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COMEDK 2024 Mock Test 1 Question Paper PDF

The COMEDK 2024 Mock Test-1 consists of 180 multiple choice questions across Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics, with no negative marking. The exam duration is 3 hours, and specific instructions regarding the OMR sheet and prohibited items are provided. Additionally, useful data including atomic weights and physical constants is included for reference.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
20 views23 pages

COMEDK 2024 Mock Test 1 Question Paper PDF

The COMEDK 2024 Mock Test-1 consists of 180 multiple choice questions across Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics, with no negative marking. The exam duration is 3 hours, and specific instructions regarding the OMR sheet and prohibited items are provided. Additionally, useful data including atomic weights and physical constants is included for reference.

Uploaded by

namehacker
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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COMEDK 2024

F
RE
TE
E
STSE
RIE
S
MOCKTE
ST-1

PDF
QUESTI
ON PAPER
CET Section

Subject Topic
C+M+P Complete Syllabus

Max. Marks: 180 Duration: 3 Hours

1. This paper consists of 180 questions with 3 parts of Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics

• Chemistry: (Q. No. 1 to 60) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.
• Mathematics: (Q. No. 61 to 120) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct
answer carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.
• Physics: (Q. No. 121 to 180) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.

2. The OMR sheet for 200 questions is to be used

3. Use of calculators and log tables is prohibited

4. Darken the appropriate bubble using a pen in the OMR sheet provided to you. Once entered, the
answer cannot be changed. Any corrections or modifications will automatically draw a penalty of
1 mark

5. No clarification will be entertained during the examination. Doubts in the paper can be reported
to the coordinator after the exam

6. If the details in the OMR Sheet are not filled, If the OMR sheet is mutilated, torn, white Ink used,
the circles filled and scratched, then the OMR sheet will not be graded

All the best!!

Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207

Physical Constants:

h = 6.626  10−34 Js , N a = 6.022  1023 mol-1 , c = 2.998  108 m s-1 , me = 9.110−31 kg , R = 8.314 J mol-1 K -1
CET Section

Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60
1. Which of the following diseases is not correctly matched with the vitamins mentioned with it?
(a) Vitamin B2 - Cracking of lips (b) Vitamin C - Bone deformities

(c) Vitamin D - Osteomalacia (d) Vitamin A - Night blindness


2. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in presence of FeCl3 gives predominantly

(a) a mixture of o − and p − chlorotoluene (b) benzyl chloride

(c) m − Chlorotoluene (d) benzoyl chloride


3. The number of moles of KMnO 4 that will be needed to react completely with one mode of ferrous

oxalate in acidic solution is


3 2 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
5 5 5
4. The ratio of the radii of the first three Bohr orbits is
(a) 1: 0.5 : 0.33 (b) 1: 2 : 3 (c) 1: 4 : 9 (d) 1: 8 : 27
5. The rate of a reaction is expressed in different ways as follows:
1 d 1d 1 d d
+ C  = −  D = +  A = −  B 
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt dt
The reaction is
1
(a) 4 A + B → 2C + 3D (b) 4 A + 2B → 2C + 3D (c) B + 3D → 4 A + 2C (d) B + D → 4 A + 2C
2
6. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reactions?

(I) Cu + → Cu 2 + + Cu

(II) 3MnO42 − + 4 H + → 2 MnO4− + MnO2 + 2 H 2 O

(III) 2KMnO4 → K 2 MnO4 + MnO2 + O2

(IV) 2 MnO4− + 3Mn 2 + + 2 H 2O → 5MnO2 + 4 H +

(a) (I), (II) (b) (I), (II), (III) (c) (II), (III), (IV) (d) (I), (IV)
7. Match the Column-I with Column-II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Methanol (i) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Fermentation (ii) Heated copper at 573 K

(C) Conversion of 2 alcohol (iii) Reaction of alkyl halide with


to ketone sodium alkoxide
(D) Williamson’s synthesis (iv) Wood spirit

(a) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv) (b) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(c) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii) (d) (A) → (iv), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (i)

Deeksha House 2
CET Section

8. Which of the following statements is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?
(a) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
(b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
(c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
(d) It provides surface for redox reaction.
9. The condensation product of benzaldehyde and acetone is

O
(a) C6 H 5CH = C ( CH 3 )2 (b) C6H5CH2 C CH CH2

O O
(c) C6H5 C CH CH CH3 (d) C6H5 CH CH C CH3

10. Which of the following species has lowest ionization enthalpy?

(a) O (b) O2 (c) O2+ (d) O2−

11. The rate constant for the reaction, 2 N 2O5 → 4 NO2 + O2 is 2  10 −5 s −1 . If rate of reaction is

1.4  10−5 mol L−1s −1 , what will be the concentration of N 2 O5 in mol L−1 ?

(a) 0.8 (b) 0.7 (c) 1.2 (d) 1


12. The mass ratio of Al and Ag deposited using the same quantity of current is

(a) 9 :108 (b) 2 :12 (c) 108 : 9 (d) 3: 8


13. 10% solution of urea is isotonic with 6% solution of a non-volatile solute X . What is the molecular
mass of solute X ?

