BIOLOGY
Content:
1. Cell: The unit of life
2. Cell cycle and Cell division
3. Biomolecules
4. Morphology of Flowering plants
5. Anatomy of Flowering plants
Cell: The unit of life
Q1. Which of the following is true if the lysosome is pierced and the enzymes
are released at a prolonged rate?
A. The enzymes will destroy the cell immediately.
B. The enzymes will destroy the cell very slowly.
C. The complete cell will not be destroyed; enzymes will damage a few
organelles.
D. Nothing will happen to the cell.
Q2. Which of the following options needs to be corrected?
A. Eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes are the 80S while prokaryotic cytoplasmic
ribosomes are 70S.
B. Eukaryotic ribosomes of mitochondria are the 70S, while prokaryotic
ribosomes of mitochondria are 80S.
C. Eukaryotic ribosomes of the chloroplast are the 80S, while prokaryotic
ribosomes of the chloroplast are 70S.
D. All of them are correct.
Q3. Read the following statements.
I. The cell membrane is mainly composed of Lipids and proteins, but they
do not contain cholesterol.
II. Cholesterol decreases membrane fluidity by slowing phospholipid
mobility at low temperatures.
III. Fluidity is important for the formation of intercellular junctions.
Which of the following options is correct in concern with the above
statements?
A. I and II are correct, and II explains I
B. II and III are correct, and II explains III
C. Only III is correct
D. All of the above options are incorrect
Q4. Which methods do not require any carrier or channel for transporting
substances?
A. secondary active transport
B. facilitated diffusion
C. simple diffusion
D. primary active transport
Q5. . Select the correct statement out of the following.
i. The cell membrane is selectively permeable to some molecules
present on the outside of it.
ii. Many molecules can move across the plasma membrane without any
energy requirement, called active movement.
iii. Neutral molecules can cross the membrane by simple diffusion.
iv. The movement of water by simple diffusion is osmosis.
v. Energy-dependent transfer of molecules is called passive transport.
A. i,ii,iv and v
B. iii, iv, and I
C. iii and iv
D. All statements are correct
Q6. The fluid nature of the membrane is vital from the point of view of functions
like cell growth. Weak hydrogen bonds hold the membrane together.
Select the correct statements with respect to factors affecting the fluidity of the
plasma membrane. A. The membrane will remain fluid at even lower
temperatures if its phospholipids are unsaturated.
B. At moderate temperatures, cholesterol decreases membrane fluidity by
slowing phospholipid mobility.
C. at low temperatures, it prevents solidification by upsetting the phospholipid's
standard packing. Thus it acts as a “fluid buffer” of the cell
D. Extremely cold-adapted fish have membranes with a high percentage of
unsaturated hydrocarbon tails, which allows their membranes to stay fluid
Q7. . Unlike animal cells, plant cells are characterized by the presence of a large
central vacuole. The central vacuole performs a variety of functions during plant
growth and development. One of these functions is similar to that performed by
lysosomes in animal cells. Which of the following represent functions of vacuoles
in plants?
(i) Storage of water and salts
(ii) Cell expansion
(iii) Storage of metabolic waste products
(iv) Degradation
A. (i) and (ii) only.
B. (i), (iii) and (iv) only.
C. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
D. (i), (ii) and (iii) only.
Cell cycle and Cell division
Q1.. A gamete with ploidy 4n is the product of its mother gamete whose amount
of chromosome and ploidy after the S phase was
A. 4Cand 4N
B. 2Cand 8N
C. Cand8N
D. None of the above
Q2. Read the following statements.
I. During interphase, chromosomes are not visible through a simple
microscope.
II. During interphase, chromosomes are compact and tightly packed.
III. During the Metaphase, chromosomes can be easily seen through a simple
microscope.
IV. During metaphase, chromosomes are loose and separated.
Select the correct option.
A. I and II both are true, and II explains I
B. III and IV both are true, and IV explains III.
C. Both option (a) and (b) are correct.
D. None of the above are correct.
Q3.Choose the correct option
A. Interphase is the longest cell cycle phase in meiosis.
B. Prophase I is the longest phase in meiosis, consuming 90% of the time of two
divisions.
C. Prophase is the longest of all phases of the M phase in mitosis.
D. All of the above are correct.
Q4.Read the following sentence.
