DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 01 – (CA2251)
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
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THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
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omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
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have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
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has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
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THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN ALL THE
QUESTIONS.
i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

 VAJIRAM & RAVI
1. Which one of the following glaciers has shrunk to 4. Which one of the following statements best
the point where it no longer qualifies as a glacier describes the term “Doctrine of lis pendens”?
(a) It refers to a legal right granted to a party in a
and was recently downgraded from a glacier to an
lawsuit to prevent the other party from selling
ice field?
or transferring the disputed property.
(a) Humboldt (b) It allows the court to appoint a neutral third
(b) Vatnajokull party to manage the disputed property until
(c) Aletsch the case is resolved.
(d) Perito Moreno (c) It ensures that any transfer of immovable
property during pending litigation does not
affect the rights of the parties involved.
2. Which of the following benefits are available to (d) It ensures that any legal action regarding
the ‘registered political parties’ in India? immovable property must be settled before it
1. Tax exemptions for donations received can be transferred.
2. Allocation of a common symbol for contesting
5. Consider the following:
general elections
1. Vice President
3. Free advertising slots on national television
2. Cabinet Minister
and radio 3. Senior citizens aged 85+
4. Priority access to public venues for rallies 4. Paramilitary forces
and events 5. Persons employed in essential services
How many of the above are eligible to be
5. Permission to designate twenty star
“Absentee voters” under the Conduct of Election
campaigners
Rules, 1961?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) Only two
below: (b) Only three
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (c) Only four
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) All five

(c) 2, 4 and 5 only

6. Which of the following atmospheric conditions
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only can result in turbulence in an airplane?
1. Eddies caused because of irregular terrain
3. “Golden Rice” is a new type of rice developed 2. Convective currents with rising warm air
through genetic engineering to produce beta- 3. Friction between the opposing air masses
4. Changes in wind direction over a specific
carotene, in the edible parts of the rice. This
vertical distance
modification aims to address:
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) protein-energy malnutrition below:
(b) essential fatty acids deficiency (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) carbohydrate deficiency (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) vitamin A deficiency
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
7. Consider the following statements with reference 10. Which one of the following is causing the rivers
to the Financial Services Institutions Bureau and streams in the Arctic range to appear orange
(FSIB): over the past five to ten years?
1. Its chairperson is nominated by the Reserve (a) Increase in iron-rich dust carried by strong
winds
Bank of India.
(b) Sediment runoff due to increased deforestation
2. It has been established under the Department activities
of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance. (c) Release of toxic metals from thawing
3. It appoints whole-time directors for senior permafrost
positions in Public Sector Banks (PSBs). (d) Increased volcanic activity in the region
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one 11. Consider the following statements:
(b) Only two Statement-I:
Chir Pine trees are highly inflammable and prone
(c) All three
to forest fires.
(d) None
Statement-II:
Chir Pine trees have resin-rich needle leaves and
8. With reference to the Reserve Bank of India’s gold twigs.
loan norms, consider the following statements: Which one of the following is correct in respect of
1. Lenders cannot lend more than 75% of the the above statements?
value of the gold. (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
2. No gold loan money can be disbursed in the and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
form of cash.
correct, but Statement–II does not explain
3. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)
Statement–I
cannot lend against gold as collateral. (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect
correct? (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
(a) 1 only correct
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only 12. With reference to the National Savings Certificate
(NSC) Scheme, which of the following statements
(d) 1, 2 and 3
are correct?
1. The account can be opened by both citizens
9. With reference to the rangelands, consider the and non-citizens.
following statements: 2. There is no maximum limit nor a limit on the
1. They are primarily used for cultivating crops number of deposits.
due to their fertile soil. 3. NSC can be transferred to another person on
2. They can help in reducing the frequency of the death of the account holder only.
dust storms. 4. The certificates are accepted as collateral for
secured loans in banks and NBFCs.
3. Grazing by domestic livestock on rangelands
Select the correct answer using the code given
can help to reduce the risk of wildfires.
below:
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
13. Consider the following statements: 15. Consider the following pairs:
Statement-I: Vector Disease Type of
The central bank holds gold in its reserves Pathogen
1. Anopheles Malaria Parasite
primarily to diversify its assets base. 2. Aedes Dengue Virus
Statement-II: 3. Tsetse fly Leishmaniasis Bacteria
Gold acts as a hedge against inflation and foreign 4. Sandflies Sleeping Virus
sickness
currency risks.
In which of the above rows is the given information
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
correctly matched?
the above statements?
(a) 1 and 2
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
(b) 2 and 3
and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(c) 3 and 4
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
(d) 1 and 4
correct, but Statement–II does not explain
Statement–I
16. The ‘FinTech Repository’, ‘PRAVAAH Portal’
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is and ‘Retail Direct Scheme’, recently seen in the
incorrect news, are launched by:
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is (a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
correct (b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI)
14. Akshay, a young professional, was approached (c) NITI Aayog
on LinkedIn by someone claiming to represent a (d) Union Ministry of Finance
reputable organisation and offering him a lucrative
position. Akshay submitted personal information 17. Consider the following statements with reference
over several weeks and believed the offer was to the Commission on Crime Prevention and

legitimate. Eventually, he was required to pay Criminal Justice (CCPCJ):