(a) 6gmol −1 (b) 60gmol −1 (c) 36gmol −1 (d) 32gmol −1

14. Which solution has higher vapour pressure?


(a) 0.01MCaCl2 (b) 0.01M glucose (c) 0.01MNa 2SO 4 (d) 0.01MNa 3 PO 4

15. Acetic acid can be halogenated in presence of phosphorus and chlorine. Formic acid cannot be
halogenated with same way because of
(a) presence of  − H atom in formic acid (b) presence of  − H atom in acetic acid
(c) absence of  − H atom in CH 3COOH

(d) higher acidic strength of acetic acid than formic acid.


16. For which of the following solutes the van’t Hoff factor is not greater than one?

(a) NaNO3 (b) BaCl2 (c) K 4  Fe ( CN )6  (d) NH 2CONH 2

17. Amino group is o, p − directing for electrophilic substitution reaction. But, on nitration the major

product is m − nitroaniline because


(a) aniline gets protonated with strong acids to give anilinium ion which is m − directing
(b) nitration requires nitric acid which oxidises − NH 2 to − NO2 group

(c) electrophile NO2+ is a m − directing group

(d) benzene ring exerts + I effect and deactivates the ring.

Deeksha House 3
CET Section

18. In a chemical reaction, the rate constant for the backward reaction is 7.5  10 −4 and the equilibrium
constant is 1.5 . The rate constant for the forward reaction is:

(a) 5  10 −4 (b) 2  10 −3 (c) 1.125  10−3 (d) 9.0  10 −4


19. Hydrolysis of an ester gives acid A and alcohol B . The acid reduces Fehling’s solution. Oxidation of
alcohol B gives acid A . The ester is
(a) Methyl formate (b) Ethyl formate (c) Methyl acetate (d) Ethyl acetate
20. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of concentration
(a) 0.004 M (b) 0.002 M (c) 0.005 M (d) 0.001M

21. Freezing point of an aqueous solution is −0.186 C . Elevation of boiling point of same solution would be

( Kb = 0.512 and K f = 1.86Kmolality −1 )


(a) 0.186 C (b) 0.0512 C (c) 0.092 C (d) 0.237 C
22. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind to a single metal ion. Which of the
following is not a chelating agent?
(a) Thiosulphato (b) Oxalato (c) Glycinato (d) Ethane −1, 2 − diamine
23. Which of the following lanthanoid ion is diamagnetic?
At. No. of Ce = 58;Sm = 62; Eu = 63; Yb = 70 ]

(a) Yb 2 + (b) Ce 2 + (c) Sm 2 + (d) Eu 2 +


24. A nanopeptide contains peptide linkages
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 18
25. A gaseous mixture of 2 moles of A, 3 moles of B, 5 moles of C and 10 moles of D is contained in a

vessel. Assuming that the gases are ideal and the partial pressure of C is 1.5 atm , the total pressure is

(a) 3 atm (b) 6 atm (c) 9 atm (d) 15 atm

26. The end product ( Q ) in the following sequence of reactions is

Cl 2 /FeCl3 Na/ether
P Q

Cl CH3 OH
(a) (b) (c) (d)

27. The geometry of ClO4− ion is

(a) Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral (c) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) Pyramidal


28. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Saponification of CH 3COOC2 H 5 - Second order reaction

(b) Hydrolysis of CH 3COOCH 3 - Pseudounimolecular reaction

(c) Decomposition of H 2 O2 - First order reaction

(d) Combination of H 2 and Br2 to give HBr - Zero order reaction

Deeksha House 4
CET Section

29. Which of the following reactions will not yield phenol?


NH2
MgBr

(a) (i) O2
(b) (i) NaNO 2 /HCl
+ (ii) H 2 O (warming)
(ii) H 2 O/H

Cl

(i) Oleum
(c) (d) (i) NaOH (aq), 298 K/1 atm
(ii) NaOH, (heating
+ (ii) HCl
(iii) H

30. Hydrolysis of an ester gives acid A and alcohol B . The acid reduces Fehling’s solution.

Oxidation of alcohol B gives acid A . The ester is


(a) Methyl formate (b) Ethyl formate (c) Methyl acetate (d) Ethyl acetate
31. The semicarbazone is formed when an aldehyde/ketone reacts with
(a) NH 2 OH (b) NH 2 NH 2 (c) NH 2 NHC6 H 5 (d) NH 2 NHCONH 2

32. A first order reaction is half completed in 45 minutes. How long does it need for 99.9% of the reaction to
be completed?
(a) 10hr (b) 20hr (c) 5hr (d) 7.5hr

33. What is the end product in the following sequence of reactions?


COOH

PCl 5 2NH 3 Br 2 /KOH


P Q R

(a) Aniline (b) Phenol


(c) Benzene (d) Benzenediazonium chloride

34. In the reaction Ag 2 O + H 2 O2 → 2 Ag + H 2O + O2 ; H 2O2 acts as

(a) reducing agent (b) oxidising agent (c) bleaching agent (d) none of these

35. Match the Column I with Column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
(A) Peptide linkage (i) Inversion
(B) Nucleic acid (ii) Polysaccharide
(C) Hydrolysis of cane sugar (iii) Proteins
(D) Starch (iv) Nucleotides

(a) (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv) (b) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii)
(c) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii) (d) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (ii)