I. The interphase of the cell cycle appears inactive.
II. During interphase, intense metabolic activity and growth occur.
III. The M phase of the cell cycle seems to be undergoing a lot of activities.
IV. Compared to the interphase, less metabolic activity occurs in the M
phase.
Choose the correct option in concern with the above statements.
A. I and II both are correct, and II explains I.
B. I and II are correct, but II does not explain I.
C. III and IV both are correct, and IV does not explain III.
D. III is correct, and IV is incorrect, so IV does not explain III.
Q5. Read the following characteristics of a phase in the cell cycle and predict
which phase is it?
1. The nuclear envelope fragments.
2.The microtubules extending from each centrosome can invade the nuclear
area.
3. Some microtubules attach to the kinetochores, becoming “kinetochore
microtubules, which jerk the chromosomes back and forth.
Select the correct option
A. Prometaphase B. Metaphase C. G2phase D. Anaphase
Q6. How does a somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle
compare with respect to its number of chromosomes and amount of DNA with
a gamete of the same species?
A. It has twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
B. It has the same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA
C. It has twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA
D. It has four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
Q7. Meiosis involves :
A. Two cycles of DNA replication and one cycle of each nuclear division and cell
division
B. Two cycles each of DNA replication, nuclear division and cell division
C. One cycle each of DNA replication, nuclear division and cell division
D. One cycle of DNA replication but two cycles each of nuclear and cell division
Q8. The following events are associated with meiosis.
(i) Appearance of recombinant nodules
(ii) Formation of meiotic spindle
(iii) Formation of chiasmata
(iv) Formation of synaptonemal complex
A. iv→ i→iii→ ii
B. i→ iii→ iv→ ii
C. iv→ iii→ ii→ i
D. iii→ iv→ i→ ii
Q9. A mitotic drug inhibits microtubule formation. Which one of the following
stages of karyokinesis will be the first to get affected by the drug?
A. Metaphase B. Anaphase C. Prophase D. Telophase
Q10. Each male gamete of a coconut plant has 16 chromosomes. The number of
chromosomes in a cell of the white pulp of coconut is:
A. 16 B. 32 C. 48 D. 64
Q11. If the mature egg cell of a diploid organism has 6 chromosomes, then the
total number of chromatids in the Anaphase I of meiosis would be
A. 1.6 B. 24 C. 12 D. 3
Biomolecules
Q1. The number of Correct statements amongst the given statements is :
i. Amino acids are substitute of methane
ii. The Rgroup in serine is hydroxyl-methyl.
iii. Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon.
iv. Glycerol is trihydroxy propane.
v. Lecithin is a phospholipid.
Choose the correct option
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
Q2. What kind of secondary metabolites are Morphine and Concanavalin A
respectively?
A. Lectins, Alkaloids
B. Terpenoids, Drug
C. Alkaloids, Lectins
D. Toxin,Alkaloids
Q3. Which of the following is the correct enzyme catalyzed reaction?
A. Substrate is converted into enzyme
B. Substrate is consumed in the reaction completely
C. Substrate is converted to product
D. Enzyme is converted to product
Q4. Which type of inhibition is shown the following graph
A. Non-competitive Inhibition
B. Uncompetitive Inhibition
C. Competitive Inhibition
D. None of the above
Q5. The following graphs with the solid and dotted lines correspond to the
reactions without and with enzymes, respectively. Which of the following
graph(s) correctly represent the concept of activation energy?
Choose the correct option
A. ii B. iii,iv C. i,ii D. ii,iii
Q6. Regarding factors affecting enzyme activity:
I. Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state
whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity.
II. With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity of the
enzymatic reaction rises at first.
Choose the correct option
A. Only I is correct
B. Only II is correct
C. Both I and II is correct
D. Both I and II is incorrect
Q7. Match the entries in column I and column II. Which one of the following
choices is correct?
A. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
B. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
C. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
D. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
Q8. Match the biomolecules given in Column I with their corresponding
chemical nature given in Column II.
Which one of the following combinations is correct?
