COMEDK 2024 Mock Test 1 Question Paper PDF
COMEDK 2024 Mock Test 1 Question Paper PDF
F
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STSE
RIE
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MOCKTE
ST-1
PDF
QUESTI
ON PAPER
CET Section
Subject Topic
C+M+P Complete Syllabus
1. This paper consists of 180 questions with 3 parts of Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics
• Chemistry: (Q. No. 1 to 60) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.
• Mathematics: (Q. No. 61 to 120) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct
answer carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.
• Physics: (Q. No. 121 to 180) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.
4. Darken the appropriate bubble using a pen in the OMR sheet provided to you. Once entered, the
answer cannot be changed. Any corrections or modifications will automatically draw a penalty of
1 mark
5. No clarification will be entertained during the examination. Doubts in the paper can be reported
to the coordinator after the exam
6. If the details in the OMR Sheet are not filled, If the OMR sheet is mutilated, torn, white Ink used,
the circles filled and scratched, then the OMR sheet will not be graded
Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207
Physical Constants:
h = 6.626 10−34 Js , N a = 6.022 1023 mol-1 , c = 2.998 108 m s-1 , me = 9.110−31 kg , R = 8.314 J mol-1 K -1
CET Section
Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60
1. Which of the following diseases is not correctly matched with the vitamins mentioned with it?
(a) Vitamin B2 - Cracking of lips (b) Vitamin C - Bone deformities
(I) Cu + → Cu 2 + + Cu
(a) (I), (II) (b) (I), (II), (III) (c) (II), (III), (IV) (d) (I), (IV)
7. Match the Column-I with Column-II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Methanol (i) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Fermentation (ii) Heated copper at 573 K
(a) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv) (b) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(c) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii) (d) (A) → (iv), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (i)
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CET Section
8. Which of the following statements is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?
(a) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
(b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
(c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
(d) It provides surface for redox reaction.
9. The condensation product of benzaldehyde and acetone is
O
(a) C6 H 5CH = C ( CH 3 )2 (b) C6H5CH2 C CH CH2
O O
(c) C6H5 C CH CH CH3 (d) C6H5 CH CH C CH3
11. The rate constant for the reaction, 2 N 2O5 → 4 NO2 + O2 is 2 10 −5 s −1 . If rate of reaction is
1.4 10−5 mol L−1s −1 , what will be the concentration of N 2 O5 in mol L−1 ?
15. Acetic acid can be halogenated in presence of phosphorus and chlorine. Formic acid cannot be
halogenated with same way because of
(a) presence of − H atom in formic acid (b) presence of − H atom in acetic acid
(c) absence of − H atom in CH 3COOH
17. Amino group is o, p − directing for electrophilic substitution reaction. But, on nitration the major
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CET Section
18. In a chemical reaction, the rate constant for the backward reaction is 7.5 10 −4 and the equilibrium
constant is 1.5 . The rate constant for the forward reaction is:
21. Freezing point of an aqueous solution is −0.186 C . Elevation of boiling point of same solution would be
vessel. Assuming that the gases are ideal and the partial pressure of C is 1.5 atm , the total pressure is
Cl 2 /FeCl3 Na/ether
P Q
Cl CH3 OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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CET Section
(a) (i) O2
(b) (i) NaNO 2 /HCl
+ (ii) H 2 O (warming)
(ii) H 2 O/H
Cl
(i) Oleum
(c) (d) (i) NaOH (aq), 298 K/1 atm
(ii) NaOH, (heating
+ (ii) HCl
(iii) H
30. Hydrolysis of an ester gives acid A and alcohol B . The acid reduces Fehling’s solution.
32. A first order reaction is half completed in 45 minutes. How long does it need for 99.9% of the reaction to
be completed?
(a) 10hr (b) 20hr (c) 5hr (d) 7.5hr
(a) reducing agent (b) oxidising agent (c) bleaching agent (d) none of these
35. Match the Column I with Column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
(A) Peptide linkage (i) Inversion
(B) Nucleic acid (ii) Polysaccharide
(C) Hydrolysis of cane sugar (iii) Proteins
(D) Starch (iv) Nucleotides
(a) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv) (b) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii)
(c) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii) (d) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (ii)
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CET Section
36. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
(A) Mischmetal (i) Alloy of Cu and Sn
(B) Ziegler catalyst (ii) Alloy of lanthanoid metals
(C) Brass (iii) TiCl4 + Al ( C2 H 5 )3
(a) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv) (b) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(c) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii) (d) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)
37. Given below are few mixtures formed by mixing two components. Which of the following binary
mixtures will have same composition in liquid and vapour phase?
