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1. What is the primary purpose of an operating system?

A) To enhance the performance of the computer system

B) To provide a userfriendly interface

C) To manage and control hardware resources

D) To execute user programs

Answer: C) To manage and control hardware resources

2. Which of the following is not a function of an operating system?

A) Process management

B) File management

C) Memory management

D) Network management

Answer: D) Network management

3. Which scheduling algorithm provides the best average turnaround time?

 A) FirstCome, FirstServed (FCFS)

B) Round Robin

C) Shortest Job Next (SJN)

D) Shortest Remaining Time First (SRTF)

Answer: D) Shortest Remaining Time First (SRTF)

4. What is the main advantage of multilevel feedback queue scheduling over other scheduling
algorithms?

A) It reduces the overhead of context switching

B) It is fairer to all processes

C) It allows processes to move between queues

D) It guarantees a minimum response time for all processes

Answer: C) It allows processes to move between queues

5. Which memory management scheme allows for the possibility of external fragmentation?

A) Paging

B) Segmentation

C) Virtual memory

D) Contiguous allocation

Answer: D) Contiguous allocation

6. What does TLB stand for in the context of memory management?

A) Translation Level Buffer

 B) Translation Lookaside Buffer

C) Table Lookup Buffer

D) Table Link Buffer

Answer: B) Translation Lookaside Buffer

7. What is the purpose of the 'fork' system call in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To execute a new process

B) To terminate the current process

C) To create a new file

D) To execute a new thread

Answer: A) To execute a new process

8. Which file system is widely used in UNIX and Linux operating systems?

A) NTFS

B) FAT32

C) Ext4

D) HFS+

Answer: C) Ext4

9. Which of the following is a feature of a RealTime Operating System (RTOS)?

A) High degree of multiprogramming

B) Soft realtime scheduling

C) Low interrupt latency

 D) Nondeterministic task scheduling

Answer: C) Low interrupt latency

10. Which page replacement algorithm suffers from Belady's anomaly?

A) FIFO

B) Optimal

C) LRU

D) Clock

Answer: A) FIFO

11. Which synchronization primitive is used to protect critical sections of code in a multithreaded
environment?

A) Mutex

B) Semaphore

C) Barrier

D) Monitor

Answer: A) Mutex

12. What does the acronym 'DMA' stand for in the context of operating systems?

A) Direct Memory Access

B) Dynamic Memory Allocation

C) Distributed Memory Architecture

D) Device Management Algorithm

 Answer: A) Direct Memory Access

13. Which of the following is not a state in the lifecycle of a process?

A) Ready

B) Running

C) Waiting

D) Completed

Answer: D) Completed

14. What is the primary purpose of the 'swapping' technique in memory management?

A) To increase the size of the physical memory

B) To reduce the fragmentation of memory

C) To allow processes to execute concurrently

D) To transfer data between main memory and secondary storage

Answer: D) To transfer data between main memory and secondary storage

15. Which command is used to change the priority of a process in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) nice

B) ps

C) renice

D) kill

Answer: C) renice
16. What is the purpose of the 'spooling' technique in operating systems?

A) To manage device queues

B) To buffer input/output data

C) To prevent deadlock

D) To manage memory allocation

Answer: B) To buffer input/output data

17. Which algorithm is used to prevent deadlock in a resource allocation system?

A) Banker's algorithm

B) Cyclic redundancy check

C) Dijkstra's algorithm

D) A algorithm

Answer: A) Banker's algorithm

18. Which of the following is not a function of the shell in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) Process management

B) Input/output redirection

C) Memory management

D) Batch processing

Answer: C) Memory management

19. Which of the following is true about a 'critical section'?

 A) It is a section of code that must be executed atomically

B) It is a section of code that can be executed concurrently

C) It is a section of code that can never be executed

D) It is a section of code that is executed only by the operating system

Answer: A) It is a section of code that must be executed atomically

20. Which scheduling algorithm is primarily used in realtime operating systems?

A) FirstCome, FirstServed (FCFS)

B) Round Robin

C) Earliest Deadline First (EDF)

D) Priority scheduling

Answer: C) Earliest Deadline First (EDF)

21. Which of the following is true about demand paging?

A) It loads all processes into memory before execution.

B) It swaps processes between main memory and disk during execution.

C) It only loads the necessary pages into memory when required.

D) It increases the size of the process address space.

Answer: C) It only loads the necessary pages into memory when required.

22. What does the term 'thrashing' refer to in the context of operating systems?

A) Excessive disk I/O activity

B) Excessive context switching

 C) Excessive memory paging activity

D) Excessive CPU utilization

Answer: C) Excessive memory paging activity

23. Which of the following is not a benefit of using virtual memory?

A) Allows for efficient process management

B) Increases the size of the usable address space

C) Eliminates the need for secondary storage

D) Enables sharing of memory between processes

Answer: C) Eliminates the need for secondary storage

24. What is the main purpose of a page table in virtual memory systems?

A) To store the contents of all pages in memory

B) To map logical addresses to physical addresses

C) To manage disk space for paging

D) To schedule page replacement algorithms

Answer: B) To map logical addresses to physical addresses

25. Which of the following is a characteristic of a monolithic kernel?

A) It is highly modular and allows for dynamic loading of kernel modules.

B) It runs entirely in user space and does not require kernel privileges.

C) It is less efficient in terms of performance compared to microkernels.

D) It combines all operating system functionalities into a single address space.

 Answer: D) It combines all operating system functionalities into a single address space.

26. What is the primary purpose of the 'sync' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To synchronize system time with a time server

B) To synchronize file system buffers with disk

C) To synchronize network connections

D) To synchronize processes in a multithreaded application

Answer: B) To synchronize file system buffers with disk

27. Which of the following is a characteristic of a deadlock situation?

A) A process waits indefinitely for a resource held by another process.

B) Two processes continuously exchange resources.

C) A process holds a resource while waiting for another resource.

D) A process consumes excessive CPU time.

Answer: A) A process waits indefinitely for a resource held by another process.

28. In a paged memory management system, what is the size of the page table entry typically
dependent on?

A) The number of processes in the system

B) The size of the physical memory

C) The size of the secondary storage

D) The size of the virtual address space

 Answer: D) The size of the virtual address space

29. Which of the following is not a state in the process state transition diagram?

A) Ready

B) Running

C) Sleeping

D) Blocked

Answer: C) Sleeping

30. What is the main purpose of the 'fork' and 'exec' combination of system calls in UNIXlike
operating systems?

A) To create a new process and execute a new program in it

B) To create a new thread and execute a new program in it

C) To terminate the current process and execute a new program

D) To synchronize the execution of multiple processes

Answer: A) To create a new process and execute a new program in it

31. Which of the following is a characteristic of a microkernel architecture?

A) It provides a rich set of builtin functionalities.

B) It executes most operating system services in user space.

C) It is less modular compared to monolithic kernels.

D) It has a larger kernel size compared to monolithic kernels.

Answer: B) It executes most operating system services in user space.

32. What is the purpose of the 'chroot' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To change the root directory for the current process

B) To change the priority of the current process

C) To change the permissions of a file or directory

D) To change the ownership of a file or directory

Answer: A) To change the root directory for the current process

33. Which of the following is not a common approach to handling deadlock in operating systems?

A) Detection and recovery

B) Prevention

C) Ignoring deadlocks

D) Avoidance

Answer: C) Ignoring deadlocks

34. What is the main purpose of the 'inode' structure in UNIXlike file systems?

A) To store file data

B) To store file permissions

C) To store file metadata

D) To store file system hierarchy

Answer: C) To store file metadata

35. Which of the following statements about symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) systems is true?
 A) Each processor is assigned a specific task to perform.

B) All processors share the same memory and I/O devices.

C) Processors communicate with each other through a dedicated bus.

D) Each processor has its own copy of the operating system.

Answer: B) All processors share the same memory and I/O devices.

36. What is the primary purpose of the 'nice' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To provide a friendly user interface

B) To change the priority of a process

C) To display system information

D) To manage network interfaces

Answer: B) To change the priority of a process

37. Which of the following is not a type of file in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) Regular file

B) Directory file

C) Symbolic link file

D) Temporary file

Answer: D) Temporary file

38. What is the primary purpose of the 'truncate' system call in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To remove a file from the file system

B) To resize a file to a specified length

 C) To change the permissions of a file

D) To rename a file

Answer: B) To resize a file to a specified length

39. Which of the following is not a component of a file system?

A) Superblock

B) Inode

C) Semaphore

D) Data block

Answer: C) Semaphore

40. What is the main purpose of the 'cron' utility in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To manage user accounts

B) To schedule periodic tasks

C) To monitor system performance

D) To install software packages

Answer: B) To schedule periodic tasks

41. Which of the following is a characteristic of a nonpreemptive scheduling algorithm?

A) It allows a process to voluntarily release the CPU.

B) It forcibly removes the CPU from a running process.

C) It always favors shortterm CPUbound processes.

 D) It guarantees a minimum response time for I/Obound processes.

Answer: A) It allows a process to voluntarily release the CPU.

42. What is the primary purpose of the 'fork bomb' attack?

A) To exploit vulnerabilities in the file system

B) To exhaust system resources by recursively spawning processes

C) To intercept network traffic and steal data

D) To manipulate system clock settings

Answer: B) To exhaust system resources by recursively spawning processes

43. Which of the following is not a valid file permission in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) Read

B) Write

C) Execute

D) Share

Answer: D) Share

44. What is the primary purpose of the 'grep' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To create and edit text files

B) To search for patterns in text files

C) To compress and decompress files

D) To display system configuration information

 Answer: B) To search for patterns in text files

45. Which of the following is a characteristic of a multithreaded process?

A) It can only execute one task at a time.

B) It shares the same address space with other threads in the process.

C) It cannot be preempted by the operating system.

D) It runs entirely in user space without kernel support.

Answer: B) It shares the same address space with other threads in the process.

46. What is the main purpose of the 'kill' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To terminate a process

B) To display system information

C) To create a new process

D) To change the priority of a process

Answer: A) To terminate a process

47. Which of the following is not a typical component of a process control block (PCB)?

A) Process state

B) Program counter

C) File permissions

D) CPU registers

Answer: C) File permissions

48. What is the primary purpose of the 'mkfs' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To create a new file system on a disk partition

B) To mount an existing file system

C) To format a disk partition

D) To display disk usage statistics

Answer: A) To create a new file system on a disk partition

49. Which of the following is a characteristic of a distributed operating system?

A) It runs on a single machine with multiple processors.

B) It provides a centralized view of resources across a network.

C) It is designed primarily for realtime applications.

D) It executes all tasks in a sequential manner.

Answer: B) It provides a centralized view of resources across a network.

50. What is the main purpose of the 'umask' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To set the priority of a process

B) To display information about mounted file systems

C) To set default file permissions for newly created files

D) To synchronize system time with a time server

Answer: C) To set default file permissions for newly created files

51. Which of the following is a characteristic of a deadlock prevention approach?

A) It detects and resolves deadlocks after they occur.

 B) It allows deadlocks to occur and then rolls back the system state.

C) It restricts the ways in which resources can be requested.

D) It ignores deadlocks and continues normal operation.

Answer: C) It restricts the ways in which resources can be requested.

52. What is the main purpose of the 'pwd' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To display the current system uptime

B) To display the current working directory

C) To display a list of loggedin users

D) To display system memory usage

Answer: B) To display the current working directory

53. Which of the following is not a function of a file system?

A) File naming

B) File access control

C) Process scheduling

D) File storage

Answer: C) Process scheduling

54. What is the primary purpose of the 'nice' value in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To set the process priority

B) To set the file permissions

C) To set the process group ID

 D) To set the process ID

Answer: A) To set the process priority

55. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a RealTime Operating System (RTOS)?