Deeksha House 5
CET Section

36. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
(A) Mischmetal (i) Alloy of Cu and Sn
(B) Ziegler catalyst (ii) Alloy of lanthanoid metals
(C) Brass (iii) TiCl4 + Al ( C2 H 5 )3

(D) Bronze (iv) Alloy of Cu and Zn

(a) (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iv) (b) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
(c) (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (ii) (d) (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iv)
37. Given below are few mixtures formed by mixing two components. Which of the following binary
mixtures will have same composition in liquid and vapour phase?
(i) Ethanol + Chloroform (ii) Nitric acid + Water
(iii) Benzene + Toluene (iv) Ethyl chloride + Ethyl bromide
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
38. Under drastic conditions all the alcohols can be oxidized to carboxylic acids but which of the following
alcohols give carboxylic acids having same number of carbon atoms?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) tertiary (d) none of these
39. Which of the following alcohols will give the most stable carbocation during dehydration?
(a) 2 − Methyl −1 − propanol (b) 2 − Methyl −2 − propanol
(c) 1− Butanol (d) 2 − Butanol

40. Standard entropy of X 2 , Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 J K − mol−1 respectively. For the reaction,

1 3 
X 2 + Y2 → XY3 , H rea'' = −30 kJ , to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be
2 2
(a) 750 K (b) 1000 K (c) 1250 K (d) 500 K

41. Electrolytic decarboxylation of sodium propionate produces


(a) propane (b) ethane (c) methane (d) butane

42. A compound ' A ' having the molecular formula C5 H12 O , on oxidation gives a compound ' B ' with

molecular formula C5 H10 O . Compound ' B ' gave a 2, 4 − dinitrophenylhydrazine derivative but did not

answer haloform test or silver mirror test. The structure of compound ' A ' is

(a) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − OH (b) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH3


OH

(c) CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3 (d) CH3 CH2 CH CH2 OH


OH CH3

Deeksha House 6
CET Section

43. Mark the correct Nernst equation for the given cell. Fe( s ) | Fe 2+ ( 0.001M ) || H + (1M ) | H 2( g ) (1bar ) | Pt( s )

 Fe  H + 
2 2
 Fe2+   H + 
log   
 0.591  0.591
(a) Ecell = Ecell − (b) Ecell = Ecell − log
2  Fe H 2  2  Fe2 +   H 2 
 

 H2 
 Fe 2+ 

(c) Ecell = 
Ecell −
0.591
log  
(d) Ecell = Ecell −
0.591
log
 Fe H 2 
   H + 2
2 2
Fe 2  Fe2+   H + 
   
KOH( alc. ) Br2 NaNH 2 / NH3
44. In the following sequence of reactions CH3CH 2 CH 2 I → ( A) → ( B ) → (C ) the end product is

(a) alkene (b) alkanol


(c) alkyne (d) alkyl amine
45. When propanal reacts with 2 − methylpropanal in presence of NaOH , four different products are
formed. The reaction is known as
(a) aldol condensation (b) cross aldol condensation
(c) Cannizzaro reaction (d) HVZ condensation
46. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Allyl chloride is more reactive than vinyl chloride
(b) Vinyl chloride is as reactive as allyl chloride
(c) Vinyl chloride is more reactive than allyl chloride.
(d) Both of them are more reactive than chlorobenzene

47. When 0.1mol COCl3 ( NH 3 )5 is treated with excess of AgNO3 , 0.2 mol of AgCl are obtained, The

conductivity of solution will correspond to


(a) 1: 3 electrolyte (b) 1: 2 electrolyte (c) 1:1 electrolyte (d) 3:1 electrolyte

48. When solid lead iodide is added to water, the equilibrium concentration of I − becomes 2.6  10−3 M .
What is K sp for PbI 2 ?

(a) 2.2  10 −9 (b) 8.8  10 −9 (c) 1.8  10 −8 (d) 3.5  10 −8


49. Which of the following compounds is used as the starting material for the preparation of potassium
dichromate?

(a) K 2 SO4  Cr2 ( SO4 )3  24 H 2O (Chrome alum) (b) PbCrO4 (Chromite yellow)

(c) FeCr2 O4 (Chromite) (d) PbCrO3  PbO (Chrome red)

50. The rate constant is given by the equation k = p  Ze − E / RT . Which factor should register a decrease for the

reaction to proceed more rapidly?


(a) T (b) Z (c) E (d) p

51. The increasing order of energies of various molecular orbitals is given below:
 1s   *1s   2s   * 2s   2 px =  2 p y   2 p z   * 2 p x =  * 2 p y   * 2 p z

The above sequence is not true for the molecule


(a) C 2 (b) B2 (c) O2 (d) Be2

Deeksha House 7
CET Section

52. Metamerism is shown by


(a) Diethyl ether and n − propyl methyl ether (b) Ethyl alcohol and diethyl ether
(c) Acetone and propionaldehyde (d) Propionic acid and acetic acid
53. Benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde can be distinguished by
(a) Iodoform test (b) 2:4 DNP test
(c) NH 3 reaction (d) Wolff-Kishner’s reduction

54. The property of halogens which is not correctly matched is


(a) F  Cl  Br  I (Ionisation energy) (b) F  Cl  Br  I (Electronegativity)
(c) I  Br  Cl  F (Density) (d) F  Cl  Br  I (Electron affinity)
55. If 20.0 g of CaCO3 is treated with 20.0 g of HCl , how many grams of CO2 can be obtained according to

the following reaction: CaCO3 ( s ) + 2 HCl ( aq ) → CaCl2 ( aq ) + H 2O ( l ) + CO2 ( g )

