1z0-060.prepaway.premium.exam.

216q

Number: 1z0-060
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 12-0

1z0-060

Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c

Version 12.0

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Exam A

QUESTION 1
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB, both
of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.

A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01565: error in identifying file ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/CDB1/temp01.tmp’
ORA-27037: unable to obtain file status

Identify two ways to rectify the error. (Choose two.)

A. Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the error.
B. Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart the
database.
C. Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and then bring
the temporary tablespace online.
D. Shut down the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then open the
database with RESETLOGS.
E. Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them, RMAN never
restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only so that it can automatically
re-create them when needed.

* If you use RMAN in a Data Guard environment, then RMAN transparently converts primary control files to
standby control files and vice versa. RMAN automatically updates file names for data files, online redo logs,
standby redo logs, and temp files when you issue RESTORE and RECOVER.

QUESTION 2
Examine these commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD) policies:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Which two statements are true about redefining the table? (Choose two.)

A. All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column types in the
table.
B. The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C. VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D. You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The triggers cloned to the interim table are disabled until the redefinition is completed. Once the redefinition is
complete, all cloned objects are renamed to the original names used by they objects they were cloned from.

References: http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/10g/online-table-redefinition-enhancements-10gr1.php

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the
v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column? (Choose two.)

A. The procedures may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX tablespace
from its current tablespace.
B. The procedures may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX
tablespace to another tablespace.
C. All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D. All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation/Reference:
References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_v_sysaux_contents_tips.htm

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?

A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user
connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the listener registration process (LREG) process of
each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to
allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directory.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) finding in your production database reports that the shared
pool is inadequately sized. You diagnose that this is due to the different kinds of workloads and this occurs only
during peak hours. The following are the parameter settings for the database instance:

You want to balance the memory between the System Global Area (SGA) components depending on the
workload.

Which option would solve this problem?

A. setting the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter to 200M and the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M
B. setting the MEMORY_TARGET and SGA_MAX_SIZE parameters to 400M
C. setting the SGA_TARGET parameter to 300M
D. setting the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two pluggable
databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database.

You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for the default
permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.

What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in ACCOUNTS_PDB?

A. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then take the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B. Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb CLOSE
IMMEDIATE command.
C. Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb OPEN RESTRICTED command.
D. Take the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* You can take an online tablespace offline so that it is temporarily unavailable for general use. The rest of the
database remains open and available for users to access data. Conversely, you can bring an offline tablespace
online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available to database users. The database must be
open to alter the availability of a tablespace.

QUESTION 7
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?

A. Oracle Data Pump

B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in ARCHIVELOG
mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.

The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:

1. Mount the CDB.

2. Close all the PDBs.
3. Open the database.
4. Apply the archive redo logs.
5. Restore the data file.

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6. Take the SYSAUX tablespace offline.
7. Place the SYSAUX tablespace online.
8. Open all the PDBs with RESETLOGS.
9. Open the database with RESETLOGS.
10. Execute the command SHUTDOWN ABORT.

Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?

A. 6, 5, 4, 7
B. 10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C. 10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D. 10, 1, 5, 8, 10

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux OFFLINE IMMEDIATE;
RMAN> RESTORE TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> RECOVER TABLESPACE sysaux;
RMAN> ALTER TABLESPACE sysaux ONLINE;

* Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing “all pdb files lost”.
Cannot close the pdb as the system datafile was missing…
So only option to recover was:
Shutdown cdb (10)
startup mount; (1)
restore pluggable database
recover pluggable database
alter database open;
alter pluggable database name open;
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system tablespace of PDB.

* Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make an
inconsistent backup by backing up data files while a database is closed, either:

/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all instances)
/ After shutting down the database using SHUTDOWN ABORT

Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived redo logs
created since the backup are available.

* Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;

QUESTION 9
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it
is enabled?

A. Reduced logical I/O

B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
F. Reduced CPU utilization

Correct Answer: BCF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems

Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run different
parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users—either one process for each
connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases are multiuser because a
primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users simultaneously.

Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and
applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance simultaneously
while the system gives good performance.

* In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in Oracle
Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to execute as operating
system threads in separate address spaces.

QUESTION 10
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions
of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database?

Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.

A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it
at night and during weekends.

Minimal disruption to availability is required.

Which three statements are true about this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.

B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at the same time you are
building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while the index build is taking
place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not supported when creating or rebuilding an
index online.

D: Moving (Rebuilding) Index-Organized Tables Because index-organized tables are primarily stored in a B-
tree index, you can encounter fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates. However, you can use
the ALTER TABLE...MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this fragmentation.

C: If a table can be compressed in the new tablespace, also it can be compressed in the same tablespace.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Incorrect Answers:
B, E: Local and Global indexes can be automatically rebuild with UPDATE INDEXES when you move the table.

References: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/issue-archive/2014/14-may/o34dba-2193424.html

QUESTION 11
Which three are true about the large pool for an Oracle database instance that supports shared server
connections?

A. Allocates memory for RMAN backup and restore operations

B. Allocates memory for shared and private SQL areas
C. Contains a cursor area for storing runtime information about cursors
D. Contains stack space
E. Contains a hash area performing hash joins of tables

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The large pool can provide large memory allocations for the following:
/ (B)UGA (User Global Area) for the shared server and the Oracle XA interface (used where transactions
interact with multiple databases)
/Message buffers used in the parallel execution of statements
/ (A) Buffers for Recovery Manager (RMAN) I/O slaves

Note:
* large pool
Optional area in the SGA that provides large memory allocations for backup and restore operations, I/O server
processes, and session memory for the shared server and Oracle XA.

* Oracle XA
An external interface that allows global transactions to be coordinated by a transaction manager other than
Oracle Database.

* UGA
User global area. Session memory that stores session variables, such as logon information, and can also
contain the OLAP pool.

* Configuring the Large Pool

Unlike the shared pool, the large pool does not have an LRU list (not D). Oracle Database does not attempt to
age objects out of the large pool. Consider configuring a large pool if the database instance uses any of the
following Oracle Database features:

* Shared server
In a shared server architecture, the session memory for each client process is included in the shared pool.

* Parallel query
Parallel query uses shared pool memory to cache parallel execution message buffers.

* Recovery Manager
Recovery Manager (RMAN) uses the shared pool to cache I/O buffers during backup and restore operations.
For I/O server processes, backup, and restore operations, Oracle Database allocates buffers that are a few
hundred kilobytes in size.

QUESTION 12
What are three purposes of the RMAN “FROM SERVICE” clause? (Choose three.)

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
A. to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B. to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data Guard environment
C. to support active database duplication by taking image copies of the source database
D. to support file restoration over the network in a Data Guard environment
E. to support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

* With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current control file, recovery
catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible.
* RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard environment. A
recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata about one or more Oracle
databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs, standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo
logs, backup sets, and image copies are created.

QUESTION 13
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database significantly degraded.
Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the
database instance.

How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?

A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic
Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
You plan to use the In-Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that are inactive for
over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.

Which three storage options support the use of HCC? (Choose three.)

A. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.
B. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on any Storage Area Network array
C. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero-padded NFS-mounted files
D. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.
E. Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
F. Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
G. ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays

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Correct Answer: AEG
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage – Exadata (A), Pillar Axiom (G) or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance
(ZFSSA).

Note:
* Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to support Pillar Axiom
and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3
and above
* Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS
implements NFS V3 protocol within the Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes
many of the challenges associated with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, better
performance than traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.

QUESTION 15
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about
performance degradation.

How does real-time Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and
provide solutions?

A. It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.

B. It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C. It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D. It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Note:
* The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant container database
(CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases (PDBs). A PDB is a portable
collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-
CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
* The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to an Oracle “instance”
(an instance is your database programs and RAM).
* The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control information
for a single process.

QUESTION 16
The tnsnames.ora file has an entry for the service alias ORCL as follows:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
The TNSPING command executes successfully when tested with ORCL; however, from the same OS user
session, you are not able to connect to the database instance with the following command:

SQL > CONNECT scott/tiger@orcl

What could be the reason for this?

A. The listener is not running on the database node.

B. The TNS_ADMIN environment variable is set to the wrong value.
C. The orcl.oracle.com database service is not registered with the listener.
D. The DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to the wrong value in the sqlnet.ora file.
E. The listener is running on a different port.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Service registration enables the listener to determine whether a database service and its service handlers are
available. A service handler is a dedicated server process or dispatcher that acts as a connection point to a
database. During registration, the LREG process provides the listener with the instance name, database
service names, and the type and addresses of service handlers. This information enables the listener to start a
service handler when a client request arrives.

QUESTION 17
Examine the following steps of privilege analysis for checking and revoking excessive, unused privileges
granted to users:

1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.
2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.
3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.
4. Revoke the unused privileges.
5. Compare the used and unused privileges’ lists.
6. Stop analyzing the data.

Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4
B. 1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 4
C. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4
D. 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4
E. 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 4

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.
3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.
6. Stop analyzing the data.
2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.
5. Compare the used and unused privileges’ lists.
4. Revoke the unused privileges.

QUESTION 18
Your database is running an ARCHIVELOG mode.

The following parameters are set in your database instance:

Which statement is true about the archived redo log files?

A. They are created only in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter.
B. They are created only in the Fast Recovery Area because configuring the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST and
DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE parameters automatically enables flashback for the database.
C. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the default
location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/arch.
D. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the location
specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can choose to archive redo logs to a single destination or to multiple destinations.
Destinations can be local—within the local file system or an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (Oracle
ASM) disk group—or remote (on a standby database). When you archive to multiple destinations, a copy of
each filled redo log file is written to each destination. These redundant copies help ensure that archived logs
are always available in the event of a failure at one of the destinations.
To archive to only a single destination, specify that destination using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST and
LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters.

ARCHIVE_DEST initialization parameter. To archive to multiple destinations, you can choose to archive to two
or more locations using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n initialization parameters, or to archive only to a primary
and secondary destination using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization
parameters.

QUESTION 19
Your multitenant container database (CDB) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You connect to the CDB RMAN.

Examine the following command and its output:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
You execute the following command:

RMAN > BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;

Which data files will be backed up?

A. Data files that belong to only the root container

B. Data files that belong to the root container and all the pluggable databases (PDBs)
C. Data files that belong to only the root container and PDB$SEED
D. Data files that belong to the root container and all the PDBs excluding PDB$SEED

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Backing Up a Whole CDB

Backing up a whole CDB is similar to backing up a non-CDB. When you back up a whole CDB, RMAN backs
up the root, all the PDBs, and the archived redo logs. You can then recover either the whole CDB, the root
only, or one or more PDBs from the CDB backup.

Note:
* You can back up and recover a whole CDB, the root only, or one or more PDBs.
* Backing Up Archived Redo Logs with RMAN

Archived redo logs are the key to successful media recovery. Back them up regularly. You can back up logs
with BACKUP ARCHIVELOG, or back up logs while backing up datafiles and control files by specifying
BACKUP ... PLUS ARCHIVELOG.

QUESTION 20
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage management (ASM). The files are stored in the
DATA disk group. You execute the following command:

What is the result?

A. The file ‘+data.231.45678’ is physically relocated to ‘+data/prod’ and renamed as ‘myfile.dbf’.

B. The file ‘+data.231.45678’ is renamed as ‘myfile.dbf’, and copied to ‘+data/prod’.
C. The file ‘+data.231.45678’ remains in the same location and a synonym 'myfile.dbf' is created.
D. The file ‘myfile.dbf’ is created in ‘+data/prod’ and the reference to ‘+data.231.45678’ in the data
dictionary removed.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ADD ALIAS
Use this clause to create an alias name for an Oracle ASM filename. The alias_name consists of the full
directory path and the alias itself.

QUESTION 21
Which three functions are performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor?

A. Building and implementing SQL profiles

B. Recommending the optimization of materialized views
C. Checking query objects for missing and stale statistics
D. Recommending bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes
E. Recommending the restructuring of SQL queries that are using bad plans

Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The SQL Tuning Advisor takes one or more SQL statements as an input and invokes the Automatic Tuning
Optimizer to perform SQL tuning on the statements. The output of the SQL Tuning Advisor is in the form of an
advice or recommendations, along with a rationale for each recommendation and its expected benefit. The
recommendation relates to collection of statistics on objects (C), creation of new indexes, restructuring of the
SQL statement (E), or creation of a SQL profile (A). You can choose to accept the recommendation to
complete the tuning of the SQL statements.

QUESTION 22
Examine the following command:

ALTER SYSTEM SET enable_ddl_logging=FALSE;

Which statement is true?

A. None of the data definition language (DDL) statements are logged in the trace file.
B. Only DDL commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert log file.
C. A new log.xml file that contains the DDL statements is created, and the DDL command details are removed
from the alert log file.
D. Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new database files are logged.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING enables or disables the writing of a subset of data definition language (DDL)
statements to a DDL alert log.

The DDL log is a file that has the same format and basic behavior as the alert log, but it only contains the DDL
statements issued by the database. The DDL log is created only for the RDBMS component and only if the
ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING initialization parameter is set to true. When this parameter is set to false, DDL

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
statements are not included in any log.

QUESTION 23
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains three pluggable database (PDBs). You find that the
control file is damaged. You plan to use RMAN to recover the control file. There are no startup triggers
associated with the PDBs.

Which three steps should you perform to recover the control file and make the database fully operational?
(Choose three.)

A. Mount the container database (CDB) and restore the control file from the control file autobackup.
B. Recover and open the CDB in NORMAL mode.
C. Mount the CDB and then recover and open the database, with the RESETLOGS option.
D. Open all the pluggable databases.
E. Recover each pluggable database.
F. Start the database instance in the nomount stage and restore the control file from control file autobackup.

Correct Answer: CDF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Step 1: Start the database instance in the nomount stage and restore the control file from control file auto
backup
Step 2: Open all the pluggable databases.
Step 3: If all copies of the current control file are lost or damaged, then you must restore and mount a backup
control file. You must then run the RECOVER command, even if no data files have been restored, and open
the database with the RESETLOGS option.

Note:
* RMAN and Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control (Cloud Control) provide full support for backup and
recovery in a multitenant environment. You can back up and recover a whole multitenant container database
(CDB), root only, or one or more pluggable databases (PDBs).

QUESTION 24
A new report process containing a complex query is written, with high impact on the database. You want to
collect basic statistics about query, such as the level of parallelism, total database time, and the number of I/O
requests.

For the database instance STATISTICS_LEVEL, the initialization parameter is set to TYPICAL and the
CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS parameter is set to DIAGNOSTIC+TUNING.

What should you do to accomplish this task?

A. Execute the query and view Active Session History (ASH) for information about the query.
B. Enable SQL trace for the query.
C. Create a database operation, execute the query, and use the
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR function to view the report.
D. Use the DBMS_APPLICATION_INFO.SET_SESSION_LONGOPS procedure to monitor query execution and
view the information from the V$SESSION_LONGOPS view.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation:
The REPORT_SQL_MONITOR function is used to return a SQL monitoring report for a specific SQL
statement.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Not interested in session statistics, only in statistics for the particular SQL query.
B: We are interested in statistics, not tracing.
D: SET_SESSION_LONGOPS Procedure
This procedure sets a row in the V$SESSION_LONGOPS view. This is a view that is used to indicate the on-
going progress of a long running operation. Some Oracle functions, such as parallel execution and Server
Managed Recovery, use rows in this view to indicate the status of, for example, a database backup.

Applications may use the SET_SESSION_LONGOPS procedure to advertise information on the progress of
application specific long running tasks so that the progress can be monitored by way of the
V$SESSION_LONGOPS view.

QUESTION 25
Identify two valid options for adding a pluggable database (PDB) to an existing multitenant container database
(CDB). (Choose two.)

A. Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB using the files from the SEED.
B. Use the CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to provision a PDB by
copying file from the SEED.
C. Use the DBMS_PDB package to clone an existing PDB.
D. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 12c non-CDB database into an existing CDB.
E. Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 11g Release 2 (11.2.0.3.0) non-CDB database into an
existing CDB.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries: Currently, the library
cache contains the ideal workload for analysis. You want to analyze some of the queries for an application that
are cached in the library cache.

What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized views to
improve query performance?

A. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL
Tuning Advisor (STA) on the workload captured in the STS.
B. Run the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report.
C. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance
Analyzer (SPA) on the workload captured in the STS.
D. Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access Advisor on
the workload captured in the STS.
E. Run the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM).

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation:
* SQL Access Advisor is primarily responsible for making schema modification recommendations, such as
adding or dropping indexes and materialized views. SQL Tuning Advisor makes other types of
recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles and restructuring SQL statements.
* The query optimizer can also help you tune SQL statements. By using SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access
Advisor, you can invoke the query optimizer in advisory mode to examine a SQL statement or set of
statements and determine how to improve their efficiency. SQL Tuning Advisor and SQL Access Advisor can
make various recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles, restructuring SQL statements, creating
additional indexes or materialized views, and refreshing optimizer statistics.

Note:
* Decision support system (DSS) workload
* The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This
cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQL areas and control structures such as locks and library cache
handles.

QUESTION 27
The following parameters are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:

You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:

1. Set the evolve task parameters.

2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
3. Implement the recommendations in the task by using the DBMS_SPM.IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK function.
4. Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
5. Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM.REPORT_EVOLVE_TASK function.

Identify the correct sequence of steps:

A. 2, 4, 5
B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Evolving SQL Plan Baselines

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOLVE_TASK function.
This function creates an advisor task to prepare the plan evolution of one or more plans for a specified SQL
statement. The input parameters can be a SQL handle, plan name or a list of plan names, time limit, task
name, and description.

1. Set the evolve task parameters.

SET_EVOLVE_TASK_PARAMETER
This function updates the value of an evolve task parameter. In this release, the only valid parameter is
TIME_LIMIT.

4. Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.

This function executes an evolution task. The input parameters can be the task name, execution name, and
execution description. If not specified, the advisor generates the name, which is returned by the function.

3: IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK
This function implements all recommendations for an evolve task. Essentially, this function is equivalent to
using ACCEPT_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE for all recommended plans. Input parameters include task name, plan
name, owner name, and execution name.

5. Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM_EVOLVE_TASK function.

This function displays the results of an evolve task as a CLOB. Input parameters include the task name and
section of the report to include.

QUESTION 28
In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high number of buffer
busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list managed segments.

On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks.

Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?

A. Decreasing PCTUSED
B. Decreasing PCTFREE
C. Increasing the number of DBWN process
D. Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E. Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Automatic segment space management (ASSM) is a simpler and more efficient way of managing space
within a segment. It completely eliminates any need to specify and tune the pctused,freelists, and freelist
groups storage parameters for schema objects created in the tablespace. If any of these attributes are
specified, they are ignored.
* Oracle introduced Automatic Segment Storage Management (ASSM) as a replacement for traditional freelists
management which used one-way linked-lists to manage free blocks with tables and indexes. ASSM is
commonly called "bitmap freelists" because that is how Oracle implement the internal data structures for free
block management.