A) Predictability of behavior

B) Ability to meet strict timing requirements

C) Support for multiuser environments

D) Prioritybased scheduling

Answer: C) Support for multiuser environments

56. What is the primary purpose of the 'chmod' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To change file ownership

B) To change file permissions

C) To change file names

D) To change file types

Answer: B) To change file permissions

57. Which of the following is not a valid scheduling policy for realtime operating systems?

A) Earliest Deadline First (EDF)

B) Rate Monotonic Scheduling (RMS)

C) FirstCome, FirstServed (FCFS)

D) Deadline Monotonic Scheduling (DMS)

 Answer: C) FirstCome, FirstServed (FCFS)

58. What is the primary purpose of the 'ldd' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To link object files into an executable

B) To display dynamic library dependencies of an executable

C) To load shared libraries into memory

D) To debug a running process

Answer: B) To display dynamic library dependencies of an executable

59. Which of the following is not a function of a file system buffer cache?

A) Caching frequently accessed file data

B) Improving disk I/O performance

C) Preventing data corruption

D) Synchronizing file system metadata updates

Answer: C) Preventing data corruption

60. What is the main purpose of the 'fdisk' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To format a disk partition

B) To display disk usage statistics

C) To create and manage disk partitions

D) To mount a file system

Answer: C) To create and manage disk partitions

61. What is the primary purpose of the 'nice' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To change the priority of a process

B) To display system information

C) To manage user accounts

D) To compress and decompress files

Answer: A) To change the priority of a process

62. Which of the following is not a component of the process control block (PCB)?

A) Program counter

B) CPU scheduling information

C) Disk space allocation

D) Process ID

Answer: C) Disk space allocation

63. What is the primary purpose of the 'pstree' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To display the file system hierarchy

B) To display a treelike representation of processes

C) To display system uptime

D) To display the contents of a directory

Answer: B) To display a treelike representation of processes

64. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a distributed operating system?

A) Scalability
 B) Fault tolerance

C) Centralized control

D) Transparency

Answer: C) Centralized control

65. What is the primary purpose of the 'mount' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To change the permissions of a file

B) To list mounted file systems

C) To create a new file system

D) To attach a file system to the directory tree

Answer: D) To attach a file system to the directory tree

66. Which of the following statements about semaphores is true?

A) Semaphores are used to synchronize processes and avoid race conditions.

B) Semaphores are used to allocate memory dynamically.

C) Semaphores are used to manage file permissions.

D) Semaphores are used to compress and decompress files.

Answer: A) Semaphores are used to synchronize processes and avoid race conditions.

67. What is the main purpose of the 'nice' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To set the priority of a process

B) To create a new process

C) To display system information

 D) To change the permissions of a file

Answer: A) To set the priority of a process

68. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a monolithic kernel?

A) All operating system functionalities run in the same address space.

B) It is highly modular and allows for dynamic loading of kernel modules.

C) It is less efficient in terms of performance compared to microkernels.

D) It executes most operating system services in user space.

Answer: D) It executes most operating system services in user space.

69. What is the main purpose of the 'mount' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To attach a file system to the directory tree

B) To change the permissions of a file

C) To list mounted file systems

D) To create a new file system

Answer: A) To attach a file system to the directory tree

70. Which of the following is not a type of file in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) Regular file

B) Symbolic link file

C) Directory file

D) Archive file
 Answer: D) Archive file

71. What is the main purpose of the 'sync' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To synchronize file system buffers with disk

B) To synchronize network connections

C) To synchronize system time with a time server

D) To synchronize processes in a multithreaded application

Answer: A) To synchronize file system buffers with disk

72. Which of the following is not a state in the process state transition diagram?

A) Waiting

B) Ready

C) Running

D) Blocked

Answer: A) Waiting

73. What is the primary purpose of the 'chown' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To change the owner of a file or directory

B) To change the group of a file or directory

C) To change the permissions of a file or directory

D) To change the size of a file or directory

Answer: A) To change the owner of a file or directory

74. Which of the following is not a function of an operating system?

A) Process management

B) File management

C) Network management

D) User management

Answer: D) User management

75. What is the main purpose of the 'ps' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To display information about mounted file systems

B) To create a new process

C) To display information about running processes

D) To manage user accounts

Answer: C) To display information about running processes

76. Which of the following statements about a shell in UNIXlike operating systems is true?

A) It is a graphical user interface.

B) It interprets and executes commands entered by the user.

C) It manages the execution of user programs.

D) It controls the hardware resources of the computer.

Answer: B) It interprets and executes commands entered by the user.

77. What is the main purpose of the 'mkfs' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To format a disk partition

 B) To create a new file system on a disk partition

C) To display disk usage statistics

D) To mount an existing file system

Answer: B) To create a new file system on a disk partition

78. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a RealTime Operating System (RTOS)?

A) Support for multiuser environments

B) Predictability of behavior

C) Ability to meet strict timing requirements

D) Prioritybased scheduling

Answer: A) Support for multiuser environments

79. What is the primary purpose of the 'kill' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To terminate a process

B) To change the priority of a process

C) To display system information

D) To create a new process

Answer: A) To terminate a process

80. Which of the following statements about a page table is true?

A) It maps physical addresses to virtual addresses.

B) It maps virtual addresses to physical addresses.

C) It stores the contents of all pages in memory.

 D) It manages disk space for paging.

Answer: B) It maps virtual addresses to physical addresses.

81. Which of the following is a characteristic of a preemptive scheduling algorithm?

A) It allows a process to voluntarily release the CPU.

B) It forcibly removes the CPU from a running process.

C) It always favors shortterm CPUbound processes.

D) It guarantees a minimum response time for I/Obound processes.

Answer: B) It forcibly removes the CPU from a running process.

82. What is the primary purpose of the 'chmod' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To change file ownership

B) To change file permissions

C) To change file names

D) To change file types

Answer: B) To change file permissions

83. Which of the following statements about segmentation in memory management is true?

A) Segmentation divides memory into fixedsize partitions.

B) Segmentation eliminates external fragmentation.

C) Segmentation allows for dynamic relocation of processes in memory.

D) Segmentation uses a singlelevel page table for address translation.

 Answer: C) Segmentation allows for dynamic relocation of processes in memory.

84. What is the main purpose of the 'mkfifo' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To create a new file system

B) To create a new directory

C) To create a new symbolic link

D) To create a new named pipe

Answer: D) To create a new named pipe

85. Which of the following is not a type of file in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) Regular file

B) Directory file

C) Symbolic link file

D) Temporary file

Answer: D) Temporary file

86. What is the primary purpose of the 'time' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To display the system time

B) To display information about mounted file systems

C) To measure the execution time of a command

D) To manage user accounts

Answer: C) To measure the execution time of a command

87. Which of the following is not a component of the process control block (PCB)?

A) Process ID

B) Program counter

C) Disk space allocation

D) CPU scheduling information

Answer: C) Disk space allocation

88. What is the main purpose of the 'fsck' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To format a disk partition

B) To check and repair file system inconsistencies

C) To display disk usage statistics

D) To list mounted file systems

Answer: B) To check and repair file system inconsistencies

89. Which of the following is not a function of an operating system?

A) Process management

B) File management

C) Network management

D) User management

Answer: D) User management

90. What is the primary purpose of the 'dd' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To display system information

 B) To copy and convert files

C) To manage user accounts

D) To list mounted file systems

Answer: B) To copy and convert files

91. Which of the following statements about paging in memory management is true?

A) Paging eliminates internal fragmentation.

B) Paging allows for dynamic relocation of processes in memory.

C) Paging uses a singlelevel page table for address translation.

D) Paging divides memory into variablesized segments.

Answer: A) Paging eliminates internal fragmentation.

92. What is the main purpose of the 'rmdir' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To remove a file or directory

B) To rename a file or directory

C) To create a new directory

D) To remove an empty directory

Answer: D) To remove an empty directory

93. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a distributed operating system?

A) Scalability

B) Fault tolerance

C) Centralized control
 D) Transparency

Answer: C) Centralized control

94. What is the primary purpose of the 'top' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To display system time

B) To display system uptime

C) To display information about running processes

D) To manage user accounts

Answer: C) To display information about running processes

95. Which of the following statements about semaphore operations is true?

A) Wait and signal operations can be performed on binary semaphores only.

B) Semaphore operations are atomic and cannot be interrupted.

C) Semaphore operations are used to allocate memory dynamically.

D) Semaphore operations are used to compress and decompress files.

Answer: B) Semaphore operations are atomic and cannot be interrupted.

96. What is the main purpose of the 'renice' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To change the priority of a process

B) To change the owner of a file or directory

C) To change the permissions of a file or directory

D) To change the group of a file or directory

 Answer: A) To change the priority of a process

97. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a monolithic kernel?

A) All operating system functionalities run in the same address space.

B) It is highly modular and allows for dynamic loading of kernel modules.

C) It is less efficient in terms of performance compared to microkernels.

D) It executes most operating system services in user space.

Answer: D) It executes most operating system services in user space.

98. What is the main purpose of the 'umask' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To set default file permissions for newly created files

B) To set the priority of a process

C) To synchronize system time with a time server

D) To change the owner of a file or directory

Answer: A) To set default file permissions for newly created files

99. Which of the following statements about process synchronization is true?

A) Process synchronization is necessary only in singlethreaded environments.

B) Process synchronization ensures that processes execute concurrently without interference.

C) Process synchronization prevents deadlock and race conditions.

D) Process synchronization is achieved through the use of semaphores and mutexes.

Answer: D) Process synchronization is achieved through the use of semaphores and mutexes.
100. What is the primary purpose of the 'find' command in UNIXlike operating systems?

A) To search for files and directories based on specified criteria

B) To display system information

C) To create a new file

D) To manage user accounts

Answer: A) To search for files and directories based on specified criteria

 Computer Networks

1. What is the maximum size of an IPv4 datagram header?

A) 20 bytes

B) 24 bytes

C) 16 bytes

D) 32 bytes

Answer: A) 20 bytes

2. Which protocol is used to obtain the IP address of a host given its hostname?

A) ARP

B) DHCP

C) DNS

D) ICMP

Answer: C) DNS

3. In which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?

A) Transport layer

B) Network layer

C) Data link layer

D) Session layer

Answer: A) Transport layer

4. Which of the following is a connectionless protocol?

 A) TCP

B) UDP

C) FTP

D) SMTP

Answer: B) UDP

5. What is the range of valid IPv4 addresses?

A) 0.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255

B) 1.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

C) 1.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255

D) 0.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

Answer: B) 1.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255

6. Which of the following is not a topological requirement for Ethernet LANs?

A) Collision detection

B) Common clock

C) Carrier sensing

D) Contention

Answer: B) Common clock

7. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in IP networking?

