FT - 02 11

SOLUTIONS
TEST SERIES-NEET [(4+1)(4+1)(+10)]

FULL SYLLABUS TEST - 02 TEST CODE : FT - 02

PART - I : PHYSICS As wavelength of light decreases, fringe width will
decrease and fringe line will come closer.
1. (4) 6. (1) The final boolean expression is,
2. (1) Magnetic field due to a bar magnet in the broad-side
on position is given by X = ( A . B ) = A + B = A + B Þ OR gate
µ0 M 7. (2) Velocity, v = 2t
B= ; M = ml .
4p é
l2 ù
3/ 2 Þ wr = 2t (Q v = wr)
2
êr + ú
ë 4 û 2t
After substituting the values and simplifying we get Þ w=
r
B = 6 × 10–5 A -m 2 æ dq ö
3. (2) The given masses are shown in figure. Þ dq = t dt çQ w = dt ÷
r è ø
4p 2 t 2t 2
Þ ò0 dq =
r ò0 t dt Þ 4p =
2r
Þ t2 = 4pr

v 2 4t 2 4
Radial acceleration, ar = = = ´ 4pr = 16p m/s
r r r
dv d
at = = 2t = 2 m/s
dt dt
So anet = at2 + ar2 = (2) 2 + (16p) 2

= 2 1 + 64 p 2
\ Moment of inertia of given system about the diagonal AC
8. (2) Force on any charge due to a number of other
IAC = IA + IB + IC + ID charges is the vector sum of all the forces on that charge
2 2 due to the other charges, taken one at a time. The
æ L ö æ L ö
= 0+Mç ÷ +0+Mç ÷ individual force are unaffected due to the presence of
è 2ø è 2ø other charges. This is the principle of superposition of
charges.
ML2 ML2
= + = ML2 9. (2) The FBD of given system is
2 2
4. (1) n MSD = (n + 1) VSD

æ n ö
1 VSD = çè ÷ MSD
n + 1ø
LC = 1MSD – 1VSD

æ n ö Both block will move together when they have same

= ç1 - ÷ MSD
è n +1 ø acceleration (a) as
æ 1 ö 1cm 0.2 2 f = m2a [For m2]
=ç ÷ ´ = cm = mm
è n +1ø 5 n +1 n +1 mm2g = m2a Þ a = mg
5. (1) Fringe width, F – f = m1a [For m1]
l×D F = f + m1a = m2mg + m1mg = mg(m1 + m2)
b=
d 10. (3) Power output = V2I2 = 2.2 kW
Here, l = wavelength of light 2.2kW
D = Distance of screen from source \ V2 = = 220 volts
d = Distance between the slits (10A )
Q l R > lV \ Input voltage for step-down transformer
12 FT - 02

