THE NAVIGATOR ENRANCE PREPARATIONS THATTA

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ETP2024 TEST - 11 07-08-2024

PHYSICS

1. An antiproton is an atomic particle that has:

a) the mass of a proton and the charge of an electron. b) the mass of an electron and the charge of a proton.
c) the mass of a neutron and the charge of a proton. d) the mass of an electron and the charge of a positron.
2. Conservation laws that describe events involving the elementary particles include the conservation of:
a) energy. b) linear and angular momentum. c) electric charge. d) All of these are correct.
3. The energy released by the nuclear bomb that destroyed Hiroshima was equivalent to 9.0 × 10 26 MeV. The mass that was
converted into energy in this explosion was:
a) 1.6 kg b) 1.6 x 10–3 kg c) 1.4 x 1014 kg d) 1.1 x 1010 kg
4. A moderator is used to slow:
a) protons b) alpha particles c) neutrons d) beta particles
5. A 100 g sample of a radioactive element has half-life of 5 days. How many grams of radioactive material will remain after 15
days?
a) 100 g b) 50 g c) 25 g d) 12.5 g
6. The length of a horizontal metre stick moving at 0.75c is
a) 1.00 m b) 0.56 m c) 0.66 m d) 1.51 m
7. A ship flies by at 0.82c and is observed by ground-based radar to be 55 m in length. What is the ship’s proper length?
a) 96 m b) 73 m c) 31 m d) 43 m
8. In the photoelectric effect, the work function is
a) the amount of energy required to release an electron b) the same as the threshold frequency
c) the amount of kinetic energy possessed by the electron d) dependent on the frequency of light
9. In the Compton effect
a) the energy of the system is conserved b) the momentum of the system is conserved
c) the energy of a photon is converted into an electron d) a. and b. are correct
10. Which characterizes a photon of light?
a) both energy and momentum b) energy, but not momentum
c) momentum, but not energy d) neither energy nor momentum
11. If a photon has a 6.6 × 10-32 m wavelength, what is its momentum?
a) 4.4 × 10-65 kg.m/s b) 1.0 × 10-1 kg.m/s c) 1.0 × 10-2 kg.m/s d) 2.4 × 1012 kg.m/s
12. Which property does the Compton Effect describe about photons?
a) mass b) momentum c) wave properties d) speed rates
13. What did Compton discover after bombarding electrons with high energy photons?
a) A photon’s momentum depends on its wavelength. b) A photon with a short wavelength can be ejected.
c) Electrons and positrons come in pairs. d) Electrons can be split into smaller particles.
14. What is the momentum of a photon of yellow light with a wavelength of 5.89 x 10-7 m?
a) 3.90 x 10-40 kgm/s b) 3.90 x 10-37 kgm/s c) 1.12 x 10-27 kgm/s d) 1.12 x 10-25 kgm/s
15. If a photon of light has a wavelength of 750 nm, what is its momentum?
a) 8.8 × 10-31 kgm/s b) 8.8 × 10-28 kgm/s c) 6.8 × 1010 kgm/s d) 1.1 × 1027 kgm/s
-27
16. What is the wavelength of a photon which has momentum of 5.60 × 10 kgm/s?
a) 1.98 × 10-12 m b) 3.64 × 10-9 m c) 1.18 × 10-7 m d) 8.45 × 106 m
17. What happens to a high energy photon after it strikes an electron?
a) decreases frequency b) decreases wavelength c) increases energy d) increases momentum
18. What is the frequency of photons that have a momentum of 2.80 x 10-27 kgm/s?
a) 1.75 x 1015 Hz b) 2.25 x 1015 Hz c) 5.25 x 1015 Hz d) 9.25 x 1015 Hz
19. The photon model of light is more appropriate than the wave model in explaining
a) interference b) refraction c) polarization d) photoelectric emission
20. Experiments performed with light indicate that light exhibits
a) particle properties, only b) wave properties, only
c) both particle and wave properties d) neither particle nor wave properties
21. Which phenomenon is best explained by the particle nature of light?
a) interference b) the Doppler effect c) polarization d) the photoelectric effect
22. What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 4.464 x 10 14 s-1?
a) 1.338 x 1023 m b) 1.489 x 10-6 m c) 6.716 x 10-7 nm d) 671.6 nm
23. What is the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation which has a frequency of 5.732 x 10 14 s-1?
a) 1.718 x 1023 m b) 1.912 x 106 m c) 5.230 x 10-7 m d) 523.0 m
24. What is the energy, in joules, of one photon of microwave radiation with a wavelength of 0.158 m?
a) 1.26 x 10-24 J b) 3.14 x 10-26 J c) 3.19 x 1025 J d) 3.49 x 10-43 J
25. What is the energy, in joules, of one photon of visible radiation with a wavelength of 464.1 nm?
a) 1.026 x 10-48 J b) 2.100 x 1035 J c) 2.341 x 1011 J d) 4.280 x 10-19 J
26. Which statement below is true with regard to Bohr's model of the atom?
a) The model accounted for the absorption spectra of atoms but not for the emission spectra.
