10-04-2025

7501CMD303031240027 MD

PHYSICS

1) The focal lengths of the objective and the eye-piece of a compound microscope are 2.0 cm and
3.0 cm respectively. The distance between the objective and the eye-piece is 15.0 cm. The final
image formed by the eye-piece is at infinity. The two lenses are thin. The distances in cm of the
object and the image produced by the objective measured from the objective lens are respectively :-

(1) 2.4 and 12.0

(2) 2.4 and 15.0
(3) 2.3 and 12.0
(4) 2.3 and 3.0

2) Column - I represent a change particle being thrown in electric field and magnetic field
combination. Column - II represent the path followed by change particle.

Column - I Column - II

(A) (P) Straight line

(B) (Q) Circle

(C) (R) Parabola

(D) (S) Helix

(1) (A) - (P); (B) - (Q); (C) - (S); (D) - (R)

(2) (A) - (P); (B) - (Q); (C) - (R); (D) - (S)
(3) (A) - (P); (B) - (R); (C) - (Q); (D) - (S)
(4) (A) - (P); (B) - (S); (C) - (R); (D) - (Q)

3) The particle of mass m and charge q will touch the infinitely large plate of uniform charge density
σ if its velocity v is more than : {Given that σq > 0}

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

4) Two cylindrical conductors, one of copper and other of aluminium have the same length and the

same resistance. Resistivity of aluminium = 1.5 × resistivity of copper. Density of aluminium = ×

density of copper. How many times is copper conductor heavier than aluminium ?

(1) 2 times
(2) 4 times

(3)
times

(4)
times

5) In a fission reaction X +117 Y + n + n, the binding energy per nucleon of X and Y is 8.5
MeV whereas of 236U is 7.6 MeV. The total energy liberated will be about :-

(1) 200 KeV

(2) 2 MeV
(3) 200 MeV
(4) 2000 MeV

6) Some equipotential surfaces are shown in figure.

Find the magnitude of the electric field?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) Power of an equiconvex lens is P. After cutting it in different ways, combination of lens is given in
column-I and their effective power is given in column-II. Match the following two columns

Column-I Column-II

A. P. Zero

B. Q. P

C. R. 2P

D. S.

(1) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R
(2) A → S, B → R, C → Q, D → P
(3) A → Q, B → S, C → Q, D → R
(4) A → S, B → R, C → Q, P → Q

8) Initially 'n' parallel resistances 'R' are connected to battery of emf 'E'. If an equal resistance 'R' is
connected in series with parallel resistances then current through battery changes by 80% then
value of 'n' is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

9) Two polaroids are oriented with their principal planes making an angle of 60°. The percentage of
incident unpolarized light which passes through the system is :-
(1) 50%
(2) 100%
(3) 12.5%
(4) 37.5%

10) Three identical metal plates with large surface areas are kept parallel to each other as shown in
fig. The leftmost plate is given a charge Q, the rightmost a charge – 2Q and the middle one remains

neutral. Find the charge appearing on the outer surface of the rightmost plate :-

(1) – Q/4
(2) – 2Q
(3) – Q
(4) – Q/2

11) The force between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C and distance of
separation of the plates d with a potential difference V between the plates, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

In a series R-L-C circuit, the frequency of the source is half of the resonance frequency. The nature
of the circuit will be :-

(1) capacitive
(2) inductive
(3) purely resistive
(4) data insufficient

13) A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If is the electric flux in units of volt meter
associated with the plane surface A, the flux linked with the curved surface B in units of V - m will
be:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

Young's double-slit experiment is carried out by using green, red and blue light, one colour at a time.
The fringe widths recorded are βG, βR and βB respectively. Then :-

(1) βG > βB > βR

(2) βB > βG > βR
(3) βR > βB > βG
(4) βR > βG > βB

15) Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and b (b > a) are placed concentrically in air. A is
given a charge +Q while B is earthed. Then the equivalent capacitance of the system is :

(1)

(2) 4πε0(a + b)
(3) 4πε0b

(4)

16)

In the given diagram two particle A & B having same charge & mass respectively mA and mB, are
moving in a magnetic field B with speed VA and VB then :
(1) mA vA < mB vB
(2) mAvA > mBvB
(3) mA < mB and vA < vB
(4) mA = mB and vA = vB

17) Potential at the centre due to charged arc is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Which of the following is true for the figure showing electric lines of force ?

(E is electrical field, V is potential)

(1) EA > EB, VA = VB

(2) EB > EA , VA = VB
(3) EA > EB, VA < VB
(4) EA > EB, VA > VB

19)
Maxwell's modified form of Ampere's Circuital law is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Two coherent light beams of intensity I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum
possible intensities in the resulting beam are :

(1) 5I and 3I
(2) 5I and I
(3) 9I and 3I
(4) 9I and I

21) Variation of current passing through a conductor at the voltage applied across its ends is varied
as shown in figure. If the resistance is determined at the points A, B and C, then resistances at :-

(1) C and D are equal

(2) B is higher than at A
(3) C is higher than at B
(4) A is higher than at C

22) A conducting loop having a capacitor is moving out as shown in following fig. from the magnetic

field, then which plate of the capacitor will be positive :-

(1) Plate - A
(2) Plate - B
(3) Plate - A and Plate - B both
(4) None of these
23) In the circuit shown switch S is connected to position 2 for a long time and then joined to

position 1. The total heat produced in resistance R1 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by

E = 50 sin (ct – x) N/m

Find the energy contained in a cylinder of cross-section 10 cm2 and length 50 cm along the x axis

(1) 1.1 × 10–8 J

(2) 5.0 × 1010 J
(3) 5 × 104 J
(4) 5.5 × 10–12 J

25)

When green light is incident on the surface of metal, it emits photo-electrons but there is no such
emission with yellow colour light. Which one of the colour can produce emission of photo-electrons

(1) Orange
(2) Red
(3) Indigo
(4) None of the above

26) A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal
magnetic induction B. At the position MNQ, the speed of the ring is V and the potential difference

developed across the ring is :-

(1) Zero
(2) BvπR2/2 and M is at higher potential
(3) πRBV and Q is at higher potential
(4) 2RBV and Q is at higher potential

27) The electromagnetic waves do not transport -

(1) energy
(2) charge
(3) momentum
(4) information

28) Electromagnetic waves with wavelength

(A) λ1 are used to treat muscular strain.
(B) λ2 are used by a FM radio station for broadcasting
(C) λ3 are used to detect fracture in bones.
(D) λ4 are absorbed by the ozone layer of the atmosphere.
Arrange these wavelengths in decreasing order of magnitude.