Note:
* Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the data buffer pool
(db_cache_size, etc.).
* The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR) contention tuning,
adding freelists (or ASSM), and adding missing indexes.

QUESTION 29
Examine this command:

SQL > exec DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS ('SH', 'CUSTOMERS', 'PUBLISH', 'false');

Which three statements are true about the effect of this command? (Choose three.)

A. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B. Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
C. Any existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are still available to the optimizer at parse time.
D. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as pending
statistics.
E. Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as pending
statistics.

Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* SET_TABLE_PREFS Procedure

This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified schema.

* Example:
Using Pending Statistics

Assume many modifications have been made to the employees table since the last time statistics were
gathered. To ensure that the cost-based optimizer is still picking the best plan, statistics should be gathered
once again; however, the user is concerned that new statistics will cause the optimizer to choose bad plans
when the current ones are acceptable. The user can do the following:

EXEC DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS('hr', 'employees', 'PUBLISH', 'false');

By setting the employees tables publish preference to FALSE, any statistics gather from now on will not be
automatically published. The newly gathered statistics will be marked as pending.

QUESTION 30

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c Oracle database
(source):

Which three are prerequisites for successful execution of the command? (Choose three.)

A. The import operation must be performed by a user on the target database with the
DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user on the source
database with the DATAPUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role.
B. All the user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
C. The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.
D. The source and target database must be running on the same platform with the same endianness.
E. The path of data files on the target database must be the same as that on the source database.
F. The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In this case we have run the impdp without performing any conversion if endian format is different then we
have to first perform conversion.

QUESTION 31
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database?

A. All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.

B. The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C. The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D. The pluggable databases are patched together.
E. Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The benefits of Oracle Multitenant are brought by implementing a pure deployment choice. The following list
calls out the most compelling examples.
* High consolidation density. (E)
The many pluggable databases in a single multitenant container database share its memory and background
processes, letting you operate many more pluggable databases on a particular platform than you can single
databases that use the old architecture. This is the same benefit that schema-based consolidation brings.
* Rapid provisioning and cloning using SQL.
* New paradigms for rapid patching and upgrades. (D, not B)
The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching all of its many
pluggable databases. To patch a single pluggable database, you simply unplug/plug to a multitenant container

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
database at a different Oracle Database software version.
* (C, not A) Manage many databases as one.
By consolidating existing databases as pluggable databases, administrators can manage many databases as
one. For example, tasks like backup and disaster recovery are performed at the multitenant container database
level.
* Dynamic between pluggable database resource management. In Oracle Database 12c, Resource Manager is
extended with specific functionality to control the competition for resources between the pluggable databases
within a multitenant container database.
Note:
* Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps customers reduce IT
costs by simplifying consolidation, provisioning, upgrades, and more. It is supported by a new architecture that
allows a multitenant container database to hold many pluggable databases. And it fully complements other
options, including Oracle Real Application Clusters and Oracle Active Data Guard. An existing database can be
simply adopted, with no change, as a pluggable database; and no changes are needed in the other tiers of the
application.

QUESTION 32
Examine the current values for the following parameters in your database instance:

SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M
SGA_TARGET = 700M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 124M
LOG_BUFFER = 200M

You issue the following command to increase the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE=140M;

Which statement is true?

A. It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.

B. It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
C. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_TARGET.
D. It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within SGA_MAX_SIZE.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. The PDB must be open in read only mode.

B. The PDB must be closed.
C. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
E. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation:
D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode information in
an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion of such columns
automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be moved across an endianness
difference.

E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most effectively, the source
and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that the PDB’s datafiles can remain in place.
The PDB must be closed before it can be unplugged. When you unplug a PDB from a CDB, the unplugged
PDB is in mounted mode. The unplug operation makes some changes in the PDB's data files to record, for
example, that the PDB was successfully unplugged. Because it is still part of the CDB, the unplugged PDB is
included in an RMAN backup of the entire CDB. Such a backup provides a convenient way to archive the
unplugged PDB in case it is needed in the future.

QUESTION 34
Examine this command:

Which three statements are true about using an invisible column in the PRODUCTS table?

A. The %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL to access a row will not display the invisible column in the
output.
B. The DESCRIBE commands in SQL *Plus will not display the invisible column in the output.
C. Referential integrity constraint cannot be set on the invisible column.
D. The invisible column cannot be made visible and can only be marked as unused.
E. A primary key constraint can be added on the invisible column.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
AB: You can make individual table columns invisible. Any generic access of a table does not show the invisible
columns in the table. For example, the following operations do not display invisible columns in the output:

* SELECT * FROM statements in SQL

* DESCRIBE commands in SQL*Plus
* %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL
* Describes in Oracle Call Interface (OCI)

Incorrect Answers:
D: You can make invisible columns visible.
You can make a column invisible during table creation or when you add a column to a table, and you can later
alter the table to make the same column visible.

QUESTION 35
You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT.

You issue the following statements:

SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYS;

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SYSTEM;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER EXCEPT SCOTT;

For which database users is the audit policy now active?

A. All users except SYS

B. All users except SCOTT
C. All users except SYS and SCOTT
D. All users except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If you run multiple AUDIT statements on the same unified audit policy but specify different EXCEPT users, then
Oracle Database uses the last exception user list, not any of the users from the preceding lists. This means the
effect of the earlier AUDIT POLICY ... EXCEPT statements are overridden by the latest AUDIT POLICY ...
EXCEPT statement.

Note:
* The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By
default, this policy is not enabled.
* You can use the keyword ALL to audit all actions. The following example shows how to audit all actions on
the HR.EMPLOYEES table, except actions by user pmulligan.

Example Auditing All Actions on a Table

CREATE AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol

ACTIONS ALL ON HR.EMPLOYEES;

AUDIT POLICY all_actions_on_hr_emp_pol EXCEPT pmulligan;

QUESTION 36
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL*Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table in the HR
schema by issuing the following command:

$> sqlldr hr/hr@pdb table=employees

Which two statements are true regarding the command? (Choose two.)

A. It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in the
database.
B. It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C. It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D. It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Note:
* SQL*Loader is invoked when you specify the sqlldr command and, optionally, parameters that establish

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
session characteristics.

QUESTION 37
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data type as
follows:

After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with a zero.

What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?

A. Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.

B. Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C. Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
D. Flush the shared pool.
E. Restart the database instance.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
About Altering the Default Full Data Redaction Value
You can alter the default displayed values for full Data Redaction polices. By default, 0 is the redacted value
when Oracle Database performs full redaction (DBMS_REDACT.FULL) on a column of the NUMBER data
type. If you want to change it to another value (for example, 7), then you can run the
DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure to modify this value. The modification
applies to all of the Data Redaction policies in the current database instance. After you modify a value, you
must restart the database for it to take effect.

Note:
* The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to mask
(redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or an application.
* UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES Procedure

This procedure modifies the default displayed values for a Data Redaction policy for full redaction.

* After you create the Data Redaction policy, it is automatically enabled and ready to redact data.

* Oracle Data Redaction enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-
privileged users or applications. You can redact column data by using one of the following methods:

/ Full redaction.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
/ Partial redaction.
/ Regular expressions.
/ Random redaction.
/ No redaction.

QUESTION 38
You must track all transactions that modify certain tables in the SALES schema for at least three years.

Automatic undo management is enabled for the database with a retention of one day.

Which two must you do to track the transactions? (Choose two.)

A. Enable supplemental logging for the database.

B. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C. Create a Flashback Data Archive in the tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E. Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
E: By default, flashback archiving is disabled for any table. You can enable flashback archiving for a table if you
have the FLASHBACK ARCHIVE object privilege on the Flashback Data Archive that you want to use for that
table.
D: Creating a Flashback Data Archive
/ Create a Flashback Data Archive with the CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE statement, specifying the
following:
Name of the Flashback Data Archive
Name of the first tablespace of the Flashback Data Archive

(Optional) Maximum amount of space that the Flashback Data Archive can use in the first tablespace
/ Create a Flashback Data Archive named fla2 that uses tablespace tbs2, whose data will be retained for two
years:

CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fla2 TABLESPACE tbs2 RETENTION 2 YEAR;

QUESTION 39
You are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table containing several
DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data types, and the table’s indexes, to another tablespace.

The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.

Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability to the
application?

A. Oracle Data Pump

B. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
C. An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the indexes
D. Online Table Redefinition
E. Edition-Based Table Redefinition

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Oracle Database provides a mechanism to make table structure modifications without significantly affecting
the availability of the table. The mechanism is called online table redefinition. Redefining tables online provides
a substantial increase in availability compared to traditional methods of redefining tables.

* To redefine a table online:

Choose the redefinition method: by key or by rowid

* By key—Select a primary key or pseudo-primary key to use for the redefinition. Pseudo-primary keys are
unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints. For this method, the versions of the
tables before and after redefinition should have the same primary key columns. This is the preferred and
default method of redefinition.

* By rowid—Use this method if no key is available. In this method, a hidden column named M_ROW$$ is
added to the post-redefined version of the table. It is recommended that this column be dropped or marked as
unused after the redefinition is complete. If COMPATIBLE is set to 10.2.0 or higher, the final phase of
redefinition automatically sets this column unused. You can then use the ALTER TABLE ... DROP UNUSED
COLUMNS statement to drop it.

You cannot use this method on index-organized tables.

Note:
* When you rebuild an index, you use an existing index as the data source. Creating an index in this manner
enables you to change storage characteristics or move to a new tablespace. Rebuilding an index based on an
existing data source removes intra-block fragmentation. Compared to dropping the index and using the
CREATE INDEX statement, re-creating an existing index offers better performance.

Incorrect Answers:
E: Edition-based redefinition enables you to upgrade the database component of an application while it is in
use, thereby minimizing or eliminating down time.

QUESTION 40
To implement Automatic Management (AMM), you set the following parameters:

When you try to start the database instance with these parameter settings, you receive the following error
message:

Identify the reason the instance failed to start.

A. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter is set to zero.

B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
C. Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
D. The SGA_MAX_SIZE and SGA_TARGET parameter values are not equal.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Example:
SQL> startup force
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings
ORA-00848: STATISTICS_LEVEL cannot be set to BASIC with SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET

QUESTION 41
What are two benefits of installing Grid Infrastructure software for a stand-alone server before installing and
creating an Oracle database? (Choose two.)

A. Effectively implements role separation

B. Enables you to take advantage of Oracle Managed Files.
C. Automatically registers the database with Oracle Restart.
D. Helps you to easily upgrade the database from a prior release.
E. Enables the Installation of Grid Infrastructure files on block or raw devices.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server includes Oracle Restart and Oracle Automatic Storage
Management. Oracle combined the two infrastructure products into a single set of binaries that is installed into
an Oracle Restart home.”

References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/install.121/e17735/oraclerestart.htm#NTDBI999

QUESTION 42
Identify two correct statements about multitenant architecture. (Choose two.)

A. Multitenant architecture can be deployed only in a Real Application Clusters (RAC) configuration.
B. Multiple pluggable databases (PDBs) share the SGA of a multitenant container database (CDB).
C. Multiple CDBs share certain PDB resources.
D. Multiple non-RAC CDB instances can mount the same PDB as long as they are on the same server.
E. Patches are always applied at the CDB level.
F. A PDB can have a private undo tablespace.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: Using 12c Resource manager you will be able control CPU, Exadata I/O, sessions and parallel servers. A
new 12c CDB Resource Manager Plan will use so-called “Shares” (resource allocations) to specify how CPU is
distributed between PDBs. A CDB Resource Manager Plan also can use “utilization limits” to limit the CPU

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
usage for a PDB. With a default directive, you do not need to modify the resource plan for each PDB plug and
unplug.

E: New paradigms for rapid patching and upgrades.

The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching all of its many
pluggable databases. To patch a single pluggable database, you simply unplug/plug to a multitenant container
database at a different Oracle Database software version.

Incorrect Answers:
A:
* The Oracle RAC documentation describes special considerations for a CDB in an Oracle RAC environment.
* Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps customers reduce IT
costs by simplifying consolidation, provisioning, upgrades, and more. It is supported by a new architecture that
allows a container database to hold many pluggable databases. And it fully complements other options,
including Oracle Real Application Clusters and Oracle Active Data Guard. An existing database can be simply
adopted, with no change, as a pluggable database; and no changes are needed in the other tiers of the
application.

D: You can unplug a PDB from one CDB and plug it into a different CDB without altering your schemas or
applications. A PDB can be plugged into only one CDB at a time.

F:
* UNDO tablespace can NOT be local and stays on the CDB level.
* Redo and undo go hand in hand, and so the CDB as a whole has a single undo tablespace per RAC
instance.

QUESTION 43
You upgrade your Oracle database in a multiprocessor environment. As a recommended best practice, you
execute the following script:

SQL > @utlrp.sql

Which two actions does the script perform? (Choose two.)

A. Parallel compilation of only the stored PL/SQL code

B. Sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
C. Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
D. Sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
E. Parallel recompilation of Java code
F. Sequential recompilation of Java code

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
utlrp.sql and utlprp.sql

The utlrp.sql and utlprp.sql scripts are provided by Oracle to recompile all invalid objects in the database. They
are typically run after major database changes such as upgrades or patches. They are located in the
$ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin directory and provide a wrapper on the UTL_RECOMP package. The utlrp.sql
script simply calls the utlprp.sql script with a command line parameter of "0". The utlprp.sql accepts a single
integer parameter that indicates the level of parallelism as follows.

0 - The level of parallelism is derived based on the CPU_COUNT parameter.

1 - The recompilation is run serially, one object at a time.
N - The recompilation is run in parallel with "N" number of threads.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Both scripts must be run as the SYS user, or another user with SYSDBA, to work correctly.

QUESTION 44
Which statement is true concerning dropping a pluggable database (PDB)?

A. The PDB must be open in read-only mode.

B. The PDB must be in mount state.
C. The PDB must be unplugged.
D. The PDB data files are always removed from disk.
E. A dropped PDB can never be plugged back into a multitenant container database (CDB).

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/cdb_plug.htm#ADMIN13658

QUESTION 45
You notice a high number of waits for the db file scattered read and db file sequential read events in the recent
Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report. After further investigation, you find that queries are
performing too many full table scans and indexes are not being used even though the filter columns are
indexed.

Identify three possible reasons for this.

A. Missing or stale histogram statistics

B. Undersized shared pool
C. High clustering factor for the indexes
D. High value for the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter
E. Oversized buffer cache

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
D: DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT is one of the parameters you can use to minimize I/O during table
scans. It specifies the maximum number of blocks read in one I/O operation during a sequential scan. The total
number of I/Os needed to perform a full table scan depends on such factors as the size of the table, the
multiblock read count, and whether parallel execution is being utilized for the operation.

QUESTION 46
Which three features work together, to allow a SQL statement to have different cursors for the same statement
based on different selectivity ranges?

A. Bind Variable Peeking

B. SQL Plan Baselines
C. Adaptive Cursor Sharing
D. Bind variable used in a SQL statement
E. Literals in a SQL statement

Correct Answer: ACE

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* In bind variable peeking (also known as bind peeking), the optimizer looks at the value in a bind variable
when the database performs a hard parse of a statement.

When a query uses literals, the optimizer can use the literal values to find the best plan. However, when a
query uses bind variables, the optimizer must select the best plan without the presence of literals in the SQL
text. This task can be extremely difficult. By peeking at bind values the optimizer can determine the selectivity
of a WHERE clause condition as if literals had been used, thereby improving the plan.

C: Oracle 11g/12g uses Adaptive Cursor Sharing to solve this problem by allowing the server to compare the
effectiveness of execution plans between executions with different bind variable values. If it notices suboptimal
plans, it allows certain bind variable values, or ranges of values, to use alternate execution plans for the same
statement. This functionality requires no additional configuration.

QUESTION 47
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know which change
caused this performance difference.

Which method or feature should you use?

A. Compare Period ADDM report

B. AWR Compare Period report
C. Active Session History (ASH) report
D. Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality estimates for the
CUSTOMERS table in the SH schema.

Examine the following steps:

1. Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS (‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’) FROM dual

statement.
2. Execute the DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE (null, ‘SH’, 500) procedure.
3. Execute the required queries on the CUSTOMERS table.
4. Issue the SELECT DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE (‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’) FROM dual statement.

Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 3, 2, 4, 1

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Step 1 (2). Seed column usage
Oracle must observe a representative workload, in order to determine the appropriate column groups. Using
the new procedure DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE, you tell Oracle how long it should observe the
workload.
Step 2: (3) You don't need to execute all of the queries in your work during this window. You can simply run
explain plan for some of your longer running queries to ensure column group information is recorded for these
queries.
Step 3. (1) Create the column groups
At this point you can get Oracle to automatically create the column groups for each of the tables based on the
usage information captured during the monitoring window. You simply have to call the
DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function for each table.This function requires just two
arguments, the schema name and the table name. From then on, statistics will be maintained for each column
group whenever statistics are gathered on the table.

Note:
* DBMS_STATS.REPORT_COL_USAGE reports column usage information and records all the SQL
operations the database has processed for a given object.

* The Oracle SQL optimizer has always been ignorant of the implied relationships between data columns within
the same table. While the optimizer has traditionally analyzed the distribution of values within a column, he
does not collect value-based relationships between columns.
* Creating extended statisticsHere are the steps to create extended statistics for related table columns
withdbms_stats.created_extended_stats:
1 - The first step is to create column histograms for the related columns.2 – Next, we run
dbms_stats.create_extended_stats to relate the columns together.
Unlike a traditional procedure that is invoked via an execute (“exec”) statement, Oracle extended statistics are
created via a select statement.

QUESTION 49
Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)?

A. All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.

B. The AWR data is stored in memory and in the database.
C. The snapshots collected by AWR are used by the self-tuning components in the database
D. AWR computes time model statistics based on time usage for activities, which are displayed in the v$SYS
time model and V$SESS_TIME_MODEL views.
E. AWR contains system wide tracing and logging information.

Correct Answer: BCD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.2 Overview of the Automatic Workload Repository
The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) collects, processes, and maintains performance statistics for
problem detection and self-tuning purposes. This data is both in memory and stored in the database. The
gathered data can be displayed in both reports and views.

The statistics collected and processed by AWR include:

Object statistics that determine both access and usage statistics of database segments
Time model statistics based on time usage for activities, displayed in the V$SYS_TIME_MODEL and
V$SESS_TIME_MODEL views

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28274/autostat.htm#PFGRF02601

QUESTION 50
You upgraded your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable
databases (PDBs).