b) The model could account for the emission spectrum of hydrogen and for the Rydberg equation.
c) The model was based on the wave properties of the electron.
d) The model accounted for the emission spectra of atoms, but not for the absorption spectra.
27. The definite energies associated with specific wavelengths in the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen suggest that
a) electrons have a smaller rest mass than photons b) photons have a smaller rest mass than electrons
c) energy states in the hydrogen atom are quantized
d) atomic hydrogen is more stable and has a lower potential energy than molecular hydrogen
28. What distinctive phenomena are illustrated in X-ray spectra?
a) Bremsstrahlung - deceleration of the electrons striking the anode. b) Acceleration of the electrons after they strike the anode.
c) Internal atomic structure of the anode. d) Both A & C
29. Which of the following colors indicates an object of the lowest temperature?
a) Violet b) Blue c) Yellow d) Red
30. Which is a property of a black body radiator?
a) It absorbs all incident radiation, then re-emits it at a frequencies determined by its temperature.
b) It is always black, even when heated to high temperatures.
c) It absorbs all incident radiation and does not re-emit any radiation.
d) As it is heated, it changes color from black to blue to red.
31. Which of the following photons has the greatest energy?
a) Infrared b) Blue c) γ- photon d) ultraviolet – photon
32. What discrepancy between experiment and theory helped lead Max Planck to his quantum theory?
a) The discovery of Cathode Rays. b) The discovery of X-Rays.
c) The Ultraviolet Catastrophe. d) The discovery of electrons.
33. The energy of a photon depends on:
a) Amplitude b) Speed c) Temperature d) Frequency
34. How does the energy of a photon change if the wavelength is doubled?
a) Energy doubles b) Energy quadruples c) Energy stays the same d) Energy is halved
35. How does the momentum of a photon change if the wavelength is halved?
a) Doubles b) Quadruples c) Stays the same d) Is cut to one-half
36. The photoelectric effect explains:
a) The wave nature of light b) The particle nature of light
c) The wave properties of an electron d) The atomic structure
37. The kinetic energy of photo-electrons depends on:
a) Intensity of light b) Work function c) Wavelength of light d) Both B & C
38. Which of the following is the formula of the photon momentum?
a) p = hf/c b) p = cλ/h c) p = hc/f d) p = E/mc
39. The stopping potential of photo-electrons depends on which of the following.
a) The light intensity b The frequency of the photons c) The composition of the metal surface d) Both B & C
40. Which of the following formulas expresses the photoelectric effect?
a) hλ = W0 + KE b) hf = W0 - KE c) hf = W0 + KE d) hλ = -W0 + KE
41. All of the following are properties of γ-rays EXCEPT:
a) They discharge electrified objects b) They ionize gases
c) They are deflected by magnetic fields d) They penetrate objects
42. Which of the following phenomena provides the best evidence that light can have particle properties?
a) Diffraction of light b) Compton scattering c) Electron diffraction d) γ-ray diffraction
43. Which of the following phenomena provides the best evidence that particles can have wave properties?
a) The absorption of photons by electrons in an atom
b) The interference pattern produced by neutrons incident on a crystal
c) The production of x-rays by electrons striking a metal target d) Compton scattering
44. Which of the following formulas can be used to determine the de Broglie wavelength?
a) λ = hmv b) λ = h/mv c) λ = mv/h d) λ = mc/h
45. A photon can disappear producing an electron and positron. What is this phenomenon called?
a) X-Rays diffraction b) Electron scattering c) Annihilation d) Pair production
46. In a Compton Effect experiment a photon scattered from an electron at rest increases its wavelength. Which of the following
deflection angles θ provides the greatest increase in the wavelength of the scattered photon?