V1 N1 KQ4p(r + R) 1 ( r + R )Q
= =2 = =
V2 N 2
2
4p(r + R ) 2
4pe 0 (r 2 + R 2 )
Vinput = 2 × Voutput = 2 × 220 = 440 V
æ 7R ö æ R ö
I1 N 2 ç ÷ç ÷ 7R
8 øè 8 ø
Also I = N 15. (2) R eq = è =
2 1 R 64
1
\ I1 = ´ 10 = 5A
2
11. (1) The magnetic field at the point P is 16. (2) V
BP = BAB + BBC + BCD
m0 i
BAB =
4pr
m 0i m i v
BBC = ´p = 0
4pr 4r Change in momentum, Mv – (–Mv) = 2Mv.
BCD = 0 17. (4) For T.I.R. 45° > C
\ sin 45° > sin C
45°
æm i m i ö m iæ1 1 ö 1 4/3
BP = ç 0 + 0 ÷ = 0 ç + \ >
÷ 2 n
è 4r 4pr ø 2 r è 2 2p ø 45°
4 2
\ n>
12. (4) When e– jumps from lower to higher energy orbit, 3
energy is absorbed, but not emitted. So, statement I is 18. (2) Photoelectric current depends only on intensity of
incorrect. incident light.
When e– jump from higher energy orbit (E2) to lower energy
19. (2) We know that F × v = Power
orbit (E1). Then, energy of emitted photon is E2 – E1 = h.
\ F × v = c where c = constant
E - E1
\f = 2 dv æ mdv ö
h \m ´v =c çQF = ma = dt ÷
13. (2) For path iaf, dt è ø
Q = 50 cal v t
1
W = 20 cal a f \ mò vdv = c ò dt \ mv 2 = ct
By first law of thermodynamics, 2
0 0
DU = Q - W = 50 – 20 = 30 cal. 2c 1 2
For path ibf i b \ v= ´t
Q' = 36 cal m
W' = ? dx 2c 1 2
or, W' = Q' – DU' \ = ´t
dt m
Since, the change in internal energy does not depend on
the path, therefore x t
2c 1
DU ' = 30 cal
\ W' = Q' – DU ' = 36 – 30 = 6 cal.
\ ò dx = m
´ ò t 2 dt
0 0
14. (4) Let s be the surface charge density of the shells. 3
Charge on the inner shell, Q1 = s 4pr 2 2c 2t 2 3
x= ´ Þ xµt 2
Charge on the outer shell, Q2 = s 4pR 2 m 3
\ Total charge, Q = s 4p (r 2 + R 2 ) 20. (1)
3µF
4µF C1 = 4µF 12µF
Q
Þs=
4p ( r 2 + R 2 ) 9µF
Potential at the common centre, Þ
2µF 2µF
KQ1 KQ2 æ where K = 1 ö
VC = + ç ÷
r R è 4pe0 ø 8V 8V
K s 4pr 2 K s4pR 2 By voltage division rule,
= + = K s4p ( r + R )
r R é æ 12 ö ù
Charge on 4mF is q1 = ê ç
è ÷ø ´ 8 ú ´ 4 = 24mC
ë 4 + 12 û
FT - 02 13

4 Radius of nth orbit,

The voltage across 12mF is VP = ×8 = 2V
4 + 12
\ Voltage across 9mF is also 2V n 2h 2
rn =
\ Charge on 9mF capacitor = 9 × 2 = 18mC 4p 2kZme 2
\ Total charge on 4 mF and 9mF = 42mC Velocity of election in nth orbit,
KQ 42 ´ 10-6
\ E = 2 = 9 × 109 × = 420 NC–1 2pkZe 2
r 30 ´ 30 vn =
nh
B2
21. (3) Energy per unit volume, u = Potential energy in nth orbit,
2m 0

é B2 ù é ML2 T -2 ù kZe2
ë û = éML-1T -2 ù U =–
ê ú [ ] = u =
ë û rn
m
ëê 0 ûú éL ù
3
ë û kinetic energy in nth orbit,
F
A Fl kZe 2
22. (1) From Hookes law, Y = or 0 = Dl K=
Dl AY 2rn
l0
26. (1) Polariser A and B have same alignment of transmission
F and l0 same for three wires axis.
1 Lets assume polariser C is introduced at q angle
\ Dlµ 14
AY I I 2 æ 2ö
Given A1 : A2 : A3 = 1 : 2 : 3 and Y1 : Y2 : Y3 = 3 : 2 : 1 cos2 q ´ cos2 q = Þ cos 4 q = Þ cos q = ç ÷
2 3 3 è 3ø
D l1 : D l2 : D l3 : 4 : 3 : 4 27. (1)
23. (4) Given, Area of cross-section of pipe, 28. (3) Atomic number in LHS = 92
A = 10 cm2 Atomic number in RHS = 56 + 36 = 92
Length of pipe, l = 20 cm Mass number in LHS = 236
m0 N1 N2 A 4 p ´ 10 -7 ´ 300 ´ 400 ´ 10 ´ 10 -4 Mass number in RHS = 141 + 92 = 233
M= = \ 92X236 ® 56Y141 + 36Z92 + 3(0n1)
l 0.2
= 2.4p × 10–4 H \ R = 0n1(neutron)
24. (3) Escape velocity of a particle from the surface of a 29. (2) Velocity of particle 1,
planet is given by dy1 æ pö
v1 = = 0.1 ´ 100p cos ç100pt + ÷
ve = 2gR dt è 3ø
Velocity of particle 2,
where, g = acceleration due to gravity,
and R = radius of the planet dy æ pö
v2 = 2 = - 0.1p sin pt = 0.1p cos ç pt + ÷
Given, acceleration due to gravity at equator, dt è 2ø
\ Phase difference of velocity of particle 1 with respect to
1
gE = g P Þ gP = 3gE …(i) the velocity of particle 2 is
3
p p 2 p - 3p p
Escape velocity of a particle at equator, = f1 - f 2 = - = =–
3 2 6 6
\ vE = 2 g E R …(ii) 30. (4) Freq = mg + 2 [T (2 p R)] [ T = 75 ´ 10–3 N/m ]
At poles, = 0.1 + 2 [75 ´ 10–3 (0.2)] = 0.130 N
vP = 2gP R 31. (2) Output, Y = (A + B) + (B × 1)
= A + B+ B = A +B
= 2 ´ 3g E R = 3 2 g E R [From Eq. (i)] \ Y = 0 Þ A = 0 and B = 0
= 3vE = [From Eq. (ii)] [Q vE = V] 32. (2) Energy required = mgh
3v In both cases, h is the same. Hence energy both is the
Hence, 3v is the escape velocity for a particle at the same.
33. (1) Displacement current is set up in a region where
pole of this planet.
the electric field is changing with time.
25. (1) (A) ® (s); (B) ® (p); (C) ® (q); (D) ® (r)
34. (2)
14 FT - 02