A) To identify the network portion of an IP address

B) To identify the host portion of an IP address

C) To differentiate between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses

D) To prevent IP address conflicts

Answer: A) To identify the network portion of an IP address

8. What is the maximum number of bits that can be used for a network ID in Class C IP addressing?

A) 8 bits

B) 16 bits

C) 24 bits

D) 32 bits

Answer: C) 24 bits

9. Which error detection technique involves appending a redundant bit to the data?

A) Checksum

B) CRC

C) Hamming code

D) Parity bit

Answer: D) Parity bit

10. Which device operates at the Physical layer of the OSI model?

A) Switch

B) Router

C) Repeater

D) Bridge

Answer: C) Repeater

11. What is the main purpose of the TCP threeway handshake?

A) Establish a connection

B) Terminate a connection

C) Transmit data
 D) Detect errors

Answer: A) Establish a connection

12. Which addressing mode is used in Ethernet?

A) Hierarchical addressing

B) Flat addressing

C) Broadcast addressing

D) Multicast addressing

Answer: B) Flat addressing

13. What is the purpose of a Default Gateway in TCP/IP networking?

A) To connect two networks with different network IDs

B) To resolve hostnames to IP addresses

C) To provide a backup route in case of network failure

D) To filter incoming traffic based on IP addresses

Answer: A) To connect two networks with different network IDs

14. Which routing algorithm is used in RIP (Routing Information Protocol)?

A) Dijkstra's algorithm

B) BellmanFord algorithm

C) Link State algorithm

D) Distance Vector algorithm

Answer: D) Distance Vector algorithm

15. What is the primary function of NAT (Network Address Translation)?

A) To encrypt network traffic

 B) To assign IP addresses dynamically

C) To map private IP addresses to public IP addresses

D) To prioritize network traffic

Answer: C) To map private IP addresses to public IP addresses

16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of UDP?

A) Connectionoriented

B) Unreliable

C) Low overhead

D) Used for streaming multimedia

Answer: A) Connectionoriented

17. What is the maximum length of an Ethernet frame?

A) 1500 bytes

B) 1518 bytes

C) 1542 bytes

D) 1600 bytes

Answer: B) 1518 bytes

18. Which protocol is used to dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts in a network?

A) ARP

B) DNS

C) DHCP

D) ICMP

Answer: C) DHCP
19. What is the purpose of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?

A) To map IP addresses to MAC addresses

B) To resolve hostnames to IP addresses

C) To determine the best route for data packets

D) To assign IP addresses dynamically

Answer: A) To map IP addresses to MAC addresses

20. Which of the following is a characteristic of a hub?

A) Operates at the Network layer

B) Filters traffic based on MAC addresses

C) Forwards packets based on IP addresses

D) Broadcasts data to all connected devices

Answer: D) Broadcasts data to all connected devices

21. Which field in the IPv4 header is used for packet fragmentation?

A) Fragment Offset

B) Identification

C) Time to Live

D) Flags

Answer: D) Flags

22. Which of the following is a reliable protocol?

A) UDP

B) ICMP

C) TCP

D) ARP
 Answer: C) TCP

23. In Ethernet, what is the purpose of the preamble and start frame delimiter?

A) To indicate the end of a frame

B) To synchronize the receiver's clock

C) To identify the type of data encapsulated in the frame

D) To indicate the beginning of a frame

Answer: B) To synchronize the receiver's clock

24. Which of the following is a private IP address range?

A) 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

B) 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

C) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

25. Which of the following is not a valid network topology?

A) Mesh

B) Ring

C) Web

D) Star

Answer: C) Web

26. What is the purpose of a MAC address?

A) To uniquely identify a device on a network

B) To identify the network portion of an IP address

 C) To determine the best route for data packets

D) To map IP addresses to physical addresses

Answer: A) To uniquely identify a device on a network

27. Which of the following is not a function of a router?

A) Forwarding packets between networks

B) Filtering packets based on IP addresses

C) Translating IP addresses

D) Broadcasting data to all connected devices

Answer: D) Broadcasting data to all connected devices

28. Which protocol is used to obtain the MAC address of a device given its IP address?

A) ARP

B) DHCP

C) DNS

D) ICMP

Answer: A) ARP

29. Which error detection technique is more efficient in detecting errors?

A) Parity bit

B) Checksum

C) CRC

D) Hamming code

Answer: C) CRC

30. What is the purpose of a subnet in IP networking?

 A) To divide a large network into smaller, manageable segments

B) To connect two networks with different network IDs

C) To assign IP addresses dynamically

D) To prevent IP address conflicts

Answer: A) To divide a large network into smaller, manageable segments

31. Which of the following is a feature of IPv6 but not IPv4?

A) Classful addressing

B) Broadcast addressing

C) Multicast addressing

D) Variablelength subnet masking (VLSM)

Answer: C) Multicast addressing

32. Which OSI layer is responsible for data encryption and decryption?

A) Transport layer

B) Network layer

C) Data link layer

D) Presentation layer

Answer: D) Presentation layer

33. What is the maximum length of a MAC address?

A) 24 bits

B) 32 bits

C) 48 bits
 D) 64 bits

Answer: C) 48 bits

34. Which of the following is not a function of a data link layer?

A) Error detection and correction

B) Framing

C) Logical addressing

D) Media access control

Answer: C) Logical addressing

35. Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch?

A) Operates at the Physical layer

B) Broadcasts data to all connected devices

C) Filters traffic based on IP addresses

D) Forwards packets based on MAC addresses

Answer: D) Forwards packets based on MAC addresses

36. What is the primary purpose of subnetting?

A) To improve network performance

B) To conserve IP addresses

C) To secure a network

D) To organize hosts into logical groups

Answer: D) To organize hosts into logical groups

37. Which of the following is a characteristic of a fullduplex communication mode?

A) Data can be transmitted in both directions simultaneously

 B) Data can only be transmitted in one direction at a time

C) Data transmission is not possible

D) Data transmission is halfduplex

Answer: A) Data can be transmitted in both directions simultaneously

38. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in IP networking?

A) To identify the network portion of an IP address

B) To identify the host portion of an IP address

C) To differentiate between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses

D) To prevent IP address conflicts

Answer: A) To identify the network portion of an IP address

39. Which protocol is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts in a network?

A) ARP

B) DNS

C) DHCP

D) ICMP

Answer: C) DHCP

40. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for endtoend communication between applications?

A) Transport layer

B) Network layer

C) Session layer

D) Presentation layer

Answer: A) Transport layer

41. What is the purpose of the TTL (Time to Live) field in an IP header?

A) To specify the maximum number of hops a packet can traverse

B) To indicate the length of the packet header

C) To determine the priority of the packet

D) To specify the maximum size of the payload

Answer: A) To specify the maximum number of hops a packet can traverse

42. Which of the following is a characteristic of a star network topology?

A) Every device is connected to every other device

B) Data is transmitted in a single direction only

C) All devices are connected to a central hub or switch

D) Devices are connected in a circular fashion

Answer: C) All devices are connected to a central hub or switch

43. Which of the following protocols is used for securely transmitting data over a network?

A) HTTP

B) FTP

C) SSH

D) SMTP

Answer: C) SSH

44. What is the purpose of the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model?

A) To standardize network protocols

B) To provide a framework for understanding network operations

C) To facilitate communication between different types of networks

D) All of the above

 Answer: D) All of the above

45. Which of the following is a characteristic of a halfduplex communication mode?

A) Data can be transmitted in both directions simultaneously

B) Data can only be transmitted in one direction at a time

C) Data transmission is not possible

D) Data transmission is fullduplex

Answer: B) Data can only be transmitted in one direction at a time

46. Which of the following is true about subnetting?

A) Subnetting increases the number of available IP addresses

B) Subnetting reduces network traffic

C) Subnetting divides a large network into smaller, manageable subnetworks

D) Subnetting improves network security

Answer: C) Subnetting divides a large network into smaller, manageable subnetworks

47. Which of the following protocols is used for sending email messages?

A) HTTP

B) SMTP

C) FTP

D) SNMP

Answer: B) SMTP

48. Which OSI layer is responsible for routing packets between different networks?

A) Network layer

B) Data link layer

 C) Transport layer

D) Physical layer

Answer: A) Network layer

49. Which of the following is a characteristic of a mesh network topology?

A) Devices are connected in a circular fashion

B) Every device is connected to a central hub or switch

C) Every device is connected to every other device

D) Data is transmitted in a single direction only

Answer: C) Every device is connected to every other device

50. Which of the following is not a type of network address translation (NAT)?

A) Static NAT

B) Dynamic NAT

C) Port Address Translation (PAT)

D) Broadcast NAT

Answer: D) Broadcast NAT

51. Which of the following is a characteristic of a bus network topology?

A) Devices are connected in a circular fashion

B) Every device is connected to a central hub or switch

C) Every device is connected to every other device

D) Data is transmitted in a single direction only

Answer: D) Data is transmitted in a single direction only

52. Which of the following is a characteristic of a token ring network?

 A) Devices are connected in a circular fashion

B) Every device is connected to a central hub or switch

C) Every device is connected to every other device

D) Data is transmitted in a single direction only

Answer: A) Devices are connected in a circular fashion

53. Which of the following is not a type of IP address?

A) Unicast

B) Broadcast

C) Anycast

D) Multicast

Answer: C) Anycast

54. What is the primary function of a firewall in a network?

A) To connect multiple networks together

B) To filter and monitor network traffic

C) To assign IP addresses dynamically

D) To resolve hostnames to IP addresses

Answer: B) To filter and monitor network traffic

55. Which of the following protocols is used for securely accessing remote systems over a network?

A) FTP

B) Telnet

C) SSH

D) SNMP

Answer: C) SSH
56. Which OSI layer is responsible for ensuring that data is delivered errorfree and in the correct
order?

A) Transport layer

B) Data link layer

C) Network layer

D) Session layer

Answer: A) Transport layer

57. Which of the following is a characteristic of a ring network topology?

A) Devices are connected in a circular fashion

B) Every device is connected to a central hub or switch

C) Every device is connected to every other device

D) Data is transmitted in a single direction only

Answer: A) Devices are connected in a circular fashion

58. Which of the following is a characteristic of a tree network topology?

A) Devices are connected in a circular fashion

B) Every device is connected to a central hub or switch

C) Every device is connected to every other device

D) Data is transmitted in a single direction only

Answer: B) Every device is connected to a central hub or switch

59. Which of the following protocols is used for dynamically routing packets between networks?

A) RIP

B) ARP
 C) DNS

D) DHCP

Answer: A) RIP

60. In computer networks, what is the role of a MAC address?

A) Identifying network devices

B) Identifying network protocols

C) Identifying IP addresses

D) Identifying physical locations

Answer: A) Identifying network devices

61. Which of the following protocols operates at the data link layer of the OSI model?

A) TCP

B) IP

C) ARP

D) ICMP

Answer: C) ARP

62. Which of the following is not a characteristic of circuit switching?

A) Dedicated resources

B) Connection establishment phase

C) Variable delay

D) Fixed bandwidth
 Answer: C) Variable delay

63. Which of the following devices operates at the physical layer of the OSI model?

A) Router

B) Hub

C) Switch

D) Repeater

Answer: D) Repeater

64. Which of the following is true about IPv6 compared to IPv4?

A) Smaller address space

B) No support for multicasting

C) Fixed header size

D) Improved security features

Answer: D) Improved security features

65. What is the main purpose of subnetting in computer networks?

A) Reducing network congestion

B) Improving network security

C) Efficient utilization of IP addresses

D) Increasing data transfer speeds

Answer: C) Efficient utilization of IP addresses

66. Which of the following protocols is used for secure communication over the internet?

A) FTP

B) Telnet

C) SSH

D) SNMP

Answer: C) SSH

67. In TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for routing packets from source to destination?

A) Network layer

B) Transport layer

C) Data link layer

D) Physical layer

Answer: A) Network layer

68. Which of the following addressing schemes is used in IPv4?

A) 128bit addresses

B) 64bit addresses

C) 32bit addresses

D) 16bit addresses

Answer: C) 32bit addresses

69. What does DHCP stand for in the context of computer networks?

A) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

 B) Domain Host Configuration Protocol

C) Distributed Host Configuration Protocol

D) Data Host Configuration Protocol

Answer: A) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

70. Which of the following devices operates at the network layer of the OSI model?

A) Bridge

B) Switch

C) Router

D) Repeater

Answer: C) Router

71. What is the purpose of NAT (Network Address Translation) in computer networks?

A) Encrypting data packets

B) Translating private IP addresses to public IP addresses

C) Filtering network traffic

D) Authenticating network devices

Answer: B) Translating private IP addresses to public IP addresses

72. Which of the following protocols is used for email communication?

A) HTTP

B) SMTP

C) FTP
 D) SNMP

Answer: B) SMTP

73. Which of the following is a characteristic of a hub in a computer network?

A) Operates at the application layer

B) Forwards packets based on MAC addresses

C) Performs routing of packets

D) Segments a network into multiple collision domains

Answer: D) Segments a network into multiple collision domains

74. What is the purpose of a firewall in computer networks?

A) Encrypting data packets

B) Blocking unauthorized access

C) Translating IP addresses

D) Resolving domain names

Answer: B) Blocking unauthorized access

75. Which of the following protocols is used for file transfer over a network?

A) FTP

B) ICMP

C) UDP

D) DHCP
 Answer: A) FTP

76. In TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for error detection and correction?

A) Physical layer

B) Data link layer

C) Transport layer

D) Network layer

Answer: C) Transport layer

77. Which of the following is not a topological design for computer networks?

A) Star

B) Ring

C) Mesh

D) Bus

Answer: D) Bus

78. Which of the following devices operates at the transport layer of the OSI model?

A) Router

B) Switch

C) Bridge

D) Gateway

Answer: D) Gateway
79. Which of the following protocols is used for dynamic routing in computer networks?