a) 0° b) 60° c) 90° d) 180°
47. If all of the following objects move at the same speed, which one will have the greatest deBroglie wavelength?
a) Neutron b) Electron c) Bowling ball d) α- Particle
48. Which of the following statement(s) can be associated with Bohr’s theory of the atom?
a) An electron orbiting the nucleus emits energy and falls on the nucleus
b) An electron can change its energy only by a certain portion when it jumps between the orbits
c) The angular momentum of an electron around the nucleus is equal an integer times h/2π
d) both b & c
49. When an electron falls from an orbit the first excited state (n=2) to the ground state (n=1):
a) A photon is emitted b) A photon is absorbed c) No photons are involved d) An electron is emitted
50. When an electron jumps from the n = 1 orbit (of radius r1) to the n = 3 orbit, what is its new orbital radius as a proportion of r1?
a) r1/9 b) r1/3 c) 3 r1 d) 9 r1
51. The wavelength of photon A is greater than that of photon B. Compared to the energy of photon A, the energy of photon B is
a) less b) greater c) the same
52. When incident on a given photoemissive surface, which color of light will produce photoelectrons with the greatest energy?
a) red b) orange c) violet d) green
53. When incident on a given photoemissive surface, which color of light will produce photoelectrons with the greatest energy?
a) wavelength b) period c) frequency d) path
54. Which characteristic of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to the energy of a photon?
a) electrons b) photons c) protons d) neutrons
55. Which transmits the energy in a light beam?
a) n = 6 to n = 5 b) n = 5 to n = 6 c) n = 5 to n = 2 d) n = 2 to n = 5
56. Which electron transition between the energy levels of hydrogen causes the emission of a photon of visible light?
a) red b) yellow c) green d) blue
57. The threshold frequency for a photoemissive surface is 4.0 × 1014 hertz. What is the work function of this surface?
a) 1.2 × 10–19 J b) 2.6 ×10–l9 J c) 6.0 × 1014 J d) 6.1 × 1047 J
58. Which determines the number of electrons emitted by a photoelectric material?
a) intensity b) color c) frequency d) wavelength
59. As the frequency of photons incident upon a photoemissive surface is increased, the maximum energy of the photoelectrons
a) decreases b) increases c) remains the same
60. Which of the following particles is NOT made of quarks?
a) proton b) electron c) pion d) neutron

CHEMISTRY

61. Which one of the species below should have the smallest radius?
a) Ca b) Ba c) K d) C
62. Which one of the species below should have the largest radius?
a) Ca b) Ba c) Al d) Mg
63. Which one of the species below should have the smallest radius?
a) Ar b) Ca c) K d) Mg
64. Which one of the atoms listed below has the largest value for its first ionization energy?
a) Al b) Sr c) Ga d) Cr
65. Which one of the species below should have the smallest value for its first ionization energy?
a) Rb b) Na c) Al d) Ne
66. Which one of the species below should have the smallest value for its first ionization energy?
a) Ba b) C c) Cs d) K
67. Which one of the atoms represented by its symbol below has the largest value for its electron affinity?
a) Al b) Sr c) Ga d) Cl
68. Metal carbonates decompose on heating to give metal oxide and carbon dioxide. Which of the metal carbonates is most stable?