f0 41. (4) B
35. (1) =9, \ f0 = 9 fe
fe 100W 10W
Also f0 + fe = 20 (Q final image is at infinity)
A C
9 fe + fe = 20, fe = 2 cm, \ f0 = 18 cm
G
36. (4)
37. (4) Resistance, R = V2/P = (220)2/P. Since P of each 60W 5W
appliance is the same, hence R is same for all the three D
appliances.
38. (2) According to ideal gas equation 10 V
PV = nRT Current through the galvanometer,
m m æ TM ö VB - VD
PV = RT \r = = ç P \ slope µ T IG =
M v è R ÷ø RBD
Hence T2 > T1 VB - VA VB - VD VB - VC
+ + =0
39. (2) We have 100 15 10
1 V - 10 VB - VD VB - 0
x = ( -1´ 2 ) + ´ 6 ´ 22 = -2 + 12 = 10m Þ B + + =0
2 100 15 10
1 V - 10 VB - VD VB
y = (1´ 2 ) + ´ 4 ´ 22 = 2 + 8 = 10m Þ B + + =0
2 20 3 2
r
So, r = 10iˆ + 10ˆj Þ 3VB - 30 + 20VB - 20VD + 30VB = 0
t = 2sec
r Þ 53VB - 20VD = 30 ...(i)
r = 102 + 102 = 10 2m = 14.14 m Similarly,
VD - 10 VD - VB VD - 0
40. (2) The effective acceleration of a bob in water + + =0
60 15 5
g' = g æç 1 - s ö÷ Þ VD - 10 + 4VD - 4VB + 12VD = 0
è rø
Here s and r are the density of water and the bob Þ -4VB + 17VD = 10 ...(ii)
respectively. Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
The time period in air is VB = 0.86 V and VD = 0.79 V
VB - VD 0.86 - 0.79 0.07
l \ IG = = =
T = 2p ...(1) RBD 15 15
g
\ IG = 4.87 m A
The time period in water is
42. (3) The gravitational potential energy of a system is given
l by
T’ = 2p ...(2)
g' G
U= - [2m2 + 6m2 + 3m2]
Divide equation (2) by (1), we have a
Gm 2
T' l g U = -11
= ´ a
T g' l
43. (3) Magnetic susceptibility is low and negative for
diamagnetic; low but positive for paramagnetic; positive
2T g 1 and high for ferromagnetic.
= Þ 2=
T æ sö s
g ç1 - ÷ 1- di di i
è rø r 44. (3) i 2 R = Li Þ =
dt dt t
Since (Qs = 1)
dé I (1 - e- t/ t )
1 1 1 1 1 Þ I0 (1 - e - t / t ) ù = 0
2= Þ 1- = Þ = dt ë û t
1 r 2 r 2
1- é L 20 ù
r Þ t = t ln2 = 2ln2 ê ast = = = 2ú
ë R 10 û
\ r=2
FT - 02 15

r r ur
45. ( )
(2) F = q v ´ B = qvBsin q
51. (3) When halogen is present directly on the benzene
nucleus it produces two opposing effects namely + M
r ur r ur (activating effect) and –I (deactivating)
As v is parallel to B, angle between v and B is 0°.
\F=0 •• Br ••
Hence, electron will continue to move with constant
velocity.