(a) 8.80 g (b) 27.4 g (c) 4.20 g (d) 13.7 g

56. Arrange the following compounds in order of decreasing acidity

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(a) III  I  II  IV (b) IV  III  I  II (c) II  IV  I  II (d) I  II  III  IV


57. 1− Butyne when heated with alcoholic KOH gives
(a) CH 3CH = C = CH 2 (b) CH 3CH 2C = CH (c) CH 3CH = CHCH 3 (d) CH 3CH 2CH = CH 2

58. Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant?
(a) CH 3CHFCOOH (b) FCH 3CH 2COOH (c) BrCH 2CH 2COOH (d) CH 3CHBrCOOH

59. In the reaction;

the products are:

(a) and H 2 (b)

(c) (d)

Deeksha House 8
CET Section

60. The charges x and y on the following ions are

i) Co ( NH3 )2 Cl4 


x

ii)  Fe ( CN )6  (oxidation state of Co is +3 and Fe is +2 in their respective complexes)


y

(a) x = +1, y = −1 (b) x = −1, y = +3 (c) x = −1, y = −4 (d) x = −2, y = −3

Mathematics
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60
 1
61. cos  2sin −1  =
 2

3 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 2 2

 8 −6 2 
 
62. If the matrix A =  −6 7 −4  is singular, then  =
 2 −4  
 
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5

 4 x + 2
63. If A =   is symmetric then x =
 2x − 3 x −1 
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 4
64. If X and Z are of order x  n and 2  p respectively and n = p then 7 X − 5Z is of order

(a) p  2 (b) 2  n (c) n  3 (d) p  n

x3 + 3 x x −1 x+3
65. If f ( x ) = ax + bx + cx + dx + e =
4 3 2
x +1 −2 x x − 4 then e =
x−3 x + 4 3x

(a) 1 (b) −1 (c) 2 (d) 0

 2  −3 
 
66. If A =  0 2 5  , then A−1 exists if
1 1 3 
 
(a)  = 2 (b)  = −2 (c)  = 2 (d) none of these

67. If A is a 3  3 matrix and det ( 3 A ) = k  ( det A ) , then k =

(a) 9 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 27

68. The number of functions the set A into the set B , when n ( A ) = 7 and n ( B ) = 5 is

(a) 7 5 (b) 57 (c) 7! (d) 7C5

69. The number of equivalence relation that can be defined on {a, b, c} is

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 8

Deeksha House 9
CET Section

3 3x + 2
70. Let, f : R −   → R be defined by f ( x ) = . Then,
 
5 5x − 3

1
(a) f −1 ( x ) = f ( x ) (b) f −1 ( x ) = − f ( x ) (c) ( fof ) x = − x (d) f −1 ( x ) = f ( x)
19

2 x x  3

71. Let, f : R → R be defined by f ( x ) =  x 2 1  x  3
3 x x  1

Then f ( −1) + f ( 2 ) + f ( 4 ) =

(a) 9 (b) 14 (c) 5 (d) none of these

 sin x
 + cos x x0
72. The function f ( x ) =  x , is continuous at x = 0 , then the value of k is
 k x=0

(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 1.5

1
73. The number of points at which the function f ( x ) = is not continuous is
x −  x

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) none of these

1 − ( log x )2 
74. If f ( x ) = cos−1   , then f ' ( e ) =
1 + ( log x )2 
 
1 2
(a) (b) does not exist (c) 1 (d)
e e
dy
75. y = tan −1 ( sec x − tan x ) , then =
dx

1 1
(a) 2 (b) −2 (c) (d) −
2 2

1 1 1 dy
76. If y = 1 + + + + ... to  , with x  1, then =
x x 2 3 dx
x

x2 y2 y2
(a) x 2 y 2 (b) (c) − (d)
y2 x2 x2

dy
77. If tan y = ecos 2 x  sin x then =
dx

(a) sin 2 y  ( cot x − 2sin 2 x ) (b) sin 2 x  ( cot y − sin y )

(c) sin 2 y  sin 2 x (d) cos 2 y  cot 2 x

78. If f ( x ) = x + 2 , then f ' ( f ( x ) ) at x = 4 is

(a) 8 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 5

Deeksha House 10
CET Section

79. The radius of a circular plate is increasing at the rate of 0.01cm/sec when the radius is 12 cm . Then the

rate at which the area increases is


(a) 0.24 p sq.cm/sec. (b) 60  sq.cm/sec. (c) 24  sq.cm/sec. (d) 1.2  sq.cm/sec.

