ p , 1



2 2
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š 2023 PYQ 38 ¥ 65/5, Set 2


−1
Draw the graph of the principal branch of the function f (x) = cos x.

Solution A 2 Marks

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Concept
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Builder

Graph of the Principal Branch of f (x) = cos−1 x

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Graph Details: y
(−1, π)
π
A Domain (x-values): [−1, 1]

A Range (y-values): [0, π] y = cos −1


x
(Principal Branch)
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π π
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(0, )
2 2
A Key Points:

– (−1, π)
π
µ ¶
– 0, x
2 −1 −0.5 0.5 1 (1, 0)
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– (1, 0)

Graph Description:
A Shape: A decreasing curve from (−1, π) to (1, 0), smooth and
continuous over the domain.
A Asymptotes: None. The function is bounded and defined
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everywhere in the domain.
A Symmetry: No symmetry — the function is neither even nor odd.
A Derivative:
d −1 1
cos x = − p
dx 1 − x2
This is always negative for x ∈ (−1, 1), so the function is strictly
decreasing.
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Key Takeaways:
A The principal branch restricts the range to [0, π] to ensure cos−1 x is
a function (i.e., single-valued).
A cos x is the inverse of cos θ for θ ∈ [0, π].
−1

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š 2023 PYQ 39 ¥ 65/5, Set 3


· µ ¶¸
−1 −1 1 −1
Find the value of tan 2 cos 2 sin + tan 1.
2

Solution A 2 Marks
π π π π π π
· µ ¶¸ · ¸
−1 www.cbse.page
−1 1 www.cbse.page

tan 2 cos 2 · + = tan 2× + = + =


6 4 2 4 4 4 2

Concept
Builder
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We are given: · µ ¶¸
−1 −1 1 −1
tan 2 cos 2 sin + tan 1
2
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www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
−1 1
Step 1: Evaluate sin
2
We know:
−1 1 π
sin =
2 6

Step 2: Use the identity cos(2θ) = 1 − 2 sin2 θ


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π
Let θ = , so:
6
π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
1
cos 2 · = cos =
6 3 2
Then: µ ¶
−1 1 1
2 cos 2 sin = 2· = 1
2 2
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Step 3: Simplify the expression

tan−1(1) + tan−1(1)

We use identity:
a +b
µ ¶
−1 −1 −1
tan a + tan b = tan , if ab < 1
1 − ab
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Here, µ µ ¶ ¶
−1 −1 −1 1+1 −1 2
tan (1) + tan (1) = tan = tan
1 − (1)(1) 0
2 −1 π
⇒ → ∞ ⇒ tan (∞) =
0 2

Final Answer:
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π www.cbse.page

Verification
To ensure the correctness of the solution, let’s verify each step carefully:
π
µ ¶
−1 1
1. sin = :
2 6
This is correct because:
π
µ ¶
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sin =
6 2
π π π
· ¸
−1
and ∈ − , , which is the principal range of sin x.
6 2 2
π
µ ¶
−1 1
2. 2 sin = :
2 3
Direct multiplication gives:
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π π www.cbse.page

2× =
6 3
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π
µ ¶
1
3. cos = : This is a standard trigonometric value.
3 2
π
µ ¶
1
4. 2 cos = 2× = 1
3 2
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−1 π
5. tan (1) = :
4
Because:
π
µ ¶
tan =1
4
−1 −1 π π π
6. tan (1) + tan (1) = + =
4 4 2
Conclusion: Every step checks out correctly, so the final answer is
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indeed:
π
2

Concepts Used:
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A Inverse trigonometric identities and exact values


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A Double angle identity: cos(2θ) = 1 − 2 sin2 θ


a +b
µ ¶
−1 −1 −1
A Identity: tan a + tan b = tan when ab < 1
1 − ab

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◎ 65(B) www.cbse.page

2023 March

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š 2023 PYQ 40 ¥ 65/(B)


−1
The domain of the function cos x is :
π π
· ¸
(a) [0, π] (b) (−1, 1) (c) [−1, 1] (d) − ,
2 2

Solution
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A 1 Marks

(c) [−1, 1]

Concept
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Builder

Understanding the Problem


We are asked to find the domain of the function cos−1 x.
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Meaning of Domain: The domain of a function refers to the set of all


permissible values of the independent variable x for which the function
is defined.
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Definition of cos−1 x: The inverse cosine function, denoted cos−1 x or


arccos x, gives an angle θ such that:
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cos θ = x and θ ∈ [0, π]

Range of Cosine Function: The cosine function has a range of values


between −1 and 1, i.e.,

www.cbse.page cos θ ∈ [−1, 1] for all real θ


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−1
Hence, cos x is only defined for:

x ∈ [−1, 1]

Analyzing the Options:


A (a) [0, π]: This is the range of the inverse cosine function, not its
domain.
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⇒ Incorrect.

A (b) (−1, 1): This excludes the endpoints −1 and 1, which are valid
inputs since cos−1(−1) = π and cos−1(1) = 0.
⇒ Incorrect.
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A (c) [−1, 1]: This includes all x values where the function is defined.
⇒ Correct.
π π
· ¸
A (d) − , : This is the range of the inverse sine function sin−1 x, not
2 2
related to the domain of cos−1 x.
⇒ Incorrect.
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−1
Conclusion: The domain of cos x is:

[−1, 1]

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š 2023 PYQ 41 ¥ 65/(B)


¡ −1 ¢ dy
If y = sec tan x , then at x = 1 is equal to :
dx
p 1 1
(a) 2 (b) p (c) 1 (d)
2 2
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Solution A 1 Marks

1
(b) p
2

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Concept
Builder

We are given:
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¡ −1 ¢
y = sec tan x
We are to find:
dy
at x = 1
dx

Step 1: Use chain rule


Let: www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

θ = tan−1 x ⇒ y = sec(θ)
Differentiate using chain rule:
dy d dθ d −1 1
= sec(θ) · = sec(θ) tan(θ) · tan x = sec(θ) tan(θ) ·
dx dθ dx dx 1 + x2
But, p
θ = tan−1 x ⇒ tan(θ) = x ⇒ sec(θ) =
www.cbse.page 1 + x2
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So,
dy p 2
1 x
= 1+x ·x · = p
dx 1 + x2 1 + x2
Step 2: Evaluate at x = 1

dy 1 1
=p =p
dx 1 + 12 2
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www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
1
Final Answer: (b) p
2
Concepts Used:
A Chain rule of differentiation.
d −1 1 d
A Derivatives: tan x =
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dx 1 + x2 d x p
A Trigonometric identity: sec(tan−1 x) = 1 + x 2

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š 2023 PYQ 42 ¥ 65/(B)


p −1 −1
Find the value of tan 3 − sec (−2).

Solution A 2 Marks

p π π π
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µ ¶ www.cbse.page

tan−1
3 − sec (−2) = − π − = −
−1
3 3 3

Concept
www.cbse.page Builder
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We are given: p
tan−1 3 − sec−1(−2)
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p www.cbse.page

Step 1: Evaluate tan−1 3


We know that:
π p p π
µ ¶
−1
tan = 3 ⇒ tan ( 3) =
3 3
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Step 2: Evaluate sec−1(−2)
We know that:
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sec−1(−x) = π − sec−1(x), for x > 1


So,
sec (−2) = π − sec (2)
−1 −1

But,
π π
µ ¶
−1
sec = 2 ⇒ sec (2) =
3 3
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Therefore,
π 2π
sec (−2) = π − =
−1
3 3
Now compute the expression:
−1
p −1 π 2π π
tan 3 − sec (−2) = − =−
3 3 3
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π
Final Answer: −
3
Concepts Used:
−1
p π
A tan ( 3) =
3
A sec−1(−x) = π − sec−1(x), x > 1
π
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−1
A sec (2) =
3

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§ 2022 Term I PYQs


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◎ 65/2/4 Term I
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2021 December

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š 2022 PYQ 43 ¥ 65/2, Set 4


µ ¶ Ã !
−1 1 −1 1
The principal value of cos + sin − p is
2 2
π π π
(a) (b) π (c) (d)
12 3 6
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Solution
π
(a) A 1 Marks
12

à ! à !
π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 −1 −1 −1 1
cos + sin p = cos cos − sin p
2 2 3 2
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π π π π
µ ¶
−1
= − sin sin = −
3 4 3 4

π
=
12
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Concept
Builder

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Concept Explanation:
A The inverse cosine function, cos−1(x), has domainµ [−1,
¶ 1] and its
1 π
principal value range is [0, π]. In particular, cos−1
= because
2 3
π 1
cos = .
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3 2
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−1
A The inverse sine function,
· sin ¸(x), has domain [−1, 1] and its
π π
principal value range is − , .
à ! 2 2
π π
µ ¶
−1 1 1
In particular, sin − p = − because sin − = − p .
2 4 4 2

Step-by-Step Calculation:
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π
µ ¶
−1 1
A Evaluate cos =
à 2 3
!
−1 1 π
A Evaluate sin − p = −
2 4
A Sum:www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

π π π π 4π − 3π π
µ ¶
+ − = − = =
3 4 3 4 12 12

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π
Final Answer: (a)
12
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š 2022 PYQ 44 ¥ 65/2, Set 4


µ ¶
−1 9π
The principal value of tan tan is
8
π 3π π 3π
(a) (b) (c) − (d) −
8 8 8 8
Solution
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π
(a) A 1 Marks
8

π
µ ¶ µ µ ¶¶

−1
tan tan = tan tan π +
−1
8 8
π π π −π π
µ ¶ · µ ¶¸
−1
= tan tan = ∵ ∈ ,
8 8
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8 2 2 www.cbse.page

Option (a) is correct.