A) RIP

B) ARP

C) DNS

D) SNMP

Answer: A) RIP

80. What is the purpose of VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) in computer networks?

A) Improving network security

B) Segmenting a physical network into multiple logical networks

C) Translating IP addresses

D) Filtering network traffic

Answer: B) Segmenting a physical network into multiple logical networks

81. Which of the following is a characteristic of UDP (User Datagram Protocol)?

A) Connectionoriented

B) Reliable data delivery

C) Errorchecking mechanism

D) Connectionless

Answer: D) Connectionless

82. What does DNS stand for in the context of computer networks?

A) Domain Network Service

 B) Dynamic Name Server

C) Domain Name System

D) Digital Network Security

Answer: C) Domain Name System

83. Which of the following devices operates at the application layer of the OSI model?

A) Router

B) Bridge

C) Switch

D) Proxy server

Answer: D) Proxy server

84. What is the purpose of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) in computer networks?

A) Translating IP addresses to MAC addresses

B) Assigning IP addresses dynamically

C) Routing packets between networks

D) Allocating bandwidth to network devices

Answer: A) Translating IP addresses to MAC addresses

85. Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch in a computer network?

A) Operates at the network layer

B) Forwards packets based on MAC addresses

C) Segments a network into multiple collision domains

 D) Performs routing of packets

Answer: B) Forwards packets based on MAC addresses

86. Which of the following protocols is used for secure web browsing?

A) HTTP

B) HTTPS

C) FTP

D) Telnet

Answer: B) HTTPS

87. What is the role of ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) in computer networks?

A) Resolving domain names to IP addresses

B) Delivering email messages

C) Managing network congestion

D) Reporting errors and providing diagnostic functions

Answer: D) Reporting errors and providing diagnostic functions

88. In TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for segmenting data into smaller packets?

A) Transport layer

B) Network layer

C) Data link layer

D) Physical layer
 Answer: A) Transport layer

89. Which of the following is a characteristic of a router in a computer network?

A) Operates at the data link layer

B) Segments a network into multiple collision domains

C) Forwards packets based on IP addresses

D) Performs error detection and correction

Answer: C) Forwards packets based on IP addresses

90. What is the primary function of a repeater in a computer network?

A) Connects multiple network segments together

B) Forwards packets based on MAC addresses

C) Extends the length of a network segment

D) Segments a network into multiple collision domains

Answer: C) Extends the length of a network segment

91. Which of the following protocols is used for remote terminal connection?

A) SSH

B) FTP

C) SMTP

D) SNMP

Answer: A) SSH
92. What does FTP stand for in the context of computer networks?

A) File Transfer Protocol

B) Flexible Transfer Protocol

C) Fast Transfer Protocol

D) Forwarding Transfer Protocol

Answer: A) File Transfer Protocol

93. Which of the following devices operates at the session layer of the OSI model?

A) Bridge

B) Router

C) Gateway

D) None of the above

Answer: D) None of the above

94. What is the purpose of a proxy server in computer networks?

A) Translating IP addresses

B) Filtering network traffic

C) Resolving domain names

D) Allocating bandwidth to network devices

Answer: B) Filtering network traffic

95. Which of the following protocols is used for remote file access?

A) SSH
 B) FTP

C) SMTP

D) HTTP

Answer: B) FTP

96. In TCP/IP model, which layer is responsible for logical addressing?

A) Network layer

B) Transport layer

C) Data link layer

D) Physical layer

Answer: A) Network layer

97. Which of the following is a characteristic of a bridge in a computer network?

A) Operates at the network layer

B) Forwards packets based on MAC addresses

C) Segments a network into multiple collision domains

D) Performs routing of packets

Answer: B) Forwards packets based on MAC addresses

98. What does SMTP stand for in the context of computer networks?

A) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

B) Secure Mail Transfer Protocol

C) Server Mail Transfer Protocol

 D) System Mail Transfer Protocol

Answer: A) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

99. Which of the following protocols is used for name resolution in computer networks?

A) FTP

B) DNS

C) SNMP

D) SMTP

Answer: B) DNS

100. What is the role of a switch in a computer network?

A) Translating IP addresses to MAC addresses

B) Segmenting a network into multiple collision domains

C) Forwards packets based on IP addresses

D) Performs error detection and correction

Answer: C) Forwards packets based on IP addresses

 DBMS
1. Which of the following is not a type of DBMS model?

a) Hierarchical

b) Network

c) Relational

d) ObjectOriented

Answer: d) ObjectOriented

2. What is the purpose of ACID properties in database transactions?

a) Ensure data consistency

b) Optimize query performance

c) Maintain data integrity

d) Enhance data security

Answer: a) Ensure data consistency

3. In a relational database, what does a foreign key represent?

a) A key that uniquely identifies a record in a table

b) A key that refers to another table's primary key

c) A key used for indexing purposes

d) A key that allows NULL values

Answer: b) A key that refers to another table's primary key

4. Which normal form ensures that there are no partial dependencies in a relation?

a) First Normal Form (1NF)

b) Second Normal Form (2NF)

 c) Third Normal Form (3NF)

d) BoyceCodd Normal Form (BCNF)

Answer: c) Third Normal Form (3NF)

5. What is the purpose of the GROUP BY clause in SQL?

a) To specify the columns to be retrieved from a table

b) To filter rows based on a specified condition

c) To sort the result set in ascending order

d) To group rows that have the same values into summary rows

Answer: d) To group rows that have the same values into summary rows

6. Which type of join returns all rows from both tables, joining records where available?

a) Inner Join

b) Outer Join

c) Self Join

d) Cross Join

Answer: b) Outer Join

7. In database indexing, what is the purpose of a Btree?

a) To store data records

b) To maintain referential integrity

c) To speed up data retrieval by providing efficient access paths

d) To enforce constraints on data

Answer: c) To speed up data retrieval by providing efficient access paths

8. Which isolation level in database transactions provides the highest level of isolation?
 a) Read Uncommitted

b) Read Committed

c) Repeatable Read

d) Serializable

Answer: d) Serializable

9. What is the primary function of the COMMIT statement in SQL?

a) To save the changes made by a transaction

b) To undo the changes made by a transaction

c) To begin a new transaction

d) To release locks acquired by a transaction

Answer: a) To save the changes made by a transaction

10. Which SQL command is used to add new rows to a table?

a) INSERT

b) UPDATE

c) MODIFY

d) ALTER

Answer: a) INSERT

11. Which of the following is not a SQL Data Type?

a) MONEY

b) DECIMAL

c) NUMERIC

d) CHARACTER

Answer: d) CHARACTER
12. Which of the following is used to define the structure of the database, including tables,
columns, and constraints?

a) DML

b) DDL

c) DCL

d) TCL

Answer: b) DDL

13. What is the purpose of the CASCADE keyword in SQL?

a) To delete all the records from a table

b) To update the records in a table

c) To propagate changes to related tables

d) To roll back a transaction

Answer: c) To propagate changes to related tables

14. Which SQL keyword is used to remove a table from the database?

a) DELETE

b) DROP

c) REMOVE

d) TRUNCATE

Answer: b) DROP

15. What is the function of the WHERE clause in SQL?

a) To specify the tables to be queried

b) To specify the columns to be retrieved

 c) To filter rows based on a specified condition

d) To sort the result set in ascending order

Answer: c) To filter rows based on a specified condition

16. Which of the following is not a valid aggregate function in SQL?

a) AVG

b) COUNT

c) SUM

d) MULTIPLY

Answer: d) MULTIPLY

17. What does SQL stand for?

a) Standard Query Language

b) Structured Query Language

c) Sequential Query Language

d) Server Query Language

Answer: b) Structured Query Language

18. Which SQL command is used to change the structure of an existing table?

a) MODIFY

b) CHANGE

c) ALTER

d) UPDATE

Answer: c) ALTER

19. What is the purpose of the HAVING clause in SQL?

 a) To filter rows based on a specified condition

b) To specify the tables to be queried

c) To specify the columns to be retrieved

d) To filter groups based on a specified condition

Answer: d) To filter groups based on a specified condition

20. Which of the following statements about primary keys is true?

a) A table can have multiple primary keys

b) A primary key can contain NULL values

c) A primary key uniquely identifies a record in a table

d) A primary key is used for indexing purposes

Answer: c) A primary key uniquely identifies a record in a table

21. In which normal form are all attributes dependent only on the primary key?

a) First Normal Form (1NF)

b) Second Normal Form (2NF)

c) Third Normal Form (3NF)

d) BoyceCodd Normal Form (BCNF)

Answer: b) Second Normal Form (2NF)

22. Which SQL command is used to retrieve data from a database?

a) FETCH

b) SELECT

c) GET

d) LOAD

Answer: b) SELECT
23. Which type of join returns only the rows that have matching values in both tables?

a) Inner Join

b) Outer Join

c) Self Join

d) Cross Join

Answer: a) Inner Join

24. Which SQL command is used to make a temporary copy of a table?

a) CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE

b) COPY TABLE

c) MAKE TEMP TABLE

d) DUPLICATE TABLE

Answer: a) CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE

25. What is the purpose of the ROLLBACK statement in SQL?

a) To save the changes made by a transaction

b) To undo the changes made by a transaction

c) To begin a new transaction

d) To release locks acquired by a transaction

Answer: b) To undo the changes made by a transaction

26. Which of the following statements about views in SQL is true?

a) Views are used to store data permanently

b) Views cannot be queried

c) Views are stored as virtual tables based on the result of a SELECT query
 d) Views cannot be updated

Answer: c) Views are stored as virtual tables based on the result of a SELECT query