1. P- (iii); Q- (i); R- (iv); S- (ii)
2. P- (ii); Q- (iv); R- (iii); S- (i)
3. P- (iv); Q- (ii); R- (i); S- (iii)
4. P- (i); Q- (iii); R- (ii); S- (iv)
Q9. The sequence of a double stranded DNA, which produces a
pentapeptide is given below:
5’- TACATGATCATTTCACGGAATTTCTAGCATGTA- 3'
3'- ATGTACTAGTAAAGTGCCTTAAAGATCGTACAT- 5’
The correct mRNA sequence corresponding to the pentapeptide is
A. 3'-AGU GCCUUAAAGAUCGUA-5'
B. 5'-AGU GCCUUAAAGAUCGUA-3'
C. 5'-AUGAUCAUUUCACGGAAU-3'
D. 3'-AUG UACUAGUAAAGUGCC-5’
Morphology of Flowering plants
Q1. Identify the floral diagram and select the correct characteristic belongs to it
A. Leaves are basal, alternate, linear, exstipulate with parallel venation
B. Flowers are bisexual, zygomorphic
C. Racemose inflorescence
D. None of the above
Q2. Identify the correct matches
A. Apocarpous ovary: lotus, rose
B. Zygomorphic flower: pean, gulmohur, bean, cassia
C. Hypogynous flower: plum, peach, rose
D. Twisted aestivation: china roses, ladies finger and cotton
Q3. Cymose type of inflorescence is where
A. The main axis grows continuously
B. Flowers are present in a basipetal manner
C. The flowers are borne laterally in an acropetal succession
D. All of the above
Q4. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the
other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : A flower is defined as modified shoot wherein the shoot apical
meristem changes to floral meristem.
Reason R: Internode of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral
appendages laterally at successive node instead of leaves.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
A. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
B. A is true but R is false
C. A is false but R is true
D. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
E.
Q5. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a dicotyledonous leaf, the adaxial epidermis generally bears
more stomata than the abaxial epidermis.
Statement II: In a dicotyledonous leaf, the adaxially placed palisade
parenchyma is made up of elongated cells, which are arranged vertically and
parallel to each other.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
A. Statement I is true, but statement II is false
B. Statement I is false, but statement II is true
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Q6. The transverse section of a plant part showed polyarch, radial and exarch
xylem, with endodermis and pericycle. The plant part is identified as :
A. Monocot root
B. Dicot root
C. Dicot stem
D. Monocot stem
Q7. Why cambium is considered as lateral meristem
A. Because it gives rise to lateral branches
B. Because it increases the girth of a plant
C. Because it increases the length of a plant
D. None of these
Q8. The vessel elements of angiosperms differ from other elements of xylem in
having
A. Simple pits on their radial walls
B. Bordered pits on their lateral walls
C. Simple and bordered pits on their end walls
D. Simple perforation on their end walls
Q9. The correct situation of mesophyll in isobilateral grass leaf is shown by
A. Palisade towards adaxial surface
B. Palisade towards abaxial surface
C. Undifferentiated mesophyll
D. Palisade along both the surface
Q10. In a vertical section of a dorsiventral leaf, the protoxylem in its midrib
bundle
A. Faces the dorsal epidermis of the leaf
B. Faces the ventral epidermis of the leaf
C. Is not distinct
D. Is surrounded by metaxylem
Q11. Match the following and choose the correct combination.
A. A-4, B-5, C-2, D-1,E-3
B. A-5, B-3, C-1,D-2,E-4
C. A-4, B-5 ,C-1,D-2 ,E-3
D. A-2, B-5, C-3, D-4, E-1
E. A-4,B-2 , C-5 , D-3, E-1
Q12. Select the false statements
A. The first formed primary xylem elements are called metaxylem and the later
formed primary xylem is called protoxylem
B. The radial conduction of water takes place by the ray parenchymatous cells.
C. Phloem fibers (bast fibers) are made up of sclerenchymatous cells.
D. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards the center (pith) and the metaxylem
lies towards the periphery of the organ. This type of primary xylem is called
exarch.
Q13. Find the correct alternatives
A. In the dicotyledons, the vascular bundles have no cambium present in them.
Hence, since they do not form secondary tissues they are referred to as closed
B. In monocotyledonous stems, cambium is present between phloem and
xylem
C. When xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle are arranged in an
alternate manner along the different radii, the arrangement is called radial
such as in roots
D. The conjoint vascular bundles usually have the phloem located only on the
outer side of xylem.
Q14. Which one of the following statements regarding seed structure is
INCORRECT?
A. Coleoptile and coleorhiza are found in monocotyledonous seeds
B. The endosperm is not present in some of the mature dicot seeds
C. In dicots, the outer layer of the seed coat is called the testa
D. In monocot seeds, the membranous seed coat that is fused with the fruit
wall is called the aleurone layer.
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