a "processing fee" and further fees for different 1. It was established by the Economic and Social
Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
"verification processes after." By the time Akshay
2. It functions as a governing body of the
realised he had been duped, he had lost a large
United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
amount of money. In the context of emerging
(UNODC).
frauds and scams, which one of the following
Which of the statements given above is/are
terms best applies to the above scenario?
correct?
(a) Advance fee fraud
(a) 1 only
(b) Pig butchering
(b) 2 only
(c) Juice jacking
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) SQL injection (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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18. Ghugwa National Fossil Park, recently seen in the 21. With reference to the difference between ‘AI
news, is located in: Agents’ and Large Language Models (LLMs),
consider the following statements:
(a) Andhra Pradesh
1. While LLMs can only generate human-like
(b) Chhattisgarh
text, AI Agents make interactions with the
(c) Jharkhand help of voice, vision, and environmental
(d) Madhya Pradesh sensors.
2. Unlike LLMs, AI Agents are designed for
19. Consider the following pairs: real-time conversations with responses much
similar to humans.
Protected Designated under 3. LLMs lack contextual awareness, while
Area
AI Agents can learn from the context of
1. Critical TigerWildlife (Protection) Act, interactions.
Habitat 1972
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Critical Scheduled Tribes and Other
Wildlife Traditional Forest Dwellers (a) 1 and 2 only
Habitat (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006 (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Biodiversity Biological Diversity Act, (c) 1 and 3 only
Heritage Site 2002
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Eco-Sensitive Environment (Protection)
Zone Act, 1986
22. Phanigiri, Vardhamanukota, and Gajula Banda,
How many of the pairs given above are correctly recently seen in the news, are famous:

matched? (a) playwrights

(b) traditional musicians
(a) Only one pair
(c) trade routes
(b) Only two pairs
(d) Buddhist sites
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs 23. With reference to fire safety rules in India, consider
the following statements:
1. The fire services fall under the purview of the
20. “Hemophilia”, “Muscular dystrophy” and
State Governments.
“Turner’s syndrome” are associated with which
2. The National Building Code (NBC) restricts
one of the following? industrial and hazardous buildings from
(a) Y chromosome coexisting with residential and business
(b) X chromosome structures in fire zones.

(c) Mitochondrial DNA Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(d) Nucleolus
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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24. With reference to the Treaty on Intellectual 27. Which one of the following is not correct
Property, Genetic Resources and Associated regarding the Materiovigilance Programme of
Traditional Knowledge (2024), consider the India (MvPI)?
(a) It was formally launched in 2015 at the Indian
following statements:
Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC).
1. It was adopted at the Diplomatic Conference
(b) It aims to ensure the quality of medical
held under the aegis of the World Intellectual devices used in the country.
Property Organization (WIPO). (c) It is regulated by the National Pharmaceutical
2. It mandates that applicants must disclose the Pricing Authority (NPPA).
country of origin of genetic resources for any (d) It helps in identifying any potential risk
claimed inventions. associated with the medical device.
Which of the statements given above is/are
28. Consider the following statements:
correct?
Statement-I:
(a) 1 only
The weakening of magnetic field during evolution
(b) 2 only facilitated the emergence of early life forms on the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Earth.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement-II:
The weakening magnetic field allowed charged
25. “Global Red List of Mangrove Ecosystems” particles from the sun to strip hydrogen from
Earth's atmosphere.
which shows that more than 50% of mangrove
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
ecosystems are at risk of collapse by 2050, is
the above statements?
released by: (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
(a) World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF) and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(b) International Union for Conservation of (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
Nature (IUCN) correct, but Statement–II does not explain
(c) United Nations Environment Programme Statement–I
(UNEP) (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
incorrect
(d) Conservation International
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
correct
26. Which of the following is/are the possible
consequences of any unlawful/illegal sand mining 29. Consider the following countries:
in the coastal zone? 1. Kiribati
1. Increased coastal erosion 2. Marshall Islands
2. Contaminating freshwater aquifers 3. Solomon Islands
4. Fiji
3. Lowering of riverbeds
5. Comoros
Select the correct answer using the code given
How many of the above are members of the Forum
below: for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC)?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only two
(b) 3 only (b) Only three
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Only four
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All five

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30. With reference to the Zero Debris Charter, 34. Consider the following:
consider the following statements: 1. Supernovae
1. It was signed under the aegis of the European 2. Active Galactic Nucleus
Space Agency to become debris-neutral in 3. Asteroids
space by 2030. 4. Fast Radio Burst
2. It is a legally binding agreement.
5. Eclipses
3. India is one of the first countries to ratify the
How many of the above are known as “astronomical
charter.
transients”?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only two
correct?
(b) Only three
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Only four
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All five
(d) 1, 2 and 3
35. Consider the following pairs:
31. The “Manama Declaration of 2024”, was recently Places often Country
seen in the news in the context of: mentioned in the
news
(a) Arab League
1. Enga Province Papua New Guinea
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council 2. Campi Flegrei Ukraine
(c) African Union 3. El-Fasher Sudan
(d) European Union 4. New Caledonia France

How many of the pairs given above are correctly

32. They are known for their unique floating
matched?
behaviour. They often lie on their backs at the
(a) Only one pair
water's surface, sometimes gathering in groups or
entangling themselves in kelp forests for stability. (b) Only two pairs
While floating, they use rocks to crack open (c) Only three pairs
shellfish like clams and mussels and they also (d) All four pairs
feed on sea urchins, crabs, squid, octopuses and
fish. This is the most likely description of: 36. Arrange the following countries in descending
(a) Sea Otters order based on their trade deficit with India in
(b) Seals 2023-24:
(c) Dugong 1. China
(d) Sea lions 2. Russia
3. South Korea
33. The terms "AlphaFold and RoseTTAFold" are
Select the correct answer using the code given
sometimes seen in the news in the context of:
below:
(a) advancements in quantum computing
(a) 1-2-3
algorithms
(b) 2-1-3
(b) strategies for mitigating climate change
(c) genetic modification of crop plants (c) 1-3-2
(d) drug development using Artificial Intelligence (d) 2-3-1