(1) λ2 > λ1 > λ4 > λ3

(2) λ1 > λ2 > λ4 > λ3
(3) λ3 > λ4 > λ1 > λ2
(4) λ3 > λ4 > λ2 > λ1

29)

A light bulb is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 60°. The number of images
formed is–

(1) 6
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 4

30) 27 small drops each having charge q and radius r coalesce to form big drop. How many times
charge and capacitance will become ?

(1) 3, 27
(2) 27, 3
(3) 27, 27
(4) 3, 3

31) The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in
diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be :–

(1) 300%
(2) 200%
(3) 100%
(4) 50%

32) A nonconducting solid sphere of radius R is charged uniformly. The magnitude of the
electric field due to sphere at a distance r from its centre:-
(a) Increases as r increases for r < R
(b) Decreases as r increases, for 0 < r <
(c) Decreases as r increases, for R < r <
(d) Is discontinuous at r = R

(1) a, c
(2) c, d
(3) a, b
(4) b, d

33)

A plane glass sheet is kept over various coloured pictures. The least raised picture is–

(1) Green
(2) Yellow
(3) Violet
(4) Red

34) A conducting rod of length 2ℓ is rotating with constant angular speed ω about its perpendicular
bisector. A uniform magnetic field exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The e.m.f. induced

between two ends of the rod is :-

(1) Bωℓ2

(2)
Bωℓ2

(3)
Bωℓ2
(4) Zero

35) If the focal length of the objective lens is increased then :-

(1) Magnifying power of microscope will increase but that of telescope will decrease.
(2) Magnifying power of microscope and telescope both will increase.
(3) Magnifying power of microscope and telescope both will decrease.
(4) Magnifying power of microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase.

36) Consider a wire having current 10A having area of cross-section 1cm2. If number of electrons per
unit volume is 9 × 1028 m–3. Find the drift velocity of electrons :-

(1) 6.94 × 10–6 m/s

(2) 1.94 × 10–3 m/s
(3) 5.94 × 10–2 m/s
(4) 2.94 × 10–4 m/s

37) A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to
the plane of the coil.The radius of the coil changes as shown in figure. The graph of induced emf in

the coil is represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The capacitance C of a capacitor is :-

(1) Independent of the charge and potential of the capacitor.

(2) Dependent on the charge and independent of potential.
(3) Independent of the geometrical configuration of the capacitor.
(4) Independent of the dielectric medium between the two conducting surfaces of the capacitor

39) Assertion : Two sources of equal intensity always emit equal number of photons in any time
interval.
Reason : Two sources of equal intensity may emit equal number of photons in any time interval.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

40) A conducting wire is sliding with constant velocity u along two parallel conducting rails as shown
in the figure. The resistance of the circuit is R and magnetic field present in the region is B. If P1 is
the rate at which energy is dissipated in the circuit and P2 is the rate at which work is done to move

the rod through the magnetic field, then :-

(1) P1 > P2
(2) P1 < P2
(3) P1 = P2
(4) P2 = 0

41)

An alternating current is given by the equation The r.m.s. current is given by

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Two sources of waves are called coherent if :-

(1) Both have the same amplitude of vibrations

(2) Both produce waves of the same wavelength
(3) Both produce waves of the same wavelength having constant phase difference
(4) Both produce waves having the same velocity

43) A long horizontally fixed wire carries a current of 100 ampere. Directly above and parallel to it,
is a fine wire that carries a current of 20 ampere and weights 0.04 newton per metre. The distance
between the two wires for which the upper wire is just supported by magnetic repulsion is :-

(1) 10–2 decimetre

(2) 10–2 mm
(3) 10–2 m
(4) 10–2 cm

44)

A metallic frame moves

with constant velocity v near a infinite length current carrying wire. At any
instant induced emf in sides AD and BC are 5 V and 2V respectively. If resistance of frame is 6Ω then
magnitude and direction of induced current in it -
(1) 2 A, ACW
(2) 0.5 A, ACW
(3) Zero
(4) 0.5 A, CW

45) When radiation of wavelength λ is incident on a metallic surface, the stopping potential is 4.8
volts. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of double the wavelength, then the stopping
potential becomes 1.6 volts. Then the threshold wavelength for the surface is :-

(1) 2λ
(2) 4λ
(3) 6λ
(4) 8λ

CHEMISTRY

1) The yellow precipitate formed during the chromyl chloride test is chemically

(1) Chromic acid

(2) Lead chromate
(3) Lead acetate
(4) Sodium chromate

2) IUPAC name of is
(1) Diamminesilver (0) dicyanoargentate (II)
(2) Diamminesilver (I) dicyanoargentate (I)
(3) Diamminesilver (0) dicyanosilver (II)
(4) Diamminesilver (II) dicyanosilver (II)

3) In which of the following cases nitration will take place at para-position?

(1) I only
(2) II, III and IV
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I, II and III

4)

Which one of the following compounds will be most reactive for SN1 reaction:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in alkaline medium. When alkaline KMnO4 is treated with KI,
iodide ion is oxidised to

(1) I2
(2) IO-
(3)
(4)
6) for is for is

(1) 2.8 V
(2) 1.4 V
(3)
(4)

7) The compound of vanadium has magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. The vanadium chloride has the
formula :-

(1) VCl2
(2) VCl3
(3) VCl4
(4) VCl5

8) The correct order of increasing field strength of ligands is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) Which can act as lewis acid ?

