Note 114
Note 114
AD FUNCTIONS
Contents
1. Geometric series 2
2. Nice and easy convergence tests. 6
3. Absolute convergence and the alternating series test 9
4. More convergent tests 11
5. The Integral Test 13
6. Rearrangement 15
7. Product of series 18
8. Euler number 21
9. Euler number as series 24
10. Sequences of complex numbers 27
11. Bounded sequences, closed sets and series of complex
numbers 30
12. Sequences of continuous functions 31
13. Series of continuous functions 36
14. Complex continuous functions and their series 38
15. Power series 42
16. The sum of power series 46
17. The exponential function 47
18. The trigonometrical functions 49
1
2
1. Geometric series
P10 1
Exercise 1. Calculate i=0 3i .
P10000 1
Exercise 2. Calculate i=0 3i
.
P10000 1
Solution: i=0 3i
= 32 (1 − 1
310001
).
P∞ 1
Exercise 3. Calculate i=0 3 .
1 4 1 5 9
π =3+ + + + + + ....
10 100 1000 1000 10000
And now the most important definition of the whole course. But before
that... some revision from MATH113.
3
sequence and ∞
P
i=0 ai is a series.
Remark 1.2. Now we can Solution Exercise 3. In this case, the series
is in the form of ∞
P Pk−1
i=1 ai so the k-th partial sum bk equals to i=0 ai ,
P∞ 1
that is, i=0 3i = limk→∞ bk = limk→∞ 23 (1 − 31k ) = 23 .
P
1−q k
Proof. As we have seen above the k-th partial sum bk equals to 1−q
.
1
Thus, limk→∞ bk exists and equals to 1−q
provided that |q| < 1. Clearly,
if |q| ≥ 1 the partial sums are unbounded, so the series is divergent.
A Historical Remark
4
”In a race, the quickest runner can never overtake the slowest, since
the pursuer must first reach the point whence the pursued started, so
that the slower must always hold a lead.” (Aristotle’s recount of the
Paradox of Zeno)
Zeno of Elea lived almost 2500 years ago. He came up with nine para-
doxes, among them the most famous one was the Paradox of Achilles
and the Tortoise.
The resolution of the Paradox of Zeno is that the whole story takes
place in a finite time frame. It takes t minutes for Achilles to reach the
1
position X1 and then 100
t
minutes to reach the position X2 a further
1
t minutes to reach X3 . Hence, after t ∞ 1 i 100
P
10000 i=0 ( 100 ) = 99 minutes
1000 153
0.153153153.... = 153( − 1) = .
999 999
6
P∞
Proposition 2.1 (n-th term test). Let i=1 ai be a convergent series,
where {ai }∞
i=1 are real numbers. Then, limi→∞ ai = 0.
P∞
Proof. Let pk be the k-th partial sum of i=1 ai . Then by Cauchy
Theorem,
lim |pk − pk−1 | = lim |ak | = 0 .
k→∞ k→∞
P∞
Hence, i=1 ai = 0.
One might think that the converse holds as well. The following exercise
shows that this is far from being true.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1+ + + + + + + + ....
4 4 8 8 8 8 16
P∞
That is, i=1 ai , where
• a1 = 1.
1 1 1
• ai = 2n
if 2n−1
≤i≤ 2n −1
and n ≥ 2.
Answer: Let pk be the k-th partial sums of the series above. Then by
inspection, p1 = 1, p3 = 2, p7 = 3 and in general, p2n −1 = n provided
that n ≥ 2. Hence, limk→∞ pk does not exist. Therefore, our series is
divergent. .
7
well.
k ≥ N we have
N
X
pk − rk = (ak − bk ) .
i=1
Conversely, if for any > 0 there exists L > 0 such that for any M > L
M
X
| aj | ≤
j=L
convergent.
P∞
Proof. Let i=1 ai be an absolutely convergent series. By Proposition
2.4, it is enough to show that for any > 0 there exists some L > 0
such that for any M > L
M
X
| ai | ≤ .
i=L
However, by Proposition 2.4, it follows that for any > 0 there exists
some L > 0 such that for any M > L
M
X
|ai | ≤ .
i=L
Since
M
X M
X
| ai | < |ai | ,
i=L i=L
Proof. Let pk be the k-th partial sum of the series. Then, the sequence
{p2k−1 }∞
k=1 is decreasing. Indeed,
1 1 1
1− + − + ...