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37. “Carlsberg Ridge” and “Afanasy-Nikitin 40. With reference to the Economic Capital
Seamount (ANS)” are located in which one of the Framework (ECF) of the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI), consider the following statements:
following water bodies?
1. It was adopted as per recommendations of the
(a) Indian Ocean Bimal Jalan Committee.
(b) Pacific Ocean 2. It determines the level of risk provisions and
(c) Atlantic Ocean profit distribution under the Reserve Bank of
India Act, 1934.
(d) Arctic Ocean
3. It requires the central bank to pay profits to
the government after provisions for debts,
38. Consider the following information: asset depreciation and staff contributions.
Textile Description State How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
1. Bagru Traditional Rajasthan
method of hand- (b) Only two
block printing (c) All three
2. Bagh Intricate floral Madhya
and geometric Pradesh (d) None
designs
3. Kalamkari Block-printed Tamil Nadu 41. With reference to the Pre-packaged Insolvency
cotton textile
4. Sambalpuri Unique tie-dye Odisha Resolution Process (PPIRP), consider the
process called following statements:
Ikat
1. It is an alternative resolution mechanism
In which of the above rows is the given information specifically designed for Micro, Small,
correctly matched? and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) facing
(a) 1 and 3 financial distress.
2. It is initiated only when the default exceeds
(b) 2 and 4
more than Rs. 1 crore.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 3. It facilitates an informal understanding
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 between creditors and debtors, unlike the
corporate insolvency resolution process.
39. In the context of recent developments, what is Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
“Ferroptosis”?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Process of iron absorption in the intestines (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Iron-dependent, non-apoptotic type of cell (d) 1, 2 and 3
death
42. RudraM-II, recently seen in the news, is a/an:
(c) Programmed cell death triggered by viral
(a) solid-propelled air-to-surface missile
infection (b) submarine-launched ballistic missile
(d) Method for enhancing zinc in fortified foods (c) stealth reconnaissance drone
(d) supersonic cruise missile

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43. Consider the following pairs: 46. With reference to the International Booker Prize,
Report Released by consider the following statements:
1. It is awarded annually for a single work of
1. Regional Economic International fiction which has been translated into English.
Outlook for Asia Monetary Fund
And Pacific 2. It can be awarded to writers of any nationality
2. Global Trade Update World Trade as long as their books are published in the UK
Report Organisation
3. Global Financial World Bank
and /or Ireland.
Stability Report 3. ‘‘Kairos’’ by Jenny Erpenbeck has won the
4. Global World Economic International Booker Prize 2024.
Competitiveness Forum
Report How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
(b) Only two
matched?
(c) All three
(a) Only one pair
(d) None
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
47. Consider the following pairs:
(d) All four pairs
Dam in news River State
44. “The mission is designed for a pair of tiny satellites
1. Ujani Bhima Maharashtra
to measure a little-studied portion of the radiant 2. Idukki Periyar Kerala
energy emitted by Earth, for clues about sea ice 3. Chungthang Teesta Sikkim
loss, ice-sheet melting and a warming Arctic”. 4. Mullaperiyar Kaveri Tamil Nadu
The mission in question refers to: In which of the above rows is the given information
(a) Bepi-Colombo correctly matched?
(b) Europa Clipper (a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) ASTHROS (b) 2 and 4
(d) PREFIRE (c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
45. With reference to the food irradiation technique in
India, consider the following statements: 48. Which one of the following regional groups has
1. It extends the shelf life of foods by eliminating recently acquired a ‘legal personality’ status and
microorganisms and insects. henceforth will be able to enter into structured
2. It is regulated under the Environment diplomatic dialogue with other groupings and
(Protection) Act of 1986. countries?
3. Irradiated products can be identified by the (a) South Asian Association for Regional
'Radura' logo. Cooperation (SAARC)
Which of the statements given above are correct? (b) BRICS
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral
(c) 1 and 3 only Technical and Economic Cooperation
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (BIMSTEC)

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49. With reference to the Kanwar lake, consider the 53. Liquid nitrogen has applications in which of the
following statements: following?
1. It is Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake. 1. Cryotherapy for treating abnormal tissues
2. It is formed due to the meandering of the 2. Giving a smokey effect to foods
Kosi river.
3. Preservation of biological samples
3. It is the only wetland in Bihar under the
Select the correct answer using the code given
Ramsar Convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are below:
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only

54. Consider the following statements with reference

50. “PRAGATI- 2024”, recently seen in the news,
to the Shaksgam Valley:
aims to:
(a) promote traditional dance and music forms in 1. It borders Xinjiang Province of China to the
India north and Siachen Glacier region to the east.
(b) explore research opportunities in the 2. The Shyok river flows through the Shaksgam
Ayurveda drug industry valley region.
(c) develop new agricultural techniques for Which of the statements given above is/are
sustainable farming correct?
(d) enhance digital literacy among rural
(a) 1 only
populations
(b) 2 only
51. Consider the following pairs: (c) Both 1 and 2
Port Country (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Kankesanthurai Sri Lanka 55. Consider the following statements with reference
2. Odessa Ukraine
to the elections in India:
3. Haifa Saudi Arabia
4. Dammam Israel
1. A person released on bail or has been in
preventive detention can vote.
How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched? 2. A person convicted and sentenced to
(a) Only one pair imprisonment for not less than two years
(b) Only two pairs is disqualified from contesting elections to
(c) Only three pairs Parliament or State Legislatures.
(d) All four pairs 3. The Election Commission of India (ECI)
does not have the power to remove or reduce
52. The Keeling Curve, sometimes seen in the news, the period of disqualification of a candidate.
is associated with estimation of:
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) ongoing changes in the concentration of
(a) Only one
carbon dioxide in Earth’s atmosphere
(b) drying up of wetlands in the African countries (b) Only two
(c) melting of glaciers due to climate change (c) All three
(d) rising forest fires in the Amazon rainforest (d) None