(1) BF3
(2) BeF2
(3) CF2
(4) All

10)

Mole fraction of the benzene in the vapour phase is in equilibrium with a solution of benzene (P° =
200 Torr) and toluene (P° = 150 Torr) having 5 moles of each, is –

(1) 0·57
(2) 0·25
(3) 0·60
(4) 0·40

11) For the reaction A + B → C. The following data has been given for rate of reaction :-

[B]
Sr. No. [A] (M) ROR (Ms–1)
(M)

(1) 0.5 0.5 1.6 × 10–2

(2) 0.5 1 3.2 × 10–2

 (3) 1 1 6.4 × 10–2

(4) 1 0.5 3.2 × 10–2

The rate law of the reaction is

(1) r = k[A]2[B]
(2) r = k[A][B]
(3) r = k[A][B]2
0
(4) r = k[A] [B]2

12) Which is incorrect reaction regarding major product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Which of the following will have two stereoisomeric forms?

(I) [Cr(NO3)3(NH3)3]
(II) K3[Fe(C2O4)3]
(III) [CoCl2(en)2]+
(IV) [CoBrCl(ox)2]3–

(1) I only
(2) I and II
(3) III and IV
(4) All of these

14) The linkage between the two monosaccharide units in lactose is

(1) of glucose and of galactose

(2) of galactose and of glucose
(3) of glucose and of glucose
(4) of glucose and of glucose
15) Which of the following oxy acid gives peroxymonosulphuric acid on hydrolysis ?

(1) H2SO5
(2) H2S2O7
(3) H2S2O8
(4) None

16) Glucose and galactose differ in configuration at :

(1) C – 1
(2) C – 2
(3) C – 3
(4) C – 4

17) Assertion :- Alkyl iodide can be prepared by treating alkyl chloride/bromide with NaI in
acetone.
Reason :- NaCl/NaBr are soluble in acetone while NaI is not.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Which of the following statement is correct if the intermolecular force in liquids A, B and C are
in the order A < B < C?

(1) B evaporates more readily than A

(2) B evaporates less readily than C
(3) A evaporates more readily than C
(4) A and B evaporate at the same rate

19) The product 'X' in the below mentioned reaction is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

20) Correct increasing order of number of π bonds in the following is:-

I. H2S2O7 II. H2SO3 III. H2SO4

(1) I, II, III

(2) II, III, I
(3) II, I, III
(4) I, III, II

21) For a first order reaction, a plot of log (a – x) against time is a straight line with a negative slope
equal to

(1)

(2) –2.303k

(3)

(4)

22)

How many moles of RMgX can be consumed by one mole of following compound when it reacts with
excess of RMgX.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
23) If 'a' is the initial concentration of the reactant, the half-life period of the reaction of nth order is
inversely proportional to :-

(1) an–1

(2)

(3) a1–n
(4) a1+n

24) Consider following table–

Column-I
(A) Best and latest technique for isolation, purification and separation of organic compounds
(B) In lassaigne's test for ‘N’
(C) In Lassaigne's test for ‘S’
(D) Aniline is purified from water by
(E) Glycerol is purified from spent lye
Column-II
(i) Chromatography
(ii) Vacuum distillation
(iii) Violet coloured complex is formed
(iv) Prussian blue coloured complex is formed
(v) Steam disstillation
The correct match is–
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (iv) (v) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (v) (ii)
(4) (v) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25)

Which of the following solution shows positive deviation from Raoult's law :-

(1) CHCl3 + Acetone

(2) Acetone + C2H5OH
(3) Phenol + Aniline
(4) H2O + HNO3

26) Match the following -

Column-I Column-II
2–
(i) Square planar (a) [NiCl4]
 2–
(ii) Tetrahedral (b) [Ni(CN)4]

Trigonal
(iii) (c) [Fe(CO)5]
Bi-pyramidal
4–
(iv) Octahedral (d) [Fe(CN)6]
(1) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(2) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b
(3) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-d

27) Consider the following E° values

Under standard conditions the potential for the reaction

Sn(s) + 2Fe3+ (aq) → 2 Fe2+ (aq) + Sn2+ (aq) is :

(1) 1.68 V
(2) 1.40 V
(3) 0.91 V
(4) 0.63 V

28) Aniline-water mixture can be separated by :-

(1) Steam distillation

(2) Extraction
(3) Chromatography
(4) Sublimation

29) A certain current liberated 0.50 gm of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper can be
liberated by the same current flowing for the same time in a copper sulphate solution :- (At. wt. of
Cu = 63.5)

(1) 12.7 gm
(2) 15.9 gm
(3) 31.8 gm
(4) 63.5 gm

30)

Elecrolyte KCl KNO3 HCl NaOAc NaCl

∧∞(S cm2mol–1) 149.9 145.0 426.2 91.0 126.5

Calculate using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed above at infinite
dilution in H2O at 25 °C
(1) 390.7
(2) 217.5
(3) 517.2
(4) 552.7

31) For a first order reaction, X → Y + Z, in the beginning of reaction 10g of X were taken, then what
is the amount of X left after 6 half-lives ?

(1) 1.562 g
(2) 0.625 g
(3) 0.312 g
(4) 0.156 g

32) What is true about S8 molecule ?

I. There is no Pπ–Pπ bonds present in the molecule
II. There are eight lone pair of electrons
3
III. Each S atom is sp hybridised

(1) I, III
(2) II, III
(3) I, II
(4) only II

33) Inorganic benzene (B3N3H6) -

(1) Only 6 (sp2 – sp2) σ bonds and 3 pπ–pπ coordinate bonds

(2) 12 (sp2 – sp2) s bonds and 3 pπ–pπ coordinate bonds
(3) 6 (sp2 – sp2) σ bonds , 6 (sp2 – σ) σ bonds
(4) 6 (sp2 – sp2) σ bonds , 6 (sp2 – s) σ bonds and 3 pπ–pπ coordinate bonds

34) →A B ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

35) Number of moles of MnO4– required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic
medium will be

(1) 7.5 moles

(2) 0.2 moles
(3) 0.6 moles
(4) 0.4 moles

36) Assertion : Reaction of acetyl chloride with alcohol is carried in presence of base (pyridine).
Reason : It shifts the equilibrium to the right hand side by removing HCl.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

37) The compound [Co(SO4 )(NH3)5 ]Br and [Co(SO4 )(NH3 )5 ]Cl represents :