Concept
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Builder

Concept Explanation:
π π
µ ¶
−1
For the function tan (x), the principal value (range) is − , .
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2 2
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µ ¶
−1 9π 9π
When evaluating tan tan , we must adjust the angle to an
8µ 8
π π

equivalent angle in the range − , .
2 2
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Since the tangent function is periodic with period π, we find an angle θ¶


π π
µ

such that θ = − kπ, for some integer k, that lies in the interval − , .
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8 2 2
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Trick to Solve:
9π π
A Recognize that can be written as π + .
8 8
A Since the tangent function repeats every π, we have:
π
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
9π 9π
tan = tan − π = tan .
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8 8 8
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π π π
µ ¶
A Note that (22.5°) lies within the principal range − , .
8 2 2

Step-by-Step Solution:
9π π
A Write = π+ .
8 8
A Adjust by subtracting π (because tan is periodic with period π):
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9π 9π − 8π π
−π = = .
8 8 8
A Therefore,
π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 9π −1
tan tan = tan tan = .
8 8 8

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π
Final Answer: (option (a))
8

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š 2022 PYQ 45 ¥ 65/2, Set 4


"p p #
−1 1+x − 1−x
The simplest form of tan p p is
1+x + 1−x

π x π 1 −1
(a) − (c) − cos x
4 2 4 2
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π x π 1 −1
(b) + (d) + cos x
4 2 4 2
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Solution
π 1
(c) − cos−1 x A 1 Marks
4 2
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Ãp p !
−1 1+x − 1−x
Given, tan p p
1+x + 1−x
Putting
x = cos 2θ,

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1 www.cbse.page

θ = cos x −1
2
Ãp p !
−1 1 + cos 2θ − 1 − cos 2θ
tan p p
1 + cos 2θ + 1 − cos 2θ
p p 
−1  2 cos θ − 2 sin θ 
2 2
= tan p p
2 cos θ + 2 sin θ 2
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2

−1 cos θ − sin θ
µ ¶
= tan
cos θ + sin θ

−1 1 − tan θ
µ ¶
= tan
1 + tan θ
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= tan−1(1) − tan−1(tan θ)
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x−y
· µ ¶ ¸
−1 −1 −1
∵ tan = tan x − tan y
1+xy

π
µ ¶
= tan tan − θ
−1
4

π 1 −1
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= − cos x www.cbse.page

4 2
Option (c) is correct.

Concept
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Problem Statement
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We need to simplify the expression:


"p p #
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−1 1+x − 1−x
tan p p
1+x + 1−x
and match it with one of the given options.

Step 1: Substitution to Simplify the Expression


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Let’s make a substitution to simplify the expression inside the


arctangent. Let:
π
x = cos 2θ where 0 ≤ θ ≤
2
This substitution is useful because:
2
1 + x = 1 + cos 2θ = 2 cos θ
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1 − x = 1 − cos 2θ = 2 sin2 θ
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Thus:
p p
1 + x = 2 cos θ
p p
1 − x = 2 sin θ

Step 2: Rewrite the Original Expression


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Substituting these into the original expression:


p p p p
1+x − 1−x 2 cos θ − 2 sin θ cos θ − sin θ
p p =p p =
1+x + 1−x 2 cos θ + 2 sin θ cos θ + sin θ

Step 3: Simplify the Fraction


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Divide numerator and denominator by cos θ:


cos θ − sin θ 1 − tan θ
=
cos θ + sin θ 1 + tan θ
Recall that:
π 1 − tan θ
µ ¶
tan − θ =
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4 1 + tan θ www.cbse.page

Thus:
1 − tan θ π
µ ¶
= tan − θ
1 + tan θ 4

Step 4: Apply the Arctangent Function


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Now, the original expression becomes:


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π π
· µ ¶¸
tan−1
tan − θ = − θ
4 4
Since x = cos 2θ, we have:
1
θ = cos x
−1
2
Substituting back:
π π 1
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− θ = − cos−1 x www.cbse.page

4 4 2
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Step 5: Match with Given Options


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π x
A (a) −
4 2
 Incorrect
π x
A (b) +  Incorrect
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4 2 www.cbse.page

π 1 −1
A (c) − cos x
4 2
 Correct
π 1
A (d) + cos−1 x
4 2
 Incorrect
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Final Answer
π 1
− cos−1 x
4 2

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š 2022 PYQ 46 ¥ 65/2, Set 4


−1
hp −1
p i
The principal value of tan 3 − cot (− 3) is
π p
(a) π (b) − (c) 0 (d) 2 3
2
Solutionwww.cbse.page www.cbse.page

π
(b) − A 1 Marks
2

−1
p −1
p
Given, tan 3 − cot (− 3)
π π
µ ¶
= − π−
3 6

π π
www.cbse.page µ ¶ www.cbse.page

= tan −1
tan − π + cot cot
−1
3 6

π 5π
= −
3 6

π
=−
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Option (b) is correct.

Concept
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Builder
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Problem Statement
We need to find the principal value of the expression:
www.cbse.page p p www.cbse.page

tan−1 3 − cot−1(− 3)
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p
Step 1: Evaluate tan−1 3
The arctangent function, tan−1 x, gives the angle whose tangent is x.
We know that:
π p
µ ¶
tan = 3
3
Therefore, the principal value is:
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−1
p π
tan 3=
3

p
Step 2: Evaluate cot−1(− 3)
The arccotangent function, cot−1 x, gives the angle whose cotangent is x.
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First, recall that:

cot (−x) = π − cot (x) for all real x


−1 −1

We know that:
π p p π
µ ¶
−1
cot = 3 ⇒ cot ( 3) =
6 6
Thus: www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

p p π 5π
cot (− 3) = π − cot ( 3) = π − =
−1 −1
6 6

Step 3: Compute the Given Expression


Now, substitute the evaluated values back into the original expression:
−1
p −1
p π 5π
tan 3 − cot (− 3) = −
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3 6 www.cbse.page

To subtract these fractions, find a common denominator (6):


π 2π 5π 5π
= , =
3 6 6 6

2π 5π 3π π
− =− =−
6 6 6 2
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Step 4: Verify the Principal Value µ


π π

The principal value of tan x is in − , , and cot−1 x is in (0, π).
−1
2 2
π
The computed value − is within the range of possible principal values
2
for the difference of these two functions.
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Final Answer
π

2

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§ 2021 PYQs
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◎ 65/1 All Sets
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2021 September

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š 2021 PYQ 47 ¥ 65/1, Set 1


µ ¶
−1 1 1
Simplify : sec 2
, 0 < x < p
2x − 1 2
Solution
2 cos−1 x A 2 Marks
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Let x = cos θ ∴ θ = cos−1 x


µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1 −1 1
sec = sec = sec
2x 2 − 1 2 cos2 θ − 1 cos 2θ

= sec−1(sec 2θ) = 2θ = 2 cos−1 x


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Concept
Builder
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Problem Statement
We need to simplify the expression:
µ ¶
−1 1 1
sec 2
, 0<x <p
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2x − 1 2 www.cbse.page

Step 1: Understand the Domain and Range


First, let’s analyze the domain of the given expression. The function
sec−1(y) is defined for y ≤ −1 or y ≥ 1.
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Given:
1 1
y= 2 , 0<x <p
2x − 1 2
Let’s find the range of y:
2
A Determine the range of 2x − 1:
1
– For 0 < x < p :
2
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à !2
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2 1 2 1 1
* x ranges from 0 to 2 (since x < p = ).
2
2
2
* Therefore, 2x ranges from 0 to 1.
2
* Thus, 2x − 1 ranges from −1 to 0.
1
A Find the range of y = 2 :
2x − 1
– As 2x 2 − 1 goes from −1 to 0, y goes from −1 to −∞:
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2 + + −
– When 2x − 1 → −1 (i.e., x → 0 ): y → −1 .