PART - II : CHEMISTRY (–I effect, + M effect)

6.02 ´ 1020 However, + M > –I hence halogens are said to be o, p-

46. (2) \ Number of moles = directing (due to + M effect) but deactivating group (due
NA
to –I effect) groups giving mainly p-substituted product.
52. (2) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
6.02 ´ 1020
= 23
= 1 ´ 10-3 mol 53. (3) OH Br
6.023 ´ 10 H –
Volume of the solution = 100 mL = 0.1 L PB r3
¾¾®
alc. OH
¾¾¾®
Concentration of urea solution (–HBr)
(in mol L–1) O O O
More stable due
to conjugation
1 ´ 10-3
= mol L-1 54. (2) The correct match is
0.1 A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
= 1 × 10–2 mol L–1 55. (3) Formal charge (Qf) on an atom in a Lewis Structure =
= 0.01 mol L–1 [Total number of valence electron in the free atom (V)]
æ1ö – [total number of non bonding/unshared electron]
47. (4) For first orbit (n = 1), r1 = ç ÷ ´ 0.529Å – [number of bond around the atom]
èzø
\ Qf = V – (U) – (B)
æ9ö Qf = V – (U + B)
For third orbit (n = 3), r3 = ç ÷ ´ 0.529Å
èzø 56. (1) Formation of NH3 takes place according to Le-
Hence, r3 = 9r1 Chatelier’s principle.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ¾® 2NH3(g)
48. (1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
As number of moles of product (2) is less than number of
In group 13 Elements trivalent halides get hydrolysed in
moles of reactants (4).
water due to their covalent nature. The trichlorides on So, increase in pressure will favour forward direction.
hydrolysis in water form tetrahedral [M(OH)4]– species. As the reaction is exothermic so exothermic decrease in
Whereas Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solation temperature will favour forward direction.
forms octahedral [Al(H2O)6] ion. Hence, high pressure and low temperature are favourable
49. (2) A reducing sugar has a free aldehyde group or a free conditions for formation of NH3.
ketone group. 57. (3) The atmospheric pressure (p) = the volatile organic
All monosaccharides are reducing sugars like glucose, compound vap. pressure (p1) + the water vap. pressure
fructose, ribose. (p2).
Some disaccharides like lactose, maltose and ribose are +
reducing in nature. Sucrose is non-reducing sugar as its NH2 NH2
carbonyl groups are involved in glycosidic linkage. –
50. (2) 58. (1)
+ –
NH2 N2Cl
2
+ R effect ( – NH 2 is a electron donating group)
–
Cl O O O O
Cu2/Cl2 Na/dry ether N N
¬¾¾¾
(Free radical
mechanism) +
16 FT - 02

– R effect (– NO2 is a electron withdrawing group) Oxidation state of Cr in CrO42–

H Þ x + 4 (–2) = –2 Þ x = + 6
+
67. (1) There is no reaction between I– and Fe3+
+H 68. (1) In air phosphorous change into P2O5.
+