Examine the query and its output:

Which two tasks must you perform to add users with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege to the
password file?

A. Assign the appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, SYSKM.

B. Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.
C. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege and the FORCE argument set to
No.
D. Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE arguments set to
Yes.
E. Re-create the password file in the Oracle Database 12c format.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* orapwd
/ You can create a database password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.

The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:

orapwd FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers] [FORCE={y|n}] [ASM={y|n}]

[DBUNIQUENAME=dbname] [FORMAT={12|legacy}] [SYSBACKUP={y|n}] [SYSDG={y|n}]
[SYSKM={y|n}] [DELETE={y|n}] [INPUT_FILE=input-fname]

force - whether to overwrite existing file (optional),

* v$PWFILE_users
/ 12c: V$PWFILE_USERS lists all users in the password file, and indicates whether the user has been granted
the SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSASM, SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges.

/ 10c: sts users who have been granted SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges as derived from the password file.

ColumnDatatypeDescription
USERNAMEVARCHAR2(30)The name of the user that is contained in the password file
SYSDBAVARCHAR2(5)If TRUE, the user can connect with SYSDBA privileges
SYSOPERVARCHAR2(5)If TRUE, the user can connect with SYSOPER privileges

Incorrect Answers:
E: The format of the v$PWFILE_users file is already in 12c format.

QUESTION 51

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
An application accesses a small lookup table frequently. You notice that the required data blocks are getting
aged out of the default buffer cache.

How would you guarantee that the blocks for the table never age out?

A. Configure the KEEP buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
B. Increase the database buffer cache size.
C. Configure the RECYCLE buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
D. Configure Automata Shared Memory Management.
E. Configure Automatic Memory Management-

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Schema objects are referenced with varying usage patterns; therefore, their cache behavior may be quite
different. Multiple buffer pools enable you to address these differences. You can use a KEEP buffer pool to
maintain objects in the buffer cache and a RECYCLE buffer pool to prevent objects from consuming
unnecessary space in the cache. When an object is allocated to a cache, all blocks from that object are placed
in that cache. Oracle maintains a DEFAULT buffer pool for objects that have not been assigned to one of the
buffer pools.

QUESTION 52
Which two are true regarding SecureFile LOBs? (Choose two.)

A. Fragmentation is minimized by using variable-sized chunks dynamically.

B. The volume of undo retained is session controlled.
C. The volume of redo generated is session controlled.
D. SecureFile LOBs can be used for columns in external tables.
E. SecureFile encryption allows for random reads and writes of encrypted data.
F. SecureFile LOBs can be used only for non-partitioned tables.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
You are planning the creation of a new multitenant container database (CDB) and want to store the ROOT and
SEED container data files in separate directories.

You plan to create the database using SQL statements.

Which three techniques can you use to achieve this? (Choose three.)

A. Use Oracle Managed Files (OMF).

B. Specify the SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause.
C. Specify the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT initialization parameter.
D. Specify the DB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT initialization parameter.
E. Specify all files names in the CREATE DATABASE statement without using Oracle managed Files (OMF).

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Correct Answer: ABC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You must specify the names and locations of the seed's files in one of the following ways:

* (A) Oracle Managed Files

* (B) The SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT Clause
* (C) The PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT Initialization Parameter

QUESTION 54
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database (CDB).

The characteristics of the non-CDB are as follows:

Version: Oracle Database 11g Release 2 (11.2.0.2.0) 64-bit
Character Set: AL32UTF8
National Character Set: AL16UTF16
O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit

The characteristics of the CDB are as follows:

Version: Oracle Database 12c Release 1 64-bit
Character Set: AL32UTF8
National Character Set: AL16UTF16
O/S: Oracle Linux 6 64-bit

Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the CDB?

A. Transportable database
B. Transportable tablespace
C. Data Pump full export/import
D. The DBMS_PDB package
E. RMAN

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Transportable tablespaces were introduced in Oracle 8i to allow whole tablespaces to be copied between
databases in the time it takes to copy the datafiles. It is supported in Oracle 11g.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Using Transportable database with the "FULL=Y TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS VERSION=12" parameters
allows you to plug in an 11.2.0.3 or later non-CDB 11g database, not an 11.2.0.2.0 database.
D: The DBMS_PDB package allows you to generate an XML metadata file from a non-CDB 12c database. This
allows the non-CDB to be plugged in as a PDB into an existing CDB. However, the non-CBD is an 11g
(11.2.0.2.0) database.

QUESTION 55
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) application. The application is undergoing
some major schema changes, such as addition of new indexes and materialized views. You want to check the
impact of these changes on workload performance.

What should you use to achieve this?

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
A. Database replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer
E. Automatic Workload Repository compare reports

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can use the SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the SQL performance impact of any type of system
change. Examples of common system changes include:
Database upgrades
Configuration changes to the operating system, hardware, or database
Database initialization parameter changes
Schema changes, such as adding new indexes or materialized views
Gathering optimizer statistics
SQL tuning actions, such as creating SQL profiles

References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/intro.htm#CNCPT961

QUESTION 56
An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system privileges.

A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:

THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE

Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB that has
been opened in read only mode? (Choose four.)

A. You can connect as a common user by using the CONNECT statement.

B. You can connect as a local user by using the CONNECT statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
F. You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.

Correct Answer: ACDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/cdb_admin.htm

QUESTION 57
Examine the following query output:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
You issue the following command to import tables into the hr schema:

$ > impdp hr/hr directory = dumpdir dumpfile = hr_new.dmp schemas=hr

TRANSFORM=DISABLE_ARCHIVE_LOGGING: Y

Which statement is true?

A. All database operations performed by the impdp command are logged.

B. Only CREATE INDEX and CREATE TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
C. Only CREATE TABLE and ALTER TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
D. None of the operations against the master table used by Oracle Data Pump to coordinate its activities are
logged.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note from Oracle Documentation:
With redo logging disabled, the disk space required for redo logs during an Oracle Data Pump import will be
smaller. However, to ensure recovery from media failure, the DBA should do an RMAN backup after the import
completes.
Even with this parameter specified, there is still redo logging for other operations of Oracle Data Pump. This
includes all CREATE and ALTER statements, except CREATE INDEX, and all operations against the master
table used by Oracle Data Pump during the import.

QUESTION 58
You are connected with SQL*Plus to a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privileges and
execute these sequence of statements:

SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE NEW_PDB ADMIN USER PDB_ADMIN IDENTIFIED BY SECRET;

SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE NEW_PDB OPEN;

SQL> CONNECT PDB_ADMIN/SCRET@//LOCALHOST/NEW_PDB

What is the outcome of the CONNECT statement?

A. It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN admin user was implicitly granted the PDB_DBA role.
B. It results in an ORA-01045 error (user PDB_ADMIN lacks CREATE SESSION privilege; logon denied)
because the PDB_ADMIN user was not granted any privileges.
C. It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user was implicitly granted the DBA role.
D. It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user was implicitly granted the SYSDBA privilege.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 59
Examine the parameter for your database instance:

You generated the execution plan for the following query in the plan table and noticed that the nested loop join
was done. After actual execution of the query, you notice that the hash join was done in the execution plan:

Identify the reason why the optimizer chose different execution plans.

A. The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.

B. The optimizer chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
C. The optimizer used re-optimization cardinality feedback for the query.
D. The optimizer chose different plan because extended statistics were created for the columns used.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* optimizer_dynamic_sampling
OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls both when the database gathers dynamic statistics, and the size
of the sample that the optimizer uses to gather the statistics.
Range of values0 to 11

QUESTION 60
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management?

A. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they
perform better than existing accepted plans.
B. It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
C. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform
better than the existing accepted plans.
D. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode,

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
 during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With adaptive SQL plan management, DBAs no longer have to manually run the verification or evolve process
for non-accepted plans. When automatic SQL tuning is in COMPREHENSIVE mode, it runs a verification or
evolve process for all SQL statements that have non-accepted plans during the nightly maintenance window. If
the non-accepted plan performs better than the existing accepted plan (or plans) in the SQL plan baseline,
then the plan is automatically accepted and becomes usable by the optimizer. After the verification is complete,
a persistent report is generated detailing how the non-accepted plan performs compared to the accepted plan
performance. Because the evolve process is now an AUTOTASK, DBAs can also schedule their own evolve
job at end time.

Note:
* The optimizer is able to adapt plans on the fly by predetermining multiple subplans for portions of the
plan.
* Adaptive plans, introduced in Oracle Database 12c, enable the optimizer to defer the final plan decision for a
statement until execution time. The optimizer instruments its chosen plan (the default plan) with statistics
collectors so that it can detect at runtime, if its cardinality estimates differ greatly from the actual number of
rows seen by the operations in the plan. If there is a significant difference, then the plan or a portion of it will be
automatically adapted to avoid suboptimal performance on the first execution of a SQL statement.

QUESTION 61
You create a new pluggable database, HR_PDB, from the seed database.

Which three tablespaces are created by default in HR_PDB? (Choose three.)

A. SYSTEM
B. SYSAUX
C. EXAMPLE
D. UNDO
E. TEMP
F. USERS

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces. It can also contains other user created
tablespaces in it.
*
* Oracle Database creates both the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces as part of every database.

* tablespace_datafile_clauses

Use these clauses to specify attributes for all data files comprising the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces in
the seed PDB.

Incorrect Answers:
D: a PDB can not have an undo tablespace. Instead, it uses the undo tablespace belonging to the CDB.

Note:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
* Example:
CONN pdb_admin@pdb1

SELECT tablespace_name FROM dba_tablespaces;

TABLESPACE_NAME
------------------------------
SYSTEM
SYSAUX
TEMP
USERS

SQL>

QUESTION 62
Which two statements are true about variable extent size support for large ASM files?

A. The metadata used to track extents in SGA is reduced.

B. Rebalance operations are completed faster than with a fixed extent size.
C. An ASM Instance automatically allocates an appropriate extent size.
D. Resync operations are completed faster when a disk comes online after being taken offline.
E. Performance improves in a stretch cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Variable size extents enable support for larger ASM datafiles, reduce SGA memory requirements for very
large databases (A), and improve performance for file create and open operations.

C: You don't have to worry about the sizes; the ASM instance automatically allocates the appropriate extent
size.

Note:
* The contents of ASM files are stored in a disk group as a set, or collection, of data extents that are stored on
individual disks within disk groups. Each extent resides on an individual disk. Extents consist of one or more
allocation units (AU). To accommodate increasingly larger files, ASM uses variable size extents.

* The size of the extent map that defines a file can be smaller by a factor of 8 and 64 depending on the file
size. The initial extent size is equal to the allocation unit size and it increases by a factor of 8 and 64 at
predefined thresholds. This feature is automatic for newly created and resized datafiles when the disk group
compatibility attributes are set to Oracle Release 11 or higher.

QUESTION 63
You execute a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately realized that you
forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema.

RECYCLE_BIN was enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been granted the
FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege.

What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema?

A. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO

OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
B. Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
C. Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
D. Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO EXAM_RESULTS;
connected as the OCP user.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 64
In your multitenant container database (CDB) that contains pluggable databases (PDBs), the HR user
executes the following commands to create and grant privileges on a procedure:

How can you prevent users having the EXECUTE privilege on the CREATE_TEST procedure from inserting
values into tables on which they do not have any privileges?

A. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with definer’s rights.

B. Grant the EXECUTE privilege to users with GRANT OPTION on the CREATE_TEST procedure.
C. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with invoker’s rights.
D. Create the CREATE_TEST procedure as part of a package and grant users the EXECUTE privilege the
package.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If a program unit does not need to be executed with the escalated privileges of the definer, you should specify
that the program unit executes with the privileges of the caller, also known as the invoker. Invoker's rights can
mitigate the risk of SQL injection.

Incorrect Answers:
A: By default, stored procedures and SQL methods execute with the privileges of their owner, not their current
user. Such definer-rights subprograms are bound to the schema in which they reside.
not B: Using the GRANT option, a user can grant an Object privilege to another user or to PUBLIC.

QUESTION 65
You created a new database using the "create database" statement without specifying the "ENABLE
PLUGGABLE DATABASE" clause.

What are two effects of not using the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE database" clause?

A. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.

B. The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container database
(CDB).
C. The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
D. The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged in.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A (not B, not E): The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a
new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created
database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.

D: You can create a PDB by plugging in a Non-CDB as a PDB.

The following graphic depicts the options for creating a PDB:

Incorrect Answers:
E: For the duration of its existence, a database is either a CDB or a non-CDB. You cannot transform a non-
CDB into a CDB or vice versa. You must define a database as a CDB at creation, and then create PDBs within
this CDB.

QUESTION 66
What is the effect of specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE" clause in a "CREATE DATABASE”
statement?

A. It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
B. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
C. It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
D. It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
E. It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new CDB. If you
do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created database is a non-CDB
and can never contain PDBs.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Along with the root (CDB$ROOT), Oracle Database automatically creates a seed PDB (PDB$SEED). The
following graphic shows a newly created CDB:

* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating
its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to
mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name
PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only
mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is just an optimization device. The create PDB operation
is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation.

QUESTION 67
You have installed two 64G flash devices to support the Database Smart Flash Cache feature on your
database server that is running on Oracle Linux.

You have set the parameter:

DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE= '/dev/flash_device_1' ,'/dev/flash_device_2'

How should the DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE be configured to use both devices?

A. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE = 64G.

B. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE = 64G, 64G
C. Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE = 128G.
D. DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE is automatically configured by the instance at startup.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Smart Flash Cache concept is not new in Oracle 12C - DB Smart Flash Cache in Oracle 11g.

In this release Oracle has made changes related to both initialization parameters used by DB Smart Flash
cache. Now you can define many files|devices and its sizes for “Database Smart Flash Cache” area. In
previous releases only one file|device could be defined.

DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = /dev/sda, /dev/sdb, /dev/sdc

DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE = 32G, 32G, 64G

So above settings defines 3 devices which will be in use by “DB Smart Flash Cache”

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
/dev/sda – size 32G
/dev/sdb – size 32G
/dev/sdc – size 64G
New view V$FLASHFILESTAT – it’s used to determine the cumulative latency and read counts of each file|
device and compute the average latency

QUESTION 68
Examine these parameters for a database instance:

Which three initialization parameters are not controlled by Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM)?
(Choose three.)

A. LOG_BUFFER
B. SORT_AREA_SIZE
C. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
D. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
E. DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE
F. DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE

Correct Answer: AEF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Manually Sized SGA Components that Use SGA_TARGET Space
SGA Component, Initialization Parameter
/ The log buffer
LOG_BUFFER
/ The keep and recycle buffer caches
DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
DB_RECYCLE_CACHE_SIZE
/ Nonstandard block size buffer caches
DB_nK_CACHE_SIZE

Note:
* In addition to setting SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value, you must set to zero all initialization parameters
listed in the table below to enable full automatic tuning of the automatically sized SGA components.
* Table, Automatically Sized SGA Components and Corresponding Parameters

QUESTION 69

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Examine the contents of SQL loader control file:

Which three statements are true regarding the SQL* Loader operation performed using the control file?

A. An EMP table is created if a table does not exist. Otherwise, if the EMP table is appended with the loaded
data.
B. The SQL* Loader data file myfile1.dat has the column names for the EMP table.
C. The SQL* Loader operation fails because no record terminators are specified.
D. Field names should be the first line in the both the SQL* Loader data files.
E. The SQL* Loader operation assumes that the file must be a stream record format file with the normal
carriage return string as the record terminator.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: The APPEND keyword tells SQL*Loader to preserve any preexisting data in the table. Other options allow
you to delete preexisting data, or to fail with an error if the table is not empty to begin with.

B (not D):
Note:
* SQL*Loader-00210: first data file is empty, cannot process the FIELD NAMES record
Cause: The data file listed in the next message was empty. Therefore, the FIELD NAMES FIRST FILE
directive could not be processed.
Action: Check the listed data file and fix it. Then retry the operation

E:
* A comma-separated values (CSV) (also sometimes called character-separated values, because the
separator character does not have to be a comma) file stores tabular data (numbers and text) in plain-text
form. Plain text means that the file is a sequence of characters, with no data that has to be interpreted instead,
as binary numbers. A CSV file consists of any number of records, separated by line breaks of some kind; each
record consists of fields, separated by some other character or string, most commonly a literal comma or tab.
Usually, all records have an identical sequence of fields.
* Fields with embedded commas must be quoted.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Example:
1997,Ford,E350,"Super, luxurious truck"

Note:
* SQL*Loader is a bulk loader utility used for moving data from external files into the Oracle database.

QUESTION 70
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted the CREATE
TABLE privilege to the common user C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs. You then execute this command
from the root container:

SQL > REVOKE create table FROM C # # A_ADMIN;

What is the result?

A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
B. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C. It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root and all
PDBs.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
E. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all PDBs.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SQL> create user c##admin identified by stipsi container=all;

User created.

SQL> grant create table to c##admin container=all;

Grant succeeded.

SQL> revoke create table from c##admin;

revoke create table from c##admin
*
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-65092: system privilege granted with a different scope to 'C##ADMIN'

QUESTION 71
Which two statements are true concerning the Resource Manager plans for individual pluggable databases
(PDB plans) in a multitenant container database (CDB)? (Choose two.)

A. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then all sessions for that PDB are treated to an equal
degree of the resource share of that PDB.
B. In a PDB plan, subplans may be used with up to eight consumer groups.
C. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups across
all PDBs in the CDB.
D. If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then the PDB share in the CDB plan is dynamically
calculated.
E. If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer groups based
on the shares provided to the PDB in the CDB plan and the shares provided to the consumer groups in the
PDB plan.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Setting a PDB resource plan is optional. If not specified, all sessions within the PDB are treated equally.

*
In a non-CDB database, workloads within a database are managed with resource plans.
In a PDB, workloads are also managed with resource plans, also called PDB resource plans.
The functionality is similar except for the following differences:
/ Non-CDB Database
Multi-level resource plans
Up to 32 consumer groups
Subplans
/ PDB Database
Single-level resource plans only
Up to 8 consumer groups
(not B) No subplans

QUESTION 72
You use a recovery catalog for maintaining your database backups.

You execute the following command:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Corrupted blocks, if any, are repaired.

B. Checks are performed for physical corruptions.
C. Checks are performed for logical corruptions.
D. Checks are performed to confirm whether all database files exist in correct locations
E. Backup sets containing both data files and archive logs are created.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B (not C): You can validate that all database files and archived redo logs can be backed up by running a
command as follows:
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;

This form of the command would check for physical corruption. To check for logical corruption,
RMAN> BACKUP VALIDATE CHECK LOGICAL DATABASE ARCHIVELOG ALL;

D: You can use the VALIDATE keyword of the BACKUP command to do the following:

Check datafiles for physical and logical corruption

Confirm that all database files exist and are in the correct locations.