1
– When 2x 2 − 1 → 0− (i.e., x → p ): y → −∞.
2
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Since sec−1(y) is defined for y ≤ −1 (as y is negative here), our expression


is valid in the given interval.
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Step 2: Simplify the Expression


We need to simplify: µ ¶
−1 1
sec
2x 2 − 1
Recall that:
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−1 1
sec = cos−1(a)
a µ ¶
1 −1 1
This identity holds because sec θ = , so sec = cos−1(a).
cos θ a
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Applying this to our expression:


µ ¶
−1 1 −1 2
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sec = cos (2x − 1) www.cbse.page

2x 2 − 1
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Step 3: Further Simplification Using Double Angle Identity


Recall the double angle identity for cosine:

cos(2θ) = 2 cos2 θ − 1

Let’s set:
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2x − 1 = cos(2θ)
Then:
cos−1(2x 2 − 1) = 2θ
Now, express θ in terms of x:
2 2 1 + cos(2θ) 2
2x − 1 = cos(2θ) =⇒ x = = cos θ
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x = cos θ (since x > 0)


Thus:
θ = cos (x)
−1

Substituting back:
cos−1(2x 2 − 1) = 2 cos−1(x)
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Step 4: Final Simplified Form


Therefore, the simplified form of the original expression is:
µ ¶
−1 1 −1
sec = 2 cos (x)
2x 2 − 1
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Verification of the Interval


1
Given 0 < x < p :
2
1
A x is positive and less than p .
2
π π
µ ¶
−1
A cos (x) is defined and returns an angle in , because:
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4 2
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π
µ ¶
1
– cos =p
4 2
π
µ ¶
– cos =0
2
π
A Thus, 2 cos (x) ranges from to π, which is consistent with the
−1
2
range of sec−1(y) for y ≤ −1.
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Final Answer
2 cos−1 x

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◎ 65 B www.cbse.page

2021 September

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š 2021 PYQ 48 ¥ 65 B, Set 1


µ ¶
−1 4π
Find the principal value of tan tan
3

OR
à !
−1 1
Write the principal value of cos
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−p www.cbse.page

Solution
π 3π
OR A 1 Marks
3 4

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Concept
Builder

µ ¶
−1 4π
Find the principal value of tan
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tan www.cbse.page

3
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Concept Explanation:

A The inverse tangent function, tan−1(x), has the principal value range
π π
µ ¶
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− , . www.cbse.page

2 2
A For any angle θ, the expression tan (tan θ) equals the unique angle
−1

in that interval whose tangent is tan θ.


A Because the tangent function is periodic with period π, we can
¶ (or add) multiples of π to θ to get an equivalent angle in
subtract
π π
µ
− , .
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2 2
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Trick to Solve:

A For θ = , subtract π to obtain:
3
4π π
−π = ,
3 3
π π
µ ¶
which lies in − , .
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2 2

Step-by-Step Solution:

A We start with the expression:


µ ¶
−1 4π
tan tan
3
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A Using the periodicity of the tangent function:


π
µ ¶
4π 4π
tan = tan − π = tan
3 3 3
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π π π
µ ¶
A Since is in the interval − , ,
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3 2 2
π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 4π −1
tan tan = tan tan =
3 3 3

π
Final Answer :
3
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Concept
Builder

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Concept Explanation:

A The principal value branch of cos−1(x) is:


cos−1 : [−1, 1] → [0, π]

A We need to find the angle θ ∈ [0, π] such that:


1
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2
3π 1 3π
A We know that cos = − p , and ∈ [0, π], so it is the required
4 2 4
principal value.

Trick to Solve:
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A For negative cosine values, the principal value will lie in the second
quadrant.
3π 1
A Use standard angle values: cos = − p
4 2

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à !
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−1 1 3π www.cbse.page

Final Answer: cos −p =


2 4

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š 2021 PYQ 49 ¥ 65 B, Set 1

Prove that : "p p #


1 + sin x + 1 − sin x x π
µ ¶
−1
cot p p = , x ∈ 0,
1 + sin x − 1 − sin x 2 4

Solution
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A 3 Marks

Given expression is
x x x x
cos + sin + cos − sin
cot−1 2 2 2 2
x x x x
cos + sin − cos + sin
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2 2 2 2
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x
2 cos x
= cot −1 2 = cot−1
cot
x 2
2 sin
2
x
=
2

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Concept
Builder

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Problem Statement
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We need to prove the following identity:


"p p #
1 + sin x + 1 − sin x x π
µ ¶
−1
cot p p = , x ∈ 0,
1 + sin x − 1 − sin x 2 4
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Step 1: Simplify the Expression Inside the Cotangent Inverse


Let’s denote the expression inside the cotangent inverse as:
p p
1 + sin x + 1 − sin x
E =p p
1 + sin x − 1 − sin x
Rationalizing the Expression
Multiply numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the
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denominator: p p
( 1 + sin x + 1 − sin x)2
E= p p
( 1 + sin x)2 − ( 1 − sin x)2
Expanding the Numerator and Denominator

A Numerator:
p p 2
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( 1 + sin x + 1 − sin x) = 2 + 2 cos x
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A Denominator:
p 2
p 2
( 1 + sin x) − ( 1 − sin x) = 2 sin x

Thus:
1 + cos x
E=
sin x
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Using Trigonometric Identities
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Using double-angle identities:


2 x
µ ¶
2 cos
x
µ ¶
2
E= µ ¶ = cot
x x
µ ¶
2
2 sin cos
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2 2 www.cbse.page

Step 2: Apply the Cotangent Inverse


Now we have:
x x
µ µ ¶¶
cot−1(E ) = cot−1 cot =
2 2
x
since is within the principal range (0, π) of cot−1.
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Conclusion
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We have proved the identity:


"p p #
−1 1 + sin x + 1 − sin x x
cot p p =
1 + sin x − 1 − sin x 2
"p p #
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−1 1 + sin x + 1 − sin x x
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cot p p =
1 + sin x − 1 − sin x 2

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§ 2020 PYQs
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◎ 65/C − All Sets
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2020 July

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š 2020 PYQ 50 ¥ 65/C, Set 1

Two angles of a triangle are cot−1 2 and cot−1 3. The third angle of the
triangle is

Solution
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or 135◦ A 1 Marks
4

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Concept
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Builder

Concept Explanation:
−1 −1
A The given angles are in the form cot 2 and cot 3. Recall that
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µ ¶
−1 −1 1
cot (x) = tan for x > 0.
x
A Thus, we have:
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 −1 1 −1 −1 1
cot 2 = tan and cot 3 = tan .
2 3
A The sum of angles in a triangle is π radians. If two angles of a triangle
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are known, the third angle is found by subtracting the sum of these
two from π.

Trick to Solve:
A Convert cot−1 expressions to tan−1 using the identity
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cot−1 x = tan−1 x1 .
¡ ¢
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A Use the sum formula for inverse tangent:


a +b
µ ¶
−1 −1 −1
tan (a) + tan (b) = tan , if ab < 1.
1 − ab
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A Finally, use the triangle angle sum property to compute the third
angle.
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Step-by-Step Solution:
A Express the given angles in terms of tan−1:
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 −1 1 −1 −1 1
cot (2) = tan , cot (3) = tan
2 3
A Sum the two angles:
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µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1
tan + tan
2 3
Use the formula:
a +b
µ ¶
−1 −1 −1
tan (a) + tan (b) = tan
1 − ab
1 1
where here, a = and b = .
2
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Thus,
1 1 3+2 5 1 1 1 5
a +b = + = = , 1 − ab = 1 − · = 1 − = .
2 3 6 6 2 3 6 6

π
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1 −1 5/6 −1
∴ tan
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+ tan = tan = tan (1) = .www.cbse.page
2 3 5/6 4
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A Now, let the three angles of the triangle be:


µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1
A = tan , B = tan , C = third angle.
2 3
Since:
π
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A +B = , www.cbse.page

4
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and the sum of angles in a triangle is π, we have:


π 3π
C = π− = .
4 4


Final Answer: The third angle of the triangle is .
4
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š 2020 PYQ 51 ¥ 65/C, Set 1


−1 1 −1 1 −1 31
Prove that 2 tan + tan = tan
2 7 17
Solution
A 4 Marks
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µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1 −1 4 −1 1
LHS = 2 tan + tan = tan + tan
2 7 3 7
4 1
+ 
−1  3 7 −1 31

= tan   = tan = RHS
4 1  17
1− ·
3 7
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Concept
Builder

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Concept Explanation:
A Inverse tangent functions can be added using the formula:
a +b
µ ¶
−1 −1 −1
tan a + tan b = tan
1 − ab
provided that ab < 1 and the resulting angle lies in the principal
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value range.
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A When a multiple of an inverse tangent is involved, we can use the


double angle formula for tangent:
2 tan θ
tan(2θ) = .
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1 − tan2 θ www.cbse.page
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Trick to Solve:
µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1
A Express 2 tan by finding tan 2 tan using the double angle
2 2
formula.
−1 1
A Then add tan to the result using the sum formula for inverse
7
tangents.
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Step-by-Step Solution:
−1 1 −1 1 1
A Evaluate 2 tan : Let θ = tan ; then tan θ = . Using the
2 2 2
double-angle formula for tangent:
1
2 tan θ 2 · 1 1 4
tan(2θ) =
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= 2 = = = .
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1 − tan2 θ 1 2 1−1 3 3
µ ¶
1− 4 4
2
Therefore, µ ¶
−1 1 −1 4
2 tan = tan .
2 3
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−1 1
A Add tan
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: We now need to compute:
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7 µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 4 −1 1
tan + tan .
3 7
Using the formula for the sum of inverse tangents:
−1 a + b
µ ¶
−1 −1
tan a + tan b = tan ,
1 − ab
4
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with a = and b = . Compute:


3 7
4 1 28 + 3 31
a +b = + = = ,
3 7 21 21
and
4 1 4 17
1 − ab = 1 − · = 1 − = .
3 7 21 21
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Therefore,
31
 
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 4 −1 1 −1 
 21  −1 31
tan + tan = tan   = tan .
3 7 17  17
21

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š 2020 PYQ 52 ¥ 65/C, Set 2


−1 1 − x
µ ¶
−1
p 1
Prove that tan x = cos , x ∈ [0, 1]
2 1+x
Solution
A 4 Marks
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p
−1 1 −1
p
LHS = tan ( x) = · 2 tan ( x)
à 2p !
2
1 1 − ( x)
= · cos−1 p 2
2 1 + ( x)
−1 1 − x
µ ¶
1
= · cos = RHS
2 1+x
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Concept
Builder

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Concept Explanation:
p π
A The expression tan−1 x represents the angle θ (with θ ∈ 0, 2 when
£ ¢
p
x ∈ [0, 1]) such that tan θ = x.
A The double-angle formula for cosine is:
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1 − tan2 θ
cos(2θ) =
1 + tan2 θ
p
A Substituting tan θ = x gives:
1−x
cos(2θ) =
1+x
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A Since the range of cos−1 (for the principal value) is [0, π], and with
x ∈ [0, 1] we have 2θ ∈ [0, π], taking the inverse cosine yields:
−1 1 − x
µ ¶
2θ = cos
1+x

Trick to Solve:
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p
A Substitute θ = tan −1
x so that you can apply the double-angle
identity.
A This reduces the original ¶expression to a direct relation between
1−x
µ
−1
p −1
tan x and cos .
1+x
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Step-by-Step Solution:
Let
p p
θ = tan −1
x =⇒ tan θ = x.
Using the double-angle formula for cosine, we have:
1 − tan2 θ 1 − x
cos(2θ) = = .
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π π
· ¸ · ¸
Since x ∈ [0, 1], θ lies in 0, , so 2θ ∈ 0, ⊂ [0, π].
4 2
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Therefore, applying the inverse cosine on both sides:


−1 1 − x
µ ¶
2θ = cos .
1+x
Dividing by 2, we obtain:
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−1 1 − x
µ ¶
1
θ = cos .
2 1+x
p
Recall that θ = tan−1
x. Thus, we have proven:
p −1 1 − x
µ ¶
−1 1
tan x = cos .
2 1+x

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Final Answer: The identity is proved.


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š 2020 PYQ 53 ¥ 65/C, Set 3


−1 −1 π
Solve for x : sin (1 − x) − 2 sin x=
2
Solution
A 4 Marks
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−1 −1 π
sin (1 − x) − 2 sin x=
2
π
−1
⇒ sin (1 − x) = + 2 sin−1 x
2
π
µ ¶
⇒ 1 − x = sin + 2 sin−1 x
2
2
¡ −1
¢ ¡ 2 ¢
⇒ 1 − x = cos 2 sin x = 1 − 2 sin sin x
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2 1
⇒ 1 − x = 1 − 2x ∴ x = 0,
2
1
⇒ x = does not satisfy the given equation
2
1
∴ x ̸= , x = 0 . . .
2
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Concept
Builder

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Problem Statement
We need to solve for x in the equation:
−1 −1 π
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2
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Step 1: Understand the Domain of the Equation


First, let’s determine the domain of the equation to ensure that the
inverse sine functions are defined.
−1
1. For sin (1 − x) to be defined:
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−1 ≤ 1 − x ≤ 1 =⇒ 0 ≤ x ≤ 2

2. For sin−1 x to be defined:


−1 ≤ x ≤ 1
Combining these two conditions, the domain of x is:
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Step 2: Let’s Simplify the Equation


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Let’s denote:
π
· ¸
θ = sin x =⇒ x = sin θ and θ ∈ 0,
−1
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(since x ∈ [0, 1])
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2
Now, the equation becomes:
π
sin (1 − sin θ) − 2θ =
−1
2
π
sin (1 − sin θ) = 2θ +
−1
2
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Step 3: Take the Sine of Both Sides


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To eliminate the inverse sine, take the sine of both sides:


π
µ ¶
1 − sin θ = sin 2θ +
2

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Recall that:
π
µ ¶
sin 2θ + = cos 2θ
2
Thus, the equation simplifies to:

1 − sin θ = cos 2θ

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Step 4: Use Trigonometric Identities


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We know the double-angle identity for cosine:


2
cos 2θ = 1 − 2 sin θ

Substituting this into the equation:


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2
1 − sin θ = 1 − 2 sin θ
2
− sin θ = −2 sin θ
2
sin θ = 2 sin θ
sin θ(1 − 2 sin θ) = 0
This gives two possible solutions:
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1. sin θ = 0 =⇒ θ = 0 =⇒ x = sin 0 = 0
1 π π 1
2. 1 − 2 sin θ = 0 =⇒ sin θ = =⇒ θ = =⇒ x = sin =
2 6 6 2

Step 5: Verify the Solutions


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We must check both potential solutions in the original equation to


ensure they are valid.

A For x = 0:
−1 −1π π
sin (1 − 0) − 2 sin 0 = − 0 =
2 2
This satisfies the original equation.
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1
A For x = :
2
π π π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1 −1 1
sin 1 − − 2 sin = sin −2× = − = −
2 2 2 6 6 3 6
π 1
However, the right-hand side is , so x = does not satisfy the
2 2
original equation.
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Step 6: Conclusion
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The only valid solution within the domain [0, 1] is:

x =0
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However, let’s double-check the range of θ when x = 0:


A x = 0 =⇒ θ = sin 0 = 0
−1

A Substituting back:
−1 π π
sin (1 − 0) − 2 × 0 = − 0 =
2 2
This matches the right-hand side.
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1
For x = , the equation does not hold, so it’s not a valid solution.
2

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Final Answer
0
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◎ 65/1 − All Sets


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2020 March

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š 2020 PYQ 54 ¥ 65/1, Set 1


µ ¶
−1 3π
The principal value of tan tan
5
2π −2π 3π −3π
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 5
Solutionwww.cbse.page www.cbse.page

−2π
(b) A 1 Marks
5

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Concept
Builder

Problem Statement
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µ ¶
−1 3π
Find the principal value of tan tan
5

Solution
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π π
µ ¶
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We know that tan (tan θ) = θ only when θ ∈ − , .


−1
2 2
π 3π
µ ¶

Here, ◦
= 108 which lies in the second quadrant < <π .
5 2 5
Since the tangent function has period π, we can write:
µ ¶ µ ¶
3π 3π 2π
tan = tan − π = tan −
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π π
µ ¶

Now, − ∈ − , , so:
5 2 2
µ ¶ µ µ ¶¶
−1 3π −1 2π 2π
tan tan = tan tan − =−
5 5 5

Conclusion
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The principal value is:




5
Correct option is (b)
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š 2020 PYQ 55 ¥ 65/1, Set 1

Prove that
−1
³ p
2
´
−1 1
sin 2x 1 − x = 2 cos x, p ≤ x ≤ 1
2
Solution
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A 2 Marks

Put x = cos θ ⇔ θ = cos x−1


³ p ´
−1
L.H.S. = sin 2x 1 − x 2
= sin (2 cos θ sin θ) = sin (sin 2θ)
−1 −1

= 2θ = 2 cos−1 x = R.H.S.
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Concept
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Builder
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Concept Explanation:
A We need to prove that
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−1
³ p
2
´
−1 1
sin 2x 1 − x = 2 cos x, p ≤ x ≤ 1.
2
A Recall the double-angle identity for sine:
sin(2θ) = 2 sin θ cos θ.
" #
1
A Also, if we let θ = cos −1
x (so x = cos θ), then since x ∈ p , 1 , we
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2
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π π
· ¸ · ¸
have θ ∈ 0, and consequently, 2θ ∈ 0, which lies in the
4 ¸ 2
π π
·
−1
principal range of sin (namely, − , ).
2 2

Trick to Solve:
p
A Substitute θ = cos−1 x to express x and 1 − x 2 in terms of
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trigonometric functions.
A Use the double-angle formula to simplify the expression inside the
inverse sine.
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Step-by-Step Proof:
A Let
π
· ¸
θ = cos−1 x =⇒ x = cos θ, with θ ∈ 0, .
2
A Then, since 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, we have
p p
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1 − x 2 = 1 − cos2 θ = sin θ.www.cbse.page

A Substitute in the left-hand side:


p
2x 1 − x 2 = 2 cos θ sin θ = sin(2θ).

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A Therefore,
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sin−1 2x 1 − x 2 = sin−1 (sin(2θ)) .


π π
· ¸ · ¸
A Since θ ∈ 0, , it follows that 2θ ∈ 0, which lies within the
4 2
−1
principal range of sin x.
Hence,
−1
sin (sin(2θ)) = 2θ.
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A Substituting back θ = cos−1 x, we obtain:


³ p ´
−1 2 −1
sin 2x 1 − x = 2 cos x.