27. Which of the following is not a valid SQL constraint?

a) UNIQUE

b) NULL

c) NOT

d) CHECK

Answer: c) NOT

28. Which SQL command is used to delete data from a database table?

a) REMOVE

b) DELETE

c) DROP

d) TRUNCATE

Answer: b) DELETE

29. What is the purpose of the ORDER BY clause in SQL?

a) To specify the tables to be queried

b) To specify the columns to be retrieved

c) To sort the result set in ascending order

d) To filter rows based on a specified condition

Answer: c) To sort the result set in ascending order

30. Which of the following is not a valid SQL join type?

a) INNER JOIN
 b) OUTER JOIN

c) CROSS JOIN

d) SIDE JOIN

Answer: d) SIDE JOIN

31. In database normalization, what is the process of removing redundant data called?

a) Denormalization

b) Normalization

c) Optimization

d) Decomposition

Answer: a) Denormalization

32. Which of the following SQL commands is used to add a new column to an existing table?

a) ADD COLUMN

b) ALTER COLUMN

c) MODIFY COLUMN

d) UPDATE COLUMN

Answer: a) ADD COLUMN

33. What is the purpose of the TRUNCATE statement in SQL?

a) To delete all records from a table

b) To delete a specific record from a table

c) To remove a column from a table

d) To remove a constraint from a table

Answer: a) To delete all records from a table

34. Which of the following is not a valid SQL comparison operator?

a) <>

b) =

c) LIKE

d) BETWEEN

Answer: d) BETWEEN

35. Which SQL command is used to change the data in a

database?

a) PUT

b) ALTER

c) MODIFY

d) UPDATE

Answer: d) UPDATE

36. What is the purpose of the SQL LIKE operator?

a) To search for exact matches

b) To search for patterns in data

c) To join tables together

d) To perform mathematical operations

Answer: b) To search for patterns in data

37. Which of the following is not a valid SQL data manipulation command?

a) SELECT

b) INSERT
 c) DELETE

d) CREATE

Answer: d) CREATE

38. What is the purpose of the CASCADE CONSTRAINTS option in SQL?

a) To delete all the records from a table

b) To propagate changes to related tables

c) To roll back a transaction

d) To enforce referential integrity

Answer: b) To propagate changes to related tables

39. Which of the following is not a valid SQL aggregate function?

a) AVG

b) MAX

c) MIN

d) COUNT()

Answer: d) COUNT()

40. In SQL, what does the term "NULL" represent?

a) A value that is unknown or not applicable

b) A value of zero

c) A value that is empty

d) A value that is negative

Answer: a) A value that is unknown or not applicable

41. Which SQL command is used to revoke privileges from a user?

 a) DENY

b) REVOKE

c) REMOVE

d) UNGRANT

Answer: b) REVOKE

42. What is the purpose of the UNION operator in SQL?

a) To combine the results of two or more SELECT statements

b) To filter rows based on a specified condition

c) To sort the result set in ascending order

d) To join tables together

Answer: a) To combine the results of two or more SELECT statements

43. Which of the following is not a valid SQL constraint type?

a) PRIMARY KEY

b) FOREIGN KEY

c) CONSTRAINT KEY

d) UNIQUE

Answer: c) CONSTRAINT KEY

44. Which SQL command is used to grant privileges to a user?

a) ALLOW

b) GRANT

c) GIVE

d) ASSIGN

Answer: b) GRANT
45. What is the purpose of the EXISTS operator in SQL?

a) To check if a subquery returns any rows

b) To check if a table exists in the database

c) To check if a column exists in a table

d) To check if a value exists in a column

Answer: a) To check if a subquery returns any rows

46. Which SQL command is used to create a new database?

a) CREATE DATABASE

b) NEW DATABASE

c) ADD DATABASE

d) MAKE DATABASE

Answer: a) CREATE DATABASE

47. In SQL, which of the following is used to retrieve unique values from a column?

a) UNIQUE

b) DISTINCT

c) UNIQUEKEY

d) DISTINCTIVE

Answer: b) DISTINCT

48. What is the purpose of the JOIN keyword in SQL?

a) To specify the tables to be queried

b) To join tables together based on a related column between them

c) To filter rows based on a specified condition

 d) To sort the result set in ascending order

Answer: b) To join tables together based on a related column between them

49. Which of the following is not a valid SQL constraint action?

a) CASCADE

b) SET NULL

c) NO ACTION

d) SET DEFAULT

Answer: c) NO ACTION

50. What is the purpose of the SQL CASE statement?

a) To perform calculations

b) To handle conditional logic

c) To perform string manipulation

d) To perform date operations

Answer: b) To handle conditional logic

51. Which of the following is not a valid SQL join condition?

a) ON

b) WHERE

c) USING

d) JOIN

Answer: d) JOIN

52. What is the purpose of the SQL GROUP BY clause?

a) To specify the tables to be queried

b) To filter rows based on a specified condition

 c) To sort the result set in ascending order

d) To group rows that have the same values into summary rows

Answer: d) To group rows that have the same values into summary rows

53. Which of the following is not a valid SQL arithmetic operator?

a) ADD

b) SUBTRACT

c) MULTIPLY

d) DIVIDE

Answer: a) ADD

54. What is the purpose of the SQL AS keyword?

a) To filter rows based on a specified condition

b) To specify the tables to be queried

c) To alias column names or table names

d) To perform mathematical calculations

Answer: c) To alias column names or table names

55. Which of the following is not a valid SQL data definition command?

a) SELECT

b) CREATE

c) DROP

d) ALTER

Answer: a) SELECT

56. What is the primary function of the COMMIT statement in SQL?

 a) To save the changes made by a transaction

b) To undo the changes made by a transaction

c) To begin a new transaction

d) To release locks acquired by a transaction

Answer: a) To save the changes made by a transaction

57. In database indexing, what is the purpose of a hash index?

a) To store data records

b) To maintain referential integrity

c) To speed up data retrieval by providing efficient access paths

d) To enforce constraints on data

Answer: c) To speed up data retrieval by providing efficient access paths

58. Which isolation level in database transactions provides the lowest level of isolation?

a) Read Uncommitted

b) Read Committed

c) Repeatable Read

d) Serializable

Answer: a) Read Uncommitted

59. What is the purpose of the ROLLBACK statement in SQL?

a) To save the changes made by a transaction

b) To undo the changes made by a transaction

c) To begin a new transaction

d) To release locks acquired by a transaction

Answer: b) To undo the changes made by a transaction

60. Which of the following is not a valid SQL aggregate function?

a) AVERAGE

b) MAXIMUM

c) MINIMUM

d) SUM

Answer: b) MAXIMUM

61. What is the primary purpose of the SQL INNER JOIN?

a) To return all rows from both tables, joining records where available

b) To return only the rows that have matching values in both tables

c) To return all rows from the left table, and the matched rows from the right table

d) To return all rows from the right table, and the matched rows from the left table

Answer: b) To return only the rows that have matching values in both tables

62. Which SQL command is used to remove a table from the database?

a) DELETE

b) DROP

c) REMOVE

d) TRUNCATE

Answer: b) DROP

63. What is the purpose of the SQL HAVING clause?

a) To filter rows based on a specified condition

b) To specify the tables to be queried

c) To specify the columns to be retrieved

 d) To filter groups based on a specified condition

Answer: d) To filter groups based on a specified condition

64. Which of the following is not a valid SQL comparison operator?

a) !=

b) =

c) LIKE

d) BETWEEN

Answer: a) !=

65. Which SQL command is used to retrieve data from a database?

a) FETCH

b) SELECT

c) GET

d) LOAD

Answer: b) SELECT

66. In SQL, what is the purpose of the ORDER BY clause?

a) To specify the tables to be queried

b) To specify the columns to be retrieved

c) To sort the result set in ascending order

d) To filter rows based on a specified condition

Answer: c) To sort the result set in ascending order

67. Which of the following is not a valid SQL data type?

a) TEXT
 b) INTEGER

c) DECIMAL

d) CHARACTER

Answer: d) CHARACTER

68. Which SQL command is used to revoke privileges from a user?

a) DENY

b) REVOKE

c) REMOVE

d) UNGRANT

Answer: b) REVOKE

69. What is the purpose of the SQL UNION operator?

a) To combine the results of two or more SELECT statements

b) To filter rows based on a specified condition

c) To sort the result set in ascending order

d) To join tables together

Answer: a) To combine the results of two or more SELECT statements

70. Which of the following SQL commands is used to change the structure of an existing table?

a) MODIFY

b) CHANGE

c) ALTER

d) UPDATE

Answer: c) ALTER
71. What is the purpose of the SQL TRUNCATE statement?

a) To delete all records from a table

b) To delete a specific record from a table

c) To remove a column from a table

d) To remove a constraint from a table

Answer: a) To delete all records from a table

72. Which SQL command is used to delete data from a database table?

a) REMOVE

b) DELETE

c) DROP

d) TRUNCATE

Answer: b) DELETE

73. What is the purpose of the SQL CASE statement?

a) To perform calculations

b) To handle conditional logic

c) To perform string manipulation

d) To perform date operations

Answer: b) To handle conditional logic

74. Which SQL command is used to add new rows to a table?

a) INSERT

b) UPDATE

c) MODIFY

d) ALTER
 Answer: a) INSERT

75. What is the purpose of the SQL LIKE operator?

a) To search for exact matches

b) To search for patterns in data

c) To join tables together

d) To perform mathematical operations

Answer: b) To search for patterns in data

76. Which of the following SQL commands is used to grant privileges to a user?

a) ALLOW

b) GRANT

c) GIVE

d) ASSIGN

Answer: b) GRANT

77. What is the purpose of the SQL EXISTS operator?

a) To check if a subquery returns any rows

b) To check if a table exists in the database

c) To check if a column exists in a table

d) To check if a value exists in a column

Answer: a) To check if a subquery returns any rows

78. Which SQL command is used to create a new database?

a) CREATE DATABASE

b) NEW DATABASE
 c) ADD DATABASE

d) MAKE DATABASE

Answer: a) CREATE DATABASE

79. What is the purpose of the SQL DISTINCT keyword?

a) To remove duplicate rows from the result set

b) To specify the tables to be queried

c) To specify the columns to be retrieved

d) To filter rows based on a specified condition

Answer: a) To remove duplicate rows from the result set

80. Which of the following is not a valid SQL aggregate function?

a) AVG

b) MAX

c) MIN

d) COUNT

Answer: d) COUNT

81. In SQL, what is the purpose of the DISTINCT keyword?

a) To remove duplicate rows from the result set

b) To specify the tables to be queried

c) To specify the columns to be retrieved

d) To filter rows based on a specified condition

Answer: a) To remove duplicate rows from the result set

82. Which SQL command is used to create a new table?

a) NEW TABLE
 b) CREATE TABLE

c) MAKE TABLE

d) ADD TABLE

Answer: b) CREATE TABLE

83. What is the purpose of the SQL UPDATE statement?

a) To add new rows to a table

b) To delete rows from a table

c) To modify existing data in a table

d) To retrieve data from a table

Answer: c) To modify existing data in a table

84. Which of the following is not a valid SQL constraint action?

a) CASCADE

b) SET NULL

c) NO ACTION

d) SET DEFAULT

Answer: c) NO ACTION

85. Which SQL command is used to change the data in a database?

a) PUT

b) ALTER

c) MODIFY

d) UPDATE

Answer: d) UPDATE
86. What is the purpose of the SQL LIKE operator?