Note:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
You can use the VALIDATE option of the BACKUP command to verify that database files exist and are in the
correct locations (D), and have no physical or logical corruptions that would prevent RMAN from creating
backups of them. When performing a BACKUP...VALIDATE, RMAN reads the files to be backed up in their
entirety, as it would during a real backup. It does not, however, actually produce any backup sets or image
copies (Not A, not E).

QUESTION 73
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture? (Choose three.)

A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B. A PDB can have a private TEMP tablespace.
C. PDBs can share the SYSAUX tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.

Correct Answer: BDG

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B:
* A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces. It can also contains other user created
tablespaces in it.
* There is one default temporary tablespace for the entire CDB. However, you can create additional temporary
tablespaces in individual PDBs.
D:
* There is a single redo log and a single control file for an entire CDB
* A log switch is the point at which the database stops writing to one redo log file and begins writing to another.
Normally, a log switch occurs when the current redo log file is completely filled and writing must continue to the
next redo log file.

G: instance recovery
The automatic application of redo log records to uncommitted data blocks when an database instance is
restarted after a failure.

Incorrect Answers:
A:
* There is one set of background processes shared by the root and all PDBs. –
* High consolidation density. The many pluggable databases in a single container database share its memory
and background processes, letting you operate many more pluggable databases on a particular platform than
you can single databases that use the old architecture.

C: There is a separate SYSAUX tablespace for the root and for each PDB.

F: There is a separate SYSTEM tablespace for the root and for each PDB. -

QUESTION 74
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.

The job belongs to a scheduler job class and runs in a scheduler window.

Which two actions could reduce the job's elapsed time?

A. increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
B. increasing the job's relative priority within the job class to which it belongs
C. increasing resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the job class in the resource manager
plan associated with the scheduler window
D. moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://www.dba-oracle.com/job_scheduling/job_classes.htmhttp://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/
schedover.htm#i1106396

QUESTION 75
You plan to migrate your database from a File system to Automatic Storage Management (ASM) on same
platform.

Which two methods or commands would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. RMAN CONVERT command

B. Data Pump Export and import
C. Conventional Export and Import
D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE ... command of RMAN
E. DBMS_FILE_TRANSFER with transportable tablespace

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A:
1. Get the list of all datafiles.

Note: RMAN Backup of ASM Storage

There is often a need to move the files from the file system to the ASM storage and vice versa. This may come
in handy when one of the file systems is corrupted by some means and then the file may need to be moved to
the other file system.

D: Migrating a Database into ASM

* To take advantage of Automatic Storage Management with an existing database you must migrate that
database into ASM. This migration is performed using Recovery Manager (RMAN) even if you are not using
RMAN for your primary backup and recovery strategy.

* Example:
Back up your database files as copies to the ASM disk group.

BACKUP AS COPY INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE

FORMAT '+DISK' TAG 'ORA_ASM_MIGRATION';

QUESTION 76
You run a script that completes successfully using SQL*Plus that performs these actions:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
1. Creates a multitenant container database (CDB)
2. Plugs in three pluggable databases (PDBs)
3. Shuts down the CDB instance
4. Starts up the CDB instance using STARTUP OPEN READ WRITE

Which two statements are true about the outcome after running the script? (Choose two.)

A. The seed will be in MOUNT state.

B. The seed will be opened read-only.
C. The seed will be opened read/write.
D. The other PDBs will be in mount state.
E. The other PDBs will be opened read-only.
F. The PDBs will be opened read/write.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: The seed is always read-only.

D: Pluggable databases can be started and stopped using SQL*Plus commands or the ALTER PLUGGABLE
DATABASE command.

QUESTION 77
You execute the following piece of code with appropriate privileges:

User SCOTT has been granted the CREATE SESSION privilege and the MGR role.

Which two statements are true when a session logged in as SCOTT queries the SAL column in the view and the
table?

A. Data is redacted for the EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role set.
B. Data is redacted for EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
C. Data is never redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column.
D. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
E. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role set.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Note:
* DBMS_REDACT.FULL completely redacts the column data.
* DBMS_REDACT.NONE applies no redaction on the column data. Use this function for development testing
purposes. LOB columns are not supported.
* The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables you to mask
(redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or an application.

* If you create a view chain (that is, a view based on another view), then the Data Redaction policy also applies
throughout this view chain. The policies remain in effect all of the way up through this view chain, but if another
policy is created for one of these views, then for the columns affected in the subsequent views, this new policy
takes precedence.

QUESTION 78
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by
issuing the following command:

lsnrctl > STOP

What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?

A. They are able to perform only queries.

B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The listener is used when the connection is established. The immediate impact of stopping the listener will be
that no new session can be established from a remote host. Existing sessions are not compromised.

QUESTION 79
Which three statements are true about using flashback database in a multitenant container database (CDB)?

A. The root container can be flashed back without flashing back the pluggable databases (PDBs).
B. To enable flashback database, the CDB must be mounted.
C. Individual PDBs can be flashed back without flashing back the entire CDB.
D. The DB_FLASHBACK RETENTION_TARGET parameter must be set to enable flashback of the CDB.
E. A CDB can be flashed back specifying the desired target point in time or an SCN, but not a restore point.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
QUESTION 80
You execute the following PL/SQL:

Which two statements are true?

A. Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) is enabled for the PRICE column in the PRODUCTS table for SELECT
statements only when a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
B. FGA is enabled for the PRODUCTS.PRICE column and an audit record is written whenever a row with
PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
C. FGA is enabled for all DML operations by JIM on the PRODUCTS.PRICE column.
D. FGA is enabled for the PRICE column of the PRODUCTS table and the SQL statements is captured in the
FGA audit trial.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DBMS_FGA.ADD_POLICY(object_schema => ‘hr’,object_name => ‘emp’,policy_name =>
‘chk_hr_emp’,audit_condition => ‘dept = ”SALES” ‘,audit_column => ‘salary’statement_types =>
‘insert,update,delete,select’);
Default value for statement_types is SELECT
Setting audit_trail to DBMS_FGA.DB sends the audit trail to the SYS.FGA_LOG$ table in the database and
omits SQL Text and SQL Bind.
Setting audit_trail to DBMS_FGA.DB+EXTENDED sends the audit trail to the SYS.FGA_LOG$ table in the
database and includes SQL Text and SQL Bind.
Setting audit_trail to DBMS_FGA.XML writes the audit trail in XML files sent to the operating system and
omits SQL Text and SQL Bind.
Setting audit_trail to DBMS_FGA.XML+EXTENDED writes the audit trail in XML files sent to the operating
system and includes SQL Text and SQL Bind.
Default value fo audit_trail parameter in DBMS_FGA.ADD_POLICY is DB+EXTENDED

QUESTION 81
You execute the following commands to audit database activities:

Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance restarts?

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT or DELETE command on
a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
B. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT or DELETE command,
and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or
DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
D. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select command, and
contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or
DELETE command on a table, and contains the execution plan, SQL text, and bind variables used.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 82
You support Oracle Database 12c Oracle Database 11g, and Oracle Database log on the same server.

All databases of all versions use Automatic Storage Management (ASM).

Which three statements are true about the ASM disk group compatibility attributes that are set for a disk
group?

A. The ASM compatibility attribute controls the format of the disk group metadata.
B. RDBMS compatibility together with the database version determines whether a database Instance can
mount the ASM disk group.
C. The RDBMS compatibility setting allows only databases set to the same version as the compatibility value,
to mount the ASM disk group.
D. The ASM compatibility attribute determines some of the ASM features that may be used by the Oracle disk
group.
E. The ADVM compatibility attribute determines the ACFS features that may be used by the Oracle 10 g
database.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A, D: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute determines the minimum software version for
an Oracle ASM instance that can use the disk group. This setting also affects the format of the data structures
for the Oracle ASM metadata on the disk.

B: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute determines the minimum COMPATIBLE
database initialization parameter setting for any database instance that is allowed to use the disk group. Before
advancing the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute, ensure that the values for the COMPATIBLE initialization
parameter for all of the databases that access the disk group are set to at least the value of the new setting for
COMPATIBLE.RDBMS.

For example, if the COMPATIBLE initialization parameters of the databases are set to either 11.1 or 11.2, then
COMPATIBLE.RDBMS can be set to any value between 10.1 and 11.1 inclusively.

Incorrect Answers:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
E:
/The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ADVM attribute determines whether the disk group can contain
Oracle ASM volumes. The value must be set to 11.2 or higher. Before setting this attribute, the
COMPATIBLE.ASM value must be 11.2 or higher. Also, the Oracle ADVM volume drivers must be loaded in
the supported environment.

/ You can create an Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager (Oracle ADVM) volume in a disk group. The
volume device associated with the dynamic volume can then be used to host an Oracle ACFS file system.

The compatibility parameters COMPATIBLE.ASM and COMPATIBLE.ADVM must be set to 11.2 or higher for
the disk group.

Note:
* The disk group attributes that determine compatibility are COMPATIBLE.ASM, COMPATIBLE.RDBMS. and
COMPATIBLE.ADVM. The COMPATIBLE.ASM and COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute settings determine the
minimum Oracle Database software version numbers that a system can use for Oracle ASM and the database
instance types respectively. For example, if the Oracle ASM compatibility setting is 11.2, and RDBMS
compatibility is set to 11.1, then the Oracle ASM software version must be at least 11.2, and the Oracle
Database client software version must be at least 11.1. The COMPATIBLE.ADVM attribute determines whether
the Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager feature can create a volume in a disk group.

QUESTION 83
To enable the Database Smart Flash Cache, you configure the following parameters:

DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = ‘/dev/flash_device_1’ , ‘/dev/flash_device_2’

DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE=64G

What is the result when you start up the database instance?

A. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.

B. One 64G flash cache file will be used.
C. Two 64G flash cache files will be used.
D. Two 32G flash cache files will be used.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 84
You executed this command to create a password file:

$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 10 ignorecase = N

Which two statements are true about the password file?

A. It will permit the use of uppercase passwords for database users who have been granted the SYSOPER
role.
B. It contains username and passwords of database users who are members of the OSOPER operating system
group.
C. It contains usernames and passwords of database users who are members of the OSDBA operating system
group.
D. It will permit the use of lowercase passwords for database users who have granted the SYSDBA role.
E. It will not permit the use of mixed case passwords for the database users who have been granted the
SYSDBA role.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* You can create a password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
* Adding Users to a Password File

When you grant SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges to a user, that user's name and privilege information are
added to the password file. If the server does not have an EXCLUSIVE password file (that is, if the initialization
parameter REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is NONE or SHARED, or the password file is missing), Oracle
Database issues an error if you attempt to grant these privileges.

A user's name remains in the password file only as long as that user has at least one of these two privileges. If
you revoke both of these privileges, Oracle Database removes the user from the password file.
* The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:

ORAPWD FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers]

[FORCE={Y|N}] [IGNORECASE={Y|N}] [NOSYSDBA={Y|N}]
* IGNORECASE
If this argument is set to y, passwords are case-insensitive. That is, case is ignored when comparing the
password that the user supplies during login with the password in the password file.

QUESTION 85
Identify three valid methods of opening, pluggable databases (PDBs).

A. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN ALL ISSUED from the root

B. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN ALL ISSUED from a PDB
C. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from the seed
D. ALTER DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from the root
E. ALTER DATABASE OPEN issued from that PDB
F. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from another PDB
G. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN issued from that PDB

Correct Answer: AEG

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
E: You can perform all ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE tasks by connecting to a PDB and running the
corresponding ALTER DATABASE statement. This functionality is provided to maintain backward compatibility
for applications that have been migrated to a CDB environment.

A, G: When you issue an ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN statement, READ WRITE is the default
unless a PDB being opened belongs to a CDB that is used as a physical standby database, in which case
READ ONLY is the default.

You can specify which PDBs to modify in the following ways:

List one or more PDBs.
Specify ALL to modify all of the PDBs.
Specify ALL EXCEPT to modify all of the PDBs, except for the PDBs listed.

QUESTION 86
You administer an online transaction processing (OLTP) system whose database is stored in Automatic

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Storage Management (ASM) and whose disk group use normal redundancy.

One of the ASM disks goes offline, and is then dropped because it was not brought online before
DISK_REPAIR_TIME elapsed.

When the disk is replaced and added back to the disk group, the ensuing rebalance operation is too slow.

Which two recommendations should you make to speed up the rebalance operation if this type of failure
happens again?

A. Increase the value of the ASM_POWER_LIMIT parameter.

B. Set the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute to a lower value.
C. Specify the statement that adds the disk back to the disk group.
D. Increase the number of ASMB processes.
E. Increase the number of DBWR_IO_SLAVES in the ASM instance.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
ASM_POWER_LIMIT specifies the maximum power on an Automatic Storage Management instance for disk
rebalancing. The higher the limit, the faster rebalancing will complete. Lower values will take longer, but
consume fewer processing and I/O resources.

Grouping operations in a single ALTER DISKGROUP statement can reduce rebalancing operations.
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asmdiskgrps.htm#OSTMG10070

QUESTION 87
You are administering a database and you receive a requirement to apply the following restrictions:

1. A connection must be terminated after four unsuccessful login attempts by a user.

2. A user should not be able to create more than four simultaneous sessions.
3. A user session must be terminated after 15 minutes of inactivity.
4. Users must be prompted to change their passwords every 15 days.

How would you accomplish these requirements?

A. by granting a secure application role to the users

B. by creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to FALSE
C. By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS
parameter to 4
D. By Implementing Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) and setting the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE
parameter to NONE.
E. By implementing the database resource Manager plan and setting the
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameters to 4.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS specifies the number of authentication attempts that can be made by
a client on a connection to the server process. These login attempts can be for multiple user accounts in the
same connection. After the specified number of failure attempts, the connection will be automatically dropped

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
by the server process.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/REFRN/GUID-DEC2A3B2-F49B-499E-A3CF-
D097F3A5BA83.htm#REFRN10274

QUESTION 88
A senior DBA asked you to execute the following command to improve performance:

You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table containing one million
rows.

What could be a reason for this recommendation?

A. The keep pool is not configured.

B. Automatic Workarea Management is not configured.
C. Automatic Shared Memory Management is not enabled.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
E. All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten to a materialized view.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The most of the rows in SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are accessed once a week.

QUESTION 89
Which three tasks can be automatically performed by the Automatic Data Optimization feature of Information
Lifecycle Management (ILM)? (Choose three.)

A. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace
B. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace
C. Tracking insert time by row for table rows
D. Tracking the most recent write time for a table block in a table segment
E. Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace
F. Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access and
modification.
Heat Map provides data access tracking at the segment-level and data modification tracking at the segment
and row level.

* To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access and
modification. You can also use Automatic Data Optimization (ADO) to automate the compression and
movement of data between different tiers of storage within the database.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
QUESTION 90
Which two partitioned table maintenance operations support asynchronous Global Index Maintenance in
Oracle database 12c?

A. ALTER TABLE SPLIT PARTITION

B. ALTER TABLE MERGE PARTITION
C. ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION
D. ALTER TABLE ADD PARTITION
E. ALTER TABLE DROP PARTITION
F. ALTER TABLE MOVE PARTITION

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Asynchronous Global Index Maintenance for DROP and TRUNCATE PARTITION
This feature enables global index maintenance to be delayed and decoupled from a DROP and TRUNCATE
partition without making a global index unusable. Enhancements include faster DROP and TRUNCATE
partition operations and the ability to delay index maintenance to off-peak time.

QUESTION 91
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.

Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connection?

A. User session data

B. Stack space
C. Private SQL area
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: PGA itself is subdivided. The UGA (User Global Area) contains session state information, including stuff like
package-level variables, cursor state, etc. Note that, with shared server, the UGA is in the SGA. It has to be,
because shared server means that the session state needs to be accessible to all server processes, as any
one of them could be assigned a particular session. However, with dedicated server (which likely what you're
using), the UGA is allocated in the PGA.

C: The Location of a private SQL area depends on the type of connection established for a session. If a
session is connected through a dedicated server, private SQL areas are located in the server process’ PGA.
However, if a session is connected through a shared server, part of the private SQL area is kept in the SGA.

Note:
* System global area (SGA)
The SGA is a group of shared memory structures, known as SGA components, that contain data and control
information for one Oracle Database instance. The SGA is shared by all server and background processes.
Examples of data stored in the SGA include cached data blocks and shared SQL areas.

* Program global area (PGA)

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
A PGA is a memory region that contains data and control information for a server process. It is nonshared
memory created by Oracle Database when a server process is started. Access to the PGA is exclusive to the
server process. There is one PGA for each server process. Background processes also allocate their own
PGAs. The total memory used by all individual PGAs is known as the total instance PGA memory, and the
collection of individual PGAs is referred to as the total instance PGA, or just instance PGA. You use database
initialization parameters to set the size of the instance PGA, not individual PGAs.

QUESTION 92
Which two statements are true about Oracle Managed Files (OMF)? (Choose two.)

A. OMF cannot be used in a database that already has data files created with user-specified directions.
B. The file system directions that are specified by OMF parameters are created automatically.
C. OMF can be used with ASM disk groups, as well as with raw devices, for better file management.
D. OMF automatically creates unique file names for table spaces and control files.
E. OMF may affect the location of the redo log files and archived log files.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
D: The database internally uses standard file system interfaces to create and delete files as needed for the
following database structures:
Tablespaces
Redo log files
Control files
Archived logs
Block change tracking files
Flashback logs
RMAN backups

Note:
* Using Oracle-managed files simplifies the administration of an Oracle Database. Oracle-managed files
eliminate the need for you, the DBA, to directly manage the operating system files that make up an Oracle
Database. With Oracle-managed files, you specify file system directories in which the database automatically
creates, names, and manages files at the database object level. For example, you need only specify that you
want to create a tablespace; you do not need to specify the name and path of the tablespace's datafile with the
DATAFILE clause.

References: http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/9i/oracle-managed-files.php
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10500_01/server.920/a96521/omf.htm

QUESTION 93
Which four actions are possible during an Online Data file Move operation?

A. Creating and dropping tables in the data file being moved

B. Performing file shrink of the data file being moved
C. Querying tables in the data file being moved
D. Performing Block Media Recovery for a data block in the data file being moved
E. Flashing back the database
F. Executing DML statements on objects stored in the data file being moved

Correct Answer: ACDF

Section: (none)
Explanation

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 94
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains a pluggable database, HR_PDB. The default permanent
tablespace in HR_PDB is USERDATA. The container database (CDB) is open and you connect RMAN.

You want to issue the following RMAN command:

RMAN > BACKUP TABLESPACE hr_pdb:userdata;

Which task should you perform before issuing the command?