Hence: The identity is proved.


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š 2020 PYQ 56 ¥ 65/1, Set 2

The principal value of µ ¶


−1 13π
cos cos
6
13π π π π
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 www.cbse.page
2 3 6
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Solution
A 1 Marks
π
(d)
6

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Concept
Builder

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Problem Statement
We need to find the principal value of:
µ ¶
−1 13π
cos cos
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6 www.cbse.page

Step 1: Understand the Principal Value of cos−1


The principal value of the inverse cosine function, cos−1(x), is the angle
θ in the interval [0, π] such that cos θ = x.

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Step 2: Simplify the Angle Inside the Cosine Function


13π
First, simplify :
6
13π π
= 2π +
6 6
This is because:
12π 13π 12π π
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6 6 6 6
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Since the cosine function has a period of 2π, we have:


π π
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
13π
cos = cos 2π + = cos
6 6 6

Step 3: Apply the Inverse Cosine Function


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Now, the expression becomes:


π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 13π −1
cos cos = cos cos
6 6
π
We need to determine if lies within the principal range of cos−1, which
6
is [0, π].
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π
Since is indeed within [0, π], we have:
6
π π
µ ¶
−1
cos cos =
6 6

Step 4: Verify the Options


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Let’s look at the given options:

A (a)
13π
6
 Incorrect (not in [0, π])

A (b)
π
2
 π
Incorrect (does not match )
6

A (c)
π
3
 π
Incorrect (does not match )
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6 www.cbse.page
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A (d)
π
6
 Correct (matches our result)
Conclusion
π
µ ¶
−1 13π
The principal value of cos cos is .
6 6
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Final Answer
π
6

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š 2020 PYQ 57 ¥ 65/1, Set 3


µ ¶
−1 7π
The value of tan tan is
6
π π π 7π
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 2 3 6
Solution
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π
(a) A 1 Marks
6

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Concept
Builder

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Problem Statement
We need to find the value of:
µ ¶
−1 7π
tan tan
6

Step 1: Understand the Principal Value of tan−1


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−1
The principal value of the inverse tangent function, tan (x), is the angle
π π
µ ¶
θ in the interval − , such that tan θ = x.
2 2

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7π 7π
Step 2: Evaluate tan First, compute tan :
6 6
7π π
= π+
6 6
We know that:
π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
1
tan π + = tan =p
6 6 3
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Thus:
7π 1
tan =p
6 3

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−1 7π
Step 3: Apply tan to tan
6
Now, the expression becomes:
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µ ¶ Ã !
−1 7π −1 1
tan tan = tan p
6 3
We know that: Ã !
π π
µ ¶
1 −1 1
tan =p ⇒ tan p =
6 3 3 6
However, we must ensureµ that ¶the result lies within the principal value
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−1 π π www.cbse.page

range of tan , which is − , .


2 2
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But is not in this interval. Therefore, we need to find an equivalent
6
π π
µ ¶
angle within − , that has the same tangent value.
2 2
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Step 4: Find the Equivalent Angle in the Principal Range



Since tan has a period of π, we subtract π from to find an equivalent
6
angle:
7π π
−π =
6 6
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π π π
µ ¶
Now, is within the principal range − , , and:
6 2 2
π
µ ¶
1
tan =p
6 3
Thus: Ã !
π
µ ¶
−1 7π −1 1
tan tan = tan p =
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Verification
Let’s verify the principal value:
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A The angle is in the third quadrant where tangent is positive.
6
π π
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1
A The reference angle is , and tan =p .
6 6 3
à !
−1 1 π
A The principal value of tan p is indeed , as it lies within
3 6
π π
µ ¶
− , .
2 2
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Final Answer
π
6

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◎ 65/2 All Sets


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2020 March

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š 2020 PYQ 58 ¥ 65/2, Set 1


3+λ
µ ¶
tan 3 + tan λ = tan
−1 −1 −1
is valid for what values of λ?
1 − 3λ
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µ ¶
1 1
(a) λ ∈ − ,
3 3
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1
(b) λ >
3
1
(c) λ <
3
(d) All real values of λ

Solution
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1
(c) λ < A 1 Marks
3

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Concept
Builder

Concept Explanation:
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A To use the identity:


a +b
µ ¶
−1 −1 −1
tan a + tan b = tan
1 − ab
this is valid only if ab < 1.
A In our case, a = 3 and b = λ, so the condition becomes:
1
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3λ < 1 ⇒ λ< . www.cbse.page

3
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Trick to Solve:

A Directly apply the condition ab < 1 to determine the domain for


validity of the sum formula.

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1
Final Answer: (c) λ <
3

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š 2020 PYQ 59 ¥ 65/2, Set 1


−1
The range of the principal value branch of the function y = sec x is

µ ¶
OR
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−1 1 www.cbse.page

The principal value of cos − is


2
Solution
π
½ ¾

[0, π] − OR A 1 Marks
2 3

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Concept
Builder

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Concept Explanation:
−1
A The function y = sec x is defined for x ≤ −1 or x ≥ 1.
−1
A The principal value branch of sec x is chosen such that it is the
inverse of the restricted sec y function.
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A The standard restricted domain for sec y to make it one-one is:


π
y ∈ [0, π], y ̸=
2
π
because sec y is not defined at .
2
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−1
Final Answer: Range of the principal value branch of y = sec x is
π
½ ¾
[0, π] −
2

OR
Concept Explanation:
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A The principal value branch of cos−1 x is defined on x ∈ [−1, 1] and has


the range [0, π].
µ ¶
1
A We need to find cos −1
− , i.e., the angle θ ∈ [0, π] such that
2
1
cos θ = − .
2
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1 2π
A cos θ = − when θ = , which lies in the principal value range.
2 3

µ ¶
−1 1 2π
Final Answer : The principal value of cos − is :
2 3
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š 2020 PYQ 60 ¥ 65/2, Set 1

Prove that µ ¶
−1 1 −1 2 1 −1 4
tan + tan = sin
4 9 2 5
Solution
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A 4 Marks

1 2
 
+  1
−1  4 9 −1

LHS = tan   = tan
1 2 2
1− ·
4 9
1 −1 1
= · 2 tan
2  2
1
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 www.cbse.page

1 −1  2 ×  1 −1 4
µ ¶
= sin  2  = sin
2  1 2 5
1+
4
= RHS
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Concept
Builder

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To Prove: µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 2 1 −1 4
tan + tan = sin
4 9 2 5

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Step 1: Use Addition Formula for Inverse Tangent:


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a +b
µ ¶
−1 −1 −1
tan a + tan b = tan , if ab < 1
1 − ab
1 2
Here, let a = , b =
4 9
1 2 2 1
Check: ab = · = = < 1 ⇒ formula is valid.
4 9 36 18
1 2
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 www.cbse.page

µ ¶
1
µ ¶
2 +
−1 −1 −1  4 9
 
tan + tan = tan  
4 9 1 2
1− ·
4 9
9+8 17
   
µ ¶
−1 
 36  −1
 36  −1 17
= tan   = tan   = tan
2  34  34
1−
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µ ¶
−1 1
= tan
2

µ ¶
1 −1 4
Step 2: RHS is sin
2 5
µ ¶
−1 4 4
Let θ = sin ⇒ sin θ =
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5 5
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Use identity:
θ sin θ
µ ¶
tan =
2 1 + cos θ
Find cos θ:

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s µ ¶2 r r www.cbse.page
p 4 16 9 3
cos θ = 1 − sin2 θ = 1− = 1− = =
5 25 25 5
4 4
θ
µ ¶
5 5 4 1
tan = = = =
2 3 8 8 2
1+
5 5
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Therefore, µ ¶ µ ¶
1 −1 4 −1 1
sin = tan
2 5 2

Hence, LHS = RHS.


µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 2 1 −1 4
∴ tan + tan = sin
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Concept Behind the Identity:


A The identity is based on standard trigonometric inverse function
formulas.
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A The key idea is that we can simplify a sum of two inverse tangent
expressions using the identity:
a +b
µ ¶
−1 −1 −1
tan a + tan b = tan , if ab < 1
1 − ab
A This helps combine two inverse tangent expressions into a single
one, which may match another inverse expression on the other side
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of the equation.
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A The right-hand side of the given equation contains a sine inverse. So,
to compare both sides, we convert the sine inverse expression into a
tangent using the half-angle identity:
θ sin θ
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µ ¶ www.cbse.page

tan =
2 1 + cos θ
where θ = sin x.
−1
µ ¶
−1 4
A In this case, θ = sin . This value is special because it gives a right
5
triangle with known ratios (a Pythagorean triplet with sides 3, 4, 5),
making the trigonometric simplifications easier.
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A So we evaluate both sides:


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– LHS using the inverse tangent addition formula.