+ E effect (H+ is a electron deficient species) 69. (4) A – (q), B – (p), C – (r), D – (s)
(A)
– –
+ CN O
CN
® (- CHO)
Pd, H - BaSO
2 4
Acid Chloride C ¾¾¾¾¾¾
¾Rosenmund reaction
– E effect ( CN is a electron rich species) Cl
59. (2) CH3Br + AgF ¾® CH3F + AgBr CHO
60. (1) Both statement I and II are correct. (B)
CO, HCl, anhyd.
¾¾¾¾¾® (Gatterman-Koch
AlCl3
61. (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. reaction)
Na is highly reactive. So it reacts with acid to produces 4 2 HgSO , H SO
4
H2 gas. (C) HC ≡CH ¾¾¾¾¾® H 3 C - CHO (Addition of water
to acetylene)
62. (3) Solubilty of a gas decreases with increase in DIBAL - H
temperature. Molality is not affected by temperature. (D) Ester ¾¾¾¾® Aldehyde
[AlH(i - Bu)2]
63. (2)
70. (1) Due to H-bonding.
0 –1 +1
71. (3) Highest molar conductivity (for equimolar solutions)
(A) Cl2 + 2NaOH NaCl + NaOCl + H 2 O
Red will be exhibited by the complex that will dissociate into a
ox greater number of ions in the solution.
[Pt (NH3)2 Cl2] = 0
–1 –2 0
[Co (NH3)4 Cl2]Cl = 2
(B) H 2 O 2 H 2O + O2
K4 [Fe (CN)6] = 5
Red
ox [Cr (H2O)6]Cl3 = 4
Thus, potassium hexacyano ferrate (II) will have the
+7 +6 +4 0 highest molar conductivity.
(C) 2KMnO 4 K 2 MnO 4 + MnO2 + O2
Red Cl N(CH3)2
Red

(CH 3 ) 2 NH
+6
+
+7 +4 72. (1) (+) (CH 3 ) 2 NLi ¾¾¾¾¾ ®
(D) 3MnO 24 - + 4H 2MnO4- + MnO2 + 2H2 O
ox 73. (1) Conductivity depends on ion in unit volume.
Red
74. (3)
64. (4) C > B > D > A
- +
65. (4) Lucas reagent is anhydrous ZnCl2 and conc. HCl. It NaOH + CaO
(I) R ¾ COONa + NaOH ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
D Decarboxylation
® (R ¾ H )
is used to distinguish between 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols. (Alkane)
3° alcohols ® immediate turbidity
Zn-Hg
2° alcohols ® turbidity after 5 minutes (II) CH3—C—CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾¾
conc. HCl
® Alkane
1° alcohols ® No turbidity at room temp. Clemmensen reduction
O
CH3 The above reaction is called Clemmensen-reduction. It
|
CH3 - C - OH is a tertiary alcohol hence it will give converts aldehydes and ketones to corresponding alkane.
| LiAlH 4
CH 3 (III) CH3 C º CCH3 ¾¾¾¾ ® Alkene
This reaction is used for reduction of alkynes which gives
fastest reaction with Lucas reagent.
66. (3) In Acidic medium corresponding alkenes.
+6 CH3 CH3
Cr2 O27 - + 14H + + 6e - ¾¾
® 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2O NaBH
(IV) CH3—C—Cl ¾¾¾® CH3—C—H
4

In basic medium
+6 +6 CH3 CH3
Cr2 O72- + 2OH - ¾¾
® 2Cr O42- + H 2 O
Hence, option (3) is the correct answer.
FT - 02 17