a) MgCO3 b) CaCO 3 c) SrCO3 d) BaCO3
69. The order of decreasing ionisation enthalpy in alkali metal is
a) Na > Li > K > Rb b) Li > Na > K > Rb c) Rb > Na > K > Li d) K < Li < Na < Rb
70. Which alkali metal emits longest wavelength light in Flame test?
a) Na b) K c) Cs d) Li
71. Which of the following is not a normal oxide?
a) K2O3 b) KO3 c) K2O d) KO2
72. The active constituent of bleaching powder is ...
a) Ca(OCl)2 b) Ca(OCl)Cl c) Ca(C1O2)2 d) Ca(C1O2)Cl
73. Which of the following characteristics is not related to alkali metals ?
a) Their ions are iso electronic with noble gases. b) low melting point
c) low electronegativity d) high ionisation energy
74. The reaction of Cl2 with X gives bleaching powder X is:
a) CaO b) Ca(OH)2 c) Ca(OCl)2 d) Ca(O3Cl)2
75. Flame test is not given by:
a) Be b) Sr c) K d) Ca
76. Which of the following pairs of elements possess diagonal relationship?
a) Li and Mg b) Li and Al c) Na and Mg d) Cs and Ba
77. Two mole of magnesium nitride on reacting with an excess of water gives:
a) One mole of ammonia b) Two moles of nitric acid
c) Four moles of ammonia d) Three moles of ammonia
78. The electronic configuration of metal M is ls2 2s2 2p6 3s2. The formula of its normal oxide would be ...
a) MO b) M2O c) M2O3 d) MO2
79. When NaOH is made, the gas released at the anode is:
a) Cl2 b) H2 c) O2 d) H2O
80. Which of the following salts are composed of isoelectronic cations and anions?
a) NaCl b) MgF2 c) CaS d) b) and c) both
81. Boron form covalent compound due to:
a) Higher ionization enthalpy b) Lower ionization enthalpy
c) Small size d) Both a) and c)
82. Which of the following is most acidic
a) Na2O b) MgO c) Al2O3 d) CaO
83. When Al is added to KOH solution
a) No action takes place b) Oxygen is evolved c) Water is produced d) Hydrogen is evolved
84. Conc.HNO3
a) Reacts with aluminium vigorously b) Reacts with aluminium to form aluminium nitrate.
c) Doesn’t react with aluminium d) Reacts with platinum
85. Which is true for an element & present in III group of the periodic table
a) It is gas at room temperature b) It has oxidation state of +4
c) It forms R2O3 d) It forms RX2
86. Which of the following statement in incorrect
a) Al react with excess NaOH to give Al (OH)3 b) NaHCO3 on hating gives Na2CO3
c) Pure sodium metal dissolves in liquid ammonia to give blue solution
d) NaOH reats with glass to give sodium silicate
87. Which of the following is nonmetal
a) Ga b) In c) Th d) B
88. What happens when beryllium carbide reacts with water:
a) Nitrogen gas is released b) Hydrogen gas is released
c) Methane gas is released d) Beryllium oxide is released
89. In Pyrite burner, the gas produced is:
a) SO3 b) SO2 c) CO2 d) NO
90. Oleum is:
a) H2SO3 b) H2SO4 c) H2S2O7 d) None
91. SO3 is not directly dissolved in water to get sulphuric acid because:
a) The reaction does not go to completion b) The reaction is highly exothermic
c) The reaction is quite slow d) SO3 is insoluble in water
92. In group VA the most electronegative element is:
a) N b) P c) As d) Sb
93. The catalyst used in manufacturing of H2SO4 by Contact process is:
a) V2O5 b) Fe2O3 c) Ni d) Pt
94. Coordination number of Fe in [Fe(CN)6]-4 ion is:
a) 4 b) 2 c) 6 d) - 4
95. In [Co(NH3)6]+3 the coordination number of cobalt is:
(a) Zero (b) Two (c) Four (d) Six
96. Interstitial compounds are formed by:
a) Fe b) Ni c) Co d) All
97. Which of the following transition elements show highest oxidation state?
a) Mn b) Cr c) Cr d) Zn
98. Group IB of transition elements contains:
a) Zn, Cd, Hg b) Fe, Ru, Os c) Cu, Au, Ag d) Cr, Mo,W
99. First transition series starts with:
a) Y b) Sc c) Zn d) Cd
100. Group IIB of transition elements contains
a) Zn, Cd, Hg b) Fe, Ru, Os c) Cu,Au, Ag d) Cr, Mo, W
101. There are ____ types of ligands in [PtCl(NO2)(NH3)4]-2
a) 2 b) 3 c) 6 d) 7
102. Which property/properties is/are correct for a transition element?
1. The element has atoms with a partially filled d sub-shell. 2. The existence of more than one oxidation state in its compounds.
3. The formation of coloured ions.
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) Only 1 and 2 c) Only 2 and 3 d) Only 1
103. Which electron configuration(s) is/are correct?
1. Cr atom: 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s1 2. Cu atom: 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s1
2+ 2 2 6 2 6 5 1
3. Fe ion: 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) Only 1 and 2 c) Only 2 and 3 d) Only 1
104. What is the bonding between the ligands and the metal ion in [Fe(H2O)6]2+?
a) Metallic b) Ionic c) Hydrogen d) Dative covalent

105. What is the reason that zinc is not classified as a transition element?
a) Zinc atoms contain a full d-sub-shell. b) There are no zinc ions with an incomplete d-sub-shell.
c) Zinc does not form complex ions. d) Zinc ions are colorless.