80. The function f ( x ) is defined by f ( x ) = ( x + 2 ) e − x is

(a) decreasing for all x

(b) decreasing in ( −, − 1) and increasing in ( −1,  )

(c) increasing for all x

(d) decreasing in ( −1,  ) and increasing in ( −, − 1)


−1
e tan x
81.  x+x x
dx

(a) e tan
−1
x
(b)
1 tan −1 x
e (c) 2e tan
−1
x
(d) e
(
tan −1 1/ x )
2

e x ( x + 1)
82.  cos2 dx =
( xe x )
(a) cot ( xe ) x
(b) − cot xe x ( ) ( )
(c) tan xe x ( )
(d) − tan xe x

dx
83.  dx =
sin 3 x  cos x
−2 2
(a) (b) (c) −2 tan x (d) 2 tan x
tan x tan x
x
22 x
84. 2 22 2 x dx =

2x x
x 2 1 x 1
( log 2 )3 (b) 22 ( log 2 )
2
(a) 22 (c) 22  (d) 22 
( log 2 )
3
( log 2 )3
1
0 x (1 − x )
9
85. dx =

1 1 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 11 110 110

 /4 tan x
86. 0 sin x cos x
dx =

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 4


 /2
87. 0 sin x − cos x dx =

(a) 0 (b) 2 ( )
2 −1 (c) 2 −1 (d) 2 ( 2 +1 )
88. The area bounded by y = x 2 − 7 x + 10 and the x − axis is

5 11 9 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) `
2 3 2 2

Deeksha House 11
CET Section

89. The value of  for which the vectors 3i − 6 j + k and 2i − 4 j +  k are parallel is

2 3 5 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 2 5

90. The value of i  ( j  k ) + j  ( i  k ) + k  ( i  j ) is

(a) 0 (b) −1 (c) 1 (d) 3

91. ( a  i )( a  i ) + ( a  j )( a  j ) + ( a  k )( a  k ) =
(a) 3a (b) a (c) 0 (d) 2a

( ) ( )
2
92. Vectors a and b are inclined at an angle  = 60 . If a = 1, b = 2 then  a + 3b  3a − b  =
 
(a) 225 (b) 275 (c) 325 (d) 300


( )
2
93. If a = 4, b = 2 and angle between a and b is , then a  b is
6
(a) 48 (b) 16 (c) a (b) 15
94. If a L.P.P. admits optimal solution at two consecutive vertices of the feasible region, then
(a) the required optimal solution is at the midpoint of line joining these two points
(b) the optimal solution occurs at every point on the line joining these two points
(c) the L.P.P. under consideration is not solvable
(d) the L.P.P. under consideration must be reconstructed
95. The shaded region in the following figure is the solution set for the inequations,

(0,5

( 0, 4 )

X
O ( 4, 0 ) ( 6, 0 )

(a) 5 x + 4 y  20, x  6, y  4, x  0, y  0 (b) 5 x + 4 y  20, x  6, y  4, x  0, y  0

(b) 5 x + 4 y  20, x  6, y  4, x  0, y  0 (d) 5 x + 4 y  20, x  6, y  4, x  0, y  0

 d 2 y   dh 2  dy 
96. The degree of the differential equation  + = x sin   is
 dx 2   dx   dx 
 
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) not defined
dy
97. The solution of the differential equation x + 2 y = x 2 is
dx

x2 + c x2 x4 + c x4 + c
(a) y = (b) y = +c (c) y = (d) y =
4 x2 4 x2 4 x2

98. Solution of the differential equation tan y sec2 x dx + tan x sec2 y dy = 0 is

tan x
(a) tan x + tan y = k (b) tan x − tan y = k (c) =k (d) tan x  tan y = k
tan y

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CET Section

99. A and B are events such that P ( A ) = 0.4, P ( B ) = 0.3 and P ( A  B ) = 0.5 . Then P ( B ' A ) =

2 1 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 10 5
100. Three person A, B and C fire at a target, inturn starting with A . Their probability of hitting the target

are 0.4, 0.3 and 0.2 respectively. The probability of two hits is

(a) 0.024 (b) 0.188 (c) 0.336 (d) 0.452


101. In a college of 30 students fail in physics, 25 fail in mathematics and 10 fail in both. One student is
chosen at random. The probability that she fails in physics, if she has failed in mathematics is
1 2 9 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10 5 20 3

102. If A =  x : x is a multipleof 2

B =  x : x is a multipleof 5 then A − B is

(a) A  B (b) A  B (c) A  B (d) ( A  B ) 

4− x
103. The domain and range of the real function f defined by f ( x ) = is given by
x−4

(a) Domain = R , Range =  −1,1 (b) Domain = R − 1 , Range = R

(c) Domain = R − 4 , Range = −1 (d) Domain = R − −4 , Range = −1,1

104. Let, A = 1, 2,3 and consider the relation R = (1,1) , ( 2, 2 ) , ( 3,3) , (1, 2 ) , ( 2,3 ) , (1,3 ).

Then R is
(a) reflexive but not symmetric (b) reflexive but not transitive
(c) symmetric and transitive (d) neither symmetric nor transitive

105. If A and B are two sets, then A  ( A  B ) =

(a) A (b) B (c)  (d) A  B

4
106. The inequality  5 is true, when x belongs to
x

4   4 4 
(a)  ,   (b)  −,  (c) ( −,0 )   ,   (d) R
5   5 5 

( )
7
107. The number of terms in the expansion of 1 + 3 x + 3 x 2 + x3 is

(a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 20 (d) 19

108. The total number of terms in the expansion of ( x + y ) + ( x − y)


150 150
after simplification is

(a) 70 (b) 75 (c) 76 (d) 302

109. If x = 1 + y + y 2 + ..... to  , then y is

x x x −1 1− x
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x −1 1− x x x

Deeksha House 13
CET Section

1+ i
110. The multiplication inverse of is
1− i
(a) 1 + i (b) 1 − i (c) i −1 (d) − i
111. The number of permutations of n different objects taken r at a time, when a particular element is never
taken in each arrangement is

(a) n −1
Cr  ( r − 1)! (b) n −1Cr −1  r ! (c) n −1Cr  r ! (d) nCr  r !