2 3 4
is convergent.
1
P
• On the other hand, the harmonic series i=1 i is divergent.
One of the most applicable convergence test is the so-called ratio test.
P∞
Proposition 4.1 (The ratio test). Let n=0 an be a series of real num-
bers. Let us assume that there exists some N ≥ 1 and 0 < r < 1 such
|an+1 |
that |an |
≤ r provided that n ≥ N . Then, the series is convergent.
P∞
Proposition 4.2 (The root test). Let n=0 an be a series of real num-
bers. Let us assume that there exists some N ≥ 1 and 0 < r < 1 such
1
that |an | n ≤ r provided that n ≥ N . Then the series is convergent.
Proof. This is even easier than the ration test. If n ≥ N , then |an | ≤ rn ,
hence our proposition easily follows from the simple comparison test
(we do not even mention the trivial finite modification test).
Proof.
∞
X
an = a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 + a6 + a7 + a8 + · · · ≤
n=0
P∞ 1
Theorem 3 (The p-series). For any p > 1 the series n=0 np con-
verges.
P∞ 1
Proof. By the previous proposition n=0 np converges if
∞ ∞
X
n 1 X
2 pn = (2(1−p) )n
n=0
2 n=0
P∞ 1
converges. Since, 0 < 2(1−p) < 1, the series n=0 2n 2pn is convergent
indeed.
13
You already learned the notion of the improper integral in calculus. Let
R∞
f : [1, ∞) be a positive continuous function. We say that 1 f (x) dx
Rn
exists, if the sequence {in = 1 f (x) dx is bounded. Then, by positivity,
the sequence {in }∞
n=1 is increasing, hence it is convergent. Then, by
definition
Z ∞ ∞
f (x) dx = lim in .
1 n=1
R∞
and we say that the improper integral 1
f (x) dx is finite.
R∞
Exercise 7. Let p > 1, then 1
x−p dx is finite.
Rn
Answer: Observe that 1
x−p = 1
1−p
n1−p − 1
1−p
, hence
Z ∞
1
x−p dx =
1 p−1
Hence,
n
X Z n+1
f (k) ≥ f (x)dx
k=1 1
14
Hence,
n+1
X Z n+1
f (k) ≤ f (x)dx
k=2 1
6. Rearrangement
a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 + a5 = a3 + a4 + a2 + a5 + a1 .
The rearrangement theorem shows that this principle hold for infinite
sums as well. So, what does rearrangement means? Let σ : N → N be
a bijection. Then, the series
∞
X
aσ(n)
n=1
P∞
Theorem 4. Let n=1 an be a convergent series of positive numbers.
Also, let of positive numbers and σ : N → N be a bijection. Then, the
series ∞
P
n=1 aσ(n) is convergent as well, and their sums are equal.
Proof. Let pk be the k-th partial sum of the first series and let rk the
k-th partial sum of the second series. We know that limk→∞ pk = s.
We need to show that limk→∞ pk = s as well. First, we claim that for
16
(1) s − rN ≤ .
P∞ P∞
Proof. Observe that both n a2n+1 and n a2n diverge. We rearrange
the naturals in the following fashion. Let k1 be the first number such
that kn=1 (−1)2n1 −1 an ≤ r . Then, let k2 be the first number such that
P1
k1
X k2
X
−a2n−1 + a2n ≥ r .
n=1 n=1
17
7. Product of series
{an + bn }∞
n=1 is also a convergent sequence and
∞ ∞ ∞
lim an + bn = lim an + lim bn .
n=1 n=1 n=1
The following proposition extends the above sum theorem in the realm
of series.
of the series ∞
P
n=0 an + bn . Then, pk + rk = wk , hence our proposition
P∞
Definition 7.1. The Cauchy product is the series n=0 cn , where
X n
X
(2) cn = aj b k = aj bn−j .
j+k=n j=0
P∞ P∞ P∞
If n=0 an = A and n=0 bn = B, you may expect that n=0 cn = AB.