106. [Co(NH3)5Br](NO3)2
a) bromopentaamminecobalt(III) nitrate b) pentaamminebromocobalt(II) nitrate
c) bromopentaamminecobalt(II) nitrate d) pentaamminebromocobalt(III) nitrate
107. K3[Fe(CN)6]
a) hexacyano potassium ferrate(III) b) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
c) potassium ferrate hexacyano (III) d) potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
108. [Al (H2O)6] Br3
a) Hexaaquaaluminum (III) bromide b) Hexaaquaaluminum (III) bromide
c) aluminum hexaaqua (II) bromide d) Hexaaquaaluminum (II) bromide
109. [Cr (NH3 )6] Cl3
a) Hexaamminechromium (II) chloride b) Hexaamminechromium (II) chloride
c) chromium hexaammine (III) chloride d) Hexaamminechromium (III) chloride
110. K3 [FeF6 ]
a) Potassium hexafluoroferrate (III) b) Potassium hexafluoroferrate (III)
c) Potassium hexafluoroferrate (II) d) hexafluoro potassium ferrate (II)
111. [Zn (OH)4 ] -2
a) Tetrahydroxozincate (III) ion b) Tetrahydroxozincate (III) ion
c) Tetrahydroxozincate (II) ion d) Tetrahydroxozinc (II) ion
112. [Co (H2O)4Cl 2] Cl
a) Tetraaquadichlorocobalt (II) chloride b) Tetraaquadichlorocobalt (II) chloride
c) Tetraaquadichlorocobalt (III) chloride d) Dichlorotetraaquacobalt (III) chloride
113. [Cu (NH3 )4] +2
a) Tetraamminecopperate (II) ion b) Tetraamminecopper (II) ion
c) Tetraamminecopper (III) ion d) Tetraamminecopper (III) ion
114. K2 [SnCl6 ]
a) Potassium hexachlorostannate (IV) b) Potassium hexachlorostannate (IV)
c) Potassium hexachlorostannate (III) d) Hexachloro potassium stannate (III)
115. [Co (NH3)6] Cl3
a) Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride b) Chloride hexaamminecobalt (III)
c) Hexaamminecobalt (II) chloride d) Hexaamminecobalt (II) chloride
116. [Cd (H2O)4] (NO3)2
a) Cadmium tetraaqua (II) nitrate b) Tetraaquacadmium (II) nitrate
c) Tetraaquacadmium (III) nitrate d) Tetraaquacadmium (III) nitrate
117. Na3[Cu (CN)4]
a) Sodium tetracyanocuprate (II) b) Tetracyano sodium cuprate (II)
c) Sodium tetracyanocuprate (I) d) Sodium tetracyanocuprate (I)
118. [Ni (NH3)4 C2O4]
a) Tetraammineoxalatonickel (III) b) Tetraammineoxalatonickel (III)
c) Oxalatotetraamminenickel (II) d) Tetraammineoxalatonickel (II)
119. Ethylene diamine tetra acetate is a - - - - - ligand.
a) Bidentate b) Tridentate c) Hexadentate d) Monodentate
120. Ethylene diamine is a - - - - - ligand.
a) Bidentate b) Tridentate c) Hexadentate d) Monodentate

BIOLOGY

121. Who is known as the father of evolution?

a) Isaac Newton b) Charles Darwin c) Albert Einstein d)
Gregor Mendel
122. What book did Charles Darwin publish in 1859?
a) The Descent of Man b) The Origin of Species c) The Voyage of the Beagle d) Natural Selection
123. What does the theory of natural selection explain?
a) Inheritance of acquired traits b) Survival of the fittest c) The movement of continents d) The creation of the
universe
124. What is a gene pool?
a) A collection of genes within a population b) A group of gene mutations
c) A collection of genes in an individual d) A body of water where genes live
125. What term describes a change in a population's gene pool over time?
a) Mutation b) Evolution c) Adaptation d) Speciation
126. What is genetic drift?
a) The movement of genes from one population to another b) A random change in allele frequencies
c) A mutation in the genetic code d) A type of natural selection
127. What is the main driving force behind evolution?
a) Mutation b) Genetic drift c) Natural selection d) Gene flow
128. What does "survival of the fittest" mean?
a) The strongest individuals survive b) The most physically fit individuals survive
c) The individuals best adapted to their environment survive d) The largest individuals survive
129. What is a homologous structure?
a) A structure that has the same function but different origins b) A vestigial organ
c) A structure that is the same in different species due to common ancestry d) A type of genetic mutation
130. What is an example of a vestigial structure in humans?
a) The appendix b) The liver c) The heart d) The brain
131. What is a mutation?
a) A change in the DNA sequence b) A form of adaptation c) A type of natural selection d) A
vestigial organ
132. What is speciation?
a) The formation of new and distinct species in the course of evolution b) The spread of species over a large area
c) The extinction of a species d) The fusion of different species
133. What is a fossil?
a) A living organism that has not evolved b) A remnant or trace of an organism from a past geologic
age
c) A type of mutation d) A structure that has lost its original function
134. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of evolution?