(1) Linkage isomerism

(2) Ionisation isomerism
(3) Coordination isomerism
(4) No any isomerism

38) When excess of electrolyte is added to a colloid it :-

(1) Coagulates
(2) Gets diluted
(3) Does not change
(4) Peptisation

39) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 X Y Z; Z will be

(1) CH3 – CH = O
(2)

(3) CH2 = CH – Cl
(4) HC ≡ CH

40) K2Cr2O7 reacts with NH4Cl in presence of H2SO4. The product formed is –

(1) Chromyl chlorate with Green vapour

(2) Chromous chloride with white vapour
(3) Chromous chloride with blue vapour
(4) Chromyl chloride with deep red colour

41) The following Reaction

is known by the name :-

(1) Acetylation Reaction

(2) Schotten-Bauman Reaction
(3) Friedel-Craft's Reaction
(4) Perkin's Reaction

42) If four gases A, B, C and D have Henry's constant (KH) values 1.9 × 101, 6.5 × 10–4, 7.8 × 10–4 and
6.0 × 103 bar respectively then which of the following gas has maximum solubility at same partial
pressure?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

43)

In the chemical reactions :

the compounds ‘A” and ‘B’ respectively are

(1) nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene

(2) phenol and benzene
(3) benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene
(4) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene

44) If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99%
of the reaction is given by :

(1) t = 0.693/k
(2) t = 6.909/k
(3) t = 4.606/k
(4) t = 2.303/k

45) Incorrect order of stability is:-

(1) Fe+2 < Fe+3

(2) Cr+3 > Cr+2
(3) Mn+2 > Mn+3
(4) Cu+2 < Cu+

BIOLOGY

1) Read the following statements (i to iv) and answer the following question.
(i) Each testes has highly coiled 250 compartments called seminiferous tubules.
(ii) Erection of the penis due to presence of special tissues facilitates insemination.
(iii) Immunologically competent cells are also present in the interstitial spaces of seminiferous
tubules.
(iv) Testes lie outside the abdominal cavity in a thin pouch like skin called scrotum.
(v) Bulbourethral gland is a single accessory gland.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (iii) and (v)
(3) (i) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iv) and (v)

2) Find the correct match :

(1) Stipule - swollen leaf base

(2) Cymose inflorescence - unlimited growth
(3) Perigynous flower - half inferior to petals
(4) Epiphyllous - stamens attached to petals

3) Which of the following are homogenous in nature and are composed of structurally and
functionally similar cells :-

(1) Complex tissue

(2) Phloem
(3) Simple tissue
(4) Xylem

4) Which of the following combination of diseases are caused by bacterial pathogens?

(1) Bubonic plague, Diphtheria, Malaria

(2) Diphtheria, Dysentery, Typhoid
(3) Dysentery, Filariasis, Chikungunya
(4) Common cold, Leprosy, Whooping cough

5) Statement I : The choice of genes do not depend upon the crop and the targeted pest, as most
Bt toxins are not insect group specific.
Statement II : Proteins encoded by the genes cry l dc and cry ll Ab control the corn borer, that of
cry l db controls cotton bollworms.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct & Il is incorrect
(3) Statement l is incorrect & II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

6) When a plant have two alleles of contrasting character it is called ....

(1) Homozygous
(2) Heterozygous
(3) Dioecious
(4) Monoecious

7) Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?

(1) Klinefelter syndrome

(2) Sex of the foetus
(3) Down syndrome
(4) Jaundice

8) Select the sequence of organisms on the basis of their appearance in the ecological time scale.
(I) Invertebrates
(II) Sea weeds
(III) Fish like reptiles
(IV) Jawless fishes

(1) (II) - (III) - (V) - (I)

(2) (I) - (IV) - (II) - (III)
(3) (III) - (II) - (IV) - (I)
(4) (I) - (II) - (IV) - (III)

9) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately ___ (dry weight).
(1) 170 billion tons
(2) 55 billion tons
(3) 115 billion tons
(4) 155 billion tons

10) Select the incorrect match :

(1) Alternate phyllotaxy - China rose

(2) Opposite phyllotaxy - Mustard
(3) Whorled phyllotaxy - Alstonia
(4) Palmately compound leaf - Silk cotton

11) Identify the incorrect match :

(1) Actinomorphic flower - Mustard

(2) Perigynous flower - Peach
(3) Asymmetrical flower - Gulmohur
(4) Epigynous flower - Guava

12)

Given below is the diagram of L.S. of phloem. In which labelled parts A & B are, respectively :-

(1) Sieve pore and phloem parenchyma

(2) Companion cell & sieve cell
(3) Companion cell & sieve tube element
(4) Sieve tube element & companion cell

13) How did miller create reducing atmosphere in his experimental set up?

(1) Complex reactions lead to binding of oxygen

(2) Miller had specific deoxygenating apparatus
(3) By providing aerobic conditions
(4) Used water vapour, methane, ammonia and hydrogen gas in oxygen-free environment

14) The main reason for extinction of species is :-

(1) hunting
(2) destruction of habitat
(3) pollution
(4) Co-extinction

15) Which of the following is incorrect for garden pea?

Character Genotype Phenotype

Flower Homozygous or
(1) Terminal
position heterozygous

Seed Homozygous or
(2) Yellow
colour heterozygous

Homozygous or
(3) Pod colour Green
heterozygous

Only
(4) Pod shape Constricted
homozygous
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) The sequence of developments of embryo sac.

(1) Archesporium → Megaspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac.

(2) Archesporium → Megaspore → Megaspore mother cell → Embryo sac.
(3) Archesporium → Megaspore mother cell → Microspore → Embryo sac.
(4) Archesporium → Microspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac.

17) Which of the following are true about tracheids?

(a) Unicellular (b) Multicellular
(c) Pitted end wall (d) Perforated end wall

(1) only b
(2) only a and c
(3) only b and c
(4) only a and d

18) Which of the following antibody mediates allergic reactions?

(1) IgD
(2) IgE
(3) IgM
(4) IgG

19) In species-area relation, the value of regression coefficient 'Z' is depends on :-

(1) Taxonomic group

(2) Area of exploration
(3) Species
(4) All of the above

20) Which of the following statements is not correct about 'Saheli'?