75. (1) When initial concentration of A is kept constant and 81. (1) The specific conductance increases with
that of B is changed (tripled), the rate of the reaction
concentration. The number of ions per cm3 increase with
increases by 9 times.
Thus, the order of the reaction will be 2 with respect to B. increase of concentration.
When the concentration of B is kept constant and that of 82. (2) C6H5ONa + Br – CH2 – CH = CH2 ¾®
A is increased by 3 times, the rate of the reaction increases C6H5 – O – CH2 – CH = CH2 + NaBr
by 3 times too. Allyl phenyl ether
Thus, the order of the reaction is 1 with respect to A.
76. (4) The longest chain has nine carbon atoms. 83. (2) 2MnO -4 + 5C2 O42 - +
+ 16H ® 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O
The chain has a hydroxy group at C – 3, – F and CH3 at C 20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 = 20 × 0.1 = 2 mmol
– 4, – Cl and – CH3 at C – 5 and a C – C double bond at C 2 mmol of KMnO4 = 5 m mol of C2 O24 -
– 7. 50 mL of 0.1 M H2C2O4 or 50 × 0.1 = 5 m mol
Thus, the IUPAC name will be : Hence, 20 mL of 0.1 M. KMnO4 = 50 mL of 0.1 M H2C2O4
84. (3) DTb = 0.104 K, Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1,
5-Chloro-4-fluoro-4, 5-dimethyl non-7-en-3-ol
Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1
77. (2)
DTb 0.104
Thus, DTb = m Kb Þ m = = = 0.2 mol kg–1
O Kb 0.52
Þ DTf = m Kf = 0.2 × 1.86 = 0.372 K.
CH3 H2 N - NH 2 , KOH 85. (3) Among isoelectronic species, greater the negative
® charge, greater will be the ionic radii.
ethylene glycol
HO So, correct order is ionic radii
– 2– 3–
CH3 F1.36 < O1.40 < N1.71
86. (3) For a given value of 'n', there are 'n' values of 'l' that
HO range from 0 to (n – 1).
NH2NH2, OH– can reduce 87. (3) Extensive properties = Internal energy, enthalpy,
Mass, volume, Heat capacity, Gibbs energy
C=O® CH2 group. Therefore, the most effective
Intensive properties = Density, pressure
reagent is NH2NH2, OH–. 88. (2) E°cell = E°C - E°A = 0.80 - ( -0.76 ) = 1.56V
78. (2) A – (r); B – (s); C – (p); D – (q)
(A) 3d3 (Octahedral) : d2sp3 hybridization; 3 unpaired From the equation DG° = –nFE°
elecrtons = –2 × 96500 × 1.56 (n = 2)
(B) d5 (Octahedral, low spin) : d2sp3 hybridization ; 1 = –301080 J/mol
unpaired electron = –301 kJ/mol
(C) d6 (Octahedral, low spin) : d2sp3 ; no unpaired electron
O
(D) d6 (Octahedral, outer orbital) : sp3d2 ; 4 unpaired
electrons 89. (2) Apart from aldehyde, Formic acid H–C–OH also
Magnetic moment n(n + 2) B.M. (n unpaired electrons)
gives silver mirror test with ammonical silver nitrate.
79. (1) From the rate law, 90. (1) The increasing order of the acidity of the carboxylic
Rate of reaction units = (mol L–1s–1). acids is III < II < IV < I. In aromatic acids, electron
V2 withdrawing groups like –Cl, –CN, –NO2 increases the
80. (4) Wrev = –2.303 RT log
V1 acidity, whereas electron releasing groups like –CH3,
–OH, –OCH3, –NH2 decreases the acidity.
V2
= –2.303 P1 V1 log PART-III: BIOLOGY
V1
V2 91. (2)
V
= –2.303 (20) (1.0) log = – 46.06 log 2 92. (2) Laminarin and mannitol, reserve food in brown algae
V1 1
are complex carbohydrates.
= – 46.06 log V2 = –92.12 L atm
Þ log V2 = 2 Þ V2 = 100 L
18 FT - 02