a) Gene flow b) Genetic drift c) Natural selection d) Inheritance of acquired
characteristics
135. What is a population bottleneck?
a) A decrease in a population's size due to environmental events b) An increase in genetic variation
c) The splitting of a population into two separate groups d) The merging of two populations into one
136. What is the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a) A principle that states that allele frequencies in a population will remain constant in the absence of evolutionary
forces
b) The balance between dominant and recessive allelesc) A state of constant genetic variation d) A type of natural
selection
137. What does the term "fitness" refer to in the context of evolution?
a) The physical strength of an organism b) An organism's ability to survive and reproduce
c) The health of an organism d) The intelligence of an organism
138. What are analogous structures?
a) Structures with similar functions but different evolutionary origins b) Structures with different functions and
different evolutionary origins
c) Structures that have lost their original function d) Structures with the same evolutionary
origin
139. What is convergent evolution?
a) The evolution of similar traits in unrelated species b) The divergence of a species into two distinct
species
c) The evolution of different traits in the same species d) The process of a species becoming extinct
140. What is the primary source of genetic variation in populations?
a) Gene flow b) Mutation c) Natural selection d) Genetic drift
141. What is the role of fossils in the study of evolution?
a) They provide evidence of past life forms and their changes over timeb) They are not useful in studying evolution
c) They only show extinct species d) They are used to date rocks
142. What is biogeography?
a) The study of the geographic distribution of species b) The study of fossils
c) The study of genetic mutations d) The study of the evolution of genes
143. What is the primary concept behind Darwin's theory of evolution?
a) The inheritance of acquired characteristics b) The natural selection of traits that enhance survival and
reproduction
c) The spontaneous generation of life d) The constant rate of species extinction
144. What voyage did Charles Darwin embark on that led to the development of his theory of evolution?
a) The Journey to the North Pole b) The Expedition to Australia c) The Voyage of the Beagle d)
The Discovery of America
145. On which group of islands did Darwin make significant observations that contributed to his theory of natural
selection?
a) Hawaiian Islands b) Canary Islands c) Galápagos Islands d) Azores
Islands
146. What term describes the differential survival and reproduction of individuals due to differences in phenotype?
a) Genetic drift b) Natural selection c) Mutation d) Gene flow
146. In Darwin's theory, what is the role of "variation" within a population?
a) It is unnecessary for evolution to occur b) It provides the raw material upon which natural selection
acts
c) It leads to the extinction of species d) It prevents natural selection from occurring
147. According to Darwin, what is the outcome of natural selection?
a) All individuals in a population become identical b) The adaptation of a population to its
environment
c) The random loss of genetic material d) The equal survival of all species
148. What is the significance of the finches Darwin observed on the Galápagos Islands?
a) They were all identical in form and function b) They demonstrated variations in beak shape, related to
their diet
c) They were the only species on the islands d) They did not exhibit any evolutionary traits
149. What mechanism did Darwin identify as the primary cause of speciation?
a) Mutation b) Genetic drift c) Natural selection d) Artificial
selection
150. What did Darwin mean by "descent with modification"?
a) The gradual loss of genetic information over time b) The transmission of traits from parent to offspring with
changes over generations
c) The creation of entirely new species without ancestry d) The random occurrence of traits in a population
151. Which of the following is NOT a component of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection?
a) Variation exists within populations b) Some variations are heritable
c) All individuals in a population have equal chances of survival d) Organisms produce more offspring than can
survive
152. What is the basic unit of heredity?
a) Gene b) Protein c) Carbohydrate d) Lipid
153. What is a phenotype?
a) The genetic makeup of an organism b) The physical appearance or observable traits of an organism
c) A type of gene d) The study of genes
154. What is an allele?
a) The physical appearance of an organism b) A different form of a gene
c) The sequence of DNA that codes for a protein d) A type of mutation
155. What does homozygous mean?
a) Having two identical alleles for a trait b) Having two different alleles for a trait
c) The presence of a dominant allele d) The presence of a recessive allele
156. What is the difference between a gene and an allele?
a) There is no difference; they are the same b) A gene is a section of DNA that controls a trait, while an allele is
a variant form of a gene
c) A gene is a protein, while an allele is a carbohydrate d) A gene is an observable trait, while an allele is the