However, this is false in general. In fact, it’s not even necessarily the
case that cn → 0 as n → ∞.
Let {an }∞ √1
n=1 be a sequence given by the formula a2k−1 = k and a2k =
Now, consider the Cauchy product of this series with itself. Then we
have that
1 1 1 1 1
c2k−1 = √ +p +p +p +. . .+ √
1·k 1 · (k − 1) 2 · (k − 1) 2 · (k − 2) k·1
1 1 1
which is bounded from below by k
+ k−1
+ ... + dk/2e
. The following
exercise and the n-th term test show that the Cauchy product is not
convergent in this case.
1 1
Exercise 8. Let bn = n
+ ... + 2n
. Show that the sequence (bn ) does
not converge to 0.
Answer:
1 1 1 1
bn = + ... + ≤n ≤ .
n 2n 2n 2
product of ∞
P P∞
n=0 an and n=0 bn is a convergent series and the sum of
n
X
Cn = aj Bn−j .
j=0
follows.
21
8. Euler number
n n!
where k
= (n−k)!k!
.
increasing.
1 n 1 n(n − 1) 1
an = (1 + ) =1+n + · 2 + ...+
n n 1·2 n
n(n − 1) . . . (n − n + 1) 1
· n =
1 · 2 · ... · n n
1 1 1 1 2
= 1 + 1 + (1 − ) + (1 − )(1 − ) + . . . +
2! n 3! n n
1 1 2 n−1
(1 − )(1 − ) . . . (1 − ).
n! n n n
Let us write up this expression for an+1 as well.
1 1 1 1 2
an+1 = 1 + 1 + (1 − ) + (1 − )(1 − ) + ...+
2! n+1 3! n+1 n+1
1 1 2 n−1
+ (1 − )(1 − ) . . . (1 − )+
n! n+1 n+1 n+1
1 1 2 n
(1 − )(1 − ) . . . (1 − ).
(n + 1! n+1 n+1 n+1
22
exists.
Using the Proposition 8.1, we can deduce the limits of some other
sequences.
1 n
Exercise 9. Show that limn→∞ (1 + n2
) = 1.
23
q
1 n n 1 n2
Answer: Indeed, we can write bn = (1 + n2
) = (1 + n2
) . Now
since every subsequence of (1 + n1 )n is increasing and bounded by 3, we
1 n2
see that for all n we have (1 + n2
) < 3. Therefore, by the sand-
1
wich rule, we have that 1 ≤ limn→∞ bn ≤ limn→∞ 3 n , so we have
limn→∞ bn = 1.
in exactly the same way as in the q = 1 case. Therefore the limit exists.
q qm
Suppose that n = qm, where m is an integer. Then, (1 + qm
) =
((1 + m1 )m )q hence, for this values limn→∞ (1 + nq )n = eq . Since the limit
exists, clearly limn→∞ (1 + nq )n = eq .
24
P∞ 1
Theorem 7. We have that e is equal to the sum of the series n=0 n!
25
Furthermore {an = (1 + n1 )n }∞
n=1 is an increasing sequence. Let > 0
1 2 K
1 − < (1 − )(1 − ) . . . (1 − ) < 1
m m m
1 2 K
lim (1 − )(1 − ) . . . (1 − ) = 1 ,
n→∞ n n n
1 1 1 1 2 K
1+1+ (1 − ) + . . . + (1 − )(1 − ) . . . (1 − ),
2! n K! n n n
1 1
SK = 1 + 1 + + ... +
2! K!
1 1 2 K
1− > (1 − )(1 − ) . . . (1 − ) ≥ .
n m m m
26
It follows that for all large enough K we have SK < e + e. Thus by
definition, lim supn→∞ Sn ≤ e. By (3) it is clear that lim inf Sn ≥ e.
Thus {Sn }∞
n=1 must converge to e.
Using Exercise (10), following the previous proof, you can easily prove
the following proposition.
This two properties are absolutely crucial, they also hold for real
numbers and, as we shall see soon they hold for continuous functions
as well! One should also note that |zw| = |z||w|.