112. The number of triangles that are formed by choosing the vertices from a set of 12 point, seven of which
lie in on the same line.
(a) 105 (b) 15 (c) 175 (d) 185

113. If lim
( ekx − 1) sin kx
= 4 , then k is equal to
x →0 x2
(a) 2 (b) −2 (c) 2 (d) 4

sin x
114. lim is equal to
x →0 x
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) Positive infinity (d) does not exist

115. The equation of the line through ( 2,3) and parallel to 2 x − 3 y + 1 = 0 is

(a) 2 x − 3 y + 3 = 0 (b) 2 x − 3 y − 3 = 0 (c) 2 x − 3 y − 5 = 0 (d) 2 x − 3 y + 5 = 0

116. The distance between the lines y = mx + c1 and y = mx + c2 is

c1 − c2 c1 − c2 c2 − c1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 0
m +1
2
1+ m 2
1 + m2

x2 y 2
117. Length of the latus rectum of the ellipse + =1
25 9
9 18 50 25
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 3 3

1 − tan 2 15
118. The value of is
1 + tan 2 15

3
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) (d) 2
2
119. The value of cos1 cos2 cos3.....cos179 is
1
(a) (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) −1
2

 5  −1  2 
120. If tan −1  tan  =  , tan  − tan  =  , then
 4   3 
(a) 4 − 4  = 0 (b) 4 − 3 = 0 (c)    (d) None of these

Deeksha House 14
CET Section

Physics
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60

121. The density of mercury is 13600 kg m −3 . Its value in CGS system will be

(a) 13.6 g cm −3 (b) 1360 g cm −3 (c) 136 g cm −3 (d) 1.36 g cm −3

122. During a projectile motion if the maximum height equals the horizontal range, then the angle of
projection with the horizontal is

(a) tan −1 (1) (b) tan −1 ( 2 ) (c) tan −1 ( 3 ) (d) tan −1 ( 4 )

123. The displacement-time graphs of two bodies A and B are shown in figure. The ratio of velocity of A, v A

to velocity of B, vB is

s A
60
30
t

1 1
(a) (b) 3 (c) (d) 3
3 3
124. A motor boat covers a given distance in 6 hours moving downstream of a river. It covers the same
distance in 10 hours moving upstream. The time (in hours) it takes to cover the same distance in still
water is
(a) 6 (b) 7.5 (c) 10 (d) 15
125. A wall is made of equally thick layers A and B of different materials. Thermal conductivity of A is twice

that of B . In the steady state, the temperature difference across the wall is 36 C . The temperature

difference across the layer A is


(a) 12 C (b) 18 C (c) 6 C (d) 24 C

126. A cup of tea cools from 65.5 C to 62.5 C in one minute in a room of 22.5C . How long will the same cup

of tea take to cool from 46.5C to 40.5C in the same room. (choose the nearest value in min.).

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4


127. If a gas is heated at constant pressure then what percentage of total heat supplied is used as of external
work? (Given:  for gas = 4 / 3 )

(a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 80%


128. According to kinetic theory of gases, molecules of a gas behave like
(a) inelastic spheres (b) perfectly elastic rigid spheres
(c) perfectly elastic non-rigid spheres (d) inelastic non-rigid spheres
129. A book lying on the table. What is the angle between the action of the book on the table and the reaction
of the table on the book?
(a) 0 (b) 45 (c) 90 (d) 180

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CET Section

130. A block of ice at −10 C is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100C . Which of the following curves

represents the phenomena qualitatively?

Temperature Temperature
(a) (b)

Heat supplied Heat supplied

Temperature
Temperature
(c) (d)

Heat supplied
Heat supplied

131. The surface energy of a liquid drop is u . It is splitted into 1000 equal droplets. Then its surface energy
becomes
(a) u (b) 10u (c) 100 u (d) 1000u

132. The maximum speed of a particle executing SHM is 10 m s −1 and maximum acceleration is 31.4 m s −2 . Its

time period is
(a) 2 s (b) 4 s (c) 6 s (d) 1s

133. A string of linear density 0.2 kg m −1 is stretched with a force of 500 N . A transverse wave of length

4.0 m is set up along it. The speed of wave is

(a) 50 m s −1 (b) 75 m s −1 (c) 150 m s −1 (d) 200 m s −1

134. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the earth with a speed equal to half the
magnitude of escape velocity from the Earth. The height of the satellite above the Earth’s surface is (take

g = 9.8 m s −2 , radius of the earth = 6400 km )

(a) 6400 km (b) 3200 km (c) 6000 km (d) 3000 km

135. A charge Q is distributed over two concentric hollow spheres of radii r and R (  r ) such that the surface

densities are equal. The potential at the common centre is

(a)
(
Q R2 + r 2 ) (b)
Q
(c) zero (d)
Q(R + r)
4 0 ( R + r ) R+r
(
4 0 R 2 + r 2 )
136. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area of 100 cm 2 each and are separated by 2.5 mm . The

capacitor is charged to 200 V . The energy stored in the capacitor is

(a) 70.8  1011 J (b) 70.8  107 J (c) 7.8  107 J (d) 7.08  10−7 J

137. In a region of space the electric field is given by E = 8iˆ + 4 ˆj + 3kˆ . The electric flux through a surface of

area of 100 units in x − y plane is

(a) 800 units (b) 300 units (c) 400 units (d) 1500 units
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CET Section