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56. Which one of the following designates the 60. Consider the following materials:
‘International days’ celebrated worldwide? 1. Compost
(a) United Nations Educational, Scientific and 2. Mechanically treated waste
Cultural Organization (UNESCO) 3. Dewatered sewage sludge
(b) United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) 4. Yard waste
(c) United Nations Security Council (UNSC) How many of the above can be used as biocover
(d) United Nations Economic and Social Council to control methane emissions?
(ECOSOC) (a) Only one
(b) Only two
57. Consider the following pairs: (c) Only three
Lunar Mission Country (d) All four

1. Artemis European Space 61. Consider the following statements with reference
Agency (ESA)
2. Chang’e-6 China
to Diffusion Transformer (DiT) AI Model:
3. SLIM Japan 1. Diffusion models have become the most
preferred for AI that generates images.
How many pairs given above are correctly 2. DiT is essentially a class of diffusion models
matched? that are based on the transformer architecture.
(a) Only one pair Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only two pairs correct?
(c) All three pairs (a) 1 only
(d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
58. Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Supreme Court of India has reserved one-
third of the seats for women in the executive
62. Consider the following statements:
committee of the bar association.
Statement-I:
2. The representation of women judges in Indian
If someone undergoes an Magnetic Resonance
courts has increased in the past 5 years.
Imaging (MRI) scan with a credit card in their
Which of the statements given above is/are
pocket, the magnetic strip on the card gets wiped
correct?
off.
(a) 1 only
Statement-II:
(b) 2 only
The magnetic strip on the credit card is attracted to
(c) Both 1 and 2
a strong magnetic field in the MRI environment.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
59. Which one of the following statements best the above statements?
describes the term 'goldene'? (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
(a) A type of mineral on the coasts of Africa that and Statement–II explains Statement–I
contains gold deposits (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
(b) An artificial element produced by synthesising correct, but Statement–II does not explain
gold Statement–I
(c) A lattice of gold that stands out for being (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
flexible and exhibiting a high resistance incorrect
(d) A free-standing sheet of gold that is only one (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
atom thick correct

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63. Meson, Baryons and Gluons are sometimes seen 67. Nairobi Declaration, 2023, is associated with
in news in the context of: which one of the following?
(a) Quarks (a) Production and storage of renewable energy
(b) Asteroid
(b) Combating desertification and land
(c) Electron
degradation
(d) Nebulae
(c) Reduction of deforestation in hilly areas
64. Consider the following statements: (d) Prioritize domestic fertiliser production
1. It is the second-largest brackish water lagoon
in India after Chilika. 68. Consider the following statements with reference
2. It is spread between Tamil Nadu and Andhra to the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP):
Pradesh. 1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
3. It encompasses a bird sanctuary.
2. It aims to comprehensively develop
Which one of the following lakes is described
select villages in Arunachal Pradesh and
above?
(a) Sasthamkotta Uttarakhand.
(b) Pulicat 3. It is implemented by the Ministry of Home
(c) Kolleru Affairs.
(d) Vemband Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
65. Nitrogen Tetroxide and Monomethyl Hydrazine
(b) 2 and 3 only
are commonly used as:
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) pesticides
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) industrial lubricants
(c) rocket propellants
(d) food preservatives 69. In India, the Right to Shelter has been recognized
as a:
66. Consider the following statements with reference (a) legal right
to the India Employment Report, 2024: (b) natural right
1. The rate of unemployment in India has
(c) fundamental right
declined in the past 5 years.
(d) civil right
2. There has been an increase in the female
workforce participation (FWFP) rate from
2019 to 2023. 70. Laser Powder Bed Fusion technique and Design
3. In comparison to the wages of regular workers, for Additive Manufacturing (DfAM), were
the wages of casual workers decreased during recently seen in news in the context of:
2019-22. (a) chromatography
How many of the above statements are correct? (b) 3D printing
(a) Only one
(c) genetic engineering
(b) Only two
(d) quantum computing
(c) All three
(d) None

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
71. Consider the following statements with reference 75. The terms “Orca, Endurance and Mammoth” are
to the Auroras: sometimes seen in the news in the context of:
1. They are restricted to poles of both the (a) carbon capture and storage
northern and southern hemispheres. (b) soil erosion mitigation
2. The colors in the aurora are independent of
(c) production of biofuels
the altitude on which they form.
(d) reduction of marine pollution
3. They have been observed on Jupiter, Saturn
and Uranus.
How many of the above statements are correct? 76. Consider the following:
(a) Only one 1. PAHAL
(b) Only two 2. Surya Nutan
(c) All three 3. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
(d) None How many of the above initiatives have been
directed to reduce household air pollution?
72. Consider the following statements with reference
(a) Only one
to the Inter-Services Organisations (Command,
Control and Discipline) Act, 2024: (b) Only two
1. The Central Government can establish an (c) All three
Inter-Services Organization comprising (d) None
personnel from at least two of the three
military branches. 77. Trichoderma asperellum is a:
2. The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is the (a) biocontrol agent against plant pathogens
ex officio chairperson of the Inter-Services
(b) chemical pesticide for controlling weeds
Organisations.
(c) fertiliser for enhancing crop growth
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (d) insecticide for combating rice pests
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 78. Consider the following statements with reference
(c) Both 1 and 2 to the World Wildlife Crime Report, 2024:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is published annually by the Wildlife Trade
Monitoring Network.
73. The term “nitroplasts” is associated with:
2. Between 2015 and 2021, the tiger and
(a) genetically modified bacteria
sandalwood trees were the most affected by
(b) mitochondrial derivatives
(c) nitrogen-fixing organelle the global illegal wildlife trade.
(d) protein-synthesizing organelles 3. Rhino horn, pangolin scales and elephant
ivory form the largest portion of the illegal
74. It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of animal trade.
Education. It aims to ensure every child has basic Which of the statements given above is/are
skills of the ability to read with meaning and solve correct?
basic math problems by Class 3 by 2026-27. This
(a) 1 and 2 only
is the most likely description of:
(b) 3 only
(a) Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan
(b) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (c) 2 only
(c) Sankalp Mission (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) Nipun Bharat Mission