A. Place the root container in ARHCHIVELOG mode.

B. Take the USERDATA tablespace offline.
C. Place the root container in the nomount stage.
D. Ensure that HR_PDB is open.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RMAN> select name,open_mode from v$pdbs;
using target database control file instead of recovery catalogNAME OPEN_MODE
—————————— ———-PDB$SEED READ ONLYORA12P1 READ WRITEORA12P2 MOUNTED
RMAN> backup tablespace ora12p2:users;
Starting backup at 31-MAR-14allocated channel: ORA_DISK_1channel ORA_DISK_1: SID=137 device
type=DISKchannel ORA_DISK_1: starting full datafile backup setchannel ORA_DISK_1: specifying datafile(s)
in backup setinput datafile file number=00013 name=/appl/oradata/cdbroot/ORA12C1/
F5D05369C4B23E83E0430100007F6D99/datafile/o1_mf_users_9mhr0o5l_.dbfchannel ORA_DISK_1: starting
piece 1 at 31-MAR-14channel ORA_DISK_1: finished piece 1 at 31-MAR-14piece handle=/appl/oradata/
flash_recovery/ORA12C1/F5D05369C4B23E83E0430100007F6D99/backupset/2014_03_31/
o1_mf_nnndf_TAG20140331T001832_9mhzdb6w_.bkp tag=TAG20140331T001832 comment=NONEchannel
ORA_DISK_1: backup set complete, elapsed time: 00:00:01Finished backup at 31-MAR-14
Starting Control File and SPFILE Autobackup at 31-MAR-14piece handle=/appl/oradata/flash_recovery/
ORA12C1/autobackup/2014_03_31/o1_mf_s_843610715_9mhzdcv8_.bkp comment=NONEFinished Control
File and SPFILE Autobackup at 31-MAR-14
RMAN>
The above example illustrates that if root container is open and in archivelog it can do the backup of
tablespace whether the pdb is mounted or open.

QUESTION 95
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze
impact on the performance of SQL statements.

A. Change in the Oracle Database version

B. Change in your network infrastructure
C. Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D. Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E. Database and operating system upgrade

Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Oracle 11g/12c makes further use of SQL tuning sets with the SQL Performance Analyzer, which compares
the performance of the statements in a tuning set before and after a database change. The database change
can be as major or minor as you like, such as:
(E) Database, operating system, or hardware upgrades.
(A, C) Database, operating system, or hardware configuration changes.
Database initialization parameter changes.
Schema changes, such as adding indexes or materialized views.
Refreshing optimizer statistics.
Creating or changing SQL profiles.

QUESTION 96
Which two statements are true about the RMAN VALIDATE DATABASE command? (Choose two.)

A. It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.

B. It can detect corrupt pfiles.
C. It can detect corrupt spfiles.
D. It checks the database for interblock corruptions.
E. It can detect corrupt block change tracking files.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Block corruptions can be divided Into Interblock corruption and intrablock corruption. In intrablock corruption.
th« corruption occurs within the block itself and can be either physical or logical corruption. In interblock
corruption, the corruption occurs between blocks and can only be logical corruption.
(key word) * The VALIDATE command checks for intrablock corruptions only. Only DBVERIFY and the
ANALYZE statement detect Interblock corruption.
VALIDATE Command Output ••> List of Control File and SPFILE.
File TYPE >»» SPFILE or Control File.
Status >»» OK if no corruption, or FAILED If block corruption is found.
Blocks Failing »»» The number of blocks that fail the corruption check. These blocks are newly corrupt.
Blocks Examined »»» Total number of blocks in the file.

Oracle' Database Backup and Recovery User's Guide

12c Release 1 (12.1) - 16 Validating Database Files and Backups

QUESTION 97
You install a non-RAC Oracle Database. During Installation, the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) prompts you to
enter the path of the Inventory directory and also to specify an operating system group name.

Which statement is true?

A. The ORACLE_BASE base parameter is not set.

B. The installation is being performed by the root user.
C. The operating system group that is specified should have the root user as its member.
D. The operating system group that is specified must have permission to write to the inventory directory.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation:

Note:
Providing a UNIX Group Name

If you are installing a product on a UNIX system, the Installer will also prompt you to provide the name of the
group which should own the base directory.

You must choose a UNIX group name which will have permissions to update, install, and deinstall Oracle
software. Members of this group must have write permissions to the base directory chosen.

Only users who belong to this group are able to install or deinstall software on this machine.

QUESTION 98
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database as a pluggable database (PDB) to a multitenant container
database (CDB).

The following are the possible steps to accomplish this task:

1. Place all the user-defined tablespace in read-only mode on the source database.
2. Upgrade the source database to a 12c version.
3. Create a new PDB in the target container database.
4. Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the VERSION parameter set to 12 using the
expdp utility.
5. Copy the associated data files and export the dump file to the desired location in the target database.
6. Invoke the Data Pump import utility on the new PDB database as a user with the
DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role and specify the full transportable import options.
7. Synchronize the PDB on the target container database by using the DBMS_PDS.SYNC_ODB function.

Identify the correct order of the required steps.

A. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C. 1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
E. 1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1. Set user tablespaces in the source database to READ ONLY.
2. From the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 {11.2.0.3) environment, export the metadata and any data
residing in administrative tablespaces from the source database using the FULL=Y and
TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS parameters. Note that the VER$ION=12 parameter is required only when
exporting from an Oracle Database llg Release 2 database:
3. Copy the tablespace data files from the source system to the destination system. Note that the log file from
the export operation will list the data files required to be moved.
4. Create a COB on the destination system, including a PDB into which you will import the source database.
5. In the Oracle Database 12c environment, connect to the pre-created PDB and import the dump file. The act
of importing the dump file will plug the tablespace data files into the destination PDB
Oracle White Paper - Upgrading to Oracle Database 12c -August 2013

QUESTION 99
In your multitenant container database (CDB) with two pluggable database (PDBs). You want to create a new
PDB by using SQL Developer.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Which statement is true?

A. The CDB must be open.

B. The CDB must be in the mount stage.
C. The CDB must be in the nomount stage.
D. Alt existing PDBs must be closed.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and then populating
its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is created. (Here, we use empty to
mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to as the seed PDB and has the name
PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB; it is non-negotiably always open in read-only
mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it is just an optimization device. The create PDB operation
is implemented as a special case of the clone PDB operation. The size of the seed PDB is only about 1
gigabyte and it takes only a few seconds on a typical machine to copy it.

QUESTION 100
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Direct Network File system (DNFS)?

A. It utilizes the OS file system cache.

B. A traditional NFS mount is not required when using Direct NFS.
C. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
D. Direct NFS is available only in UNIX platforms.
E. Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
E: Performance is improved by load balancing across multiple network interfaces (if available).

Note:
* To enable Direct NFS Client, you must replace the standard Oracle Disk Manager (ODM) library with one that
supports Direct NFS Client.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Direct NFS Client is capable of performing concurrent direct I/O, which bypasses any operating system level
caches and eliminates any operating system write-ordering locks
B:
* To use Direct NFS Client, the NFS file systems must first be mounted and available over regular NFS
mounts.
* Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more
scalable access to NFS storage located on NAS storage devices (accessible over TCP/IP).
D: Direct NFS is provided as part of the database kernel, and is thus available on all supported database
platforms - even those that don't support NFS natively, like Windows.

Note:
* Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster and more
scalable access to NFS storage located on NAS storage devices (accessible over TCP/IP). Direct NFS is built

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
directly into the database kernel - just like ASM which is mainly used when using DAS or SAN storage.

* Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an internal I/O layer that provides faster access to large NFS files than
traditional NFS clients.

QUESTION 101
Examine the parameters for your database instance:

Which three statements are true about the process of automatic optimization by using cardinality feedback?

A. The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if there is a
huge difference in optimizer estimates and execution statistics.
B. The optimizer can re optimize a query only once using cardinality feedback.
C. The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
D. The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn statistics are
enabled.
E. After the optimizer identifies a query as a re-optimization candidate, statistics collected by the collectors are
submitted to the optimizer.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: During the first execution of a SQL statement, an execution plan is generated as usual.

D: if multi-column statistics are not present for the relevant combination of columns, the optimizer can fall back
on cardinality feedback.

(not B)* Cardinality feedback. This feature, enabled by default in 11.2, is intended to improve plans for
repeated executions.

optimizer_dynamic_sampling
optimizer_features_enable

* dynamic sampling or multi-column statistics allow the optimizer to more accurately estimate selectivity of
conjunctive predicates.

Note:
* OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING controls the level of dynamic sampling performed by the optimizer.
Range of values. 0 to 10

* Cardinality feedback was introduced in Oracle Database 11gR2. The purpose of this feature is to
automatically improve plans for queries that are executed repeatedly, for which the optimizer does not estimate
cardinalities in the plan properly. The optimizer may misestimate cardinalities for a variety of reasons, such as
missing or inaccurate statistics, or complex predicates. Whatever the reason for the misestimate, cardinality
feedback may be able to help.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
QUESTION 102
Which three statements are true when the listener handles connection requests to an Oracle 12c database
instance with multithreaded architecture enabled In UNIX? (Choose three.)

A. Thread creation must be routed through a dispatcher process

B. The local listener may spawn a now process and have that new process create a thread
C. Each Oracle process runs an SCMN thread.
D. Each multithreaded Oracle process has an SCMN thread.
E. The local listener may pass the request to an existing process which in turn will create a thread.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 103
Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle Database 12c? (Choose
three.)

A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table.

B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table.
C. Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
D. Move partitions of a range-partitioned table.
E. Rename partitions of a range partitioned table.
F. Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index.

Correct Answer: ABF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Multipartition maintenance enables adding, dropping, truncate, merge, split operations on multiple partitions.

A: Merge Multiple Partitions:

The new “ALTER TABLE … MERGE PARTITIONS ” help merge multiple partitions or subpartitions with a
single statement. When merging multiple partitions, local and global index operations and semantics for
inheritance of unspecified physical attributes are the same for merging two partitions.

B: Drop Multiple Partitions:

The new “ALTER TABLE … DROP PARTITIONS ” help drop multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single
statement.

Example:
view plaincopy to clipboardprint?
SQL> ALTER TABLE Tab_tst1 DROP PARTITIONS
Tab_tst1_PART5, Tab_tst1_PART6, Tab_tst1_PART7;

Table altered

SQL>
Restrictions :
You can’t drop all partitions of the table.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
 If the table has a single partition, you will get the error: ORA-14083: cannot drop the only partition of a
partitioned.

QUESTION 104
You are connected using SQL*Plus to a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privileges and
execute the following sequence statements:

What is the result of the last SET CONTAINER statement and why is it so?

A. It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user has the required privileges.

B. It fails because common users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
C. It fails because local users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
D. If fails because the SET CONTAINER statement cannot be used with PDB$SEED as the target pluggable
database (PDB).

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 105
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository (AWR) report:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
What are three possible causes for the latch-related wait events?

A. The size of the shared pool is too small.

B. Cursors are not being shared.
C. A large number COMMITS are being performed.
D. There are frequent logons and logoffs.
E. The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 106
You enabled an audit policy by issuing the following statements:

SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SCOTT;

SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SYS, SYSTEM;

For which database users and for which executions is the audit policy now active? Select two.

A. SYS, SYSTEM
B. SCOTT
C. Only for successful executions
D. Only for failed executions
E. Both successful and failed executions

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By
default, this policy is not enabled.

QUESTION 107
A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
All users have their default set of system privileges.

For which three situations will data not be redacted? (Choose three.)

A. SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B. SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D. SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E. SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F. SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Both users SYS and SYSTEM automatically have the EXEMPT REDACTION POLICY system privilege.
(SYSTEM has the EXP_FULL_DATABASE role, which includes the EXEMPT REDACTION POLICY system
privilege.) This means that the SYS and SYSTEM users can always bypass any existing Oracle Data
Redaction policies, and will always be able to view data from tables (or views) that have Data Redaction
policies defined on them

QUESTION 108
What is the result of executing a TRUNCATE TABLE command on a table, in a non-CDB database, that has
Flashback Archiving enabled?

A. The rows in the table and the archive are truncated, and flashback archiving is disabled.
B. The rows in the table are truncated without being archived.
C. The rows in the table are archived, and then truncated.
D. The rows in both the table and the archive are truncated.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://surachartopun.com/2010/06/ddl-on-tables-enabled-for-flashback.html

QUESTION 109
Which three activities are supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose three.)

A. Advising on block checksum failures

B. Advising on inaccessible control files
C. Advising on inaccessible block change tracking files

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
D. Advising on empty password files
E. Advising on invalid block header field values

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Data Recovery Advisor can diagnose failures such as the following:

/ (B) Components such as datafiles and control files that are not accessible because they do not exist, do not
have the correct access permissions, have been taken offline, and so on

/ (A, E) Physical corruptions such as block checksum failures and invalid block header field values

/ Inconsistencies such as a datafile that is older than other database files

/ I/O failures such as hardware errors, operating system driver failures, and exceeding operating system
resource limits (for example, the number of open files)

* The Data Recovery Advisor automatically diagnoses corruption or loss of persistent data on disk, determines
the appropriate repair options, and executes repairs at the user's request. This reduces the complexity of
recovery process, thereby reducing the Mean Time To Recover (MTTR).

QUESTION 110
You create a table with the PERIOD FOR clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of Oracle
Database 12c.

Examine the table definition:

Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the EMPLOYEES
table?

A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF
TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
D. The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.
E. Setting the session valid time using DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets the
visibility for data manipulation language (DML), data definition language (DDL), and queries performed by
the session.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
A: To implement Temporal Validity(TV), 12c offers the option to have two date columns in that table which is
having TV enabled using the new clause Period For in the Create Table for the newly created tables or in the
Alter Table for the existing ones. The columns that are used can be defined while creating the table itself and
will be used in the Period For clause or you can skip having them in the table’s definition in the case of which,
the Period For clause would be creating them internally.

E: ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME Procedure
This procedure enables session level valid time flashback.

QUESTION 111
Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU)?
(Choose three.)

A. A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU

B. The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C. The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D. The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E. The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: In certain situations, you may want to exclude selected columns or tables from scanning or conversion steps
of the migration process.

D: Exceed column limit

The cell data will not fit into a column after conversion.

E: Need conversion
The cell data needs to be converted, because its binary representation in the target character set is different
than the representation in the current character set, but neither length limit issues nor invalid representation
issues have been found.

* Oracle Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU) is a unique next-generation migration tool providing
an end-to-end solution for migrating your databases from legacy encodings to Unicode.

Incorrect Answers:
C: The release of Oracle Database must be 10.2.0.4, 10.2.0.5, 11.1.0.7, 11.2.0.1, or later.

QUESTION 112
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before installing the
Oracle Database server. The database and listener are configured by using Oracle Restart.

Examine the following command and its output:

What does this imply?

A. When you start an instance on a host with SQL *Plus, dependent listeners and ASM disk groups are
automatically started.
B. When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the instance is

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
 still started.
C. When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart
configuration.
D. When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter, it is
automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
About Startup Dependencies
Oracle Restart ensures that Oracle components are started in the proper order, in accordance with component
dependencies. For example, if database files are stored in Oracle ASM disk groups, then before starting the
database instance, Oracle Restart ensures that the Oracle ASM instance is started and the required disk
groups are mounted. Likewise, if a component must be shut down, Oracle Restart ensures that dependent
components are cleanly shut down first.
Oracle Restart also manages the weak dependency between database instances and the Oracle Net listener
(the listener): When a database instance is started, Oracle Restart attempts to start the listener. If the listener
startup fails, then the database is still started. If the listener later fails, Oracle Restart does not shut down and
restart any database instances.

References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17636/restart.htm#ADMIN12710

QUESTION 113
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains some pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute this
command in the root container:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Schema objects owned by the C##A_ADMIN common user can be shared across all PDBs.
B. The C##A_ADMIN user will be able to use the TEMP_TS temporary tablespace only in root.
C. The command will create a common user whose description is contained in the root and each PDB.
D. The schema for the common user C##A_ADMIN can be different in each container.
E. The command will create a user in the root container only because the CONTAINER clause is not used.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 114
You performed an incremental level 0 backup of a database:

RMAN > BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE;

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
To enable block change tracking after the incremental level 0 backup, you issued this command:

SQL > ALTER DATABASE ENABLE BLOCK CHANGE TRACKING USING FILE '/mydir/
rman_change_track.f';

To perform an incremental level 1 cumulative backup, you issued this command:

RMAN> BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 1 CUMULATIVE DATABASE;

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
B. The change tracking file must always be backed up when you perform a full database backup.
C. Block change tracking will always reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
D. More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a single block.
E. The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will not read
the change tracking file to discover changed blocks.

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: In a cumulative level 1 backup, RMAN backs up all the blocks used since the most recent level 0
incremental backup.
E: Oracle Block Change Tracking
Once enabled; this new 10g feature records the modified since last backup and stores the log of it in a block
change tracking file using the CTW (Change Tracking Writer) process. During backups RMAN uses the log file
to identify the specific blocks that must be backed up. This improves RMAN's performance as it does not have
to scan whole datafiles to detect changed blocks. Logging of changed blocks is performed by the CTRW
process which is also responsible for writing data to the block change tracking file.

Note:
* An incremental level 0 backup backs up all blocks that have ever been in use in this database.

QUESTION 115
You find this query being used in your Oracle 12c database:

Which method a used by the optimizer to limit the rows being returned?

A. A filter is added to the table query dynamically using ROWNUM to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total
rows
B. All the rows are returned to the client or middle tier but only the first 20 percent are returned to the screen
or the application.
C. A view is created during execution and a filter on the view limits the rows to 20 percent of the total rows.
D. A TOP-N query is created during execution and a filter is added to the query dynamically using ROWNUM
to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows.

Correct Answer: C

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 116
Which three resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases when creating a
multitenant container database plan (CDB plan) using Oracle Database Resource Manager? (Choose three.)

A. Maximum Undo per consumer group

B. Maximum Idle time
C. Parallel server limit
D. CPU
E. Exadata I/O
F. Local file system I/O

Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/dbrm.htm#ADMIN11852

QUESTION 117
You created an encrypted tablespace:

You then closed the encryption wallet because you were advised that this is secure.

Later in the day, you attempt to create the EMPLOYEES table in the SECURESPACE tablespace with the SALT
option on the EMPLOYEE column.

Which is true about the result?

A. It creates the table successfully but does not encrypt any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the
wallet must be opened to encrypt columns with SALT.
B. It generates an error when creating the table because the wallet is closed.
C. It creates the table successfully, and encrypts any inserted data in the EMPNAME column because the wallet
needs to be open only for tablespace creation.
D. It generates an error when creating the table, because the SALT option cannot be used with encrypted
tablespaces.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 118
On your Oracle Database, you issue the following commands to create indexes:

SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id)

INVISIBLE;

SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customer_id,

sales_rep_id);

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index created.