138. A water molecule has an electric dipole moment 6.4  10−30 Cm when it is in vapour state. The distance
in meter between the centre of positive and negative charge of the molecule is

(a) 4  10−10 (b) 4  10−11 (c) 4  10−12 (d) 4  10−13


139. Force between two identical charges placed at a distance r in vacuum is F . Now a slab of dielectric
constant K = 4 is inserted between these two charges. The thickness of the slab is r / 2 . The force
between the charges will now become
(a) F / 4 (b) F / 2 (c) 3F / 5 (d) 4 F / 9
140. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10 V . The

potential at the centre of the sphere is


(a) 0 V

(b) 10 V

(c) same as at a point 5cm away from the surface

(d) same as at a point 20 cm away from the surface

141. When no current is passed through a conductor,


(a) The free electrons do not move
(b) The average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(c) The average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(d) The average of the velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is non-zero
142. A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the temperature of the metal wire
increases, the drift velocity of the electron in it
(a) Increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(b) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(c) Increases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
(d) Decreases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
143. The figure shows a network of currents. The magnitude of current is shown here. The current I will be

15 A
3A

8A

I
5A

(a) −3A (b) 3A (c) 13A (d) 23A

144. If the resistance of a conductor is 5 at 50C &7 at 100C , then mean temperature coefficient of
resistance (of material) is

(a) 0.013 C −1 (b) 0.004 C −1 (c) 0.006 C −1 (d) 0.008 C −1

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CET Section

145. An electric heating element consumes 500 W when connected to a 100 V line. If the line voltage

becomes 150 V , the power consumed will be

(a) 500 W (b) 750 W (c) 1000 W (d) 1125 W

146. Six lead-acid type of secondary cells each of emf 2.0 V and internal resistance 0.015  are joined in

series to provide a supply to a resistance of 8.5 . What are the current drawn from the supply and its

terminal voltage?
(a) 1.4 A,11.9 V (b) 1.8 A,11.9 V (c) 1.4 A,12.9 V (d) 1.8 A,12.9 V

147. The speed of an electron having a de-Broglie wavelength of 10−10 m is

(a) 7.25  106 m s −1 (b) 6.26  106 m s −1 (c) 5.25  106 m s −1 (d) 4.24  106 m s −1

148. A surface irradiated with light of wavelength 480 nm gives out electrons with maximum velocity

v m s −1 , the cut off wavelength being 600 nm . The same surface would release electrons with maximum

velocity 2v m s −1 if it is irradiated by light of wavelength

(a) 325 nm (b) 360 nm (c) 384 nm (d) 300 nm

149. A galvanometer has 30 divisions and a sensitivity 16 μA/div . It can be converted into a voltmeter to read

3V by connecting

(a) resistance nearly 6 kΩ in series (b) 6 kΩ in parallel

(c) 500  in series (d) 7.0 kΩ in series

150. If the resistance of the upper half of a rigid loop is twice that of the lower half, the magnitude of
magnetic field at the centre is equal to

I a I
O

0 I 0 I 0 I
(a) zero (b) (c) (d)
4a 12a 3a

151. The relative permeability ( r ) of a substance is related to its susceptibility (  ) as

(a)  r = 1 −  (b)  r = 1 +  (c) r = 1 −  2 (d) r = 1 +  2

152. Magnetic field intensity is defined as


(a) Magnetic moment per unit volume
(b) Magnetic induction force acting on a unit magnetic pole
(c) Number of lines of force crossing per unit area
(d) Number of lines of force crossing per unit volume
153. A paramagnetic liquid is taken in a U − tube and arranged so that one of its limbs is kept between pole
pieces of the magnet. The liquid level in the limb
(a) goes down (b) rises up
(c) remains same (d) first goes down and then rises
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CET Section

154. A long straight wire of a circular cross section (radius a ) carries a steady current I and the current I is
uniformly distributed across this cross-section. Which of the following plots represents the variation of
magnitude of magnetic field B with distance r from the centre of the wire?

B B

(a) (b)

r r
a a

B B

(c) (d)

r a r
a

21
155. The torque required to hold a small circular coil of 10 turns , area 1mm 2 and carrying a current of A
44

in the middle of a long solenoid of 103 turns m −1 carrying a current of 2.5 A , with its axis perpendicular

to the axis of the solenoid is


Solenoid
(a) 1.5  10 −6 (b) 1.5  10 −8 Coil
Nm Nm B
Axis
(c) 1.5  10+6 N m (d) 1.5  10+8 N m

3h
156. The angular momentum of an electron in the hydrogen atom is . Here, h is Planck’s constant. The
2
kinetic energy of this electron is
(a) 4.35 eV (b) 1.51eV (c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV

157. M p denotes the mass of a proton and M n that of a neutron. A given nucleus, of binding energy B ,

contains Z protons and N neutrons. The mass M ( N , Z ) of the nucleus is given by ( c is the velocity of

light)