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
79. Which one of the following best describes the 82. Consider the following statements:
characteristics of a cyclical disease? 1. ‘Floor Test’ is conducted when the Chief
(a) It exhibits fluctuations in prevalence over Minister appointed by the Governor is
time. asked to prove majority on the floor of the
(b) It has a recurring pattern of outbreaks in a
Legislative Assembly of the State.
region over time.
2. ‘Composite Floor Test’ is conducted when
(c) It demonstrates the regular and continuous
the majority is not clear and more than one
transmission of a disease over time.
person claims to form the government.
(d) It shows a continuous rise in cases over time.
3. The Constitution of India explicitly provides

80. With reference to the solar moss, consider the the provisions of Floor Test to determine
following statements: whether the incumbent government enjoys
1. It is formed mainly due to chromospheric the support of the legislature.
jets that shoot up from the Sun’s lower Which of the statements given above are correct?
atmosphere. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. It is formed in regions where the magnetic
(b) 2 and 3 only
conditions are particularly strong.
(c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 83. Consider the following pairs:

(c) Both 1 and 2 Award Awarded for

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Padma Distinguished service of a
Vibhushan high order
2. Padma Distinguished service
81. They are water-filled vertical caverns found in Bhushan
coastal regions where the bedrock is made of 3. Padma Shri Exceptional and
distinguished service
soluble material, such as limestone, marble or
4. Bharat Ratna Exceptional service of the
gypsum. They form when water on the surface highest order in any field
of human endeavour
percolates through the rock, dissolving minerals
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
and widening cracks, which eventually causes the
matched?
rock to collapse. This is the most likely description
of: (a) Only one pair

(a) Sea stack (b) Only two pairs

(b) Blue holes (c) Only three pairs
(c) Sea cave (d) All four pairs
(d) Stalagmites

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
84. With reference to the Cook Islands, consider the 87. With reference to the Juvenile Justice (Care and
following statements: Protection of Children) Act, 2015, consider the
1. It is a group of coral atolls lying in the South following statements:
Pacific Ocean. 1. The Juvenile Justice Board (JJB) acts as
2. It has the world's largest documented a quasi-judicial body that presides over
collection of Polymetallic nodules. criminal cases involving offenders under 18.
3. It is located in the Clarion-Clipperton Zone. 2. It creates 'Children's Courts' to try juveniles
4. It is self-governing country in ‘free
as adults for committing heinous crimes.
association’ with New Zealand.
3. A Zero FIR is registered in all cases against
Which of the statements given above are correct?
juveniles.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
correct?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
85. Consider the following:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Kabartal Wetland
3. Chandertal Wetland 88. With reference to the hydropower energy

4. Hokera Wetland generation in India, consider the following

How many of the above have Constructed Wetland statements:

systems? 1. Hydropower is a major source of electricity
(a) Only one generation in India, contributing to more than
(b) Only two 50% of the total capacity of generation in
(c) Only three 2022-23.
(d) All four 2. The share of hydro-based generation capacity
has consistently increased in the past 10
86. The soil nailing technique is used to: years.
(a) fencing the agricultural fields to prevent Which of the statements given above is/are
attack by wild animals
correct?
(b) plant trees across the fallow land
(a) 1 only
(c) prevent runoff of the nutrients in plain areas
(b) 2 only
during rainfall
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) stabilise slopes to prevent the potential
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
landslides

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
89. With reference to the ‘NISAR satellite,’ consider 92. Consider the following statements:
the following statements: Statement-I:
1. It is jointly developed by NASA and ISRO. Ultra-processed foods (UPF) enhance the overall
2. It is the first satellite mission to collect radar health and well-being of populations.
data in two microwave bandwidth regions. Statement-II:
3. It will be launched into a polar Sun- UPF are entirely made with substances extracted
synchronous dawn-dusk orbit. from food through chemical modification.
4. It will study the water-stressing and measure Which one of the following is correct in respect of
tectonic plate movements accurately. the above statements?
How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
(a) Only one and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(b) Only two (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
(c) Only three correct, but Statement–II does not explain
(d) All four Statement–I
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
90. Consider the following countries : incorrect
1. France (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
2. Saudi Arabia correct
3. Germany
4. United Arab Emirates 93. Consider the following statements regarding the
5. United States of America Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
How many of the above are members of the India- (CDSCO):
Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) 1. It was established under the provisions of the
project? Pharmacy Act, 1948.
(a) Only two 2. It is responsible for controlling the quality of
(b) Only three imported drugs in the country.
(c) Only four 3. Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is
(d) All five the final authority for the approval of clinical
trials.
91. The ‘Widal Test’ is done to detect the pathogen for Which of the statements given above is/are
which one of the following diseases? correct?
(a) Black fever (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Leprosy (b) 1 only
(c) Cysticercosis (c) 3 only
(d) Typhoid (d) 2 and 3 only