93. (3) In the given figure of monocotyledonous seeds, the 114. (1) In the absence of ‘B’ allele, the B-antigen cannot
structure marked as A and B are respectively endosperm develop in the child.
and embryo. Endosperm is the part of a seed which acts 115. (2) Endodermis or innermost layer of cortex has
as a food store for the developing plant embryo, usually casparian strips in roots. It is called starch sheath in dicot
containing starch with protein and other nutrients. stems. It separates cortex from stele. The cell walls are
Embryo is the part of a seed which develops into a plant, thickened at the corners in angular collenchyma.
consisting (in the mature embryo of a higher plant) of a 116. (1)
plumule, a radicle, and one or two cotyledons. 117. (1) Auxin promotes apical dominance.
94. (3) Pollen receptor in gynoecium is its stigma. 118. (1)
95. (2) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III 119. (2) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
96. (2) 120. (1) All the statements are correct.
97. (2) 121. (3)
98. (1) During early M-phase, i.e., prophase, cells have more 122. (4)
than 2C content of DNA. During early S-phase since,
123. (2)
replication begins so, DNA content is less than 4C.
99. (1) In the given figure of chloroplast section the parts 124. (2) The crossing of F1 to homozygous recessive parent
marked as A, B, C, D and E are respectively stromal lamella, is called test cross.
grana, stroma, starch granule and lipid droplets. Stromal 125. (1)
lamella (A), grana (B) and stoma (C) are considered as 126. (2) Isotopes used in proving semiconser vative
membrane system in the chloroplast and are responsible for replication of DNA were 14N 15N.
trapping the light energy and also for the synthesis of ATP
and NADPH. 127. (1) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
100. (1) 128. (1)
101. (1) Differentiation is not a part of growth phase. 129. (4) In trophic level of our ecosystem we belong to
102. (3) All the statements are correct about self-incompatibility. tertiary consumer and fourth trophic level.
Self-incompatibility is a general name for several genetic
130. (1)
mechanisms in angiosperms, which prevent self-
fertilization and thus encourage outcrossing and allogamy. 131. (4) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
In plants with self - incompatibility, when a pollen grain 132. (4)
produced in a plant reaches a stigma of the same plant or
133. (4) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III
another plant with a similar genotype, the process of pollen
germination, pollen tube growth, ovule fertilization, and 134. (1) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
embryo development is halted at one of its stages, and 135. (3) A – I; B – III; C – IV; D – II
consequently no seeds are produced. 136. (3)
103. (3) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I 137. (1) The tissue that form gland is epithelial.
104. (2) Ligases perform the joining of DNA fragments, An in 138. (1) The inorganic compounds like sulphate, phosphate,
vitro-selected ribozyme can catalyze the same type of etc., are found in acid soluble pool.
peptide-bond formation as a ribosome; the ribozyme 139. (3) In blood, formed elements (erythrocytes, leucocytes
resembles the ribosome because a very specific RNA and platelets) constitute nearly 45 per cent.
structure is required for substrate binding and catalysis,
140. (1) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
and both amino acids are attached to nucleotides.
141. (4)
105. (2) 142. (4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
106. (1) In onion and garlic, scale leaves store food and water 143. (3) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
and are, therefore, thick and fleshy. 144. (1)
107. (4) 145. (2)
108. (4) The cell wall of plants consists of cellulose, 146. (3) In the absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum
hemicellulose, pectins and proteins. degenerates.
109. (1)
147. (2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
110. (4)
148. (3)
111. (3) Statement B, C and D are correct.
149. (4) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV
112. (4)
113. (1)
FT - 02 19

150. (3) Starch can hold iodine (I2) molecules in its helical 169. (3) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – I
secondary structure but cellulose being non helical, can 170. (2) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
not hold I2. Thus, cellulose does not shows blue colour 171. (2)
when treated with I2.
172. (4) DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, so it cannot pass
151. (4) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
through the cell membranes.
152. (2) Atrio-ventricular node (AVN) is situated in lower left
corner of right auricle close to AV-septum. 173. (2) In columnar epithelium, their nuclei are located at
the base of the cells.
153. (1)
174. (1) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
154. (1) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
175. (3)
155. (4)
176. (4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
156. (2) The figure shows the process of tubectomy. This is
a surgical method to prevent pregnancy in women. In 177. (1)
tubectomy, small part of the fallopian tube is removed or 178. (3) The given apparatus shows sparged stirred tank
tied through a small cut in the abdomen or through vagina. bioreactor. This apparatus carries out the fermentation
process by transferring oxygen to mass bioreactors. The
157. (4) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
rate of oxygen mass transfer into a culture in a bioreactor
158. (1) Acoelomate animals with flame cells are found in is affected by operational conditions and geometrical
platyhelminthes. parameters as well as the physicochemical properties of
159. (3) the medium (containing nutrients, substances excreted
160. (1) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I by the micro-organism, and surface active agents that are
161. (4) All the given statements are correct. often added to the medium) and the presence of the micro-
162. (3) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV organism. Thus, oxygen mass transfer coefficient values
163. (1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II in fermentation broths often differ substantially from
164. (4) values estimated for simple aqueous solutions.
165. (2) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV 179. (1)
166. (4) Spermatogonium is diploid and spermatid is haploid. 180. (2) Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its
167. (1) full effective response.
168. (1)