(1) It is a non-steroidal preparation

(2) It is taken once a week after initial intake of twice a week dose for three months
(3) It inhibits implantation
(4) Its active ingredient is progestin

21) During sewage treatment, biogases are produced, which include.

(1) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide

(2) Methane, oxygen and hydrogen sulphide
(3) Hydrogen sulphide, methane and sulphur dioxide
(4) Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and methane

22) Transport of food material in Angiosperms takes place through :-

(1) Tracheids
(2) Vesseles
(3) Companion cells
(4) Sieve tube element

23) A female of 24 years age attained puberty at the age of 14 years. She has two children born by
normal delivery. How many polar bodies are formed in her body till date (each M.C. is of 30 days) :-

(1) 90
(2) 96
(3) 92
(4) 88

24) Genetically engineered human insulin is synthesized with the help of-

(1) Rhizopus
(2) Rabbit/Guinea pig
(3) E.coli
(4) Pseudomonas

25) Assertion : Inner cell mass is known as Trophoblast

Reason : HCG, HPL and relaxin are also produced by non-pregnant female

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) correct but (R) is not an explanation
(3) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

26) Leaching is

(1) Break down of detritus into smaller particles

(2) Downward movement of watersoluble inorganic nutrients
(3) Degradation of detritus into simpler inorganic nutrients
(4) Releasing of inorganic nutrients from humus

27) During oogenesis, the first meiotic division occurs in

(1) Oogonium
(2) Primary oocyte
(3) Secondary oocyte
(4) Ootid

28) Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which
type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections ?

(1) Cell-mediated immune response

(2) Hormonal immune response
(3) Physiological immune response
(4) Autoimmune response

29) A test cross distinguished between:

(1) two homozygous forms

(2) two heterozygous forms
(3) a homozygous recessive and heterozygous form
(4) a homozygous dominant and heterozygous form

30) Exploitation of biological resources without proper authorization is called -

(1) Bioethics
(2) Biowar
(3) Biopatent
(4) Biopiracy

31)

Given figure 'a' is transverse section of anther and diagram 'b' is enlarged view of one
microsporangium showing wall layers.In which labelled structures A to F are :
 A → Epidermis, B → Exothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(1)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
A → Epidermis, B → Endothecium,
C → Middle layer, D → Tapetum,
(2)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective
A → Endothecium, B → Epidermis,
C → Tapetum, D → Middle layer,
(3)
E → Connective,
F → Microspore mother cells
A → Middle layer, B → Epidermis,
C → Endothecium, D → Tapetum,
(4)
E → Microspore mother cells,
F → Connective

32) Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean
character value, leads to :

(1) Directional change

(2) Disruptive change
(3) Random change
(4) Stabilising change

33) Meloidogyne incognita could not survive in a transgenic tobacco expressing :

(1) Specific sense mRNA only

(2) Specific interfering RNA
(3) Specific interfering protein
(4) Specific interfering nucleotide

34) Match the following.

Monozygotic
(i) (A)
twins

Carrier for sex

(ii) (B) linked recessive
disease
 (iii) (C) Affacted male

(iv) (D) Normal female

(1) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – D

(2) (i) – D, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – B
(3) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – A
(4) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A

35) Path of energy flow in an ecosystem is:

(1) Herbivorous → producer → carnivorous → decomposer

(2) Herbivorous → carnivorous → producer → decomposer
(3) Producer → carnivorous → herbivorous → decomposer
(4) Producer → herbivorous → carnivorous → decomposer

36) Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about

(1) 25 - 50 mm
(2) 25 - 50 m
(3) 50 - 100 m
(4) 20 - 40 mm

37) Genetically modified plants are

(1) Sensitive to abiotic stresses

(2) Low yield providing
(3) Of low nutritional value
(4) Less reliant on chemical pesticides

38) Read the following statements and choose the option which correctly represents True(T) and
False(F) statements.
(a) Traditional hybridisation procedures often lead to inclusion of undesirable genes.
(b) Biotechnology allows inclusion of only desirable genes.
(c) Bioprocess engineering involves maintenance of microbial contamination free ambience.
(d) An alien piece of DNA is linked with origin of replication site, so that, it can make multiple
identical copies in the host.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) T T T F

(2) T T T T

(3) T F T F

(4) F F T T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Due to efforts of Mr. Ramdeo Mishra, the government of India established the National
committee for environmental planning and coordination (1972), which in later years, paved the way
for the establishment of the ministry of environment and forest, he is known as ?

(1) Father of Indian ecology

(2) Father of ecology
(3) Father of ecosystem ecology
(4) Father of biology

40) In RNAi, genes are silenced using :

(1) ss DNA
(2) ds DNA
(3) ds RNA
(4) ss RNA

41) Which of the following structure help in fertilisation of secondary oocyte ?

(1) Centriole of ovum

(2) Acrosome
(3) Tail of sperm
(4) Mitochondria of sperm

42) In the developmental history of mammalian heart it is observed that it passes through a two
chambered fish like heart, three chambered frog like heart and finally four chambered stage. To
which hypothesis can the above cited statement be approximated ?

(1) Biogenetic law

(2) Hardy Weinberg law
(3) Lamarck's principle
(4) Mendelian principles

43) Harshey and Chase experiment was based on :

(1) Conjugation
(2) Transduction
(3) Transformation
(4) Binary fission

44) Complete DiGeorge syndrome is when the child is born without the thymus. Which of the
following processes is likely to be impaired in such individuals?
(1) RBC production
(2) Thyroxine production
(3) Antibody production
(4) Antigen production

45) Which of the following makes uterus unsuitable for implantation.

(1) Progestasert
(2) Multiload-375
(3) Cu-T
(4) Lippes loop

46) Which is correct for Turner's syndrome ?

(1) 45, XO
(2) 44, XO
(3) 46, XO
(4) 47, XO

47) Which of the following is not a characteristic of cleavage?

(1) All cleavage divisions are mitotic and the resultant daughter cells are blastomeres
(2) Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio keeps decreasing in blastomeres
(3) No increase in amount of cytoplasm
(4) Significant increase in amount of DNA

48) "Infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated and released". Given statement is
true for which cell ?

