Module 3 Study Guide

Chapters 7-10

Unit 7:
1. Distinguish between haploid and diploid chromosome numbers. Haploid cells contain one complete set of
chromosomes, while diploid cells contain two complete sets of chromosomes
2. Distinguish between genotype and phenotype. Which depends upon the other? Is the trait “blond hair” a
genotype or a phenotype? What about Bb? Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an individual (e.g.,
Bb), while phenotype refers to the observable traits of an individual (e.g., blond hair). The phenotype
depends on the genotype.
3. Who did the experiments with pea plants? Gregor Mendel
4. What is the law of segregation? During the formation of gametes, the alleles for a trait separate so that each
gamete carries only one allele for each gene.
5. What is the law of independent assortment? The alleles for different traits segregate independently of one
another during gamete formation.
6. What are alleles? What are some possible alleles for hair color? Alleles are different versions of a gene. For
hair color, some possible alleles might be B (brown), b (blond), and r (red).
7. Using the letter “B” how is the genotype of a heterozygous individual represented? A homozygous
recessive? A homozygous dominant? A heterozygous individual is represented as Bb, a homozygous
recessive individual as bb, and a homozygous dominant individual as BB.
8. If 2 heterozygous individuals mate, what is the probability in percentage will the offspring be homozygous
recessive? Homozygous dominant? Heterozygous? Homozygous recessive (bb): 25%, Homozygous dominant
(BB): 25%, Heterozygous (Bb): 50%
9. What is a Punnett Square used for? A Punnett Square is used to predict the genetic outcomes of a cross
between two individuals.
10. On a Punnett Square, what are the letters on the outside of the box represent? The letters on the inside of
the box? The letters on the outside of the box represent the alleles contributed by each parent, while the
letters inside represent the combinations of those alleles in the offspring.
11. How many alleles can a single sperm cell or egg cell carry for a specific trait? A single sperm cell or egg cell
carries only one allele for a specific trait.
12. Explain the difference in the P generation, the F1 generation, and the F2 generation. P generation: The
parental generation, F1 generation: The first generation of offspring from the P generation, F2 generation:
The second generation of offspring from the F1 generation.
13. How many traits are present in a monohybrid cross? A dihybrid cross? A monohybrid cross involves one
trait, while a dihybrid cross involves two traits.
14. What size of Punnett Square is needed to represent a monohybrid cross? A dihybrid cross? A monohybrid
cross needs a 2x2 Punnett Square, while a dihybrid cross requires a 4x4 Punnett Square.
15. Explain what incomplete dominance is, and give an example. Incomplete dominance occurs when the
phenotype of heterozygotes is an intermediate between the phenotypes of the two homozygotes. An
example is a red flower crossed with a white flower producing pink flowers.
16. Explain what codominance is, and give an example. Codominance occurs when both alleles in a
heterozygote are fully expressed. An example is AB blood type where both A and B alleles are expressed.
 17. A diagram that depicts the probability results of mating over several generations is called what? A diagram
showing probabilities of mating results over generations is called a pedigree.
18. If the probability of having a recessive offspring is 25%, does that mean that there will absolutely be 25% of
the offspring that are recessive? A 25% probability does not guarantee that 25% of the offspring will be
recessive; it is a statistical likelihood over multiple offspring.
19. In plants, is it possible for environmental conditions to impact the phenotypic appearance of the plant? Yes,
environmental conditions can affect the phenotypic appearance of plants, such as growth patterns and
flower color.
20. What is pleiotropy? Give an example. Pleiotropy occurs when one gene influences multiple traits. An
example is the gene affecting both skin color and susceptibility to certain diseases in humans.
21. What is epistasis? Epistasis is when one gene's expression is affected by another gene, often masking its
effects.
22. What is a testcross and why is it necessary? A testcross involves breeding an individual of an unknown
genotype with a homozygous recessive individual to determine the unknown genotype.

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Unit 8:
23. For a gene to be sex linked, it must be located on which two chromosomes? A sex-linked gene must be
located on the X or Y chromosome.
24. Which gene is the one which determines whether an embryo becomes a male? The SRY gene (Sex-
determining Region Y) determines whether an embryo becomes a male.
25. Distinguish between the following types of mutations: inversion, duplication, deletion, translocation.
Inversion: A chromosome segment is reversed, Duplication: A segment is repeated, Deletion: A segment is
lost, Translocation: A segment is moved to another chromosome.
26. What is a karyotype? A karyotype is a visual profile of all the chromosomes in a cell, arranged in pairs.
27. Usually, if an individual is XX, are they male or female? If they are XY? An individual with XX is usually
female, while one with XY is usually male.
28. Under what conditions could a person develop as a male if their genotype is XX? A person can develop as
male with an XX genotype if there is a translocation of the SRY gene from the Y chromosome.
29. If an individual is XO, will they be male or female. Explain. An individual with an XO genotype is typically
female because they lack a second sex chromosome.
30. Why are more males affected by X-linked disorders? Males are more affected by X-linked disorders because
they have only one X chromosome; if that chromosome carries the disorder, they will express it.
31. Where are stem cells collected from? Stem cells can be collected from sources like bone marrow, blood, and
embryos.
32. In autosomal recessive diseases, what is the likely percentage of offspring that will be affected if both
parents are carriers? If both parents are carriers, there is a 25% chance their offspring will be affected.
33. If a gene is a lethal gene, why is it that it still gets passed on? (consider Huntington Disease) Lethal genes can
be passed on because they may not affect the individual until later in life, allowing them to reproduce first.