(i) Ethanol + Chloroform (ii) Nitric acid + Water
(iii) Benzene + Toluene (iv) Ethyl chloride + Ethyl bromide
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
38. Under drastic conditions all the alcohols can be oxidized to carboxylic acids but which of the following
alcohols give carboxylic acids having same number of carbon atoms?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) tertiary (d) none of these
39. Which of the following alcohols will give the most stable carbocation during dehydration?
(a) 2 − Methyl −1 − propanol (b) 2 − Methyl −2 − propanol
(c) 1− Butanol (d) 2 − Butanol
40. Standard entropy of X 2 , Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 J K − mol−1 respectively. For the reaction,
1 3
X 2 + Y2 → XY3 , H rea'' = −30 kJ , to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be
2 2
(a) 750 K (b) 1000 K (c) 1250 K (d) 500 K
42. A compound ' A ' having the molecular formula C5 H12 O , on oxidation gives a compound ' B ' with
molecular formula C5 H10 O . Compound ' B ' gave a 2, 4 − dinitrophenylhydrazine derivative but did not
answer haloform test or silver mirror test. The structure of compound ' A ' is
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CET Section
43. Mark the correct Nernst equation for the given cell. Fe( s ) | Fe 2+ ( 0.001M ) || H + (1M ) | H 2( g ) (1bar ) | Pt( s )
Fe H +
2 2
Fe2+ H +
log
0.591 0.591
(a) Ecell = Ecell − (b) Ecell = Ecell − log
2 Fe H 2 2 Fe2 + H 2
H2
Fe 2+
(c) Ecell =
Ecell −
0.591
log
(d) Ecell = Ecell −
0.591
log
Fe H 2
H + 2
2 2
Fe 2 Fe2+ H +
KOH( alc. ) Br2 NaNH 2 / NH3
44. In the following sequence of reactions CH3CH 2 CH 2 I → ( A) → ( B ) → (C ) the end product is
47. When 0.1mol COCl3 ( NH 3 )5 is treated with excess of AgNO3 , 0.2 mol of AgCl are obtained, The
48. When solid lead iodide is added to water, the equilibrium concentration of I − becomes 2.6 10−3 M .
What is K sp for PbI 2 ?
(a) K 2 SO4 Cr2 ( SO4 )3 24 H 2O (Chrome alum) (b) PbCrO4 (Chromite yellow)
50. The rate constant is given by the equation k = p Ze − E / RT . Which factor should register a decrease for the
51. The increasing order of energies of various molecular orbitals is given below:
1s *1s 2s * 2s 2 px = 2 p y 2 p z * 2 p x = * 2 p y * 2 p z
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CET Section
58. Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant?
(a) CH 3CHFCOOH (b) FCH 3CH 2COOH (c) BrCH 2CH 2COOH (d) CH 3CHBrCOOH
(c) (d)
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CET Section
Mathematics
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60
1
61. cos 2sin −1 =
2
3 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 2 2
8 −6 2
62. If the matrix A = −6 7 −4 is singular, then =
2 −4
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5
4 x + 2
63. If A = is symmetric then x =
2x − 3 x −1
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 4
64. If X and Z are of order x n and 2 p respectively and n = p then 7 X − 5Z is of order
x3 + 3 x x −1 x+3
65. If f ( x ) = ax + bx + cx + dx + e =
4 3 2
x +1 −2 x x − 4 then e =
x−3 x + 4 3x
2 −3
66. If A = 0 2 5 , then A−1 exists if
1 1 3
(a) = 2 (b) = −2 (c) = 2 (d) none of these
68. The number of functions the set A into the set B , when n ( A ) = 7 and n ( B ) = 5 is
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CET Section
3 3x + 2
70. Let, f : R − → R be defined by f ( x ) = . Then,
5 5x − 3
1
(a) f −1 ( x ) = f ( x ) (b) f −1 ( x ) = − f ( x ) (c) ( fof ) x = − x (d) f −1 ( x ) = f ( x)
19
2 x x 3
71. Let, f : R → R be defined by f ( x ) = x 2 1 x 3
3 x x 1
Then f ( −1) + f ( 2 ) + f ( 4 ) =
sin x
+ cos x x0
72. The function f ( x ) = x , is continuous at x = 0 , then the value of k is
k x=0
1
73. The number of points at which the function f ( x ) = is not continuous is
x − x
1 − ( log x )2
74. If f ( x ) = cos−1 , then f ' ( e ) =
1 + ( log x )2
1 2
(a) (b) does not exist (c) 1 (d)
e e
dy
75. y = tan −1 ( sec x − tan x ) , then =