(a) M ( N , Z ) = NM n + ZM p + B / c 2 (b) M ( N , Z ) = NM n + ZM p − Bc 2

(c) M ( N , Z ) = NM n + ZM p + Bc 2 (d) M ( N , Z ) = NM n + ZM p − B / c 2

158. Nuclear force exists between


(a) Neutron-neutron (b) Proton-proton (c) Neutron-proton (d) all of these
159. In Rutherford’s  − particle scattering experiment, what will be correct angle for  scattering for an
impact parameter b = 0 ?
(a) 90 (b) 270 (c) 0 (d) 180
160. In a hydrogen atom, the electron in a given orbit has total energy −1.5 eV . The potential energy is

(a) 1.5eV (b) −1.5 eV (c) 3.0 eV (d) −3.0 eV

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CET Section

161. For the series LCR circuit shown in figure, what is the resonance frequency and the amplitude of the
current at the resonating frequency?

8 mH

220 V 20μF
44 

(a) 2500 rad s −1 and 5 2 A (b) 2500 rad s −1 and 5 A

(c) 2500 rad s−1 and


5
A (d) 250 rad s −1 and 5 2 A
2

162. A rectangular coil of 20 turns and area of cross-section 25 cm 2 has a resistance of 100  . If a magnetic

field which is perpendicular to the plane of coil changes at a rate of 1000 Tesla per second, the current in
the coil is
(a) 1A (b) 50 A (c) 0.5 A (d) 5 A

163. A circuit is made up of a resistance 1 and inductance 0.01H . An alternating emf of 200 V at 50 Hz is

connected, then the phase difference between the current and the emf in the circuit is

(a) tan −1 ( ) (b) tan −1 ( / 2 ) (c) tan −1 ( / 4 ) (d) tan −1 ( / 3)

164. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283V and frequency 50 Hz is applied to a series LCR circuit in

which R = 3 , L = 25.48 mH and C = 796 μF the impendence of the circuit is

(a) 4  (b) 5 (c) 6  (d) 7 

165. An A.C . source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of the following is true?
(a) Current leads ahead of voltage in phase
(b) Current lags behind voltage in phase
(c) Current and voltage are in same phase
(d) Any of the above may be true depending upon the value of resistance.

166. The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by  = 10t 2 − 50t + 250 . Then induced emf at t = 3s is

(a) −10 V (b) 10 V (c) 190 V (d) −190 V

167. A capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X , , if capacitance and frequency become double, then
reactance will be
(a) 4X (b) X / 2 (c) X / 4 (d) 2X
168. At resonant frequency the current amplitude in series LCR circuit is
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Zero (d) Infinity
169. Let nh and ne be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic semiconductor. Then

(a) nh  ne (b) nh = ne (c) nh  ne (d) nh  ne

170. The forbidden energy gap for germanium crystal at 0 K is

(a) 0.071 eV (b) 0.71 eV (c) 2.57 eV (d) 6.57 eV

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CET Section

171. In forward biasing of the p − n junction

(a) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to p − side and the depletion region becomes

thick
(b) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to n − side and the depletion region becomes
thin
(c) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to n − side and the depletion region becomes
thick
(d) The positive terminal of the battery is connected to p − side and the depletion region becomes

thin
172. A. Wavelength of microwaves is greater than that of UV rays
B. The wavelength of IR-rays is lesser than that UV rays
C. The wavelength of microwaves is lesser than that of IR rays
D. Gamma ray has shortest wavelength in the electromagnetic spectrum
of the above statements
(a) A and B are true (b) B and C are true (c) C and D are true (d) A and D are true

173. If one face of a prism of prism angle 30 and  = 2 is silvered, the incident ray retraces its initial path.

The angle of incidence is


(a) 60 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 90
174. The power and type of lens by which a person can see clearly the distant objects, if the person cannot see
objects beyond 40 cm , are

(a) − 2.5 D and concave lens (b) − 2.5 D and convex lens

(c) − 3.5 D and concave lens (d) − 3.5 D and convex lens

175. Coherence is a measure of


(a) Capability of producing interference by wave
(b) Waves being diffracted
(c) Waves being reflected
(d) Waves being refracted
176. Two beams of light of intensity I1 and I 2 interfere to give an interference pattern. If the ratio of

maximum intensity to that of minimum intensity is 25 / 9, then I1 / I 2 is

(a) 5 / 3 (b) 4 (c) 81 / 625 (d) 16


177. The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is
(a) virtual and diminished (b) real and diminished
(c) real and enlarged (d) virtual and enlarged
178. In Young’s double slit experiment, first slit has width four times the width of the second slit. The ratio of
the maximum intensity to the minimum intensity in the interference fringe system is
(a) 2 :1 (b) 4 :1 (c) 9 :1 (d) 8 :1

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CET Section

179. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is 60 cm. To obtain a magnification of 20, the focal length

of the eye piece should be


(a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 5 cm

180. The focal length of a biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 0.06 m . Radii of curvature are in the ratio

1: 2 . Then radii of curvature of two lens surfaces are


(a) 0.045 m, 0.09 m (b) 0.09 m, 0.18 m (c) 0.04 m, 0.08 m (d) 0.06 m, 0.12 m

Deeksha House 22

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