(1) T-killer
(2) T-helper
(3) Macrophage
(4) B-lymphocyte

49) Ovulation typically occurs around which day of a 26 day menstrual cycle?

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 14
(4) 15

50) Which statement is incorrect :-

A mature sieve tube element possesses a peripheral cytoplasm and a large vacuole but lacks a
(1)
nucleus
(2) Phloem fibres are sclerenchymatous
(3) The companion cells help in maintaining the pressure gradient in the sieve tubes
(4) Phloem fibres are generally not found in the secondary phloem.

51) Identify the correct evolutionary line of mammals :-

(1) Sauropsids → Synapsids → Therapsids → Mammals

(2) Synapsids → Sauropsids → Therapsids → Mammals
(3) Sauropsids → Therapsids → Mammals
(4) Synapsids → Therapsids → Mammals

52) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

Changes in population's frequencies due

(A) Mutation (i)
to chance alone

Differences in survival and reproduction

(B) Gene flow (ii)
among variant individuals

Immigration, emigration change allele

(C) Natural selection (iii)
frequencies

(D) Genetic drift (iv) Source of new alleles

(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii) D - (iv)
(2) A - (iv), B - (ii), C - (iii) D - (i)
(3) A - (v), B - (i), C - (iv) D - (ii)
(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii) D - (i)

53) Read the following statements A and B carefully and choose the correct option :
A : mango is a fleshy fruit
B : Its pericarp is differentiated into three distinct layers

(1) Both the statement A and B are incorrect

(2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct

54) Select the correct statement from the following.

Activated sludge in settlement tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of aerobic
(1)
bacteria.
(2) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic bacteria on animal waste
(3) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium found in rumen of cattle
(4) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas contains N2, CO2, SO2

55) In which of the following the seed coat is membranous and generally fused with the fruit wall ?

(1) Maize
(2) Bean
(3) Gram
(4) Pea

56) Assertion: DNA acts as the genetic material with some exception.
Reason: RNA acts as genetic material in all viruses.

(1) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

57) Human liver fluke depends on two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle, they are :-

(1) Snail and Frog

(2) Snake and Fish
(3) Snail and Fish
(4) Snake and Frog

58) Which of the following layer in dicot stem is rich in starch grains ?

(1) Pith
(2) Rhizodermis
(3) Endodermis
(4) Pericycle

59) Given diagram show Morgan experiment between body colour and eye colour, what will be true

for this experiment :-

(1) The strength of linkage between y and w is higher

(2) Crossing over between y and w is higher
(3) The strength of linkage between y and w is low
(4) All the above

60) Fossilization of pollen grains is helped by

(1) Compatible protein

(2) Sporopollenin
(3) Cellulose
(4) Pectin

61) In evolutionary terms, an organism's fitness is measured by its

(1) Health
(2) Reproductive fitness
(3) Mutation rate
(4) Genetic variability

62) Match the following given symbols with interactions:-

(a) + / + (i) Predation

(b) – / – (ii) Amensalism

(c) + / – (iii) Competition

(d) – / 0 (iv) Mutualism

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

63) Match the following column-I with column-II:-

Column-I Column-II

A Test cross 1 9:3:3:1

B Monohybrid cross 2 Tt × tt

C Out cross 3 Tt × TT

D Dihybrid cross 4 3:1

Codes
A B C D

(1) 2 4 3 1

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 3 4 1 2
 (4) 1 4 2 3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Match Column-I with Column-Il and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

a antitrypsin i Transgenic mice

b lactalbumin ii Emphysema

c Safety of polio vaccine iii Cystic fibrosis

d Transgenic model iv Rosie cow

(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

65) After some time of ejaculation, semen liquifies due to presence of an enzyme which is found in
secretion of:-

(1) Vagina
(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Prostate
(4) Cowpers gland

66) Majority of insect pollinated flowers are ?

(1) Large, colourful and fragrant.

(2) Small, colourless and nectarless
(3) Large, colourless and fragrant
(4) Large, colourful, odourless

67) Ecology explains us :-

(1) How organisms, while remaining as an individual interact with other organisms.
(2) How organism, interact with physical environment.
As a group how organisms behave like organised population, community, ecosystem or even as
(3)
the whole biosphere.
(4) All of these

68) Which of the following is NOT a product derived from cannabis plant?

(1) Marijuana
(2) Hashish
(3) Charas
(4) Cocaine

69) Female are heterogamety with two sex chromosome in :

(1) Fruit fly

(2) Grasshopper
(3) Cockroch
(4) Birds

70) This is a graphical presentation of hormones during a menstrual cycle find out A, B, C, D :

(1) FSH, LH, Oestrogen, Progesterone

(2) LH, Oestrogen, Progesterone, FSH
(3) Progesterone, Oestrogen, LH, FSH
(4) Progesterone, FSH, LH, Oestrogen

71) Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting Hardy Weinberg equilibrium?

(1) Gene Flow

(2) Genetic Drift
(3) Mutation
(4) Random mating

72) In a double stranded DNA molecule each step of ascent is represented by a pair of bases. At each
step of ascent, the strand turns :-

(1) 0.34 nm
(2) 36°
(3) 3.4 nm
(4) 34°

73) Assertion : Whales, bats, cheetah and human share similarities in the pattern of bone of
forelimb.
Reason : All of them have humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

74) Which of the following is correct

Angiospermic flower shows an amazing range of adaptations to ensure formation of the end
(1)
products of sexual reproduction the fruits and seeds.
(2) Flowers do not exist only for us to be used for our own selfishness.
(3) All fertile flowering plants shows sexual reproduction.
(4) All of these

75) In Drosophila, how many linkage groups will be represented ?

(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 4

76) Match the Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

a. Diadelphous (i) Chiona Rose

b. Monadelphous (ii) Pea

c. Epiphyllous (iii) Poaceae

d. Staminode (iv) Colchicum

Find correct option :
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

77) Following are the structural features of an ecosystem

(a) Species composition
(b) Energy flow
(c) Decomposition
(d) Stratification

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

78) The given pedigree chart shows the inheritance of which of the following Mendelian disorder ?
(1) Autosomal dominant trait - Myotonic dystrophy.
(2) X-linked dominant trait - Pseudoricketes
(3) Autosomal recessive trait - Sickle cell anaemia
(4) X-linked recessive trait - Haemophilia.