Our main point is that basically the whole Math113 course can be given
for complex numbers instead of real numbers without any difficulty.
The following proposition looks quite innocent and indeed it is very easy
to prove. However, this proposition is the key tool to translate theorems
of real calculus into theorems of complex calculus in a straightforward
28
{Im(zn )}∞
n=1 are Cauchy.
{Im(zn )}∞
n=1 are both Cauchy sequences.
sequences. Then, for any > 0 we have an N > 0 such that |Re(zn ) −
29
Re(zm )| < 2
and |Im(zn ) − Im(zm )| < 2 . That is by (10) |zn − zm | ≤ ,
so {zn }∞
n=1 is a Cauchy sequence.
are convergent. Hence by our Math113 result, both are Cauchy se-
quences. Applying again our proposition, we obtain that {zn }∞
n=1 is a
Cauchy sequence.
Hence, by our Math113 result, there exists real numbers a and b such
that limn→∞ Re(zn ) → a and limn→∞ Im(zn ) → b. Therefore using our
proposition again, limn→∞ zn → z, where a = Re(z), b = Im(z).
30
Finally we extend the notion of a closed set for the complex numbers.
for any n ≥ 1.
Closed sets of the complex numbers are, in fact, closed sets in the
(complex) plane, so they are much more interesting geometrically than
closed sets of the real line.
31
f (x).
kf k := maxx∈[a,b] |f (x)| .
• kf + gk ≤ kf + gk.
• kλf k = λkf k.
32
Similarly to our theorem in Math113 and the analogous result for com-
plex numbers (Exercise 11) one may ask, whether any convergent se-
quence of continuous functions is Cauchy and conversely any Cauchy
sequence of continuous function is converging to some continuous func-
tion. In the rest of the section, we prove that this is indeed true. The
first part is almost exactly the same as the real version in MATH113.
Proof. Let > 0. We need to prove that there exists N ≥ 1 such that
(5) kfn − fm k ≤
The converse statement is not very hard, but I think it is one of the
most important theorem in elementary real analysis. First, let us recall
the notion of uniform continuity from Math113.
Pick > 0. Then, there exists N ≥ 1 such that kfn −fm k ≤ 3 , provided
that n, m ≥ N . You will see later why we use 3
instead of . Therefore
34
by (6),
(7) |fn (x) − fm (x)| ≤
3
(8) |fN (x) − f (x)| ≤ .
3
Since (8) holds for all x ∈ [a, b], the following lemma finishes the proof
of our theorem.
(9) |fN (x) − fN (y)| ≤
3
defined as limk→∞ pk .
P∞
Proof. Let i=1 fi : [a, b] → R be an absolutely convergent series as
above and pk : [a, b] → R be the partial sums. It is enough to prove
37
that {pk }∞
P
k=1 is a Cauchy sequence. Fix > 0. Since, i=1 kfi k is
convergent, by Proposition 2.4, there exists N ≥ 1 such that for any
l≥1
l
X
kfi k ≤ .
i=N
Hence, {pk }∞
k=1 is indeed a Cauchy sequence. Thus our Theorem fol-
lows.
38
You might wonder whether the famous (, δ)-definition extends to com-
plex functions as well. Yes, it does. The point is that the results of
Section 10 and Section 11 help us to convert basically all the Math113
results from real continuous functions to complex continuous functions,
basically word by word. Again, the theory of complex differentiable
functions is a completely different ball game, you will have an im-
portant course on it in Year 2 and this section may be helpful for
understanding that beautiful theory.
there exists δ > 0 such that for all pairs v, w ∈ BR , |f (v)−f (w)| ≤
provided that |v − w| ≤ δ.
tion 10.1, f (zn ) → f (z) if and only if both Re(f (zn )) → Re(f (z)) and
Im(f (zn )) → Im(f (z)) hold. Hence our proposition follows.
Proof. Word by word, you can follow the proof of the relevant Math113
theorems.
Note that what you understood now is the basics of calculus of two
variables, the complex plane is nothing but the 2-dimensional plane,
similar results can be proven without any trouble in 3 or more dimen-
sions.
kf + gk ≤ kf k + kgk .