genetic code
157. What is the law of independent assortment?
a) The distribution of one pair of alleles into gametes does not affect the distribution of another pair
b) Genes located close together on the same chromosome are usually inherited together
c) Traits are inherited as discrete units d) Genes are located at specific positions on chromosomes
158. Which of the following is a sex-linked trait?
a) Blood type b) Color blindness c) Hair color d) Eye color
159. What is incomplete dominance?
a) A condition where both alleles are equally expressed b) A condition where one allele is not completely dominant
over the other
c) A condition where both alleles are over expressed d) A condition where neither allele is expressed
160. What is a polygenic trait?
a) A trait controlled by multiple alleles b) A trait controlled by multiple genes
c) A trait that is sex-linked d) A trait that is codominant
161. Which of the following is an example of codominance?
a) A white flower crossed with a red flower produces pink flowers b) A person with AB blood type
c) A person with O blood type d) A person who is a carrier for a recessive trait
162. What is a test cross?
a) A cross between two homozygous individuals b) A cross to determine the sex of offspring
c) A cross to determine the dominance of a trait d) A cross b/w an individual with an unknown genotype and
a homozygous recessive individual
163. What is genetic linkage?
a) The tendency of genes located close together on the same chromosome to be inherited together b) The process
of forming mRNA from DNA
c) The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes d) The random distribution of
alleles during gamete formation
164. What is a pedigree chart?
a) A chart that shows the genetic history of a family b) A chart that shows the physical traits of an individual
c) A chart that shows the sequence of DNA d) A chart that shows the lifespan of an organism
165. What is epistasis?
a) A gene at one locus alters the phenotypic expression of a gene at a different locus b) Multiple genes contribute
to a single trait
c) One gene affects multiple traits d) The inheritance of genes from a
common ancestor
166. What is genetic drift?
a) The change in allele frequencies due to random events b) The movement of genes from one
population to another
c) The selection of advantageous traits d) The random mutation of genes
167. What is Mendel's law of segregation?
a) Alleles of a gene separate during gamete formation b) Genes on different chromosomes assort
independently
c) Genes are linked and inherited together d) One allele is dominant over the other
168. What is a dihybrid cross?
a) A cross between two individuals focusing on a single trait b) A cross between two individuals focusing
on two traits
c) A cross between individuals with identical genotypes d) A cross to determine the dominance of a single
trait
169. In a monohybrid cross, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?
a) 1:1 b) 3:1 c) 9:3:3:1 d) 1:2:1
170. What term describes a situation where neither allele is completely dominant, resulting in a blend of the two
traits?
a) Codominance b) Incomplete dominance c) Complete dominance d) Epistasis
171. In Mendel's experiments, what phenotype was expressed in the F1 generation when true-breeding tall and
short pea plants were crossed?
a) Short b) Tall c) A mix of tall and short d) Medium
height
172. What does a Punnett square show?
a) The actual offspring produced from a genetic cross b) The likelihood of certain genotypes and phenotypes
among offspring
c) The linkage of genes on a chromosome d) The frequency of alleles in a population
173. What is the term for a genetic cross involving three pairs of contrasting traits?
a) Monohybrid cross b) Dihybrid cross c) Trihybrid cross d)
Polyhybrid cross
174. What does the term "recessive" mean in genetics?
a) A trait that is always expressed b) A trait that is masked by a dominant allele
c) A trait that shows up only in the F1 generation d) A trait that is linked to sex chromosomes
175. What is the genotypic ratio of the offspring in a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals?
a) 1:2:1 b) 3:1 c) 1:1 d) 9:3:3:1
176. What is a test cross used for?
a) Determining the genotypic ratio of offspring b) Determining if an individual exhibiting a dominant trait is
homozygous or heterozygous
c) Testing the effect of a mutation d) Determining the location of a gene on a chromosome
177. What are linked genes?
a) Genes located on different chromosomes b) Genes located close together on the same chromosome that
tend to be inherited together
c) Genes that have the same function d) Genes that are involved in the same biochemical pathway
178. In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals (AaBb × AaBb), what is the phenotypic ratio of the
offspring?
a) 9:3:3:1 b) 3:1 c) 1:2:1 d) 1:1:1:1
179. What does Mendel's law of independent assortment state?
a) Alleles of different genes segregate independently of each other during gamete formation b) Alleles segregate
during meiosis
c) Genes on the same chromosome are always inherited together d) Dominant alleles mask the effects of
recessive alleles
180. What is pleiotropy?
a) A single gene influences multiple phenotypic traits b) Multiple genes influence a single trait
c) A gene affects only one trait d) A gene mutation has no observable effect
181. If a woman is a carrier for the color-blind recessive allele and her husband is normal, what are their chances
that a son will be color-blind?