79) Assertion: Humans are sexually reproducing and viviparous.

Reason: The reproductive events in humans include formation of gametes and delivery of the baby.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

80) Humus is degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrient occur by the process
known as:

(1) Decomposition
(2) Humification
(3) Mineralization
(4) Catabolism

81) Which positions in a purine ring are occupied by nitrogen ?

(1) 1st, 3rd, 8th and 9th

(2) 2nd, 5th, 7th and 9th
(3) 1st, 3rd, 7th and 9th
(4) 3rd, 5th, 7th and 9th

82) Identify the molecule shown below and select the right option :-

Options :-

Molecule Present in Biomolecule

(1) Thymine DNA Pyrimidine

(2) Guanine DNA Purine

 (3) Adenine RNA and DNA Purine

(4) Uracil DNA Purine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk
to the infant is categorised as

(1) innate non-specific immunity

(2) active immunity
(3) passive immunity
(4) cellular immunity

84) They may reduce survival, growth and reproduction of host and reduce its population density.
They might render host more vulnerable to predation by making it physically weak. They are

(1) Predators
(2) Parasites
(3) Symbiont
(4) Commensals

85) Statement I : Dinosaur disappeared from earth approximately 65 million years ago
Statement II : First mammals were similar to shrews

Statement I Statement II

(1) True True

(2) True False

(3) False True

(4) False False

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Over 95% of all existing transgenic animals are

(1) Mice
(2) Monkey
(3) Sheep
(4) Cow
87) PCR is a diagnostic procedure based on the principle of _____. Choose the option which correctly
fills the blank.

(1) Gene amplification

(2) Radioactive tagging
(3) Antigen-antibody interaction
(4) Detecting mutated gene

88) Choose the option that represents artificial selection by anthropogenic action

(1) Herbicide resistant varieties

(2) Industrial melanism
(3) Antibiotic resistant microbes
(4) Breeds of dogs created by man

89) Secondary spermatocytes contain how many chromosomes?

(1) 46
(2) 23
(3) 92
(4) 12

90) The capacity of a plant call to generate a whole plant is called :

(1) Totipotency
(2) Explants
(3) Grafting
(4) Somaclonal variation
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 4 1 1 3 4 1 2 4 3 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 1 4 3 4 2 1 3 2 1 1 4 4 4 1 2 1 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 1 1 3 1 3 1 4 1 2 1 2 2 3 4 3 3 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 3 2 1 3 1 2 1 4 1 4 1 4 1 4 1 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 3 2 4 2 4 4 1 2 3 4 4 2 1 1 2 2 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 3 3 4 2 2 1 4 4 2 1 2 2 4 2 4 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 2 3 1 1 2 3 1 4 4 4 3 1 3 3 3 3 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 1 1 3 1 4 4 4 3 4 2 1 4 4 3 1 3 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 3 2 1 1 1 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

L = v0 + fe
15 = v0 + 3 ⇒ v0 = 12 cm

Image by objective:

0
⇒ u = 2.4 cm

3)

; v2 = u2 + 2as ;

⇒ or

4) RAl = RCu

ρAl = ρCu

1.5 =

= = ×3=2

5) ΔE = 8.5 × 234 – 7.6 × 236

= 195.4 MeV = 200 MeV

6) Consider any two equipotential surface.

The magnitude of the electric field is
Potential difference

7)

When we cut the lens parallel to principal axis then the focal length of each part will be equal
to that of initial lens. only intensity of image will be reduced and power will also remain same

When we cut the lens perpendicular to the principal axis; the focal length of each part will be
double the initial value but intensity of image will remain unchanged.

For C

For P

8)

i1 =

i2 = = 20% of i1 =

⇒ =
5=n+1⇒n=4

9)

I0 → Intensity of unpolarised
I → Intensity of light passes through system

I=
⇒

= 12.5 %

10)

Charge on leftmost surface and rightmost surface of combination =

11)

12)

f=

capacitive nature

13) Total flux or flux through curved surface is

14)

VIBGYOR λ↑
λR > λG > λB
⇒ βR > βG > βB
15)
E = 0 for r < a
E = 0 for r > b
potential of outer sphere = 0
potential of inner sphere is V1

V = V1 – V2 = V1 – 0

16)
R A > RB
MAVA > MBVB

17)

18)

→ At point A electric field lines are dense hence electric field is higher, hence EA > EB
→ At point A electric field lines are sinking so point negative part is there so VA < VB

19)

20)

Imax =

=
= 9I

Imin =

=
=I
 21)

Slope of VI curve = Resistance

Slope is continuously decreasing in the diagram.

22)

As loop is moving out from magnetic field So flux of loop decreases so induced current in loop
must flow clockwise (Magnetic field of it in same direction as of external)

23)

When the key is at position (2) for a long time; the energy stored in the inductor is :

0
2
UB = Li = .L .=

This whole energy will be dissipated in the form of heat when the inductor is connected to R1 and
no source is connected.

24) U =

= × 8.85 × 10–12 × 502 × 10 × 10–4 ×.5

= 5.5 × 10–12 J

25)

Wave length of green light is threshold wave length. Hence for emission of electron, wave
length of incident light < wavelength of green light

26) Rate of decrease of area of the semicircular ring

According to Faraday's law of induction induced emf

The induced current in the ring must generate magnetic field in the upward direction. Thus Q
is at higher potential.

27) Electromagnetic wave do not transfer charge.

28) (1) λ1 infra-red

(2) λ2 radio-waves
(3) λ3 x-rays
(4) λ4 ultra-violet rays ⇒ λ2 > λ1 > λ4 > λ3

29)

Number of image =

30)

q' = Nq = 27 q ;
R = N1/3 r ⇒
CBigger=N1/3 Csmaller = (27)1/3 × Csmaller = 3 Csmaller

31) Volume remains same ⇒ AL = A'(2L)

A' = ; Ri =

Rf = = 4Ri

%change = = 300%

32)
33)
Since mv > mR
yR > yv
Red colour has maximum apparent thickness. Hence red colour is least raised.