– RHS by converting the sine inverse into a tangent via the half-angle
formula.
µ ¶
−1 1
A After simplification, both sides reduce to tan , hence the
2
identity is proven.
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š 2020 PYQ 61 ¥ 65/2, Set 2


à !
−1 2 −1
If cos sin p + cos x = 0 then x is equal to
5
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1 2 2
(a) p (b) − p
www.cbse.page (c) p (d) 1
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5 5 5
Solution
2
(c) p A 1 Marks
5

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Concept
Builder

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Concept Behind:
A The function cos x has a principal value range of [0, π].
−1

π
A For an equation of the form cos(θ) = 0, the principal solution is θ =
2
(within the appropriate range).
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A When dealing with inverse trigonometric expressions, one often sets


the inside of the cosine to the angle that gives 0, then solves for the
variable.

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Trick to Solve:
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2 1
A Let θ = sin p . Then, cos θ = p .
−1
5 5
A Write the given equation as

cos θ + cos x = 0.
−1
¡ ¢

π
A Knowing that cos α = 0 when α = (in the principal range), set:
2
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π www.cbse.page

θ + cos x = .
−1
2
A Solve for cos−1 x and hence find x.

Step-by-Step Solution:

A Let www.cbse.page
à ! www.cbse.page

2
θ = sin −1
p .
5
Then, by definition,
r
2 p 4 1
sin θ = p and cos θ = 1 − sin θ =
2
1− = p .
5 5 5
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A The given equation is:


" Ã ! #
−1 2 −1
cos sin p + cos (x) = 0.
5
This implies:
π
θ + cos (x) = .
−1
2
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A Solving for cos−1(x):


π
cos (x) = − θ.
−1
2
A Take the cosine on both sides:
π
µ ¶
x = cos − θ = sin θ.
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2 www.cbse.page
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2
A But sin θ = p . Therefore:
5
2
x=p .
5

2
Final Answer: x = p
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5 www.cbse.page

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š 2020 PYQ 62 ¥ 65/2, Set 3


−1
The domain of the function f (x) = sin (2x) is
· ¸
1 1
(a) [0, 1] (b) [−1, 1] (c) − , (d) [−2, 2]
2 2
Solution
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· ¸
1 1
(c) − , A 1 Marks
2 2

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Concept
Builder

Problem Statement
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To determine the domain of the function f (x) = sin−1(2x), we need to


find all real numbers x for which the expression sin−1(2x) is defined.

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−1
Step 1: Understand the Domain of sin (y)
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The inverse sine function, sin (y), is defined only when y lies in the
interval [−1, 1]. That is:
−1 ≤ y ≤ 1

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Step 2: Apply the Domain Condition to f (x) = sin−1(2x)


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−1
For f (x) = sin (2x) to be defined, the argument 2x must satisfy:

−1 ≤ 2x ≤ 1

Step 3: Solve the Inequality for x


Divide the entire inequality by 2 to solve for x:
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1 1
− ≤x≤
2 2
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Step 4: Interpret the Result


−1
This means
· that
¸ the function f (x) = sin (2x) is defined for all x in the
1 1
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interval − , .
2 2
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Step 5: Match with the Given Options

A (a) [0, 1] Incorrect (only positive x and not the correct range)
A (b) [−1, 1]  Incorrect (too broad)
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A (c) − ,  Correct
· ¸
1 1
2 2

A (d) [−2, 2]  Incorrect (too broad)

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Final Answer · ¸
1 1
− ,
2 2

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◎ 65/3 All Sets


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2020 March

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š 2020 PYQ 63 ¥ 65/3, Set 1


−1
p
The principal value of cot (− 3) is
π π 2π 5π
(a) − (b) (c) (d)
6 6 3 6
Solution
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(d) A 1 Marks
6

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Builder

Concept Behind:
A The principal value branch of the inverse cotangent function, cot−1 x,
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is defined on the interval (0, π).


A That means for any real x, cot x ∈ (0, π).
−1

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A Also recall:
p
µ ¶

www.cbse.page cot =− 3 www.cbse.page

6
A So,
p−1 5π
cot (− 3) =
6
since this value lies in the principal value branch (0, π).


Final Answer: (d)
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6
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š 2020 PYQ 64 ¥ 65/3, Set 1


−1 π −1
Solve for x : sin 4x + sin 3x = −
2
OR
cos x π
µ ¶
−1 3π
Express tan , − < x < in the simplest form.
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Solution
A 2 Marks

Ans.1 Ans.2
−1 π
−1
µ
cos x

sin (4x) + sin (3x) = − tan−1
=
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2 1 − sinµ x
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π π
¶ 
−1 −1
⇒ sin (4x) = − − sin (3x)  sin − x 
2 −1  2
tan 

π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
⇒ 4x = − sin + sin−1 3x
 
1 − cos − x
2 2
π x
¡ −1 ¢ · µ ¶¸
= − cos sin 3x −1
= tan cot −
p
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4 2
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⇒ −4x = 1 − 9x 2
π π x π x
· µ ¶¸
−1
= tan tan − + = +
⇒ 2
16x = 1 − 9x 2 2 4 2 4 2

⇒ 25x 2 = 1
21 1
⇒x = ⇒x =±
25 5
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−1 −11
As sin 4x + sin 3x < 0, x ̸=
5
1
So, x = −
5

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Concept
Builder

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−1 −1 π
Solve for x : sin 4x + sin 3x = −
2

We are given:
−1 −1 π
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Concept Behind:
A The domain of the inverse sine function is [−1, 1].
−1 −1π
A If sin a + sin b = − , and both a and b lie in [−1, 1], then we can
2
use the identity:
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p p
−1 −1 −1
sin a + sin b = sin (a 1 − b 2 + b 1 − a 2)

A But this identity is complicated here. So instead, we use the simpler


trick:
Let:
π
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sin (4x) = θ ⇒ sin (3x) = − − θ
−1 −1
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2
Taking sine on both sides of second equation:
π
µ ¶
3x = sin − − θ
2
Using identity: sin(−A − B ) = − cos(B )

3x = − cos(θ)
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From sin θ = 4x, we find cos θ = 1 − (4x)2


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So:
p
3x = − 1 − 16x 2

Squaring both sides:


2 2 1 2 1 2
9x = 1 − 16x ⇒ 25x = 1 ⇒ x = ⇒x =±
25 5
But we must verify which value satisfies the original equation.
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1
Check x = :
5 µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 −1 4 −1 −1 3
sin (4x) = sin and sin (3x) = sin
5 5
π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 4 −1 3
Adding: sin + sin > 0 So, doesn’t satisfy LHS = −
5
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5 2
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1
Try x = − :
5 µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 −1 4 −1 −1 3
sin (4x) = sin − and sin (3x) = sin −
5 5
−1 −1
Use identity: sin (−a) = − sin (a)
π π
· µ ¶ µ ¶¸ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 4 −1 3 −1 4 −1 3
⇒ − sin + sin = − ⇒ sin + sin =
5
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5 2 5 5 2 www.cbse.page

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1
So x = − is the solution.
5

1
Final Answer: x = −
5
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OR
Problem Statement
cos x
µ ¶
−1
To simplify the expression tan .
1 − sin x

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Step 1: Understand the Structure


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We are given:
cos x
µ ¶
−1
tan
1 − sin x
Let us denote:
cos x cos x
µ ¶
−1
y = tan ⇒ tan y =
1 − sin x 1 − sin x
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Step 2: Use Identity for Tangent of a Difference


We recall the identity:
tan A − tan B
tan(A − B ) =
1 + tan A tan B
Also, recall the identity:
x
µ ¶
¶ 1 − tan
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π x www.cbse.page
µ
2
tan − =
x
µ ¶
4 2
1 + tan
2
Let’s relate the original expression to this.

Step 3: Use Half-Angle Substitution


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Use the half-angle identities:


x 2 x
µ ¶ µ ¶
2 tan 1 − tan
2 2
sin x = µ ¶ and cos x =
x x
µ ¶
1 + tan 2 1 + tan 2
2 2
Thus: www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

2 x
µ ¶
1 − tan
2
x 2 x
µ ¶ µ ¶
1 + tan 2 1 − tan
cos x 2 2
= µ ¶ =
x x x
µ ¶ µ ¶
1 − sin x 2
2 tan (1 + tan ) − 2 tan
2 2 2
1−
x
µ ¶
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1 + tan 2 www.cbse.page

2
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So we now have:
2 x
µ ¶
1 − tan
2
tan y =
x x
µ ¶ µ ¶
1 + tan2 − 2 tan
2 2
x
µ ¶
Let t = tan . Then:
2
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1− t2 1− t2
tan y = =
1 + t 2 − 2t (1 − t )2
Now observe:
x
µ ¶
¶ 1 − tan
π x 1−t
µ
2
tan − = µ ¶=
4 2 x 1+t
1 + tan
2
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So, ¶2
1−t (1 − t ) 2
1−t 2
π x
µ µ ¶
= 2
⇒ Take reciprocal: 2
= tan −
1+t (1 + t ) (1 − t ) 4 2
Thus:
cos x π x
µ ¶
−1
tan = −
1 − sin x 4 2
This is valid for values of x where the inverse tangent is defined and
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continuous in the expression:


3π π
− <x<
2 2

Final Answer
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π x

4 2

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š 2020 PYQ 65 ¥ 65/3, Set 2


µ ¶
−1 7 −1 1
tan + tan is equal to
9 8
π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 65 −1 63
(a) tan (b) tan (c) (d)
72 65 4 2
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Solution
π
(c) A 1 Marks
4

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Concept
Builder

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Problem Statement
To find the value of:
−1 7 −1 1
tan + tan
9 8

Step 1: Use the Identity for Sum of Inverse Tangents


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Recall the identity:


a +b
µ ¶
−1 −1 −1
tan a + tan b = tan if ab < 1
1 − ab
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Let:
7 1
a= , b=
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9 8 www.cbse.page
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First, check whether ab < 1:


7 1 7
ab = · = <1
9 8 72
So, we can apply the identity.