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
94. The BHISHM portable cubes, sometimes seen in 97. Which one of the following situations best
the news, are an initiative of: describes the phenomena of Urban Heat Island?
(a) A city or parts of a city experience much
(a) Indian Army to conduct joint military
warmer temperatures than nearby areas
exercises to enhance operational capabilities (b) The increase in the temperature of the
(b) Indian Air Force to drop portable hospital to seawaters close the urban infrastructures
(c) The rise in the Carbon Dioxide released by
cater to emergencies
the use of automobiles in the city spaces
(c) Indian Navy to adopt newer submarine (d) The transient rise in temperature of the areas
designs surrounding the garbage burning sites
(d) Border Roads Organisation (BRO) to build
98. Consider the following statements regarding the
all-weather roads Orangutans:
1. They are the largest arboreal mammals.
95. Consider the following statements: 2. They are primarily carnivores.
3. They are only found in the rainforests of the
1. Armoured Sailfin Catfish can clean algal
islands of Borneo and Sumatra.
growth in tanks and aquaria. How many of the above statements are correct?
2. Armoured Sailfin Catfish is endemic to the (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Western Ghats of India.
(c) All three
3. A sea anemone is a herbivorous marine (d) None
creature.
4. Some sea anemones can burrow into sand. 99. Ankit was accused of a crime for which he was
given a short-term temporary relief through bail.
Which of the statements given above are correct? He was granted bail on the ground of his no chance
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only of tampering with the evidence. The period for
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only his bail can be extended unless he does not pay
the bail bond to confirm or extend the bail. In the
(c) 1 and 4 only
above scenario, which one of the following bail
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only was granted to Ankit?
(a) Regular bail
(b) Interim bail
96. Consider the following pairs:
(c) Anticipatory bail
Place often seen The disputed territory (d) Medical Bail
in the news between India and
1. Susta Bhutan 100. Consider the following statements with reference
2. Saltora ridge Pakistan to the U. N. Trust Fund for Counter-Terrorism
3. Kalapani Nepal (UNCTTF):
1. It was established in 2009 by the UN
How many of the above pairs are correctly Secretary-General.
2. India is the largest contributor to the fund.
matched?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one pair correct?
(b) Only two pairs (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) All three pairs
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Current Affairs Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 01 – (CA2251)

Answer Key
&
Detailed Answer Explanations
 CA Test – 01 (CA2251) - Answer Key
1. (a) 11. (a) 21. (d) 31. (a) 41. (c) 51. (b) 61. (c) 71. (a) 81. (b) 91. (d)
2. (b) 12. (c) 22. (d) 32. (a) 42. (a) 52. (a) 62. (a) 72. (a) 82. (d) 92. (c)
3. (d) 13. (a) 23. (c) 33. (d) 43. (b) 53. (d) 63. (a) 73. (c) 83. (a) 93. (d)
4. (c) 14. (b) 24. (c) 34. (b) 44. (d) 54. (a) 64. (b) 74. (d) 84. (d) 94. (b)
5. (a) 15. (a) 25. (b) 35. (c) 45. (c) 55. (b) 65. (c) 75. (a) 85. (a) 95. (c)
6. (d) 16. (a) 26. (d) 36. (a) 46. (c) 56. (b) 66. (b) 76. (c) 86. (d) 96. (b)
7. (d) 17. (c) 27. (c) 37. (a) 47. (a) 57. (b) 67. (d) 77. (a) 87. (a) 97. (a)
8. (a) 18. (d) 28. (a) 38. (c) 48. (d) 58. (c) 68. (b) 78. (b) 88. (d) 98. (b)
9. (b) 19. (d) 29. (c) 39. (b) 49. (a) 59. (d) 69. (c) 79. (b) 89. (d) 99. (b)
10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (a) 40. (c) 50. (b) 60. (d) 70. (b) 80. (c) 90. (d) 100. (a)

Q1.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Venezuela is believed to be the first modern nation to lose all its glaciers. According to the International
Cryosphere Climate Initiative (ICCI), the country's last remaining glacier, the Humboldt (also known as La
Corona) in the Andes, has diminished to the point where it no longer qualifies as a glacier. Consequently, it
has been reclassified as an ice field, marking a significant environmental milestone for the South American
nation.
● Latest studies have found that the Humboldt glacier has shrunk to an area of less than 2 hectares. Hence,
its classification was downgraded from glacier to ice field as the US Geological Survey says a commonly accepted
guideline for a glacier is around 10 hectares.
Points to remember:
❖ Venezuela once hosted six glaciers in the Sierra Nevada de
Mérida mountain range.
❖ By 2011, only the Humboldt Glacier remained.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Knowledge Box
International Cryosphere Climate Initiative (ICCI):
● It was established in 2009 at the U.N. Climate Change Conference in Copenhagen. Comprising
a network of senior policy experts and researchers, ICCI collaborates with governments and
organizations to develop and implement strategies aimed at preserving the Earth's cryosphere.
What is the cryosphere?
● The cryosphere refers to Earth’s ice in all its forms. The cryosphere includes:
○ Snow on the ground
○ Lake and river ice
○ Frozen ground and permafrost
○ The Antarctic and Greenland ice sheets, ice caps, and glaciers
○ Ice shelves and icebergs
○ Sea ice
Relevance: Venezuela is believed to be the first modern nation to have lost all of its glaciers.