dx
1 1
(a) 2 (b) −2 (c) (d) −
2 2
1 1 1 dy
76. If y = 1 + + + + ... to , with x 1, then =
x x 2 3 dx
x
x2 y2 y2
(a) x 2 y 2 (b) (c) − (d)
y2 x2 x2
dy
77. If tan y = ecos 2 x sin x then =
dx
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CET Section
79. The radius of a circular plate is increasing at the rate of 0.01cm/sec when the radius is 12 cm . Then the
(a) e tan
−1
x
(b)
1 tan −1 x
e (c) 2e tan
−1
x
(d) e
(
tan −1 1/ x )
2
e x ( x + 1)
82. cos2 dx =
( xe x )
(a) cot ( xe ) x
(b) − cot xe x ( ) ( )
(c) tan xe x ( )
(d) − tan xe x
dx
83. dx =
sin 3 x cos x
−2 2
(a) (b) (c) −2 tan x (d) 2 tan x
tan x tan x
x
22 x
84. 2 22 2 x dx =
2x x
x 2 1 x 1
( log 2 )3 (b) 22 ( log 2 )
2
(a) 22 (c) 22 (d) 22
( log 2 )
3
( log 2 )3
1
0 x (1 − x )
9
85. dx =
1 1 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 11 110 110
/4 tan x
86. 0 sin x cos x
dx =
(a) 0 (b) 2 ( )
2 −1 (c) 2 −1 (d) 2 ( 2 +1 )
88. The area bounded by y = x 2 − 7 x + 10 and the x − axis is
5 11 9 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) `
2 3 2 2
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CET Section
89. The value of for which the vectors 3i − 6 j + k and 2i − 4 j + k are parallel is
2 3 5 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 2 5
91. ( a i )( a i ) + ( a j )( a j ) + ( a k )( a k ) =
(a) 3a (b) a (c) 0 (d) 2a
( ) ( )
2
92. Vectors a and b are inclined at an angle = 60 . If a = 1, b = 2 then a + 3b 3a − b =
(a) 225 (b) 275 (c) 325 (d) 300
( )
2
93. If a = 4, b = 2 and angle between a and b is , then a b is
6
(a) 48 (b) 16 (c) a (b) 15
94. If a L.P.P. admits optimal solution at two consecutive vertices of the feasible region, then
(a) the required optimal solution is at the midpoint of line joining these two points
(b) the optimal solution occurs at every point on the line joining these two points
(c) the L.P.P. under consideration is not solvable
(d) the L.P.P. under consideration must be reconstructed
95. The shaded region in the following figure is the solution set for the inequations,
(0,5
( 0, 4 )
X
O ( 4, 0 ) ( 6, 0 )
d 2 y dh 2 dy
96. The degree of the differential equation + = x sin is
dx 2 dx dx
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) not defined
dy
97. The solution of the differential equation x + 2 y = x 2 is
dx
x2 + c x2 x4 + c x4 + c
(a) y = (b) y = +c (c) y = (d) y =
4 x2 4 x2 4 x2
tan x
(a) tan x + tan y = k (b) tan x − tan y = k (c) =k (d) tan x tan y = k
tan y
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CET Section
99. A and B are events such that P ( A ) = 0.4, P ( B ) = 0.3 and P ( A B ) = 0.5 . Then P ( B ' A ) =
2 1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 10 5
100. Three person A, B and C fire at a target, inturn starting with A . Their probability of hitting the target
are 0.4, 0.3 and 0.2 respectively. The probability of two hits is
102. If A = x : x is a multipleof 2
B = x : x is a multipleof 5 then A − B is
4− x
103. The domain and range of the real function f defined by f ( x ) = is given by
x−4
(c) Domain = R − 4 , Range = −1 (d) Domain = R − −4 , Range = −1,1
104. Let, A = 1, 2,3 and consider the relation R = (1,1) , ( 2, 2 ) , ( 3,3) , (1, 2 ) , ( 2,3 ) , (1,3 ).
Then R is
(a) reflexive but not symmetric (b) reflexive but not transitive
(c) symmetric and transitive (d) neither symmetric nor transitive
4
106. The inequality 5 is true, when x belongs to
x
4 4 4
(a) , (b) −, (c) ( −,0 ) , (d) R
5 5 5
( )
7
107. The number of terms in the expansion of 1 + 3 x + 3 x 2 + x3 is
x x x −1 1− x
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x −1 1− x x x
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CET Section
1+ i
110. The multiplication inverse of is
1− i
(a) 1 + i (b) 1 − i (c) i −1 (d) − i
111. The number of permutations of n different objects taken r at a time, when a particular element is never
taken in each arrangement is
(a) n −1
Cr ( r − 1)! (b) n −1Cr −1 r ! (c) n −1Cr r ! (d) nCr r !