B. Both the indexes are updated when a row is inserted, updated, or deleted in the ORDERS table.
C. Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 is used by the optimizer for queries on
the ORDERS table.
D. The ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is not used by the optimizer even when the
OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameters is set to true.
E. Both the indexes are created and used by the optimizer for queries on the ORDERS table.
F. Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the optimizer for queries on
the ORDERS table.

Correct Answer: BF
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Not A: Both indexes are created fine.
B: The invisible index ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 and the bitmap index are both updated by DML operations on
the Orders table.
F: Since ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 is invisible only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the query optimizer.

Incorrect Answers:
C, D, E:
* ord_customer_ix1 is an invisible index and is therefore not used by the optimizer.
* VISIBLE | INVISIBLE Use this clause to specify whether the index is visible or invisible to the optimizer. An
invisible index is maintained by DML operations, but it is not be used by the optimizer during queries unless you
explicitly set the parameter OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES to TRUE at the session or system level.

Note: Specify BITMAP to indicate that index is to be created with a bitmap for each distinct key, rather than
indexing each row separately. Bitmap indexes store the rowids associated with a key value as a bitmap. Each
bit in the bitmap corresponds to a possible rowid. If the bit is set, then it means that the row with the
corresponding rowid contains the key value. The internal representation of bitmaps is best suited for
applications with low levels of concurrent transactions, such as data warehousing.

QUESTION 119
Which two statements are true when row archival management is enabled?

A. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column visibility is controlled by the ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session
parameter.
B. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that could reference activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows only.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if referenced in the select list of a query.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the Oracle Server based on activity
tracking columns, to Indicate that a row is no longer considered active.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://gavinsoorma.com/2013/08/oracle-12c-new-feature-in-database-archiving/

QUESTION 120
A warehouse fact table in your Oracle 12c Database is range-partitioned by month and accessed frequently
with queries that span multiple partitions

The table has a local prefixed, range partitioned index.

Some of these queries access very few rows in some partitions and all the rows in other partitions, but these
queries still perform a full scan for all accessed partitions.

This commonly occurs when the range of dates begins at the end of a month or ends close to the start of a
month.

You want an execution plan to be generated that uses indexed access when only a few rows are accessed
from a segment, while still allowing full scans for segments where many rows are returned.

Which two methods could transparently help to achieve this result? (Choose two.)

A. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the table
partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
B. Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table
partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
C. Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact table, which
retains the existing local partitioned index.
D. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing enabled for the table
partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
E. Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for the table
partitions that return a few rows to the queries.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 121
You use the segment advisor to help determine objects for which space may be reclaimed.

Which three statements are true about the advice given by the segment advisor? (Choose three.)

A. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary-managed tablespaces.
B. It may advise the use of segment shrink for tables in dictionary-managed tablespaces it the no chained
rows.
C. It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces.
D. It will detect and advise about chained rows.
E. It may advise the use of segment shrink for freelist managed tables.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Correct Answer: ACD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/schema.htm#CBBBIADA

QUESTION 122
You have altered a non-unique index to be invisible to determine if queries execute within an acceptable
response time without using this index.

Which two are possible if table updates are performed which affect the invisible index columns? (Choose two.)

A. The index remains invisible.

B. The index is not updated by the DML statements on the indexed table.
C. The index automatically becomes visible in order to have it updated by DML on the table.
D. The index becomes unusable but the table is updated by the DML.
E. The index is updated by the DML on the table.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unlike unusable indexes, an invisible index is maintained during DML statements.

Note:
* Oracle 11g allows indexes to be marked as invisible. Invisible indexes are maintained like any other index,
but they are ignored by the optimizer unless the OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameter is set to
TRUE at the instance or session level. Indexes can be created as invisible by using the INVISIBLE keyword,
and their visibility can be toggled using the ALTER INDEX command.

QUESTION 123
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the
following commands in the root container:

Which two statements are true?

A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B. The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
D. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E. The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.

Correct Answer: AC

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* You can include the CONTAINER clause in several SQL statements, such as the CREATE USER, ALTER
USER, CREATE ROLE, GRANT, REVOKE, and ALTER SYSTEM statements.
* * CREATE ROLE with CONTAINER (optional) clause
/ CONTAINER = ALL
Creates a common role.
/ CONTAINER = CURRENT
Creates a local role in the current PDB.

QUESTION 124
The persistent configuration settings for RMAN have default for all parameters.

Identify four RMAN commands that produce a multi-section backup. (Choose four.)

A. BACKUP TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;

B. BACKUP AS COPY TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;
C. BACKUP ARCHIVELOG ALL SECTION SIZE 25M;
D. BACKUP TABLESPACE "TEMP" SECTION SIZE 10M;
E. BACKUP TABLESPACE "UNDO" INCLUDE CURRENT CONTROLFILE SECTION SIZE 100M;
F. BACKUP SPFILE SECTION SIZE 1M;
G. BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 TABLESPACE SYSAUX SECTION SIZE 100M;

Correct Answer: ABEG

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 125
Flashback is enabled for your multitenant container database (CDB), which contains two pluggable database
(PDBs). A local user was accidently dropped from one of the PDBs.

You want to flash back the PDB to the time before the local user was dropped. You connect to the CDB and
execute the following commands:

SQL > SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE

SQL > STARTUP MOUNT
SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE to TIME "TO_DATE ('08/20/12','MM/DD/YY')";

Examine following commands:

1. ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE ALL OPEN;

2. ALTER DATABASE OPEN;
3. ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS;

Which command or commands should you execute next to allow updates to the flashed back schema?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. 3 and 1
E. 1 and 2

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/12c/multitentant-flashback-of-container-database-12cr1.php

QUESTION 126
Examine the commands executed to monitor database operations:

$> conn sys oracle/oracle@prod as sysdba

SQL > VAR eid NUMBER
SQL > EXEC: eid:= DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION ('batch_job', FORCED_TRACKING
=> 'Y');

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Database operations will be monitored only when they consume a significant amount of resources.
B. Database operations for all sessions will be monitored.
C. Database operations will be monitored only if the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL and
CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS is set to DIAGNISTIC + TUNING.
D. Only DML and DDL statements will be monitored for the session.
E. All subsequent statements in the session will be treated as one database operation and will be monitored.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: Setting the CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS initialization parameter to DIAGNOSTIC
+TUNING (default) enables monitoring of database operations. Real-Time SQL Monitoring is a feature of the
Oracle Database Tuning Pack.

Note:
* The DBMS_SQL_MONITOR package provides information about Real-time SQL Monitoring and Real-time
Database Operation Monitoring.
*(not B) BEGIN_OPERATION Function starts a composite database operation in the current session.

/ (E) FORCE_TRACKING - forces the composite database operation to be tracked when the operation starts.
You can also use the string variable 'Y'.

/ (not A) NO_FORCE_TRACKING - the operation will be tracked only when it has consumed at least 5 seconds
of CPU or I/O time. You can also use the string variable 'N'.

QUESTION 127
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database
(CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)?

A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B. Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D. Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user before
the common user can grant privileges to other users.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Correct Answer: ACE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A, Not D: In a CDB, PUBLIC is a common role. In a PDB, privileges granted locally to PUBLIC enable all local
and common users to exercise these privileges in this PDB only.

C: A user can only perform common operations on a common role, for example, granting privileges commonly
to the role, when the following criteria are met:

The user is a common user whose current container is root.

The user has the SET CONTAINER privilege granted commonly, which means that the privilege applies in all
containers.

The user has privilege controlling the ability to perform the specified operation, and this privilege has been
granted commonly

Note:
* Every privilege and role granted to Oracle-supplied users and roles is granted commonly except for system
privileges granted to PUBLIC, which are granted locally.

QUESTION 128
Your database has the SRV1 service configured for an application that runs on middle-tier application server.
The application has multiple modules. You enable tracing at the service level by executing the following
command:

The possible outcomes of this command and the actions to aggregate trace files are as follows:

1. The command fails because a module name is not specified.

2. A trace file is created for each session that is running the SRV1 service.
3. An aggregated trace file is created for all the sessions that are running the SRV1 service.
4. Trace files may be aggregated by using the trcess utility.
5. Trace files may be aggregated by using the tkprof utility.

Identify the correct outcome and the action to aggregate the trace files.

A. 1
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
E. 3 and 5

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Tracing information is present in multiple trace files and you must use the trcsess tool to collect it into a single
file.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Note:
* The procedure enables a trace for a given combination of Service, MODULE and ACTION name. The
specification is strictly hierarchical: Service Name or Service Name/MODULE, or Service Name, MODULE,
and ACTION name must be specified. Omitting a qualifier behaves like a wild-card, so that not specifying an
ACTION means all ACTIONs. Using the ALL_ACTIONS constant achieves the same purpose.

* SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE Procedure

This procedure will enable SQL tracing for a given combination of Service Name, MODULE and ACTION
globally unless an instance_name is specified.

* DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE(
service_name IN VARCHAR2,
module_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_MODULE,
action_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ANY_ACTION,
waits IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT TRUE,
binds IN BOOLEAN DEFAULT FALSE,
instance_name IN VARCHAR2 DEFAULT NULL);

QUESTION 129
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains pluggable databases (PDBs), you are connected to the
PDB HR_PDB. You execute the following command:

What is the result?

A. It executes successfully and creates an UNDO tablespace in HR_PDB.

B. It falls and reports an error because there can be only one UNDO tablespace in a CDB.
C. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not specified in the command.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not specified in the command.
E. It executes successfully but neither tablespace nor the data file is created.

Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Interesting behavior in 12.1.0.1 DB of creating an undo tablespace in a PDB. With the new Multitenant
architecture the undo tablespace resides at the CDB level and PDBs all share the same UNDO tablespace.

When the current container is a PDB, an attempt to create an undo tablespace fails without returning an error.

QUESTION 130
Which three statements are true about SQL plan directives?

A. They are tied to a specific statement or SQL ID.

B. They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to generate a
more optimal plan.
C. They are used to gather only missing statistics.
D. They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates by the
optimizer are incorrect.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
E. They instruct the optimizer to create only column group statistics.
F. Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX tablespace.

Correct Answer: BDF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 131
You want to flash back a test database by five hours.

You issue this command:

SQL > FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP (SYSDATE - 5/24);

Which two statements are true about this flashback scenario?

A. The database must have multiplexed redo logs for the flashback to succeed.
B. The database must be MOUNTED for the flashback to succeed.
C. The database must use block change tracking for the flashback to succeed.
D. The database must be opened in restricted mode for the flashback to succeed.
E. The database must be opened with the RESETLOGS option after the flashback is complete.
F. The database must be opened in read-only mode to check if the database has been flashed back to the
correct SCN.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmflash.htm#BRADV80055

QUESTION 132
Examine these two statements:

Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace? (Choose three.)

A. The MRKT tablespace is created as a smallfile tablespace, because the file size is less than the minimum
required for bigfile files.
B. The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C. Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT
tablespace.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
D. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E. The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the
MRKT tablespace.

Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 133
In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are automatically terminated
after a specified period of time.

How would you accomplish this?

A. Setting a metric threshold

B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e25494/dbrm.htm#ADMIN11844

QUESTION 134
You Execute the Following command to create a password file in the database server:

$ orapwd file = ‘+DATA/PROD/orapwprod entries = 5 ignorecase = N format = 12’

Which two statements are true about the password file? (Choose two.)

A. It records the usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role.
B. It contains the usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled.
C. Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
D. It records the usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to the OSDBA or OSOPER
operating system groups.
E. It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 135
Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.

A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.

B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing objects.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP)
violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX ... REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data
block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The alert log is a chronological log of messages and errors, and includes the following items:
All internal errors (ORA-600), block corruption errors (ORA-1578), and deadlock errors (ORA-60) that occur
Administrative operations, such as CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements and STARTUP,
SHUTDOWN, and ARCHIVELOG statements
Messages and errors relating to the functions of shared server and dispatcher processes
Errors occurring during the automatic refresh of a materialized view
The values of all initialization parameters that had nondefault values at the time the database and instance
start

Note:
* The alert log file (also referred to as the ALERT.LOG) is a chronological log of messages and errors written
out by an Oracle Database. Typical messages found in this file is: database startup, shutdown, log switches,
space errors, etc. This file should constantly be monitored to detect unexpected messages and corruptions.

QUESTION 136
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump export and import operations?

A. You can detach from a data pump export job and reattach later.
B. Data pump uses parallel execution server processes to implement parallel import.
C. Data pump import requires the import file to be in a directory owned by the oracle owner.
D. The master table is the last object to be exported by the data pump.
E. You can detach from a data pump import job and reattach later.

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B12037_01/server.101/b10825/dp_api.htm

QUESTION 137
Examine the query and its output executed In an RDBMS Instance:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Which three statements are true about the users (other than sys) in the output?

A. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN only.
B. The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.
C. The C # # A_ADMIN user can perform wallet operations.
D. The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage
Management (ASM).
E. The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL* Plus.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: SYSDG administrative privilege has ability to perform Data Guard operations (including startup and
shutdown) using Data Guard Broker or dgmgrl.

D: SYSASM
The new (introduced in 11g) SYSASM role to manage the ASM instance, variable extent sizes to reduce
shared pool usage, and the ability of an instance to read from a specific disk of a diskgroup

E (Not A): SYSDBA is like a role in the sense that it is granted, but SYSDBA is a special built-in privilege to
allow the DBA full control over the database

Incorrect Answers:
C: SYSKM. SYSKM administrative privilege has ability to perform transparent data encryption wallet
operations.

Note:
Use the V$PWFILE_USERS view to see the users who have been granted administrative privileges.

QUESTION 138
You experience performance degradation in your Oracle 12c database. To investigate, you use Active Session
History (ASH) and hang analysis. You do not find any blocking sessions, but the response time is still slow.

Which method or feature would you use to diagnose the root cause and provide a quick solution?

A. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) in diagnostic mode

B. real-time ADDM

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
C. AWR Compare Period report
D. Memory Access Mode

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e10822/tdppt_transient.htm#CHDIHIEB

QUESTION 139
Which three statements are true about Flashback Database? (Choose three.)

A. Flashback logs are written sequentially, and are archived.

B. Flashback Database uses a restored control file to recover a database.
C. The database automatically creates, deletes, and resizes flashback logs in the Fast Recovery Area.
D. Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a RESETLOGS operation.
E. Flashback Database can recover a data file that was dropped during the span of time of the flashback.
F. Flashback logs are used to restore to the before images of blocks, so that redo data may be used to roll
forward to the desired flashback time.

Correct Answer: CDF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/database/121/BRADV/flashdb.htm#BRADV529http://docs.oracle.com/database/121/
BRADV/glossary.htm#BRADV90169

QUESTION 140
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?

A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.

B. You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start up or shut down a database instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
O12c is integrated in database don’t have his own agent like in O11G then you cannot start up or shut down a
database.

QUESTION 141
Examine this command:

ALTER SYSTEM SET enable_ddl_logging = TRUE;

Which statement is true?

A. Only the data definition language (DDL) commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert log file.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
B. All DDL commands are logged in the alert log file.
C. All DDL commands are logged in a different log file that contains DDL statements and their execution
dates.
D. Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new segments are logged.
E. All DDL commands are logged in XML format in the alert directory under the Automatic Diagnostic
Repository (ADR) home.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The log files are created only in $ADR_HOME/log
in alert log only alter system is catched.Sun Mar 30 23:30:04 2014ALTER SYSTEM SET
enable_ddl_logging=TRUE SCOPE=BOTH;Sun Mar 30 23:32:41 2014ALTER SYSTEM SET
enable_ddl_logging=TRUE SCOPE=BOTH;Sun Mar 30 23:39:35 2014ALTER SYSTEM SET
enable_ddl_logging=FALSE SCOPE=BOTH;[oracle@ovs trace]$
only in diag/rdbms/…/../log/ two files are capturing this. The xml file is capturing full details and text file having
only the commands.
[oracle@ovs log]$ pwd/oraclebase/diag/rdbms/ora12c1/ora12c1/log[oracle@ovs log]$ cat ddl/*
create table testing2(a number)
create table testing3( aa number)
[oracle@ovs log]$ cat ddl_ora12c1.logSun Mar 30 23:33:26 2014diag_adl:create table testing2(a number)
diag_adl:create table testing3( aa number)

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/REFRN/GUID-6FBA6147-D545-4E7D-94F0-
A97EC1C721AE.htm#REFRN10302

QUESTION 142
In which two scenarios do you use SQL*Loader to load data? (Choose two.)

A. to transform data while it is being loaded into a database.

B. to use transparent parallel processing without having to split the external data first.
C. to load data from multiple data files during the same load session.
D. to generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28319/ldr_concepts.htm

QUESTION 143
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.

The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE. You execute the following:

SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = ‘*’ SCOPE = SPFILE;

Which is true about the result of this command?

A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.

B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
 restarted.
D. Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/cdb_pdb_admin.htm#ADMIN14017

QUESTION 144
Which two are prerequisites for performing a flashback transaction? (Choose two.)

A. Flashback Database must be enabled.

B. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
C. EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user flashing back
transaction.
D. Supplemental logging must be enabled.
E. Recycle bin must be enabled for the database.
F. Block change tracking must be enabled for the database.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure your database for the Flashback Transaction feature, you or your database administrator must:

With the database mounted but not open, enable ARCHIVELOG:

ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG;

Open at least one archive log:

ALTER SYSTEM ARCHIVE LOG CURRENT;

If not done, enable minimal and primary key supplemental logging:

ALTER DATABASE ADD SUPPLEMENTAL LOG DATA;

ALTER DATABASE ADD SUPPLEMENTAL LOG DATA (PRIMARY KEY) COLUMNS;
If you want to track foreign key dependencies, enable foreign key supplemental logging:

ALTER DATABASE ADD SUPPLEMENTAL LOG DATA (FOREIGN KEY) COLUMNS;

References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/appdev.112/e41502/adfns_flashback.htm#ADFNS611

QUESTION 145
A database is stored in an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disk group, disk group, DGROUP1 with SQL:

There is enough free space in the disk group for mirroring to be done.

What happens if the CONTROLLER1 failure group becomes unavailable due to error or for maintenance?

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
A. Transactions and queries accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1 will
fall.
B. Mirroring of allocation units will be done to ASM disks in the CONTROLLER2 failure group until the
CONTROLLER1 for failure group is brought back online.
C. The data in the CONTROLLER1 failure group is copied to the CONTROLLER2 failure group and rebalancing is
initiated.
D. ASM does not mirror any data until the CONTROLLER1 failure group is brought back online, and newly
allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the CONTROLLER2 failure group, without mirroring.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 146
Your multitenant container database has three pluggable databases (PDBs): PDB1, PDB2, and PDB3.