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Q2.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act) outlines the requirements for the registration of
political parties with the Election Commission of India (ECI). To register, a political party must submit a
copy of its memorandum or Constitution, which must declare the party's true faith and allegiance to the
Constitution of India. The document must also affirm the party's commitment to the principles of socialism,
secularism and democracy and uphold the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. As per the Election Commission
of India, there are 2,790 active registered political parties in India.
● The following are the benefits available for the Registered political parties:
○ Tax exemptions for donations received under the Income Tax Act, 1961. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Allocation of a common symbol for contesting general elections to the Lok Sabha and State
Assemblies. So, point 2 is correct.
○ Permission to designate twenty ‘star campaigners’ during election campaigns. So, point 5 is correct.
● Free advertising slots on national television and radio and priority access to public venues for rallies
and events are not the benefits available to the registered political parties. These benefits are usually reserved
for recognized political parties, which meet specific criteria set by the election commission. So, points 3 and 4
are not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Recognised Political Parties:

● A registered party is referred to as a Registered Unrecognised Political Party (RUPP).
Political parties can be recognized as 'National' or 'State' parties under the provisions of the
Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 (Symbols Order) by
the Election Commission of India (ECI).
● To achieve this recognition, parties must meet specific criteria, including winning a requisite
number of seats and/or obtaining a required percentage of votes in a general election to the
Lok Sabha or State Assembly. Currently, there are six recognized 'National' parties and fifty-
seven recognized 'State' parties. These recognized parties enjoy additional benefits, such as
having a reserved symbol during elections and the ability to designate forty ‘star campaigners’.
Deregistration of Political parties:
● The Representation of the People Act (RP Act) of 1951 does not grant the Election
Commission of India (ECI) explicit powers to de-register a political party for failing to
contest elections, conduct internal elections, or submit requisite returns.
● In the case of Indian National Congress versus the Institute of Social Welfare & Ors
(2002), the Supreme Court held that the ECI does not have the authority to de-register
political parties under the RP Act. The ECI may only de-register a party under exceptional
circumstances, such as if the registration was obtained fraudulently, the party ceases to adhere
to the Constitution, or if it is declared unlawful by the Government.
Relevance: The repeated violations of the Model Code of Conduct by star campaigners underscore the need to empower
the Election Commission to de-register political parties for such infractions.

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Q3.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Golden Rice: The International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) and its national research partners created
Golden Rice to supplement existing initiatives focused on addressing Vitamin A Deficiency (VAD), a major public
health concern that affects millions of children and pregnant women worldwide.
● It has the potential to alleviate VAD in nations across South and Southeast Asia, where rice accounts for a
significant share of daily calorie intake, particularly among communities largely reliant on rice for sustenance.
● It is intended to complement existing VAD prevention techniques, such as ingesting natural sources of vitamin
A or beta-carotene, fortified meals, vitamin A supplements, and fostering optimum breastfeeding
practices.
● In July 2021, the Philippines became the first country in the world to approve Golden Rice for commercial
propagation.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, a court in the Philippines overturned biosafety permits that had been granted for the commercial
cultivation of genetically modified Golden Rice and Bt eggplant.

Q4.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The “Doctrine of lis pendens” ensures that any transfer of immovable property during pending
litigation does not affect the rights of the parties involved. It is intended to maintain the status quo and
protect the interests of the parties until the dispute is resolved by the court. It prevents the transfer of property
from complicating the legal process and affecting the outcome of the litigation.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Supreme Court recently ruled that even if Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1881 (TPA) does
not apply, the doctrine of lis pendens, based on justice, equity, and good conscience, still holds.

Q5.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RPA) generally requires voters to cast their ballots in person
at their designated polling station, during the specified date and hours, using Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs).
However, to ensure inclusivity and allow every eligible voter to exercise their franchise, special exceptions have
been made for certain categories of voters. These categories are permitted to use alternative methods of voting.
Following are the alternative voting methods and the groups eligible for them:
● ‘Postal ballot’ allows voters who cannot be physically present in polling stations to vote remotely, as specified
in the RPA, 1951. This method differs from normal voting in three ways.
○ Polling takes place outside the polling station;
○ It takes place without EVMs;
○ Polling takes place before the designated poll date in the constituency.
○ As per the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, the following classes of persons are entitled to vote by
postal ballot:
■ Special voters: Individuals holding declared office under Section 20(4) of RPA, including the
President, Vice President, Governors, Cabinet Ministers, other high-ranking dignitaries, etc.
and their spouses. So, points 1 and 2 are not correct.
■ Service voters: Members of the Indian armed forces, paramilitary forces, an armed state
police member serving outside their state, or a government employee stationed abroad and their
spouses residing with them. So, point 4 is not correct.
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 ■ Voters on election duty: This includes all Commission’s observers, Presiding officers, polling
officers and agents, police personnel, and public servants assigned official tasks on polling day.
Private individuals and non-government staff, such as videographers, control room staff, drivers,
conductors, cleaners, helpline staff, etc., are also covered.
■ Electors subjected to preventive detention.
○ Absentee voters under Section 60 (c) of RPA, 1951: In 2019, the Election Commission created the
‘Absentee Voters’ category. This includes senior citizens aged 85+ (AVSC), persons with disabilities
having at least 40% disability (AVPD), COVID-19 suspect or affected persons (AVCO), and persons
employed in essential services (AVES). So, points 3 and 5 are correct.
■ AVES includes officials certified to be on duty on the day of the poll but not on election duty,
including railways, telecom, electricity, health, traffic, aviation, fire services, media persons
authorised by ECI for poll day coverage, etc.
So, only two of the above are eligible to be “Absentee voters” under the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q6.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Turbulence is one of the most unpredictable of all the weather phenomena that are of significance to pilots. It
is an irregular motion of the air resulting from eddies and vertical currents. It is associated with fronts, wind shear,
thunderstorms, etc.
● The following are the causes of turbulence in an airplane:
○ Mechanical Turbulence:
■ Caused by friction between the air and the ground, especially due to irregular terrain and
man-made obstacles.
■ In strong winds, even hangars and large buildings can cause eddies that are carried some
distance downwind. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Thermal (Convective) Turbulence:
■ Found during the day, especially on warm summer days when the sun heats the Earth's surface
unevenly.
■ Surfaces like barren ground and rocky and sandy areas heat more rapidly than grass-covered fields
and water.
■ Isolated convective currents with warm air rising and cooler air descending create bumpy
conditions as an airplane flies through them. So, point 2 is correct.
○ Frontal Turbulence:
■ This is caused by the lifting of warm air by the sloping frontal surface and friction
between the opposing air masses in the frontal zone. So, point 3 is correct.
■ Most are marked when the warm air is moist and unstable, and extremely severe if thunderstorms
develop.
■ More commonly associated with cold fronts but can also be present, to a lesser degree, in warm
fronts.
○ Wind Shear Turbulence:
■ Caused by changes in wind direction and/or wind speed over a specific horizontal or
vertical distance. So, point 4 is correct.
■ It occurs in areas with temperature inversions, along troughs and lows, and around jet streams.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