a) To search for exact matches

b) To search for patterns in data

c) To join tables together

d) To perform mathematical operations

Answer: b) To search for patterns in data

87. Which of the following is not a valid SQL comparison operator?

a) !=

b) =

c) LIKE

d) BETWEEN

Answer: a) !=

88. Which SQL command is used to revoke privileges from a user?

a) DENY

b) REVOKE

c) REMOVE

d) UNGRANT

Answer: b) REVOKE

89. What is the purpose of the SQL UNION operator?

a) To combine the results of two or more SELECT statements

b) To filter rows based on a specified condition

c) To sort the result set in ascending order

d) To join tables together

 Answer: a) To combine the results of two or more SELECT statements

90. Which of the following SQL commands is used to change the structure of an existing table?

a) MODIFY

b) CHANGE

c) ALTER

d) UPDATE

Answer: c) ALTER

91. What is the purpose of the SQL TRUNCATE statement?

a) To delete all records from a table

b) To delete a specific record from a table

c) To remove a column from a table

d) To remove a constraint from a table

Answer: a) To delete all records from a table

92. Which SQL command is used to delete data from a database table?

a) REMOVE

b) DELETE

c) DROP

d) TRUNCATE

Answer: b) DELETE

93. What is the purpose of the SQL CASE statement?

a) To perform calculations

b) To handle conditional logic

 c) To perform string manipulation

d) To perform date operations

Answer: b) To handle conditional logic

94. Which SQL command is used to add new rows to a table?

a) INSERT

b) UPDATE

c) MODIFY

d) ALTER

Answer: a) INSERT

95. What is the purpose of the SQL LIKE operator?

a) To search for exact matches

b) To search for patterns in data

c) To join tables together

d) To perform mathematical operations

Answer: b) To search for patterns in data

96. Which of the following SQL commands is used to grant privileges to a user?

a) ALLOW

b) GRANT

c) GIVE

d) ASSIGN

Answer: b) GRANT

97. What is the purpose of the SQL EXISTS operator?

 a) To check if a subquery returns any rows

b) To check if a table exists in the database

c) To check if a column exists in a table

d) To check if a value exists in a column

Answer: a) To check if a subquery returns any rows

98. Which SQL command is used to create a new database?

a) CREATE DATABASE

b) NEW DATABASE

c) ADD DATABASE

d) MAKE DATABASE

Answer: a) CREATE DATABASE

99. What is the purpose of the SQL DISTINCT keyword?

a) To remove duplicate rows from the result set

b) To specify the tables to be queried

c) To specify the columns to be retrieved

d) To filter rows based on a specified condition

Answer: a) To remove duplicate rows from the result set

100. Which of the following is not a valid SQL aggregate function?

a) AVG

b) MAX

c) MIN

d) COUNT

Answer: d) COUNT
 Digital Logic

1. What is the basic unit of digital data?

A) Byte

B) Bit

C) Nibble

D) Word

Answer: B) Bit

2. Which logic gate has output HIGH only when all inputs are LOW?

A) OR

B) NAND

C) XOR

D) AND

Answer: B) NAND

3. How many NAND gates are required to implement an OR gate?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Answer: C) 3

4. What is the result of adding two 1bit binary numbers 1 and 1?

A) 0
 B) 1

C) 10

D) 11

Answer: D) 11

5. How many flipflops are required to design a modulo16 counter?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 8

D) 16

Answer: B) 4

6. The complement of a binary number can be obtained by:

A) Adding 1 to the number

B) Subtracting 1 from the number

C) Complementing each bit of the number

D) Dividing the number by 2

Answer: C) Complementing each bit of the number

7. Which of the following is NOT a universal gate?

A) AND

B) OR

C) NAND

D) XOR

Answer: D) XOR
8. How many twoinput multiplexers are needed to implement a function with 4 variables?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Answer: B) 2

9. In digital logic, what does Kmap stand for?

A) Karnaugh Map

B) Key Map

C) Knuth Map

D) Kalmogorov Map

Answer: A) Karnaugh Map

10. What is the Boolean expression for the XOR gate?

A) AB + A'B'

B) AB + A'B

C) AB' + A'B

D) AB' + A'B'

Answer: D) AB' + A'B'

11. Which gate is used for parity generation in error detection?

A) AND

B) OR

C) XOR

D) NAND
 Answer: C) XOR

12. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10101?

A) 10

B) 15

C) 17

D) 21

Answer: C) 17

13. How many rows and columns are in a 4variable Karnaugh map?

A) 2 rows, 4 columns

B) 4 rows, 4 columns

C) 8 rows, 8 columns

D) 16 rows, 16 columns

Answer: C) 8 rows, 8 columns

14. What is the output of an AND gate when one of its inputs is LOW and the other is HIGH?

A) LOW

B) HIGH

C) Indeterminate

D) Can't say

Answer: A) LOW

15. Which logic gate can be used to implement the Boolean expression (A AND B) OR (A AND C)?

A) OR

B) AND
 C) XOR

D) NAND

Answer: B) AND

16. In a halfadder, what does the SUM output represent?

A) Carry generated by addition

B) Result of the bitwise AND operation

C) Result of the bitwise OR operation

D) Result of the bitwise XOR operation

Answer: D) Result of the bitwise XOR operation

17. Which gate has the same truth table as an XOR gate?

A) NOR

B) NAND

C) AND

D) XNOR

Answer: D) XNOR

18. What is the octal equivalent of the binary number 1101011?

A) 73

B) 123

C) 133

D) 63

Answer: A) 73

19. How many input combinations are possible for an ninput multiplexer?
 A) 2^n

B) n^2

C) 2n

D) n!

Answer: A) 2^n

20. Which logic gate is represented by the following truth table:

A | B | Output

0|0|0

0|1|1

1|0|1

1|1|0

A) AND

B) OR

C) XOR

D) NAND

Answer: C) XOR
21. How many bits are required to represent 64 different values?

A) 4

B) 6

C) 8

D) 16

Answer: C) 8

22. In a binary adder, what does the carryout indicate?

A) Whether the addition is successful or not

B) Overflow condition

C) Carry generated by addition

D) Result of the addition

Answer: B) Overflow condition

23. What is the simplified Boolean expression for the following Kmap?

A'B' | A'B | AB | AB'

0 |1 |1 |0

1 |0 |0 |1

A) A'B + AB'

B) A'B' + AB

C) A'B + AB'

D) A'B' + AB'

Answer: D) A'B' + AB'

24. What is the binary equivalent of the octal number 56?

A) 101110

B) 110101

C) 111000

D) 100110

Answer: C) 111000

25. Which logic gate has the highest output voltage level?

A) AND

B) OR

C) NOT

D) XOR

Answer: C) NOT

26. What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number 3A7?

A) 001110100111

B) 001110001110

C) 110010111

D) 111000010111

Answer: A) 001110100111

27. Which flipflop is also known as a data or delay flipflop?

A) SR flipflop

B) D flipflop

C) JK flipflop
 D) T flipflop

Answer: B) D flipflop

28. How many input combinations are possible for an 8to1 multiplexer?

A) 256

B) 128

C) 64

D) 32

Answer: A) 256

29. In a digital system, what does a decoder do?

A) Converts binary data into its complement

B) Converts binary data into its BCD equivalent

C) Converts binary data into its octal equivalent

D) Converts binary data into its corresponding decimal number

Answer: D) Converts binary data into its corresponding decimal number

30. Which of the following is a synchronous counter?

A) Johnson counter

B) Ripple counter

C) Ring counter

D) Both A and C

Answer: D) Both A and C

31. In a 3bit binary ripple counter, how many flipflops toggle with each clock pulse?

A) None
 B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

Answer: B) 1

32. What is the octal equivalent of the hexadecimal number 2F?

A) 57

B) 47

C) 37

D) 27

Answer: A) 57

33. Which gate is represented by the following Boolean expression: (A + B)'?

A) NOR

B) NAND

C) XOR

D) XNOR

Answer: B) NAND

34. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 1101101?

A) 6D

B) D6

C) 6B

D) B6

Answer: A) 6D
35. Which logic gate has the same output as the NOR gate?

A) AND

B) NAND

C) OR

D) XOR

Answer: B) NAND

36. In digital systems, what does the term 'Propagation Delay' refer to?

A) Time taken for the output to change after an input change

B) Time taken for the input to propagate through the gates

C) Time taken for the clock signal to propagate through the flipflops

D) Time taken for

the output to stabilize after a clock pulse

Answer: A) Time taken for the output to change after an input change

37. Which logic gate has the following truth table:

A | B | Output

0|0|1

0|1|1

1|0|0

1|1|1

A) OR
 B) AND

C) XOR

D) NAND

Answer: D) NAND

38. What is the octal equivalent of the decimal number 83?

A) 123

B) 145

C) 123

D) 123

Answer: A) 123

39. Which gate is NOT associative?

A) AND

B) OR

C) XOR

D) NAND

Answer: C) XOR

40. Which of the following is NOT a sequential logic element?

A) Flipflop

B) Counter

C) Decoder

D) Register

Answer: C) Decoder
41. What is the output of an XOR gate if both inputs are HIGH?

A) HIGH

B) LOW

C) Indeterminate

D) Can't say

Answer: B) LOW

42. How many input combinations are possible for a 4bit binary number?

A) 8

B) 16

C) 32

D) 64

Answer: B) 16

43. Which of the following is a characteristic of a combinational logic circuit?

A) Feedback

B) Memory

C) Clock

D) State

Answer: B) Memory

44. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the octal number 74?

A) 4C

B) 4D

C) 3C

D) 3D
 Answer: C) 3C

45. Which gate is equivalent to a series combination of AND and NOT gates?

A) OR

B) NAND

C) NOR

D) XOR

Answer: B) NAND

46. How many states can a 3bit binary counter have?

A) 4

B) 6

C) 8

D) 10

Answer: C) 8

47. What is the octal equivalent of the binary number 110010?

A) 42

B) 54

C) 61

D) 65

Answer: A) 42

48. Which flipflop has separate input and output terminals?

A) SR flipflop

B) D flipflop
 C) JK flipflop

D) T flipflop

Answer: A) SR flipflop

49. In digital logic, what does 'fanout' refer to?

A) Maximum number of inputs a gate can handle

B) Maximum number of gates a signal can drive

C) Maximum number of outputs a gate can produce

D) Maximum number of levels a signal can propagate

Answer: B) Maximum number of gates a signal can drive

50. Which logic gate has the following truth table:

A | B | Output

0|0|0

0|1|1

1|0|1

1|1|1

A) OR

B) AND

C) NAND

D) NOR

Answer: D) NOR
51. Which of the following is a characteristic of a combinational logic circuit?

A) Feedback

B) Memory

C) Clock

D) State

Answer: A) Feedback

52. What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number 2A?

A) 42

B) 38

C) 44

D) 40

Answer: A) 42

53. Which gate is represented by the following Boolean expression: (A'B) + (AB')?

A) NOR

B) NAND

C) XOR

D) XNOR

Answer: C) XOR

54. How many flipflops are required to design a modulo12 counter?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6
 D) 12

Answer: B) 4

55. What is the octal equivalent of the binary number 1101111?

A) 157

B) 167

C) 147

D) 137

Answer: B) 167

56. In digital logic, what does 'fanin' refer to?

A) Maximum number of inputs a gate can handle

B) Maximum number of gates a signal can drive

C) Maximum number of outputs a gate can produce

D) Maximum number of levels a signal can propagate

Answer: A) Maximum number of inputs a gate can handle

57. Which of the following gates is NOT associative?

A) AND

B) OR

C) XOR

D) NAND

Answer: C) XOR

58. What is the binary equivalent of the octal number 62?

A) 110100
 B) 111010

C) 101010

D) 101110

Answer: B) 111010

59. How many input combinations are possible for a 3input multiplexer?

A) 8

B) 4

C) 2

D) 6

Answer: A) 8

60. What is the result of subtracting the binary number 101 from 111?

A) 010

B) 001

C) 100

D) 011

Answer: C) 100

61. Which gate is equivalent to a series combination of OR and NOT gates?

A) AND

B) NAND

C) NOR

D) XOR

Answer: C) NOR
62. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 110101011?