Step 2: Apply the Identity


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Compute the numerator:


7 1 56 + 9 65
a +b = + = =
9 8 72 72
Compute the denominator:
7 72 − 7 65
1 − ab = 1 − = =
72 72 72
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Now apply the formula:


65
 
7 1 72
tan−1 + tan−1 = tan−1   = tan−1(1)
 
9 8  65 
72

Step 3: Final Result


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We know that:
−1 π
tan (1) =
4

Final Answer
π
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š 2020 PYQ 66 ¥ 65/3, Set 3


µ ¶
−1 3 −1 3
tan sin + tan is equal to
5 4
7 24 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
24 7 2 4
Solutionwww.cbse.page www.cbse.page

24
(b) A 1 Marks
7

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Concept
Builder

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www.cuet.pw
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Problem Statement
Evaluate the expression:
µ ¶
−1 3 −1 3
tan sin + tan
5 4

Step 1: Use the Identity for tan(A + B )


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We use the identity:


tan A + tan B
tan(A + B ) =
1 − tan A tan B
Here: µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 3 −1 3
A = sin , B = tan
5 4
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Step 2: Find tan A


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µ ¶
−1 3
Since A = sin , we construct a right triangle:
5
A Opposite side = 3
A Hypotenuse = 5
p
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p p www.cbse.page

A Adjacent side = 52 − 32 = 25 − 9 = 16 = 4
Hence:
3
tan A =
4

µ B¶
Step 3: Find tan
−1 3
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Since B = tan , we directly get:


4
3
tan B =
4

Step 4: Apply the Tangent Addition Formula


Substitute the values:
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3 3 6 3
+
tan(A + B ) = 4 4 ¶= 4 = 2
9 7
µ
3 3
1− · 1−
4 4 16 16
3 16 48 24
tan(A + B ) = · = =
2 7 14 7
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Final Answer

24
7

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◎ 65/4 All Sets


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š 2020 PYQ 67 ¥ 65/4, Set 1


µ ¶
−1 3π
The value of sin cos is
5
π 3π −π −3π
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 5 10 5
Solution
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−π
(c) A 1 Marks
10

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Concept
Builder

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Problem Statement
Evaluate the expression: µ ¶
−1 3π
sin cos
5

Step 1: Understand the angle


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We are given: µ ¶

cos
5
Note that: µ ¶ µ ¶
3π 2π 3π 2π
= π− ⇒ cos = − cos
5 5 5 5
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This is because cosine is negative in the second quadrant.


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Step 2: Substitute and apply identity


We now evaluate:
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 3π −1 2π
sin cos = sin − cos
5 5
Using the identity:
µ ¶ µ ¶
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−1 −1 −1 2πwww.cbse.page
−1 2π
sin (−x) = − sin (x) ⇒ sin − cos = − sin cos
5 5

Step 3: Convert cosine to sine


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We know that:
π π 2π π
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
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cos x = sin − x ⇒ cos = sin − = sin − = sin


2 5 2 5 10 10 10

π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 2π −1
⇒ sin cos = sin sin =
5 10 10

Step 4: Final simplification


π
µ ¶
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−1 3π www.cbse.page

sin cos =−
5 10

Final Answer
π

10
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š 2020 PYQ 68 ¥ 65/4, Set 1


µ ¶ Ã p !
9π 9 −1 1 9 −1 2 2
Prove that : − sin = sin
8 4 3 4 3

Solution

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A 2 Marks

9π 9 −1 1
LHS = − sin
8 4 3

9 π
· ¸
−1 1 9 −1 1
= − sin = cos
4 2 3 4 3
s
µ ¶2 Ã p !

9 −1  1  9 −1 2 2
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= sin 1− = sin = RHS


4 3 4 3
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Concept
Builder

To prove the identity


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µ ¶ Ã p !
9π 9 −1 1 9 −1 2 2
− sin = sin ,
8 4 3 4 3
we will first manipulate the left-hand side and then verify that it equals
the right-hand side.
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Step 1: Rearranging the left-hand side


9
We can factor out from the left-hand side:
4
9 π
µ ¶ µ µ ¶¶
9π 9 −1 1 −1 1
− sin = − sin .
8 4 3 4 2 3

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Step 2: Relate inverse sine to cosine
Using the identity

−1 −1 π
sin (x) + cos (x) = ,
2
we have:
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π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 1
− sin = cos .
2 3 3
So the left-hand side becomes:
µµ ¶¶
9 −1 1
cos .
µ 4 µ ¶¶ 3
−1 1 1
Now we need to find cos cos
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3 3
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µ µ ¶¶
−1 1
Step 3: Calculate sin cos
µ µ ¶¶ 3
−1 1
To solve for sin cos , we use the identity
3
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sin (θ) + cos (θ) = 1.


µ ¶
−1 1
Let θ = cos , therefore
3
1
cos(θ) = .
3
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Thus, µ ¶2 p
2 1 1 8 2 2
sin (θ) = 1 − = 1 − = =⇒ sin(θ) = .
3 9 9 3

Step 4: Use the identity in the right-hand side


Now we know:
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µ µ ¶¶ p
−1 1 2 2
sin cos = .
3 3
Thus, we can write the left-hand side as:

µ µ ¶¶ Ã p !
9 −1 1 9 −1 2 2
cos = sin .
4 3 4 3
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Step 5: Conclusion
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Therefore, we conclude:

µ ¶ Ã p !
9π 9 −1 1 9 −1 2 2
− sin = sin .
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8 4 3 4 3 www.cbse.page

Thus, the identity is proven.

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š 2020 PYQ 69 ¥ 65/4, Set 3


" Ã p !#
−1 1 −1 5
The value of tan cos is
2 3
p p
3+ 5 −3 + 5
(a) (c)
2 2
p
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3− 5 −3 − 5
(b) (d)
2 2

Solution
A 1 Marks

Since there is a mistake in this question, so full marks be awarded to


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those students who attempted this question.

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š 2020 PYQ 70 ¥ 65/5, Set 1

Find the value of · µ ¶¸


−1 17π
sin sin −
8
Solution
π www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

− A 1 Marks
8

π π
· µ ¶¸ · µ ¶¸
−1 17π −1
sin sin − = − sin sin 2π + =−
8 8 8

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Concept
Builder

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To evaluate the expression


· µ ¶¸
−1 17π
sin sin − ,
8
µ ¶
17π
we can start by simplifying sin − .
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8 www.cbse.page

17π
Step 1: Simplifying −
8
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Since the sine function is periodic with a period of 2π, we can find a
coterminal angle.
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17π
First, we convert − into a positive angle.
8
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17π
We can add 2π to − :
8
16π
2π = ,
8
so: www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

17π 17π 16π 17π − 16π π


− + 2π = − + =− =− .
8 8 8 8 8
Thus,
π
µ ¶ µ ¶
17π
sin − = sin − .
8 8

π
µ ¶
Step 2: Evaluating sin −
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8
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Using the property of sine, sin(−x) = − sin(x), we have:


π π
µ ¶ µ ¶
sin − = − sin .
8 8

Step 3: Putting it all together


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Now substituting back, we have:


π
· µ ¶¸ · µ ¶¸
−1 17π −1
sin sin − = sin − sin .
8 8

Step 4: Using the property of inverse sine


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Next, we can use the property of the inverse sine function, which states:
−1 −1
sin (−x) = − sin (x).

Therefore,
π π
· µ ¶¸ µ µ ¶¶
−1 −1
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sin − sin = − sin sin .www.cbse.page

8 8
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π
µ µ ¶¶
−1
Step 5: Final evaluation of sin sin
8
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π π π
Since is within the range of − to , we can directly use:
8 2µ 2µ ¶¶
−1 π π
sin sin = .
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So we finally have:
π π
µ µ ¶¶
−1
sin − sin =− .
8 8

Conclusion
Thus, the value of the original expression is:
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π www.cbse.page


8

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š 2020 PYQ 71 ¥ 65/5, Set 1

Solve for
−1 −1 π
x : sin (1 − x) − 2 sin x=
2
Solution
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A 4 Marks

−1 −1 π
sin (1 − x) − 2 sin x=
2
π
µ ¶
⇒ (1 − x) = sin + 2 sin−1 x
2
−1 2
¡ ¢
⇒ (1 − x) = cos 2 sin x ⇒ 1 − x = 1 − 2x
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2 1
∴ 2x − x = 0 ⇒ x = 0, x =
2
1
since x = does not satisty the given equation
2
∴ x = 0 is the required solution.