Unit 9:
34. What are the 3 basic components of a nucleotide? The three basic components of a nucleotide are a
phosphate group, a sugar (deoxyribose in DNA), and a nitrogenous base.
 35. What type of bond connects DNA’s nucleotides together? Is it weak or strong? Strong covalent bonds
connect DNA nucleotides together.
36. What are the 4 different nucleotides found in DNA? Which ones pair together? The four nucleotides in DNA
are adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). A pairs with T and C pairs with G.
37. Why is it important for DNA molecules to have exact base pairing? Exact base pairing is crucial for accurate
DNA replication and transcription.
38. What type of bond holds the right and left sides of a DNA strand together? Hydrogen bonds hold the two
strands of DNA together.
39. Which nucleotide is NOT found in DNA, but is present in RNA? Uracil (U) is not found in DNA but is present in
RNA.
40. What is CRISPR, what is it made of, and how does it function? What was the first human trial used for?
CRISPR is a gene-editing technology made of RNA and protein that can modify DNA in organisms. The first
human trial was used for treating genetic disorders.
41. Is the order of the nucleotides in DNA the same for members of the same species? The order of nucleotides
in DNA can vary among individuals of the same species, contributing to genetic diversity.
42. What is the pol gene in pig DNA, and how is it related to the PERV gene? The pol gene in pig DNA is related
to the PERV gene (Porcine Endogenous Retrovirus), which has implications for xenotransplantation.
43. What is a DNA primer? A DNA primer is a short strand of nucleotides that initiates DNA synthesis during
replication.
44. What happens during replication? When does it occur? During replication, DNA is duplicated so that each
cell receives an identical copy. It occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle.
45. What does PCR stand for, and what is occurring during it? PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction, a
technique to amplify DNA. It involves repeated cycles of denaturation, annealing, and extension.
46. What kind of substances can repair DNA? Substances that can repair DNA include specific enzymes, such as
DNA ligase and polymerase.
47. What is DNA polymerase used for? DNA polymerase is used for synthesizing new DNA strands during
replication and repair.
48. Bacterial enzymes are used in the process of PCR. What is uniquely different about those enzymes? Bacterial
enzymes used in PCR, such as Taq polymerase, are uniquely heat-stable, allowing them to function at high
temperatures.
49. What is a point mutation? A point mutation is a change in a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence.
50. What is a silent mutation? A silent mutation is a change in the DNA sequence that does not alter the protein
produced.
51. What are some causes of mutations? Mutations can be caused by errors in DNA replication, exposure to
radiation, chemicals, or viral infections.

Unit 10:
52. What are the 3 different types of RNA? What are the functions of each type? mRNA: Messenger RNA, carries
genetic information from DNA to ribosomes, tRNA: Transfer RNA, transports amino acids to ribosomes
during protein synthesis, rRNA: Ribosomal RNA, a component of ribosomes that facilitates protein synthesis.
53. What happens during the process of transcription, and where does it occur? What molecules are involved?
During transcription, the DNA sequence is copied into mRNA. It occurs in the nucleus and involves RNA
polymerase.
54. What happens during the process of translation, and where does it occur? What molecules are involved?
During translation, mRNA is read by ribosomes to produce proteins. It occurs in the cytoplasm and involves
tRNA.
55. What is a codon? An anticodon? A codon is a three-nucleotide sequence on mRNA that codes for an amino
acid, while an anticodon is a three-nucleotide sequence on tRNA that pairs with the codon.
56. What is the function of a stop codon? A stop codon signals the termination of protein synthesis.
57. What can be said about the variability of gene expression? Gene expression can vary widely among
individuals and can be influenced by environmental factors.
58. What is a promoter? A promoter is a DNA sequence that initiates transcription of a gene.
59. What is an intron? An exon? An intron is a non-coding sequence within a gene, while an exon is a coding
sequence that is expressed.
60. Where does transcription and translation occur in prokaryotes? Both transcription and translation occur in
the cytoplasm of prokaryotes since they lack a defined nucleus.
61. Are genes active at all times? Genes are not active at all times; they can be turned on or off in response to
various signals.
62. How many bases are needed to code for 1 amino acid? Three bases are needed to code for one amino acid.
63. What does the enzyme reverse transcriptase do? Reverse transcriptase converts RNA into DNA.
64. Know how to read the codon chart!
65. What happens to the original DNA strand after transcription? The original DNA strand remains unchanged
after transcription and serves as a template for future RNA synthesis.