A) DAB

B) DAD

C) DBB

D) DCB

Answer: A) DAB

63. Which of the following gates is NOT a universal gate?

A) OR

B) AND

C) XOR

D) NOR

Answer: C) XOR

64. What is the octal equivalent of the hexadecimal number AC?

A) 152

B) 256

C) 124

D) 254

Answer: C) 124

65. In a digital system, what does a multiplexer do?

A) Converts binary data into its complement

B) Combines multiple signals into one

C) Converts binary data into its corresponding decimal number

D) Converts binary data into its BCD equivalent

 Answer: B) Combines multiple signals into one

66. How many bits are required to represent 128 different values?

A) 6

B) 8

C) 10

D) 16

Answer: B) 8

67. Which of the following gates is NOT a basic logic gate?

A) AND

B) XOR

C) NAND

D) NOR

Answer: B) XOR

68. What is the decimal equivalent of the octal number 76?

A) 50

B) 54

C) 62

D) 70

Answer: C) 62

69. Which gate is represented by the following Boolean expression: (A + B)'?

A) NOR

B) NAND
 C) XOR

D) XNOR

Answer: B) NAND

70. In digital logic, what does 'fanout' refer to?

A) Maximum number of inputs a gate can handle

B) Maximum number of gates a signal can drive

C) Maximum number of outputs a gate can produce

D) Maximum number of levels a signal can propagate

Answer: B) Maximum number of gates a signal can drive

71. Which of the following is NOT a synchronous counter?

A) Johnson counter

B) Ripple counter

C) Ring counter

D) Both A and C

Answer: B) Ripple counter

72. What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number DE?

A) 110110

B) 1101110

C) 1110110

D) 1111010

Answer: D) 1111010

73. Which flipflop has a preset input?

 A) SR flipflop

B) D flipflop

C) JK flipflop

D) T flipflop

Answer: A) SR flipflop

74. In a 3bit binary ripple counter, how many flipflops toggle with each clock pulse?

A) None

B) 1

C) 2

D) 3

Answer: B) 1

75. What is the octal equivalent of the binary number 1100111?

A) 73

B) 67

C) 63

D) 61

Answer: B) 67

76. Which logic gate has the following truth table:

```

A | B | Output

0|0|0
 0|1|1

1|0|1

1|1|1

```

A) OR

B) AND

C) NAND

D) NOR

Answer: D) NOR

77. How many states can a 4bit binary counter have?

A) 4

B) 6

C) 8

D) 16

Answer: C) 8

78. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 101101?

A) 2D

B) 4D

C) 6D

D) 8D

Answer: C) 6D

79. Which gate is equivalent to a series combination of AND and NOT gates?
 A) OR

B) NAND

C) NOR

D) XOR

Answer: B) NAND

80. How many input combinations are possible for a 5to1 multiplexer?

A) 8

B) 16

C) 32

D) 64

Answer: A) 8

81. What is the result of adding the binary numbers 1011 and 1110?

A) 11001

B) 11101

C) 10110

D) 11010

Answer: B) 11101

82. Which gate is represented by the following Boolean expression: (A'B')'?

A) NOR

B) NAND

C) XOR

D) XNOR

Answer: A) NOR
83. In digital logic, what does a multiplexer do?

A) Converts binary data into its complement

B) Combines multiple signals into one

C) Converts binary data into its corresponding decimal number

D) Converts binary data into its BCD equivalent

Answer: B) Combines multiple signals into one

84. How many bits are required to represent 256 different values?

A) 6

B) 8

C) 10

D) 16

Answer: D) 16

85. What is the decimal equivalent of the octal number 24?

A) 16

B) 18

C) 20

D) 22

Answer: C) 20

86. Which flipflop is also known as a data or delay flipflop?

A) SR flipflop

B) D flipflop

C) JK flipflop
 D) T flipflop

Answer: B) D flipflop

87. What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number 3E?

A) 0011110

B) 00111110

C) 11110

D) 111110

Answer: B) 00111110

88. Which logic gate has the following truth table:

```

A | B | Output

0|0|1

0|1|1

1|0|0

1|1|1

```

A) OR

B) AND

C) NAND
 D) NOR

Answer: C) NAND

89. What is the octal equivalent of the binary number 111110?

A) 76

B) 76

C) 76

D) 76

Answer: A) 76

90. Which gate is equivalent to a series combination of OR and NOT gates?

A) AND

B) NAND

C) NOR

D) XOR

Answer: C) NOR

91. In a digital system, what does a multiplexer do?

A) Converts binary data into its complement

B) Combines multiple signals into one

C) Converts binary data into its corresponding decimal number

D) Converts binary data into its BCD equivalent

Answer: B) Combines multiple signals into one

92. How many bits are required to represent 512 different values?

A) 6
 B) 8

C) 10

D) 16

Answer: C) 10

93. What is the decimal equivalent of the octal number 37?

A) 24

B) 27

C) 30

D) 33

Answer: B) 27

94. Which flipflop is also known as a divideby2 counter?

A) SR flipflop

B) D flipflop

C) JK flipflop

D) T flipflop

Answer: A) SR flipflop

95. What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number B5?

A) 1011011

B) 1101101

C) 10110101

D) 11010101

Answer: D) 11010101
96. Which logic gate has the following truth table:

```

A | B | Output

0|0|0

0|1|1

1|0|1

1|1|1

```

A) OR

B) AND

C) NAND

D) NOR

Answer: D) NOR

97. What is the octal equivalent of the binary number 101011?

A) 53

B) 53

C) 53

D) 53

Answer: A) 53

98. Which gate is equivalent to a series combination of AND and NOT gates?

A) OR
 B) NAND

C) NOR

D) XOR

Answer: B) NAND

99. In digital logic, what does 'fanout' refer to?

A) Maximum number of inputs a gate can handle

B) Maximum number of gates a signal can drive

C) Maximum number of outputs a gate can produce

D) Maximum number of levels a signal can propagate

Answer: B) Maximum number of gates a signal can drive

100. How many states can a 5bit binary counter have?

A) 4

B) 6

C) 8

D) 32

Answer: C) 8
 COA

1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of RISC architecture?

A) Complex instruction set

B) Large number of registers

C) Simple instruction format

D) Single clock cycle execution

Answer: A) Complex instruction set

2. In a pipelined processor, which stage is responsible for fetching the next instruction?

A) Decode

B) Execute

C) Fetch

D) Memory

Answer: C) Fetch

3. What is the purpose of a cache memory in a computer system?

A) Increase CPU clock speed

B) Increase main memory size

C) Decrease the average memory access time

D) Increase secondary storage capacity

Answer: C) Decrease the average memory access time

4. Which addressing mode allows the programmer to directly specify the address of the operand in
the instruction?

A) Register indirect
 B) Immediate

C) Absolute

D) Indexed

Answer: B) Immediate

5. Which of the following is NOT a hazard in pipelined processors?

A) Data hazard

B) Structural hazard

C) Branch hazard

D) Load hazard

Answer: D) Load hazard

6. What is the purpose of the control unit in a CPU?

A) Perform arithmetic and logical operations

B) Manage memory access

C) Control the execution of instructions

D) Interface with peripheral devices

Answer: C) Control the execution of instructions

7. Which instruction is used to update the program counter in a branch instruction?

A) JUMP

B) CALL

C) BRANCH

D) JMP

Answer: C) BRANCH
8. What is the purpose of the ALU in a CPU?

A) Fetch instructions from memory

B) Perform arithmetic and logical operations

C) Store data temporarily

D) Decode instructions

Answer: B) Perform arithmetic and logical operations

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of cache mapping technique?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Segmented mapping

Answer: D) Segmented mapping

10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of virtual memory?

A) Increases the size of main memory

B) Allows programs to exceed physical memory size

C) Provides protection and security

D) Reduces the need for secondary storage

Answer: D) Reduces the need for secondary storage

11. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using dynamic RAM (DRAM)?

A) Slower access times compared to SRAM

B) Higher power consumption

C) Higher cost per bit

D) More complex interface

 Answer: A) Slower access times compared to SRAM

12. What is the purpose of the Memory Management Unit (MMU) in a computer system?

A) Control the flow of data between the CPU and memory

B) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

C) Manage the allocation of cache memory

D) Interface with external storage devices

Answer: B) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

13. Which of the following is NOT a component of an instruction in a computer system?

A) Opcode

B) Address

C) Control signals

D) Operand

Answer: B) Address

14. Which cache mapping technique uses a comparison process to determine cache entry
placement?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Associativemapped

Answer: C) Setassociative

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of superscalar processors?

A) Executes multiple instructions simultaneously

 B) Utilizes a single pipeline for instruction execution

C) Requires fewer transistors compared to traditional processors

D) Relies heavily on branch prediction

Answer: A) Executes multiple instructions simultaneously

16. Which of the following is NOT a typical component of a computer system's I/O interface?

A) Interrupt controller

B) Direct Memory Access (DMA) controller

C) Memory Management Unit (MMU)

D) Input/Output ports

Answer: C) Memory Management Unit (MMU)

17. What is the primary function of the Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) in a CPU?

A) Execute branch instructions

B) Perform arithmetic and logical operations

C) Fetch data from memory

D) Manage instruction cache

Answer: B) Perform arithmetic and logical operations

18. Which instruction format dedicates one or more bits to specify the addressing mode?

A) Register indirect

B) Immediate

C) Absolute

D) Indexed

Answer: D) Indexed
19. Which of the following cache replacement policies removes the block that has been unused for
the longest time?

A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

B) FirstIn, FirstOut (FIFO)

C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

D) Random Replacement

Answer: A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

20. Which of the following is NOT a common type of cache miss?

A) Compulsory miss

B) Capacity miss

C) Conflict miss

D) Consistency miss

Answer: D) Consistency miss

21. What is the primary purpose of the branch prediction unit in a processor?

A) Improve the execution of conditional branches

B) Optimize the instruction fetch stage

C) Minimize power consumption

D) Enhance cache performance

Answer: A) Improve the execution of conditional branches

22. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Harvard architecture?

A) Separate data and instruction memory

B) Single shared memory for data and instructions

C) Parallel access to data and instruction memory

 D) Higher throughput compared to Von Neumann architecture

Answer: B) Single shared memory for data and instructions

23. What is the primary purpose of the memory hierarchy in a computer system?

A) Increase CPU clock speed

B) Reduce power consumption

C) Improve memory access time

D) Enhance instruction execution

Answer: C) Improve memory access time

24. Which of the following cache organization schemes divides the cache into multiple sets?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: C) Setassociative

25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a pipelined processor?

A) Improved instruction throughput

B) Simultaneous execution of multiple instructions

C) Increased clock speed

D) Reduced average instruction execution time

Answer: B) Simultaneous execution of multiple instructions

26. What is the primary purpose of the clock signal in a computer system?

A) Synchronize operations of different components

 B) Provide power to the CPU

C) Control the execution of instructions

D) Manage memory access

Answer: A) Synchronize operations of different components

27. Which addressing mode allows the programmer to specify the operand indirectly using a
register?

A) Register indirect

B) Immediate

C) Absolute

D) Indexed

Answer: A) Register indirect

28. Which of the following cache write policies updates both the cache and the main memory on
every write operation?

A) Writethrough

B) Writeback

C) Writeallocate

D) Nowrite allocate

Answer: A) Writethrough

29. Which of the following is NOT a common hazard in pipelined processors?

A) Data hazard

B) Structural hazard

C) Control hazard

D) Input/output hazard

Answer: D) Input/output hazard

30. Which of the following cache coherence protocols uses a directorybased approach?

A) Snooping

B) MESI

C) MOESI

D) MSI

Answer: A) Snooping

31. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of vector processors?