The following proposition can be proved in the same way as its real
counterpart.
convergent.
In the Math101 course you learned about Taylor series. There was
a nice function like sin or ex and you considered expressions like
X
f (x) = f (n) (0)xn ,
n=0
2 3
E.g. ex = 1 + x + x2 + x6 + ... Of course, this was a bit formal, you did
not know (it is not easy at all) why the right hand side of the formula
above is truly equal to the left hand side and why the right hand side
has any meaning.
You will learn more about Taylor series in Complex Analysis and un-
derstand more about this phenomenon. In this course we will consider
series in the form n=0 cn xn , where cn is an arbitrary real number and
P
will not show that the sum of the series is a nice differentiable func-
tion and the series is the Taylor series at 0. It is a way much more
cumbersome task.
So, let us start with all basic theorem, which can be proved using the
propositions we had before.
P∞
Theorem 10. Let n=0 an z n be a complex power series (of course, it
is possible that an are real numbers, do not forget that real numbers are
just very special complex numbers). Then exactly one of the following
occurs.
Proof. Let
∞
X
E = {z ∈ C : an z n is convergent} and
n=0
We claim that if |z| < |z0 | then z ∈ E. To see this, note that
z n z
|an z n | = |an z0n | | | ≤ M | |n .
z0 z0
Now,
∞
X z
| |n
n=0
z0
is convergent, being a geometric series with common ratio less than 1.
P∞
Hence n=0 |an z n | is convergent, by the simple comparison test (Propo-
sition 2.1), and so z ∈ E.
and the argument above shows that (2) holds. This finishes the proof
of our theorem.
Exercise 15. Show that there are examples of power series, where the
radius of convergence is 0 or ∞.
1 n
P
Answer: Let us consider the power series n=0 n! z . Then, the se-
quence is absolutely convergent for all values of z ∈ C, since for large
45
enough n,
1 n
| ||z | ≤ 2−n .
n!
tend to infinity for any choice of z > 0. Hence, the radius of convergence
is 0.
Exercise 16. Show that there exist power series where the radius of
convergence is 1 and the power series converges for all values |z| = 1.
X
n−2 z n .
n=1
If |z| > 1, then the n-th terms tend to infinity. If |z| = 1, then
X
n−2 |z n |
n=1
Exercise 17. Show that there exist power series where the radius of
convergence is 1 and the power series converges for no values |z| = 1.
X
nz n .
n=1
If |z| < 1 then the sequence is convergent by the ratio test. If |z| > 1
then the n-th terms tend to ∞. Also, if |z| = 1, the n-th term has
modulus n, so they tend to ∞ as well.
46
convergence R > 0. Let 0 < S < R be a real number. Then the sum of
the power series defines a continuous function on the set BS .
Proof. For |z| ≤ S we have |an ||z n | ≤ |an |S n . We claim that |an |S n
P
n=0
Assume that for n ≥ 1 an is a real number. Then the sum of the series
above defined a continuous real function f on the interval [−S, S]. The
following theorem will be proved in Year 2. The theorem entails that
power series are always Taylor series.
exponential function.
n n
X xk y n−k 1 X n k n−k (x + y)n
cn = = x y = ,
k=0
k!(n − k)! n! k=0 k n!
by the binomial theorem. The result now follows from Corollary ??.
and
∞
θ3 θ5 X
n x
2n+1
sin(θ) = θ − + − ··· = (−1) .
3! 5! n=0
(2n + 1)!
What is clear that the radius of convergence of both series are equal
d d
to the infinity. Also, by dθ
sin(θ) = cos(θ) and dθ
cos(θ) = − sin(θ) the
series are really the Taylor series of the respective functions. Later you
will learn that in fact the sum of the Taylor series as a power series
is exactly the respective trigonometrical function. Now by the power
series definition of the exponential function.
∞
X (iθ)n
exp(iθ) = .
n=0
n!
Using the fact that i4n = 1, i4n+1 = i, i4n+2 = −1, i4n+3 = −i, we have
that
∞ ∞
X x2n X x2n
exp(iθ) = (−1)n + i( (−1)n ), .
n=0
(2n)! n=0
(2n)!
50