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Concept
Builder

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Problem Statement
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We need to solve for x in the equation:


−1 −1 π
sin (1 − x) − 2 sin x=
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2
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Step 1: Determine the Domain of the Equation


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−1
A For sin (1 − x):
−1 ≤ 1 − x ≤ 1 =⇒ 0 ≤ x ≤ 2
−1
A For sin x:
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−1 ≤ x ≤ 1

Combining these, the domain is:

0≤x ≤1

Step 2: Simplify the Equation


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π
· ¸
Let θ = sin x, so x = sin θ with θ ∈ 0, .
−1
2
The equation becomes:
π
sin (1 − sin θ) − 2θ =
−1
2
π
sin (1 − sin θ) = 2θ +
−1
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Step 3: Take the Sine of Both Sides


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Taking sine:
π
µ ¶
1 − sin θ = sin 2θ + = cos 2θ
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2 www.cbse.page

Step 4: Use Trigonometric Identities


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Using cos 2θ = 1 − 2 sin2 θ:

1 − sin θ = 1 − 2 sin2 θ
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sin θ(1 − 2 sin θ) = 0


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Solutions:
A sin θ = 0 =⇒ x = 0
1 1
A sin θ = =⇒ x =
2 2

Step 5: Verify the Solutions


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A x = 0 satisfies the equation


1 π π
A x = gives − ̸=
2 6 2

Conclusion
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The only valid solution is:

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š 2020 PYQ 72 ¥ 65/5, Set 2

Evaluate:
π
· µ ¶¸
−1 1
sin − sin −
3 2
Solution
π π
· ¸
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sin + =1 A 1 Marks
3 6

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Builder

Problem Statement
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We need to evaluate the expression:


π
· µ ¶¸
−1 1
sin − sin −
3 2

Step 1: Evaluate the Inverse Sine Function


π π
· ¸
A Recall that sin x gives θ ∈ − , such that sin θ = x
−1
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2 2
π
µ ¶
1
A We know sin − = −
6 2
A Therefore:
π
µ ¶
−1 1
sin − = −
2 6
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Step 2: Substitute Back into the Original Expression


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Substituting the value:


π π π π
· µ ¶¸ · ¸
sin − − = sin +
3 6 3 6
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Step 3: Simplify the Angle Inside the Sine Function


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Combining the angles:


π π π
+ =
3 6 2

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Step 4: Evaluate the Sine Function
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We know:
π
µ ¶
sin =1
2

Final Answer
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š 2020 PYQ 73 ¥ 65/5, Set 2

Prove that · µ ¶ ¸
−1 1 −1 9
tan 2 tan − cot 3 =
2 13
Solution
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A 4 Marks

1
   
 −1  2 · 2  1
−1 

LHS = tan tan 
   − tan
1  3
1−
 4 
4 1

 −1  3 − 3 
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= tan  tan  
  4 1 
1+ ·
3 3
µ ¶
−1 9 9
= tan tan = = RHS
13 13

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Concept
Builder

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To prove that · µ ¶ ¸
−1 1 −1 9
tan 2 tan − cot (3) = ,
2 13
we can break it down into manageable parts.

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µ ¶
−1 1
Step 1: Calculate 2 tan
2
Let’s denote
µ ¶
−1 1
θ = tan .
2
From this, we have:
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1
tan(θ) = .
2
Using the double-angle formula for tangent, we can find tan(2θ):
2 tan(θ)
tan(2θ) = .
1 − tan2(θ)
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1
Substituting tan(θ) = :
2
1
2· 1 1 4
tan(2θ) = 2 = = .
µ ¶2 = 1 3 3
1 1−
1− 4 4
2
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Step 2: Evaluate − cot (3)
Next, we know that
−1 π −1
cot (3) = − tan (3).
2
Thus,
π π
µ ¶
−1 −1 −1
− cot (3) = − − tan (3) = tan (3) − .
2 2
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Step 3: Combine the angles


Now we need to compute:
π
µ µ ¶ ¶ µ ¶
−1 1 −1 −1
tan 2 tan − cot (3) = tan 2θ + tan (3) − .
2 2
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π
Using the property that tan(a − ) = − cot(a):
2
π
µ ¶
tan 2θ + tan (3) − = − cot(2θ + tan−1(3)).
−1
2

−1
Step 4: Calculate cot(2θ + tan (3))
Now, we can rewrite cot(a + b) as:
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cot a cot b − 1
cot(a + b) = .
cot a + cot b
Let a = 2θ and b = tan−1(3).
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4 3
We know tan(2θ) = implies cot(2θ) = and tan(tan−1(3)) = 3, so
3 4
−1 1
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cot(tan (3)) = .
3
Now substituting into the formula:
−1
−1 cot(2θ) · cot(tan (3)) − 1
cot(2θ + tan (3)) = −1
.
cot(2θ) + cot(tan (3))
This can be expressed as:
µ ¶µ ¶
3 1
−1
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cot(2θ + tan (3)) = .


3 1
+
4 3
Calculating the numerator:
3 1 3 1
· = = ,
4 3 12 4
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so,
1 1 4 3
−1 − − 3 12 9
−1
cot(2θ + tan (3)) = 4 = 4 4 = 4 =− · =− .
3 1 9 4 13 4 13 13
+ +
4 3 12 12 12
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Step 5: Final Step


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Since we are looking for:


µ ¶
−1 1 −1 −1 9 9
tan(2 tan − cot (3)) = − cot(2θ + tan (3)) = −(− ) = .
2 13 13
Thus, we have proven that:
9
13
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š 2020 PYQ 74 ¥ 65/5, Set 3

Solve the equation for


π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 5 −1 12
x : sin + sin = (x ̸= 0)
x x 2
Solution
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x = 13 A 4 Marks

Given equation can be written as

π
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 12 −1 5 −1 12 −1 5
sin = − sin ⇒ sin = cos
x 2 x x x
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Ãp !
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x 2 − 25
µ ¶
−1 12 −1
∴ sin = sin
x x
p
12 x 2 − 25
⇒ =
x x
⇒ x 2 − 25 = 144 ⇒ x = ±13,
since x = −13 does not satisfy the given equation,
∴ required solution is x = 13.
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Concept

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Builder
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We are given:
π
µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 5 −1 12
sin + sin = , x ̸= 0
x x 2
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Concept Behind:
π
−1 −1
A Use identity: sin a + sin b = ⇒ cos a = sin b (if a 2 + b 2 = 1)
−1 −1
2
π
A Alternatively, if sin α + sin β = , then:
−1 −1
2
α2 + β2 = 1 (based on sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1)
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Let:
π
µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶ µ ¶
−1 5 −1 12 −1 5 −1 12
sin + sin = ⇒ cos = sin
x x 2 x x
Take sine on both sides:
µ µ ¶¶ s µ ¶2
−1 5 12 5 12
sin cos
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= ⇒ 1− =
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x x x x
Squaring both sides:
25 144 25 + 144 169 2
1− 2 = 2 ⇒ 1 = 2
= 2 ⇒ x = 169 ⇒ x = ±13
x x x x
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Now check valid values of x:


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For inverse sine to be defined:


5 12
−1 ≤ ≤ 1 and −1 ≤ ≤1
x x
So,
|x| ≥ 12 ⇒ x = 13 (valid),

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x = −13 ⇒ =− ,
−13 13

π
µ ¶ µ ¶
12 12 −1 5 −1 12
= − ⇒ sin − + sin − =−
−13 13 13 13 2
π
Which is not equal to .
2
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Final Answer : x = 13
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brain so that you can be ready for JEE mains or


CUET or other exams.
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
It’s very important to practice all recent PYQs
from all papers because CBSE will somehow twist
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

or modify these questions and give in your board


exam.
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Strict Warning
Don’t fall in the trap of sample papers which
others book publishers are selling or Youtubers
are promoting.
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
I don’t understand why, when CBSE has officially
provided you the sample papers in their website
then why don’t you download and print it out.
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
Those sample papers which Youtubers and Book
publishers are selling only conatins old PYQs and
self-made questions
www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page
www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page

Just see the hypocrisy, many book publishers and


edtech platforms has published their new
question bank and it does not contain recent
questions
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www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Fact
All book publishers do not include recent board
questions from all question papers.
www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page
www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page

Instead, they select some questions from previous


year question papers, reshuffle the question
numbers from different papers and sell it as CBSE
sample papers.
www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw
www.cbse.page

Even some questions are eself-made in their


sample papers.
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Sample papers are just a blueprint or replica of
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

question pattern which highlights the number of


questions, their marking and their type.

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

Never buy Sample papers


Only Previous Year
Questions (PYQs) are the
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

most important.

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cuet.pw

Telegram Channels

@board_cbse @pyqs12
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

@ncertx

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

www.cbse.page
www.cbse.page www.cbse.page

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