A) Perform operations on multiple data elements simultaneously

B) Specialized for scientific and engineering applications

C) Utilize SIMD (Single Instruction, Multiple Data) architecture

D) Execute instructions out of order

Answer: D) Execute instructions out of order

32. Which of the following cache replacement policies replaces the block that has been used the
least number of times?

A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

B) FirstIn, FirstOut (FIFO)

C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

D) Random Replacement

Answer: C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

33. Which of the following is NOT a function of the memory management unit (MMU) in a
computer system?

A) Virtual memory translation

B) Cache management
 C) Memory protection

D) Address translation

Answer: B) Cache management

34. Which cache mapping technique provides the fastest access time?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Associativemapped

Answer: B) Fully associative

35. What is the primary function of the branch target buffer (BTB) in a processor?

A) Store recently executed branch instructions

B) Predict the outcome of branch instructions

C) Manage branch prediction algorithms

D) Buffer the results of branch instructions

Answer: B) Predict the outcome of branch instructions

36. Which of the following cache write policies updates the cache on write operations but not the
main memory?

A) Writethrough

B) Writeback

C) Writeallocate

D) Nowrite allocate
 Answer: B) Writeback

37. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a typical cache memory?

A) Larger capacity compared to main memory

B) Faster access time compared to main memory

C) Expensive to implement

D) Located closer to the CPU than main memory

Answer: A) Larger capacity compared to main memory

38. Which of the following is NOT a common type of cache miss?

A) Compulsory miss

B) Capacity miss

C) Conflict miss

D) Consistency miss

Answer: D) Consistency miss

39. Which cache organization scheme maps a block of main memory to a unique location in the
cache?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: A) Directmapped

40. Which of the following is NOT a component of an instruction in a computer system?

A) Opcode
 B) Address

C) Control signals

D) Operand

Answer: B) Address

41. Which cache replacement policy removes the block that has been least recently accessed?

A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

B) FirstIn, FirstOut (FIFO)

C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

D) Random Replacement

Answer: A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

42. Which of the following cache coherence protocols uses a broadcastbased approach?

A) Snooping

B) MESI

C) MOESI

D) MSI

Answer: A) Snooping

43. What is the primary function of the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) in a computer system?

A) Cache frequently accessed data

B) Store recently executed instructions

C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

D) Manage memory access permissions

Answer: C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

44. Which of the following cache write policies requires updating both the cache and the main
memory on every write operation?

A) Writethrough

B) Writeback

C) Writeallocate

D) Nowrite allocate

Answer: A) Writethrough

45. Which cache organization scheme allows any block of main memory to be stored in any cache
location?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: B) Fully associative

46. What is the purpose of the address bus in a computer system?

A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

B) Control the flow of instructions

C) Specify the location of data in memory

D) Interface with peripheral devices

Answer: C) Specify the location of data in memory

47. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pipelined processors?

A) Simultaneous execution of multiple instructions

B) Reduced average instruction execution time

C) Higher clock speed compared to nonpipelined processors

 D) Sequential execution of instructions

Answer: D) Sequential execution of instructions

48. What is the purpose of the data bus in a computer system?

A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

B) Control the flow of instructions

C) Specify the location of data in memory

D) Interface with peripheral devices

Answer: A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

49. Which of the following cache coherence protocols maintains a directory of which processors
have copies of each memory block?

A) Snooping

B) MESI

C) MOESI

D) MSI

Answer: C) MOESI

50. Which cache organization scheme divides the cache into multiple sets, with each set containing
multiple cache lines?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: C) Setassociative
51. Which of the following cache write policies updates the cache on write operations but not the
main memory?

A) Writethrough

B) Writeback

C) Writeallocate

D) Nowrite allocate

Answer: B) Writeback

52. Which cache organization scheme maps a block of main memory to a unique location in the
cache?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: A) Directmapped

53. Which of the following is NOT a component of an instruction in a computer system?

A) Opcode

B) Address

C) Control signals

D) Operand

Answer: B) Address

54. Which cache replacement policy removes the block that has been least recently accessed?

A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

B) FirstIn, FirstOut (FIFO)

C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

 D) Random Replacement

Answer: A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

55. Which of the following cache coherence protocols uses a broadcastbased approach?

A) Snooping

B) MESI

C) MOESI

D) MSI

Answer: A) Snooping

56. What is the primary function of the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) in a computer system?

A) Cache frequently accessed data

B) Store recently executed instructions

C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

D) Manage memory access permissions

Answer: C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

57. Which of the following cache write policies requires updating both the cache and the main
memory on every write operation?

A) Writethrough

B) Writeback

C) Writeallocate

D) Nowrite allocate

Answer: A) Writethrough

58. Which cache organization scheme allows any block of main memory to be stored in any cache
location?
 A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: B) Fully associative

59. What is the purpose of the address bus in a computer system?

A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

B) Control the flow of instructions

C) Specify the location of data in memory

D) Interface with peripheral devices

Answer: C) Specify the location of data in memory

60. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pipelined processors?

A) Simultaneous execution of multiple instructions

B) Reduced average instruction execution time

C) Higher clock speed compared to nonpipelined processors

D) Sequential execution of instructions

Answer: D) Sequential execution of instructions

61. What is the purpose of the data bus in a computer system?

A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

B) Control the flow of instructions

C) Specify the location of data in memory

D) Interface with peripheral devices

Answer: A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

62. Which cache coherence protocol maintains a directory of which processors have copies of each
memory block?

A) Snooping

B) MESI

C) MOESI

D) MSI

Answer: C) MOESI

63. Which cache organization scheme divides the cache into multiple sets, with each set containing
multiple cache lines?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: C) Setassociative

64. Which cache replacement policy replaces the block that has been unused for the longest time?

A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

B) FirstIn, FirstOut (FIFO)

C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

D) Random Replacement

Answer: A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

65. What is the primary function of the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) in a computer system?

A) Cache frequently accessed data

B) Store recently executed instructions

 C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

D) Manage memory access permissions

Answer: C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

66. Which cache write policy updates both the cache and the main memory on every write
operation?

A) Writethrough

B) Writeback

C) Writeallocate

D) Nowrite allocate

Answer: A) Writethrough

67. Which cache organization scheme maps a block of main memory to a unique location in the
cache?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: A) Directmapped

68. Which of the following is NOT a component of an instruction in a computer system?

A) Opcode

B) Address

C) Control signals

D) Operand

Answer: B) Address
69. Which cache replacement policy removes the block that has been least recently accessed?

A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

B) FirstIn, FirstOut (FIFO)

C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

D) Random Replacement

Answer: A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

70. Which cache coherence protocol uses a broadcastbased approach?

A) Snooping

B) MESI

C) MOESI

D) MSI

Answer: A) Snooping

71. What is the primary function of the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) in a computer system?

A) Cache frequently accessed data

B) Store recently executed instructions

C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

D) Manage memory access permissions

Answer: C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

72. Which cache write policy updates the cache on write operations but not the main memory?

A) Writethrough

B) Writeback

C) Writeallocate

D) Nowrite allocate
 Answer: B) Writeback

73. Which cache organization scheme allows any block of main memory to be stored in any cache
location?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: B) Fully associative

74. What is the purpose of the address bus in a computer system?

A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

B) Control the flow of instructions

C) Specify the location of data in memory

D) Interface with peripheral devices

Answer: C) Specify the location of data in memory

75. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pipelined processors?

A) Simultaneous execution of multiple instructions

B) Reduced average instruction execution time

C) Higher clock speed compared to nonpipelined processors

D) Sequential execution of instructions

Answer: D) Sequential execution of instructions

76. What is the purpose of the data bus in a computer system?

A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

 B) Control the flow of instructions

C) Specify the location of data in memory

D) Interface with peripheral devices

Answer: A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

77. Which cache coherence protocol maintains a directory of which processors have copies of each
memory block?

A) Snooping

B) MESI

C) MOESI

D) MSI

Answer: C) MOESI

78. Which cache organization scheme divides the cache into multiple sets, with each set containing
multiple cache lines?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: C) Setassociative

79. Which cache replacement policy replaces the block that has been unused for the longest time?

A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

B) FirstIn, FirstOut (FIFO)

C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

D) Random Replacement

Answer: A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

80. What is the primary function of the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) in a computer system?

A) Cache frequently accessed data

B) Store recently executed instructions

C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

D) Manage memory access permissions

Answer: C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

81. Which cache write policy updates both the cache and the main memory on every write
operation?

A) Writethrough

B) Writeback

C) Writeallocate

D) Nowrite allocate

Answer: A) Writethrough

82. Which cache organization scheme maps a block of main memory to a unique location in the
cache?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: A) Directmapped

83. Which of the following is NOT a component of an instruction in a computer system?

A) Opcode

B) Address
 C) Control signals

D) Operand

Answer: B) Address

84. Which cache replacement policy removes the block that has been least recently accessed?

A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

B) FirstIn, FirstOut (FIFO)

C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

D) Random Replacement

Answer: A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

85. Which cache coherence protocol uses a broadcastbased approach?

A) Snooping

B) MESI

C) MOESI

D) MSI

Answer: A) Snooping

86. What is the primary function of the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) in a computer system?

A) Cache frequently accessed data

B) Store recently executed instructions

C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

D) Manage memory access permissions

Answer: C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

87. Which cache write policy updates the cache on write operations but not the main memory?
 A) Writethrough

B) Writeback

C) Writeallocate

D) Nowrite allocate

Answer: B) Writeback

88. What is the purpose of the address bus in a computer system?

A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

B) Control the flow of instructions

C) Specify the location of data in memory

D) Interface with peripheral devices

Answer: C) Specify the location of data in memory

89. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of pipelined processors?

A) Simultaneous execution of multiple instructions

B) Reduced average instruction execution time

C) Higher clock speed compared to nonpipelined processors

D) Sequential execution of instructions

Answer: D) Sequential execution of instructions

90. What is the purpose of the data bus in a computer system?

A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

B) Control the flow of instructions

C) Specify the location of data in memory

D) Interface with peripheral devices

Answer: A) Transfer data between the CPU and memory

91. Which cache coherence protocol maintains a directory of which processors have copies of each
memory block?

A) Snooping

B) MESI

C) MOESI

D) MSI

Answer: C) MOESI

92. Which cache organization scheme divides the cache into multiple sets, with each set containing
multiple cache lines?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: C) Setassociative

93. Which cache replacement policy replaces the block that has been unused for the longest time?

A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

B) FirstIn, FirstOut (FIFO)

C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

D) Random Replacement

Answer: A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

94. What is the primary function of the Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) in a computer system?

A) Cache frequently accessed data

B) Store recently executed instructions

 C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

D) Manage memory access permissions

Answer: C) Translate virtual addresses to physical addresses

95. Which cache write policy updates both the cache and the main memory on every write
operation?

A) Writethrough

B) Writeback

C) Writeallocate

D) Nowrite allocate

Answer: A) Writethrough

96. Which cache organization scheme maps a block of main memory to a unique location in the
cache?

A) Directmapped

B) Fully associative

C) Setassociative

D) Multilevel

Answer: A) Directmapped

97. Which of the following is NOT a component of an instruction in a computer system?

A) Opcode

B) Address

C) Control signals

D) Operand

Answer: B) Address
98. Which cache replacement policy removes the block that has been least recently accessed?

A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

B) FirstIn, FirstOut (FIFO)

C) Least Frequently Used (LFU)

D) Random Replacement

Answer: A) Least Recently Used (LRU)

99. Which cache coherence protocol uses a broadcastbased approach?

A) Snooping

B) MESI

C) MOESI

D) MSI

Answer: A) Snooping

100. What is the primary purpose of the branch target buffer (BTB) in a processor?

A) Store recently executed branch instructions

B) Predict the outcome of branch instructions

C) Manage branch prediction algorithms

D) Buffer the results of branch instructions

Answer: B) Predict the outcome of branch instructions