112. The number of triangles that are formed by choosing the vertices from a set of 12 point, seven of which
lie in on the same line.
(a) 105 (b) 15 (c) 175 (d) 185
113. If lim
( ekx − 1) sin kx
= 4 , then k is equal to
x →0 x2
(a) 2 (b) −2 (c) 2 (d) 4
sin x
114. lim is equal to
x →0 x
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) Positive infinity (d) does not exist
c1 − c2 c1 − c2 c2 − c1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 0
m +1
2
1+ m 2
1 + m2
x2 y 2
117. Length of the latus rectum of the ellipse + =1
25 9
9 18 50 25
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 3 3
1 − tan 2 15
118. The value of is
1 + tan 2 15
3
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) (d) 2
2
119. The value of cos1 cos2 cos3.....cos179 is
1
(a) (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) −1
2
5 −1 2
120. If tan −1 tan = , tan − tan = , then
4 3
(a) 4 − 4 = 0 (b) 4 − 3 = 0 (c) (d) None of these
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CET Section
Physics
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60
121. The density of mercury is 13600 kg m −3 . Its value in CGS system will be
122. During a projectile motion if the maximum height equals the horizontal range, then the angle of
projection with the horizontal is
123. The displacement-time graphs of two bodies A and B are shown in figure. The ratio of velocity of A, v A
to velocity of B, vB is
s A
60
30
t
1 1
(a) (b) 3 (c) (d) 3
3 3
124. A motor boat covers a given distance in 6 hours moving downstream of a river. It covers the same
distance in 10 hours moving upstream. The time (in hours) it takes to cover the same distance in still
water is
(a) 6 (b) 7.5 (c) 10 (d) 15
125. A wall is made of equally thick layers A and B of different materials. Thermal conductivity of A is twice
that of B . In the steady state, the temperature difference across the wall is 36 C . The temperature
126. A cup of tea cools from 65.5 C to 62.5 C in one minute in a room of 22.5C . How long will the same cup
of tea take to cool from 46.5C to 40.5C in the same room. (choose the nearest value in min.).
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CET Section
130. A block of ice at −10 C is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100C . Which of the following curves
Temperature Temperature
(a) (b)
Temperature
Temperature
(c) (d)
Heat supplied
Heat supplied
131. The surface energy of a liquid drop is u . It is splitted into 1000 equal droplets. Then its surface energy
becomes
(a) u (b) 10u (c) 100 u (d) 1000u
132. The maximum speed of a particle executing SHM is 10 m s −1 and maximum acceleration is 31.4 m s −2 . Its
time period is
(a) 2 s (b) 4 s (c) 6 s (d) 1s
133. A string of linear density 0.2 kg m −1 is stretched with a force of 500 N . A transverse wave of length
134. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the earth with a speed equal to half the
magnitude of escape velocity from the Earth. The height of the satellite above the Earth’s surface is (take
135. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric hollow spheres of radii r and R ( r ) such that the surface
(a)
(
Q R2 + r 2 ) (b)
Q
(c) zero (d)
Q(R + r)
4 0 ( R + r ) R+r
(
4 0 R 2 + r 2 )
136. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area of 100 cm 2 each and are separated by 2.5 mm . The
(a) 70.8 1011 J (b) 70.8 107 J (c) 7.8 107 J (d) 7.08 10−7 J
137. In a region of space the electric field is given by E = 8iˆ + 4 ˆj + 3kˆ . The electric flux through a surface of
(a) 800 units (b) 300 units (c) 400 units (d) 1500 units
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CET Section
138. A water molecule has an electric dipole moment 6.4 10−30 Cm when it is in vapour state. The distance
in meter between the centre of positive and negative charge of the molecule is
(b) 10 V
15 A
3A
8A
I
5A
144. If the resistance of a conductor is 5 at 50C &7 at 100C , then mean temperature coefficient of
resistance (of material) is
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CET Section
145. An electric heating element consumes 500 W when connected to a 100 V line. If the line voltage
146. Six lead-acid type of secondary cells each of emf 2.0 V and internal resistance 0.015 are joined in
series to provide a supply to a resistance of 8.5 . What are the current drawn from the supply and its
terminal voltage?