A) None since the father is normal. B) 50% since the mother is the only carrier.
C) 100% because the mother has the gene. D) 25% because the mother is a hybrid.
182. In a cross between two plants of the following genotypes: (AaBb x AaBb), which of the following phenotypes
should occur at the lowest frequency among the offspring?
A) AB B) Ab C) aB D) ab
183. In each of Mendel's monohybrid crosses of pea plants, the trait that disappeared in the F1 generation but
reappeared in the F2 generation
A) illustrated the principle of independent assortment. B) was a recessive trait.
C) appeared in 3/4 of the plants in F2 generation. D) A & B
184. A woman and a man are both heterozygous for freckles (the dominant condition). If they have one child, what
are the chances that it will not have freckles?
A) 25% B) 50% C) It will depend on the sex of the child.D) 75%
185. Within incomplete dominance, a likely phenotypic ratio resulting from a monohybrid cross would be:
A) 3:1 B) 1:2:2:4 C) 1:2:1 D) 9:3:3:1
186. Consider a gene with alleles "B" and "b". Suppose that the homozygous recessive genotype bb is lethal
during embryonic development. In a cross between two heterozygotes, Bb x Bb, what percentage of the living
offspring should be Bb?
A) 1/2 B) 1/3 C) ¼ D) 2/3
187. In “sex-influenced inheritance,”
A) a trait can be expressed in one sex only. B) a given genotype produces a different phenotype in
males versus females.
C) a given trait is on the X chromosome. D) fathers never pass the trait to sons.
188. When two genes fail to assort independently, the term normally applied is
A) Mendelian inheritance. B) linkage. C) incomplete dominance. D)
complementation.
189. Which statement is true?
A) two genes on the same chromosome can never assort independently from one another.
B) two genes on different chromosomes will assort independently from one another.
C) recombination will occur between a given pair of linked genes every time gametes are formed.
D) two genes on the same chromosome will always appear to be genetically linked to one another in a dihybrid
cross
190. To determine if an organism with a dominant phenotype is heterozygous, one can perform a ___.
A) reciprocal cross B) dihybrid cross C) test cross D) cross fertilization
191. Starting with a P generation with the following genotypes (AABB x aabb). Based on classical Mendelian
inheritance, what is the expected phenotypic ratio observed among the F2 progeny?
A) 9:3:3:1 B) 1:2:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:1
192. In the above 11 question, if A = plain fur and a = spotted fur and B = Long ears and b = short ears, what
phenotypic class would be observed in the highest proportion in the F2 generation?
A) spotted - short ears B) plain - short ears C) spotted - long ears D) plain - long ears
193. A species of mice can have gray or black fur and long or short tails. A cross between black-furred, long-tailed
mice and gray-furred, short-tailed mice produce all black-furred, long-tailed offspring. Using the gene symbols G
for black, g for gray, S for long and s for short, what would be the genotype of a gray-furred, short-tailed mouse?
A) GGSS B) ggSS C) ggss D) GgSs
194. Which characteristic of pea plants was NOT important in their selection as Mendel's research organism?
A) Most other scientists of the time were also using peas, so a lot was known about them. B) Peas are easy to
cultivate.
C) Pea plants have a short generation time. D) Pea plants are self-pollinating but can be cross-
fertilized easily.
195. In a F1 dihybrid cross (WwGg X WwGg) where W = round, w = wrinkled, G = yellow and g = green, what is
the probability of obtaining an individual that is wrinkled, green and true-breeding?
A) 1/16 B) ½ C) 9/16 D) 3/16
196. What would be the dimensions of a Punnett square for the cross Ww x ww?
A) 4 x 4 B) 2 x 2 C) 2 x 1 D) 1 x 1
197. In a cross of a round hybrid pea with a true breeding round parent (Ww x WW), what genotypic proportions
would be observed in the offspring?
A) Half heterozygous, half homozygous dominant B) Half round, half wrinkled C) All heterozygous
D) All round
198. The fundamental Mendelian process which involves the separation of contrasting genetic elements at the
same locus would be called ___.
A) segregation B) independent assortment C) continuous variation D) discontinuous variation
199. Starting with a cross between AA and aa, the proportion of heterozygotes in the F2 progeny will be ___.
A) 1/8 B) ¼ C) 1/3 D) All heterozygotes
200. Genotype is to DNA as phenotype is to
A) Genotype B) Proteins C) Expressivity D) RNA