34)
Let centre is C

VCA = Bωℓ2, VCD = Bωℓ2,

VA = VD So, VAD = 0

35) A microscope consists of lens of small focal lengths. A telescope consists of objective lens
of large focal length.

36) i = η e A νd

νd =

νd = 6.94 × 10–6

37)

ϕ = (B)πr2

as

38)

Capacitor does not depends on charge & voltage

39) Total number of emitted photons depends on energy of each photon. The energy of
photons of two sources may be different.

40)

In above case energy is conserved i.e. Rate of heat dissipation across resistance is equal to
 mechanical power.

41)

42)

For coherenty frequency of both source must be same and have constant phase difference.

43) For equilibrium, = mg

But

or = 0.04
–2
Solving, we get; r = 10 metre.

44)

45)

By using

.......(i)

.......(ii)

From equation (i) by (ii),

CHEMISTRY

47) Diamminesilver (I) dicyanoargentate (I)

49) SN1 reaction rate ∝ stability of carbocation ∝ leaving ability of group

53) NCERT, Class 12th, Part-1, Pg.No: 132 Edition - 2023 - 2024

55)

A – Benzene , B – Toluene

= 200 × 0.5 + 150 × 0.5

= 175 torr

56)

r = k[A]α [B]β

β=1

α=1
r = k[A]1 [B]1

57) (1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

61)

63) Explanation:-
Stronger intermolecular forces mean molecules are held together more tightly.
This makes it harder for them to escape into the gas phase (evaporate).
Weaker intermolecular forces mean easier evaporation.
Concept :-
Given A < B < C (intermolecular forces), A has the weakest forces, and C has the strongest.
Therefore, A will evaporate most readily, and C will evaporate least readily.
Answer option 3, (A evaporates more readily than C).

64)

65)
(I) (II) (III)

68) Question Explanation : For a nth order reaction, relation between half-life period and
initial concentration of reactant is to be found.
Given Data :
Order of reaction : nth order
Initial concentration of reactant = a
Concept :
 For nth order of reaction :

Final Answer : an – 1

69)

Fact.

71) NCERT Pg. # 119

72)

73) NCERT-XI, Part-II, Page # 350

75)

Explanation

A. Kohlrausch's Law: The molar conductivity of an electrolyte at infinite dilution is the sum of
the individual contributions of its ions.

Given Data

A. Λ∞(KCl) = 149.9 S cm2 mol–1

B. Λ∞(KNO₃) = 145.0 S cm2 mol–1
C. Λ∞(HCl) = 426.2 S cm2 mol–1
D. Λ∞(NaOAc) = 91.0 S cm2 mol–1
E. Λ∞(NaCl) = 126.5 S cm2 mol–1

Concept

We need to find Λ∞(HOAc). HOAc dissociates into H+ and OAc– ions.

We can use the following equation: Λ∞(HOAc) = Λ∞(H+) + Λ∞(OAc–)

Calculation

We can obtain these values by manipulating the given data:

A. Λ∞(HCl) = Λ∞(H+) + Λ∞(Cl–)

B. Λ∞(NaOAc) = Λ∞(Na+) + Λ∞(OAc–)
C. Λ∞(NaCl) = Λ∞(Na+) + Λ∞(Cl–)

Therefore, by adding equations 1 and 2, and subtracting equation 3, we get:

Λ∞(HOAc) = Λ∞(HCl) + Λ∞(NaOAc) – Λ∞(NaCl)

Λ∞(HOAc) = 426.2 + 91.0 – 126.5

Λ∞(HOAc) = 390.7 S cm2 mol–1

Answer option 1, (390.7).

76) A. Question Explanation:

Determine the amount of reactant remaining after a specific number of half-lives in
a first-order reaction.
B. Given Data:
• Initial amount of reactant (X) = 10 g
• Reaction order: First-order
• Number of half-lives= 6
C. Concept:

• Half-life: In a first-order reaction, the half-life is the time required for

the concentration of the reactant to decrease to half its initial value.
• Amount Remaining: After each half-life, the amount of reactant remaining is
halved.
D. Mathematical Calculation:

• Amount Remaining after 'n' half-lives: Amount Remaining= Initial Amount ×

• Substitute the values: Amount Remaining= 10 g × Amount Remaining= 10 g ×

Amount Remaining= 0.15625 g
E. Final Answer:
The amount of X left after 6 half-lives is 0.156 g.

77) Crown structure.

80) [5e– + MnO4– + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 4H2O ..(i)] × 2

[C2O42– → 2e– + 2CO2 ....(ii)] × 5
On addition, we get
2MnO4– + 16H+ + 5C2O42– → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O
2 moles of MnO4– required to oxidise 5 moles of oxalate.
∴ Number of moles of MnO4– required to oxidise 1 mole of oxalate = 2/5 = 0.4

81)
 82)

The compound [Co(SO4 )(NH3 )5 ]Br and [Co(SO4 )(NH3 )5 ]Cl represents no any isomerism
because molecular formula is differ.

84)

87) Since solubility of gas decrease with increasing KH.

BIOLOGY

95) NCERT page- 181, 182

98) NCERT Page no 138, 139

99)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 243

105)

The correct answer is; 1. Dominant trait for flower position is Axial

106)

CLASS-XIIth NCERT PAGE NO. 25-26

114) NCERT page- 181, 182

120) NCERT page- 184

121)

XII NCERT Pg # 22
123) NCERT page- 179, 180

124) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 88

126)

NCERT Pg. # 28,29

127) NCERT page- 179

128) NCERT page- 170 to 180

129) NCERT Pg. # 218

130) NCERT page- 179, 180, 181

146) A nucleotide of DNA

147) NCERT XIIth Pg # 200

152)

NCERT XII Pg. # 197

154) NCERT page- 182, 183

155)

NCERT XII, Page # 28

156) NCERT XII pg.# 30(E), 32(H)

157) NCERT XII Pg # 191

162) NCERT XI, pg.#152

164)

NCERT Page # 19

167)
NCERT Pg. # 242

171)

The correct answer is:

3. 1st, 3rd, 7th, and 9th

174)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 235

177) NCERT page- 183

178) [NCERT Pg. 131]