Which two RMAN commands may be used to back up only the PDB1 pluggable database? (Choose two.)

A. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the ROOT container

B. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the PDB1 container
C. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the PDB1 container
D. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the ROOT container
E. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to PDB2

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To perform operations on a single PDB, you can connect as target either to the root or directly to the PDB.

* (A) If you connect to the root, you must use the PLUGGABLE DATABASE syntax in your RMAN commands.
For example, to back up a PDB, you use the BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.

* (C)If instead you connect directly to a PDB, you can use the same commands that you would use when
connecting to a non-CDB. For example, to back up a PDB, you would use the BACKUP DATABASE
command.

QUESTION 147
Identify three benefits of Unified Auditing.

A. Decreased use of storage to store audit trail rows in the database.

B. It improves overall auditing performance.
C. It guarantees zero-loss auditing.
D. The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
E. It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
https://blogs.oracle.com/imc/entry/oracle_database_12c_new_unified

QUESTION 148
You upgraded from a previous Oracle database version to Oracle Database version to Oracle Database 12c.
Your database supports a mixed workload. During the day, lots of insert, update, and delete operations are
performed. At night, Extract, Transform, Load (ETL) and batch reporting jobs are run. The ETL jobs perform
certain database operations using two or more concurrent sessions.

After the upgrade, you notice that the performance of ETL jobs has degraded. To ascertain the cause of
performance degradation, you want to collect basic statistics such as the level of parallelism, total database
time, and the number of I/O requests for the ETL jobs.

How do you accomplish this?

A. Examine the Active Session History (ASH) reports for the time period of the ETL or batch reporting runs.
B. Enable SQL tracing for the queries in the ETL and batch reporting queries and gather diagnostic data from
the trace file.
C. Enable real-time SQL monitoring for ETL jobs and gather diagnostic data from the V$SQL_MONITOR view.
D. Enable real-time database operation monitoring using the DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION
function, and then use the DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR function to view the required
information.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Monitoring database operations
Real-Time Database Operations Monitoring enables you to monitor long running database tasks such as batch
jobs, scheduler jobs, and Extraction, Transformation, and Loading (ETL) jobs as a composite business
operation. This feature tracks the progress of SQL and PL/SQL queries associated with the business operation
being monitored. As a DBA or developer, you can define business operations for monitoring by explicitly
specifying the start and end of the operation or implicitly with tags that identify the operation.

QUESTION 149
In your Oracle 12c database, you create two roles: AUDITOR and AUDIT_ADMIN. You then execute the
following commands:

To create a privilege analysis policy for the AUDIT_ADMIN role, you execute the following PL/SQL block:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Which statement is correct about the procedure?

A. It always captures the use of the CREATE VIEW and CREATE TABLE privileges.
B. It only captures the use of the privileges used through the AUDIT_ADMIN role when the ACCOUNT
PAYABLE module is used.
C. It always captures the use of the privileges exercised through the AUDITOR and AUDIT_ADMIN roles.
D. It captures the use of the privileges used through the AUDIT_ADMIN and AUDITOR roles when the
ACCOUNT PAYABLE module is used.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/DVADM/priv_analysis.htm#DVADM591

QUESTION 150
You want to upgrade your pre-12c database to an Oracle 12c database. You set up the test environment and
replay the captured workload from the production database on the test machine twice with a time difference of
four hours.

For which three reasons would you use the Compare Period ADDM report after the replay? (Choose three.)

A. to check the database time consumed for the two time periods
B. to review the change in the initialization parameters between the two runs
C. to find the resource consumption by SQL statements that are common to both periods
D. to check the performance improvement and degradation caused during the change
E. to review the hardware resources used during the two runs
F. to compare the performance change of top SQL statements for the two runs

Correct Answer: CDE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 151
Which two statements are true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c? (Choose
two.)

A. By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.

B. Multiple databases on the same node (or host) may each be individually managed by using EM Express
interface.
C. You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express interface.
D. You cannot start up or shut down a database instance by using EM express.
E. You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
O12c is integrated in database don’t have his own agent like in O11G then you cannot start up or shut down a
database.

QUESTION 152
You must configure Oracle Data Redaction for the EMP table to satisfy the following requirements:

RANDOM redaction on the SAL and COMM columns

PARTIAL redaction on the HIREDATE column
FULL redaction on the MGR column

What would you define to implement this?

A. several redaction policies, with one redaction policy foe each data type defined for the table must be
redacted
B. several redaction policies, with each redaction policy specifying the redaction for table columns of that
redaction type
C. one redaction policy on the table, which specifies the redaction types for all table columns that must be
redacted
D. several redaction policies, with one redaction policy for each table column that must be redacted

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can redact columns of different data types, using different redaction types, for one table or view.
1. Create the policy for the first column that you want to redact.
2. Use the DBMS_REDACT.ALTER_POLICY procedure to add the next column to the policy.

References:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ASOAG/configuring-oracle-data-redaction-policies.htm

QUESTION 153
You enabled an audit policy by issuing the following statements:

SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SCOTT;

SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SYS, SYSTEM;

For which database users and for which executions is the audit policy now active? (Choose two.)

A. SCOTT, SYS and SYSTEM

B. SYS and SYSTEM, but not SCOTT
C. SCOTT, but not SYS and SYSTEM
D. Only for successful executions
E. Only for failed executions
F. Both successful and failed executions

Correct Answer: BF
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 154
On your Oracle 12c database, you issue the following commands to create indexes:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
SQL > CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id)
INVISIBLE;

SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customer_id,

sales_rep_id);

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The optimizer evaluates index access from both the indexes before deciding on which index to use for a
query execution plan.
B. Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is visible.
C. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is created.
D. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is created.
E. Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted in the ORDERS table.

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 155
Which two statements are true when the listener handles connection requests to an Oracle 12c database
instance with multithreaded architecture enabled in UNIX?

A. The local listener may pass the request to an existing process which in turn will create a thread.
B. Each multithreaded Oracle process has an SCMN thread.
C. Each Oracle process runs an SCMN thread.
D. Thread creation must be routed through a dispatcher process.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 156
Which two statement are true about the installation modes in Oracle Database 12c? (Choose two.)

A. In silent mode installation, you can validate the parameter values on installation screens for which you have
provided information in the response file.
B. In interactive mode, parameter values are read from a response file and can be changed during installation.
C. Response file mode is useful when you require multiple Oracle Homes with variation in some of the
installation parameters for each home.
D. In response file mode, you can include responses for some or all prompts.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
QUESTION 157
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You use RMAN to back up
the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata regularly. You lost an ASM disk
group DG1 due to hardware failure.

In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data? (Choose three.)

A. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the existing disk
group name as input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B. Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up disk group
and data on the disk group.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group specification, failure
group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
D. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
E. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications for failure
group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.

Correct Answer: BCE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 158
Which two are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is
enabled? (Choose two.)

A. reduced CPU utilization

B. reduced physical I/O
C. improved Serial Execution performance
D. reduced logical I/O
E. reduced virtual memory utilization

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 159
Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled? (Choose two.)

A. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column may only be queried by users with the DBA role set.
B. Visibility of the ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column may only be updated by users with the DBA role set.
C. The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows.
D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is only displayed if it is referenced in the column select list of a query.
E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated in an overnight maintenance job based on activity tracking.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
QUESTION 160
To complete the online redefinition procedure, you execute the following command;

EXECUTE DBMS_REDEFINITION.FINISH_REDEF_TABLE(‘SH’, ‘SALES’, ‘INT_SALES’, 600);

What is the significance of the dml_lock_timeout period of 600 seconds in the preceding command?

A. All pending DML statements on the SALES table must be committed 600 seconds before the procedure
ends gracefully.
B. All pending DML statements on the SALES table will wait for 600 seconds before the procedure ends
gracefully.
C. All pending DML statements on the SALES_INT table must be committed 600 seconds before the
procedure ends gracefully.
D. It specifies the number of seconds the procedure waits for its required locks before it ends gracefully.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Wait up to 600 seconds for required locks on SH.SALES:
EXECUTE DBMS_REDEFINITION.FINISH_REDEF_TABLE (
'SH', 'SALES', 'INT_SALES', 600);
Reference: http://oradb-srv.wlv.ac.uk/E50529_01/ARPLS/d_redefi.htm#ARPLS042

QUESTION 161
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database and you want to know what change
caused this performance difference. You generate the compare period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor
(ADDM) report for further investigation.

Which three findings would you get from the report? (Choose three.)

A. It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
B. It identifies any workload change that caused the performance difference in both time periods.
C. It detects any configuration change that caused the performance difference in both time periods.
D. It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.
E. It detects the top wait events that caused the performance degradation.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 162
Which five actions are prerequisites for using extended data types for VARCHAR2, NVARCHAR2, and RAW
columns in Oracle Database 12c?

A. Restart the database Instance in RESTRICTED mode.

B. Run the ut132k.sql script in $ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin.
C. Shut down the database instance.
D. Restart the database instance in UPGRADE mode.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
E. Restart the instance in normal mode.
F. Run the Database Migration Assistant.
G. Set the MAX_STRING_SIZE parameter to EXTENDED.

Correct Answer: BCDEG

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
1. Shut down the database.
2. Restart the database in UPGRADE mode.
3. Change the setting of MAX_STRING_SIZE to EXTENDED.
4. Run the rdbms/admin/utl32k.sql script. You must be connected AS SYSDBA to run the script.
5. Restart the database in NORMAL mode.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/REFRN/GUID-D424D23B-0933-425F-BC69-
9C0E6724693C.htm#REFRN10321

QUESTION 163
You plan to recover the SCOTT.EMP table to a specific point in time by using RMAN:

RMAN> RECOVER TABLE SCOTT.EMP UNTILL SYSDATE-2 USING AUXILIARY LOCATION ‘+RECO’;

Which five steps are performed by RMAN?

A. truncating the SCOTT.EMP table in the original database

B. exporting the SCOTT.EMP table from the auxiliary database
C. flashing back the original database to the desired point in time
D. recovering the auxiliary database to the desired point in time
E. creating an auxiliary instance
F. importing the SCOTT.EMP table into the original database
G. restoring the tablespaces required for point-in-time recovery
H. dropping the SCOTT.EMP table in the original database

Correct Answer: CDEFG

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 164
Identify the prerequisite for configuring and accessing Enterprise Manager (EM) express for an Oracle 12c
database.

A. Create a SYSMAN user with the SYSDBA role as an administrator for EM express.
B. Configure the DISPATCHERS initialization parameter such that at least one dispatcher is configured for the
XMLDB service with the TCP protocol.
C. Install the Oracle HTTP Server.
D. Use the DBMS_XDB_CONFIG.SETHTTPPORT procedure to configure port number 5500 for the HTTP
server.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Execute the DBMS_XDB_CONFIG.SETHTTPSPORT procedure.
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/database-dbaas-cloud/csdbi/access-em-database-express-
12c.html

QUESTION 165
Your multitenant container database (CDB) containing two pluggable databases, PDB2_1 and PDB2_2, is
running in ARCHIEVELOG mode. An RMAN backup exists for the databases.

You issue the following commands and get an error:

Examine the following commands:

Identify two correct sequences of commands to perform a recovery and make the data available.

A. 1,2,3,4,7,8
B. 1,2,5,6,7,8
C. 1,2,10,5,6,9
D. 10,3,4,8,9

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 166
In your database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT FREE parameter is
set to 20.

Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to
automate data movement?

A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different
storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different
storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a
different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
D. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved
E. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 167
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable databases?

A. Pluggable databases in the same container database (CDB) each have their own buffer cache
B. Pluggable databases can make database consolidation easier
C. All administration tasks must be done to each pluggable database.
D. Pluggable databases increase patching time.
E. Pluggable databases are patched together

Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 168
Oracle Data Redaction is active on the SCOTT.EMP table.

You queried the table twice.

SQL> SELECT ENAME, SAL, COMM, MGR, HIREDATE FROM EMP WHERE DEPTNO=30;

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
SQL> SELECT ENAME, SAL, COMM, MGR, HIREDATE FROM EMP WHERE DEPTNO=30;

Which is guaranteed to be true concerning the redaction policy?

A. FULL redaction is active on the SAL column

B. RANDOM redaction is active on the MGR column
C. RANDOM redaction is active on the HIREDATE column
D. PARTIAL redaction is active on the MGR column.
E. PARTIAL redaction is active of the HIREDATE column.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 169
Which three statements are true about tablespaces in a multitenant container database (CDB)?

A. All PDBs and CDBs have their own UNDO tablespaces.

B. All PDBs and CDBs have their own SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces.
C. Each pluggable database (PDB) can have a temporary tablespace or a tablespace group.
D. CDBs and PDBs may share the same temporary tablespace that is present in the root container.
E. There can be only one temporary tablespace group in a CDB.

Correct Answer: BCD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 170
On your Oracle 12c database, you issue the following commands to create indexes:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
SQL> CREATE INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix1 ON oe.orders (customer_id, sales_rep_id);
SQL> CREATE BITMAP INDEX oe.ord_customer_ix2 ON oe.orders (customer_id,
sales_rep_id);

Which statement is correct?

A. Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is created and it is visible.

B. Both the indexes are created and both of them are visible.
C. Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is visible.
D. Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is visible.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 171
You use RMAN to back up a database which uses Automatic Storage Management (ASM) and you use the
MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata regularly.

You lose an ASM disk group DG1 due to a hardware failure.

In which two ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data? (Choose two.)

A. Use RMAN to restore both the metadata and the data.

B. Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications as those
from the lost disk group and use RMAN to restore the data.
C. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
D. Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group metadata and use RMAN to restore the data.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 172
You connect to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA privileges by using
SQL*Plus.

The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in read/write mode.

There are ongoing transactions in both the CDB and the PDBs.

What happens after issuing the SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL statement?

A. the statement results in an error because there are open PDBs

B. the shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the PDBs are either committed or rolled back.
C. the shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled back.
D. the shutdown proceeds immediately

Correct Answer: C

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 173
Which two statements are true concerning Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) policies?

A. Multiple ILM policies may exist for the same segment and any compression levels may be specified for any
policy.
B. Segment-level policies override row-level policies.
C. Multiple ILM policies may exist for the same table, if the action is compression and the scope is at the row
level.
D. Multiple ILM policies may exist for the same segment but greater compression levels must be specified at
greater elapsed times.
E. ILM policy functions return a Boolean value.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 174
Which three are amongst the categories into which column definitions are classifies by the Database Migration
Assistant for Unicode (DMU)?

A. alphanumeric columns that will have invalid binary representation after converting to the chosen Unicode
character set
B. alphanumeric columns that need conversion to a different binary representation before converging to the
chosen Unicode character set
C. date columns that will have invalid binary representation after converting to the chosen Unicode character
set
D. numeric columns that will have invalid binary representation after converting to the chosen Unicode
character set
E. numeric columns that will exceed the column size limit after converting to the chosen Unicode character set
F. alphanumeric columns that need no conversion

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 175
You plan to drop the column of a table that has Flashback Archiving enabled.

You want to ensure minimal service disruption.

How would you do this in your Oracle 12c Database?

A. Disable Flashback Archiving, set the column unused, and re-enable Flashback Archiving.
B. Disable Flashback Archiving, drop the column, and re-enable Flashback Archiving.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
C. Disassociate the Flashback Archive using the DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.DISASSOCIATE_FBA
procedure, drop the column, and re-associate the Flashback Archive using the
DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.RESASSOCIATE_FBA procedure.
D. Drop the column using the ALTER TABLE statement.
E. Drop the column by using the DBMS_REDEFINITION package.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 176
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains some pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the
following commands to create a common user and grant connect privileges:

Which statement is true about the common user created by the command?

A. The user cannot connect any database because the CONTAINER clause is missing.
B. The user can connect only to the root database.
C. The user can connect to the root and all PDBs.
D. The user cannot connect to any database because the CREATE ANY SESSION privilege must be granted.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 177
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management?

A. It adds new; bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.

B. The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they perform
better than the existing accepted plans.
C. It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode when they
perform better than existing accepted plans.
D. The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE mode,
during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Correct Answer: BCD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 178
You are the DBA for an Oracle Database 11g Release 1 data warehouse database running on Oracle Linux
with little endianness.

You want to plug in a transportable tablespace with a 16K blocksize from an Oracle Database 10g database
that is running on a SPARC-based Oracle Solaris system with big endianness.

The data warehouse database has the following parameters set:

The following parameters are not explicitly set:

What action must you perform on the data warehouse database to prepare it for the transportable tablespace
plug in operation?

A. Do nothing, because Automatic Memory Management will size DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE automatically

B. Set ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=192M followed by ALTER SYSTEM SET
DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE=8M;
C. Do nothing, because you cannot transport a tablespace between databases with different endian formats.
D. Do nothing, because Automatic Shared Memory Management will size DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE
automatically.
E. Set ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_16K_CACHE_SIZE=8M and leave other parameters set to their current
settings.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
QUESTION 179
Which two statements are true about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS)?

A. Direct NFS can use only the oranfstab configuration file located in $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/.
B. It utilizes the operating system file system cache.
C. Oracle Database requires mount points to be mounted by the kernel NFS system even when served
through the Direct NFS client.
D. The Oracle database files available on the NFS server that are served by the Direct NFS Client cannot be
accessed through the operating system kernel NFS.
E. Direct NFS performs load balancing across all specified paths. If a specified path fails, Direct NFS reissues
I/O commands over any remaining paths.

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 180
Which three statements are true about RMAN compressed backups?

A. Media manager compression should not be enabled if compressed backups are being written to tape.
B. Compressed backups can be written to media only if using proxy copies.
C. File system compression should be enabled if compressed backups are being written to disk.
D. Compression creates some performance overhead during backups to tape.
E. Compression creates some performance overhead during backups to disk.

Correct Answer: BCE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 181
Which two statements are true about hot patching as compared to conventional patching? (Choose two.)

A. It requires a relink of the RDBMS binary.

B. It consumes more memory.
C. It takes more time to install or uninstall.
D. It can be installed and uninstalled only for one database at a time.
E. A patch can be installed and uninstalled while the instance is running.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26401_01/doc.122/e22949/T120505T120512.htm

QUESTION 182
Which three statements are true about the use of the query result cache? (Choose three.)

A. Results obtained from a query rewrite to a materialized view may be stored in the query result cache.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
B. Stale results may still be obtained from the query result cache, if the query session's
query_rewrite_integrity parameter is set to stale_tolerated.
C. Results obtained from a join between a table and a view may be stored in the query result cache.
D. Results from distributed queries are never stored in the query result cache.
E. Results may not be obtained from the query result cache, when the query_rewrite_enabled parameter
is set to false.
F. Results from remote queries may sometimes be stored in the query result cache.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 183
You configure your database Instance to support shared server connections.

Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server connections?

A. User session data

B. Stack space
C. Persistent area containing bind variable values that are supplied to a SQL statement at run time
D. Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E. Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 184
Your database instance has Automatic Memory Management, and has the large pool configured.

You issue the following command:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET SHARED_SERVERS = 5;

Which statement is true about the shared server configuration?

A. It is enabled only if the SHARED_SERVER_SESSIONS parameter is configured.

B. It is enabled and the UGA is located in the large pool for connections that use the shared server
configuration.
C. It is enabled only if at least five dispatchers are configured.
D. It is enabled and all the DBA and non-DBA sessions function in shared server mode.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E71588_01/HTMIG/configuring-SHARED-SERVERS-
parameter.htm#HTMIG29492

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
QUESTION 185
You issue the following commands:

The directories '/u0l/app/oracle/oradata/orcl' and '/u0l/app/oracle/mydata' exist.

Which statement describes the outcome?

A. The AUGUST_SALES tablespace is created with its data file in the DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST location and
the TEMP101 tablespace is created with its temp file in the '/u01/app/oracle/mydata' location.
B. The TEMP101 tablespace is created with its temp file in the DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST location and the
AUGUST_SALES tablespace is created with its data file in the '/u01/app/oracle/mydata/
mysales.dbf' location.
C. The two tablespaces are created with the data file and temp file in their respective locations as specified in
the CREATE commands.
D. Tablespace creation ignores the data file and temp file locations specified in the CREATE commands, and
creates both the tablespaces in the DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST location.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 186
Examine the memory-related parameters of an Oracle database instance:

Which statement is true?

A. The value of the memory_target parameter cannot be changed dynamically.

B. PGA size is limited to a maximum of 500 MB.
C. Only the components of SGA are managed automatically.
D. Memory is dynamically re-allocated between SGA and PGA as needed.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/memory.htm#ADMIN11200

QUESTION 187
What are two of the benefits of installing Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server before installing
and creating an Oracle database on the same server? (Choose two.)

A. It is the only way to have "automatic restart in place" after instance failure.
B. The Oracle database will be easier to upgrade in the future.
C. The Oracle database can be created using Oracle Managed Files.
D. The Oracle database can be created using storage managed by ASM.
E. The Oracle database will be automatically registered as a resource in Oracle Restart.

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/db/11g/r2/prod/install/gridinstss/
gridinstss.htm

QUESTION 188
Which three can be performed on a Data Pump type external table? (Choose three.)

A. creating a public synonym for the table

B. creating a view on the table
C. partitioning the table
D. performing a CREATE TABLE AS SELECT (CTAS) to populate the table
E. creating an invisible index on the table
F. updating the table using an UPDATE statement

Correct Answer: DEF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 189
DBS_IND_PARTITIONS.ORPHANED_ENTRIES contains YES for several index partitions.
This is due to the use of deferred index maintenance.

Which three methods will remove the orphaned keys? (Choose three.)

A. using ALTER INDEX REBUILD PARTITION once for each affected local index partition
B. using DBMS_PART.CLEANUP_GIDX once to clean up orphaned keys in all local indexes.
C. using ALTER INDEX COALESCE PARTITION CLEANUP once for each affected global index partition
D. using DBMS_PART.CLEANUP_CIDX once to clean up any orphaned keys in all global indexes on partitioned
tables.
E. using ALTER INDEX COALESCE PARTITION CLEANUP once for each affected local index partition
F. using ALTER INDEX REBUILD PARTITION once for each affected global index partition

Correct Answer: ABC

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 190
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDBs).

Which three tools can be used to add a new PDB to the CDB? (Choose three.)

A. Enterprise Manager Cloud Control

B. SQL Developer
C. Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA)
D. Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
E. Oracle Universal Installer (OUI)

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 191
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains several pluggable databases (PDBs).
Users C##A_ADMIN and B_ADMIN have only connect privileges.
You create a common role C##_ROLE1 with common privileges CREATE TABLE and SELECT ANY
TABLE.
You then execute these commands to grant the role to users in the root container:

SQL > GRANT C##_role1 TO c##_a_admin CONTAINER=ALL;

Then,
SQL> CONN sys/oracle@HR_PDB as sysdba
SQL> GRANT c##_role1 TO b_admin CONTAINER=CURRENT;

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. C##_A_ADMIN can create and select any table in the root container as well as in all current PDBs.
B. C##_A_ADMIN can create and select any table in the root container as well as in all current and future
PDBs.
C. C##_A_ADMIN can create and select any table, and grant the C##_ROLE1 role to users in the root
container.
D. B_ADMIN can create and select any table, and grant the C##_ROLE1 role to users in HR_PDB.
E. B_ADMIN can create and select any table in HR_PDB

Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 192
Which two statements are true regarding SQL*Loader Express Mode in an Oracle 12c database? (Choose
two.)

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
A. You cannot have multiple SQL*Loader data files.
B. The DEGREE_OF_PARALLELISM parameter is set to AUTO.
C. If no data file is specified, it uses table-name.dat and assumes it is in the current directory.
D. A new table is created and data is inserted into the table if it does not exist in a schema.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/database/oracle/oracle-database/12.2/sutil/oracle-sql-loader-express-
mode.html#GUID-0F35B551-861B-450D-8BF3-2312893A67D7

QUESTION 193
While investigating a possible security breach, you realized that some audit records were not retrieved when
the UNIFIED_AUDIT_TRAIL view was queried.

How can you ensure that all available audit records are returned when the audit trail is queried?

A. Query the v$UNIFIED_AUDIT_TRAIL view rather than the UNIFIED_AUDIT_TRAIL view.

B. Enable the OS auditing option in the database before querying the UNIFIED_AUDIT_TRAIL view.
C. Configure the IMMEDIATE write mode using the DBMS_AUDIT_MGMT.SET_AUDIT_TRAIL view.
D. Execute the DBMS_AUDIT_MGMT.FLUSH_INIFIED_AUDIT_TRAIL procedure before querying the
UNIFIED_AUDIT_TRAIL view.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/oraclemagazine/unify-auditing

QUESTION 194
You execute this piece of code with appropriate privileges:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
User SCOTT has been granted the CREATE SESSION privilege and the MGR role.

Which two statements are true when a session logged in as SCOTT queries the SAL columns in the view and
the table?

A. Data is redacted for the EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR role set.
B. Data is never redacted on the EMP.SAL column.
C. Data is redacted for the EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
D. Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
E. Data is never redacted on the EMP_V.SAL column.

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 195
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains several pluggable databases (PDBs).

A common user C##A_ADMIN, is created with connect privileges.

You execute this command from the root container:

SQL> GRANT create tablespace to C##A_ADMIN;

Which statement is true?

A. The command executes successfully, enabling the C##A_ADMIN user to create a tablespace only in the
root container.
B. The command fails because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C. The command executes successfully, enabling the C##A_ADMIN user to create tablespaces in the root

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
 container as well as in the PDBs.
D. The command fails because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 196
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose three.)

A. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB).
B. The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
C. The PDB must be open in read-only mode.
D. The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.
E. The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
F. The PDB must be closed.

Correct Answer: ABF

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/webfolder/technetwork/tutorials/obe/db/12c/r1/pdb/pdb_unplug_plug/
pdb_unplug_plug.html

QUESTION 197
Which two partitioning methods are suitable for a parent table when using reference partitioning in Oracle
Database 12c? (Choose two.)

A. interval partitioning
B. list partitioning
C. system partitioning
D. hash partitioning
E. range partitioning

Correct Answer: DE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 198
Your multitenant container database (CDB) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.

Examine this command and its output:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
You issue this command in RMAN:

RMAN>BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE “CDB$ROOT”, pdb2_1;

What is the outcome?

A. The backup succeeds, but only the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces in the root container are backed up
along with all the data files in PDB2_1.
B. The backup fails because the root container cannot be backed up with PDB2_1.
C. The backup succeeds and all the data files belonging to both the root container and PDB2_1 are backed
up.
D. The backup fails because PDB2_1 should be placed in the mount stage.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 199
Which statement is true concerning compression during an Online Datafile Move?

A. Only tables may be compressed during the Online Datafile Move.

B. The DBA may choose which objects in the datafile to be moved get compressed.
C. All objects in a data file to be moved will always to be compressed.
D. Uncompressed data files may be moved online to compress the entire file with Hybrid Columnar
Compression.
E. If an object is already compressed in the source location, then the compression type for that object remains
unchanged after the move.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 200
In which two scenarios is an RMAN recovery catalog automatically resynchronized? (Choose two.)

A. when a registered database is opened with the RESETLOGS option

B. when a redo log is archived
C. when backup metadata records are aged out of the control file based on the

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
 CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME parameter value
D. when the backup retention policy configuration is changed for a registered database
E. when a manual redo log switch is performed

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 201
Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You back up the control file by executing ALTER
DATABASE BACKUP CONTROL TO TRACE NORESETLOGS, whenever you make structural changes to the
database. A media failure has damaged all the control files, but the online redo log files are intact. You issue a
SHUTDOWN ABORT.

How should you recover the control file to its default location?

A. Restore the backup control file to all the locations specified in the CONTROL_FILES parameter file, start a
new instance and mount the database, recover the database, and then open the database with the
RESETLOGS option.
B. Issue the STARTUP NOMOUNT command, restore the backup control file only to the default location,
issue RECOVER DATABASE USING BACKUP CONTROLFILE UNTIL CANCEL, and open the database
with the RESETLOGS option.
C. Issue the STARTUP MOUNT command, restore the backup control file to all the locations specified in the
CONTROL_FILES parameter file, and then issue RECOVER DATABASE USING BACKUP
CONTROLFILE.
D. Issue the STARTUP NOMOUNT command, re-create the control file manually by using the CREATE
CONTROLFILE command, issue the RECOVER DATABASE command, and then issue the ALTER
DATABASE OPEN command.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E28271_01/backup.1111/e10642/osadvsce.htm

QUESTION 202
Examine the portion of this Active Session History (ASH) report that is marked with a red rectangle:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Which two inferences can be drawn from the report?

A. Sessions attempting to modify blocks images in the buffer cache are waiting while other sessions are
reading the same block images.
B. Sessions are waiting to find free buffers in the buffer cache.
C. Sessions are waiting for writes of modified block images in the buffer cache to complete
D. Sessions are attempting to read blocks images in the buffer cache are waiting while other sessions are
reading the same block images.
E. Sessions attempting to read blocks images in the buffer cache are waiting while other sessions are
modifying the same block images.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 203
You plan to use the Flashback Drop feature to recover the SALES_EMP table that was dropped in error.
No other table with the same name exists in the SH schema, which owns the table.
You query the RECYCLEBIN and find multiple entries for the SALES_EMP table:

You then issue this statement to recover the table:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
What would be the best?

A. It retrieves the least recently dropped version of the table from the recycle bin for which undo is still
available.
B. It retrieves the most recently dropped version of the table.
C. It retrieves the most recently dropped version of the table from the recycle bin for which indo is still
available.
D. It returns an error because the table name in the OBJECT_NAME column is not specified.
E. It retrieves the least recently dropped version of the table.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 204
Examine these parameters for a database instance:

Which two statement are true? (Choose two.)

A. SGA can grow automatically beyond 4480 MB.

B. The autotuned components of SGA are dynamically allocated.
C. Only Automatic Shared Memory management (ASMM) is enabled.
D. Automatic Memory Management (AMM) and ASMM are enabled.
E. PGA can grow automatically beyond 1000 MB.

Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 205
The current system change number (SCN) for a live database is 663571.

You decide to use the FLASHBACK TABLE statement to flash back the CUSTOMERS table to SCN 662116.

After flashing back the CUSTOMERS table, you query it and decide to undo the effects of the FLASHBACK
TABLE command.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Which is the fastest way to do this?

A. Execute the RMAN RECOVER BLOCK command by specifying the table name and SCN 663571 because
FLASHBACK TABLE cannot be performed on a table that has already been flashed back.
B. Execute another FLASHBACK TABLE statement to restore the CUSTOMERS table to SCN 663571.
C. Perform table point-in-time recovery because FLASHBACK TABLE cannot be performed on a table that
has already been flashed back.
D. Perform tablespace point-in-time recovery because FLASHBACK TABLE cannot be performed on a table
that has already been flashed back.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 206
Examine these parameters settings:

What is true about the control file?

A. The control file is multiplexed in the locations specified by DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_1 and

DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_2.
B. Only a single control file exists in the location specified by DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST.
C. The control file is multiplexed in the locations specified by DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST and
DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST.
D. Only a single control file exists in the location specified by DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST.
E. The control file is multiplexed in the locations specified by DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST and
DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_1.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/omf005.htm

QUESTION 207
Which three statements are true about the use of the In-Database Archiving and Temporal Validity features of
Oracle Database 12c? (Choose three.)

A. Both Transaction Time and Temporal Validity time dimensions may be used as filters in the same query.
B. Temporal Validity spans the time between a row insert and a subsequent update or delete for the same
row.
C. In-Database Archiving is based on application-managed setting of the life-cycle state.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
D. Temporal Validity time is based on the times specified by the application.
E. Inactive rows that have been archived are always invisible.

Correct Answer: ADE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/in-database-archiving-12cr1

QUESTION 208
Examine the parameters for your database instance:

You generate an execution plan for this query and the plan table shows a nested loop join in the plan/

After query execution, you see that a hash join was performed:

What explain this optimizer behavior?

A. It used SQL plan baselines for the query.

B. It chose different plans because extended statistics were created on the filter columns.
C. It chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
D. It used an adaptive execution plan.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 209
You are connected to a multitenant container database (CDB) with DBA privileges.

The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE.

You issue:

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SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL=ALL SCOPE=BOTH;

Which three effects does this have on the CDB and its pluggable databases (PDBs)? (Choose three.)

A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is immediately set to ALL in all PDBs where the
STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter has no value set.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is immediately set to ALL in the CDB instance.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL on all PDBs when they are opened.
D. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is immediately set to ALL in all PDBs.
E. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL in the SPFILE.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 210
Examine this set of commands to perform data pump export and import operations:

On the source database:

$> expdp sh/sh DIRECTORY=dpdir DUMPFILE=sale1.dmp VIEWS_AS_TABLE=sales_q1

On the target database:

$> impdp sh/sh DIRECTORY=dpdir DUMPFILE=sale1.dmp VIEWS_AS_TABLE=sales_q1

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. This impdp operation creates the view as a table and populates it with data from the export dump file.
B. The exdp operation exports data that satisfies the conditions of the defining query used when the view was
created.
C. Metadata for dependent objects required to create the SALES_Q1 view is exported.
D. All rows from the dependent objects that are required are exported along with the metadata to create the
SALES_Q1 view.
E. The impdp operation creates the view and the dependent object.

Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 211
Identify the category of recommendation that can be implemented automatically by the Automatic SQL Tuning
Advisor.

A. creating SQL profiles

B. restructuring SQL statements
C. creating invisible indexes
D. reducing wait events
E. partitioning a table

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28274/sql_tune.htm#i36217

QUESTION 212
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) workload on an SMP machine.

The database is stored in ASM.

Examine these initialization parameters.

Applications are update intensive using indexed access and modified blocks are written in batches by the
DBWR process.

You notice a large number of free buffer waits and increase the size of the buffer cache, but eventually
the same waits occur.

Which two actions would you recommend? (Choose two.)

A. decrease the size of the buffer cache

B. configure asynchronous I/O
C. modifying the ASM disk for the database to use high redundancy
D. configure multiple DBWn processes
E. configure I/O slaves for the DBWR process

Correct Answer: AE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B16240_01/doc/doc.102/e16282/oracle_database_help/
oracle_database_wait_bottlenecks_free_buffer_waits_pct.html

QUESTION 213
Which action takes place when an incremental checkpoint occurs?

A. The checkpoint position is advanced by the checkpoint process.

B. Redo entries are written by the checkpoint process to the online redo log files.
C. All dirty buffers are written to data files by the checkpoint process.
D. The checkpoint position is written to all the data file headers and the control file by the checkpoint process.
E. The checkpoint position is written to the control file by the checkpoint process.

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_incremental_checkpoint.htm

QUESTION 214
Your database runs in NOARCHIVELOG mode.

Whole database backups are taken daily.

A media failure damages data files belonging to the USERS tablespace and the online redo log files.

The hardware that is causing this damage is not repairable.

You issue the SHUTDOWN ABORT command.

Examine these steps:

1. Restore only the damaged files from the whole database backup to a new location.
2. Restore the whole database backup to a new location.
3. Edit the restored initialization parameter file to indicate the new location of the control files.
4. Issue the STARTUP MOUNT command.
5. Issue the STARTUP NOMOUNT command.
6. Issue the RECOVER DATABASE command.
7. Update the control file to reflect the new data file locations by using the ALTER DATABASE RENAME FILE
command.
8. Specify a new location for each affected online log by issuing the command:
RECOVER DATABASE UNTIL CANCEL
9. Open the database in RESETLOGS mode.

Identify the minimum steps required in the correct sequence to recover your database.

A. 1, 3, 5, 8, 9
B. 1, 4, 7, 8, 9
C. 1, 3, 4, 6
D. 2, 5, 6, 7, 9

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 215
The workload on your database remains the same between 9 AM and 6 PM on all days of the week. However,
you notice performance degradation between 3 PM and 5 PM on some days.

You want to identify regressed statements by comparing the workload between these two periods.

Examine these steps:

1. Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) for the statements cached in the library cache for both periods.
2. Generate a Compare Period AWR report for both periods.
3. Run the SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) on the STS captured for both periods.
4. Run the SQL Tuning Analyzer on the STS captured for both periods.

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5. Run the SQL Access Advisor on the STS captured for both periods.
6. Run the Compare Period ADDM report for both periods.

Identify the required steps to accomplish the task.

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 5
C. 1 and 2
D. only 6
E. 1 and 4
F. only 2

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference https://www.oracle.com/technetwork/oem/db-mgmt/spa-migration-to-cloud-3415493.pdf

QUESTION 216
You configured the Fast Recovery Area (FRA) for your database, which is in ARCHIVELOG mode.

The default location for the archived log files is the Fast Recovery Area.

There are no guaranteed restore points defined in the database.

Which two file types are removed automatically based on RMAN retention policy settings, if there is pressure
for space in the FRA? (Choose two.)

A. obsolete RMAN backups

B. flashback log files
C. user-managed backups of control files
D. expired RMAN backups
E. archived redo log duplexed to another destination but not yet backed up
F. user-managed backups of data files

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

66F37930197C497555A9DAABF1CD2B3A