(a) 1.4 A,11.9 V (b) 1.8 A,11.9 V (c) 1.4 A,12.9 V (d) 1.8 A,12.9 V
(a) 7.25 106 m s −1 (b) 6.26 106 m s −1 (c) 5.25 106 m s −1 (d) 4.24 106 m s −1
148. A surface irradiated with light of wavelength 480 nm gives out electrons with maximum velocity
v m s −1 , the cut off wavelength being 600 nm . The same surface would release electrons with maximum
149. A galvanometer has 30 divisions and a sensitivity 16 μA/div . It can be converted into a voltmeter to read
3V by connecting
150. If the resistance of the upper half of a rigid loop is twice that of the lower half, the magnitude of
magnetic field at the centre is equal to
I a I
O
0 I 0 I 0 I
(a) zero (b) (c) (d)
4a 12a 3a
154. A long straight wire of a circular cross section (radius a ) carries a steady current I and the current I is
uniformly distributed across this cross-section. Which of the following plots represents the variation of
magnitude of magnetic field B with distance r from the centre of the wire?
B B
(a) (b)
r r
a a
B B
(c) (d)
r a r
a
21
155. The torque required to hold a small circular coil of 10 turns , area 1mm 2 and carrying a current of A
44
in the middle of a long solenoid of 103 turns m −1 carrying a current of 2.5 A , with its axis perpendicular
3h
156. The angular momentum of an electron in the hydrogen atom is . Here, h is Planck’s constant. The
2
kinetic energy of this electron is
(a) 4.35 eV (b) 1.51eV (c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV
157. M p denotes the mass of a proton and M n that of a neutron. A given nucleus, of binding energy B ,
contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M ( N , Z ) of the nucleus is given by ( c is the velocity of
light)
(a) M ( N , Z ) = NM n + ZM p + B / c 2 (b) M ( N , Z ) = NM n + ZM p − Bc 2
(c) M ( N , Z ) = NM n + ZM p + Bc 2 (d) M ( N , Z ) = NM n + ZM p − B / c 2
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CET Section
161. For the series LCR circuit shown in figure, what is the resonance frequency and the amplitude of the
current at the resonating frequency?
8 mH
220 V 20μF
44
162. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross-section 25 cm 2 has a resistance of 100 . If a magnetic
field which is perpendicular to the plane of coil changes at a rate of 1000 Tesla per second, the current in
the coil is
(a) 1A (b) 50 A (c) 0.5 A (d) 5 A
163. A circuit is made up of a resistance 1 and inductance 0.01H . An alternating emf of 200 V at 50 Hz is
connected, then the phase difference between the current and the emf in the circuit is
164. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283V and frequency 50 Hz is applied to a series LCR circuit in
165. An A.C . source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of the following is true?
(a) Current leads ahead of voltage in phase
(b) Current lags behind voltage in phase
(c) Current and voltage are in same phase
(d) Any of the above may be true depending upon the value of resistance.
166. The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by = 10t 2 − 50t + 250 . Then induced emf at t = 3s is
167. A capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X , , if capacitance and frequency become double, then
reactance will be
(a) 4X (b) X / 2 (c) X / 4 (d) 2X
168. At resonant frequency the current amplitude in series LCR circuit is
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Zero (d) Infinity
169. Let nh and ne be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic semiconductor. Then
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CET Section
(a) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to p − side and the depletion region becomes
thick
(b) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to n − side and the depletion region becomes
thin
(c) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to n − side and the depletion region becomes
thick
(d) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to p − side and the depletion region becomes
thin
172. A. Wavelength of microwaves is greater than that of UV rays
B. The wavelength of IR-rays is lesser than that UV rays
C. The wavelength of microwaves is lesser than that of IR rays
D. Gamma ray has shortest wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum
of the above statements
(a) A and B are true (b) B and C are true (c) C and D are true (d) A and D are true
173. If one face of a prism of prism angle 30 and = 2 is silvered, the incident ray retraces its initial path.
(a) − 2.5 D and concave lens (b) − 2.5 D and convex lens
(c) − 3.5 D and concave lens (d) − 3.5 D and convex lens
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CET Section
179. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is 60 cm. To obtain a magnification of 20, the focal length
180. The focal length of a biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 0.06 m . Radii of curvature are in the ratio
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