Clear Air Turbulence (CAT):

● It refers to a sudden and severe disturbance that causes significant jolting of an aircraft despite
the absence of clouds. These invisible air pockets can emerge unexpectedly and are challenging
to forecast.
Relevance: According to the U.S. National Transportation Safety Board turbulence-related incidents are becoming quite
common nowadays.

Q7.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB):
● It has replaced the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) to select the chiefs of public sector banks and insurance companies.
○ BBB was originally set up in 2016 to select the CEOs and Executive Directors of public sector banks and
the chiefs of insurance companies.
● It comprises a chairperson nominated by the Central Government; the secretaries of the departments
of financial services and public enterprises; the chairman of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
of India; and a deputy governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). So, statement 1 is not correct.
● It is a professional body under the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance, with autonomy
in its affairs and has its own secretariat. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Composition of FSIB:
● FSIB is the single entity for making recommendations for the appointments of whole-time directors and
non-executive chairpersons of:
○ Public Sector Banks (PSBs)
○ Financial Institutions (FIs)
○ Public-Sector Insurance (PSI) companies.
● FSIB would recommend the name and the final decision would be taken by the Appointments Committee of
the Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister of India. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● Additionally, it has three part-time members who are experts in banking and three more from the insurance
sector.
So, none of the statements given above are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Other provisions of the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB):

● It also advises the government on a suitable performance appraisal system for whole-time
directors and non-executive chairmen of the state-run financial services institutions.
● It builds a data bank relating to the performance of Public-Sector Banks (PSBs), FIs and insurance
companies.
● It advises the government on the “formulation and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics
for whole-time directors” in these institutions.
● It helps state-run banks, Financial Institutions (FIs) and insurers in developing business strategies
and capital raising plans, etc.
Relevance: FSIB recently recommended the name of IFCI Managing Director Manoj Mittal as SIDBI Chairman and
Managing Director.

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Q8.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently emphasized the need for gold loan lenders to adhere strictly to
regulatory norms. This move aims to tighten oversight over Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) following
instances of regulatory non-compliance.
● The RBI stipulates lenders to comply with certain norms while lending money in lieu of gold. For instance, lenders
are not allowed to lend any amount of money that is greater than 75% of the value of the gold that
is submitted as collateral by the borrower. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ This is to ensure that banks have sufficient cushion to absorb any losses by selling the gold in case the
borrower defaults on the loan.
● In order to comply with income tax rules, the RBI also mandates that when a loan is disbursed to a borrower,
no more than ₹20,000 can be disbursed in the form of cash; the remaining loan amount needs to be
deposited in the borrower’s bank account. It also instructs lenders to conduct the auction of any gold (in case a
borrower defaults) fairly and transparently in locations that are accessible to the borrowers. So, statement 2 is
not correct.
● NBFCs are allowed to lend against gold as collateral. The NBFCs expect the RBI’s scrutiny of their lending
practices to affect their growth and profitability. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC):

● It is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956.
● It is engaged in the business of loans and advances and the acquisition of
shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by the Government or local authority.
● It cannot accept demand deposits;
● It does not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn
on itself;
● The deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not
available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in the case of banks.
Relevance: Recently the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) have asked gold loan lenders to stick to regulatory norms while
lending.

Q9.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Rangelands:
● They are uncultivated grasslands, shrublands, woodlands, wetlands and savannas that are suitable for grazing
and browsing domestic and wild animals. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Sustainable management of rangelands contributes as carbon sinks to mitigate the changing climate and
reduce the dust storms frequency. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Domestic livestock grazing often reduces fine fuels which if left unchecked creates a greater risk of
wildfire. Some grazing by domestic livestock protects important habitats for rare and endangered flora and fauna
species. So, statement 3 is correct.
● In India, rangelands occupy about 121 million hectares and the area used for grazing is estimated at around 40 per
cent of the total land surface of India, including grasslands (17 per cent), and forests (23 per cent).
● They provide renewable resources such as clean water and wind for energy production and nonrenewable
resources like oil, coal, and other minerals.
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Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent report by the United Nations presents a concerning outlook on the world’s rangelands, estimating
that up to 50 per cent are degraded.

Q10.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● According to a recent study, rivers and streams in Alaska have been
changing colour from a clear blue to a rusty orange due to
toxic metals released by thawing permafrost.
● The researchers discovered that discolouration and cloudiness are
caused by metals such as iron, zinc, copper, nickel, and lead.
These metals, some of which are toxic to river and stream
ecosystems, are released as permafrost thaws and exposes
waterways to minerals that have been locked underground for
thousands of years.
● Arctic soils naturally contain organic carbon, nutrients and metals, such as mercury, within their permafrost. High
temperatures have caused these minerals and the water sources around them to meet as permafrost melts.
● This discolouration has been linked to “dramatic declines” in aquatic life, raising concerns about how the
continued melting of permafrost will affect communities that rely on those waterways for drinking and fishing.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Permafrost:
● It is any ground that remains completely frozen—32°F (0°C) or colder—for at least two
years straight. These permanently frozen grounds are most common in regions with high
mountains and in Earth’s higher latitudes—near the North and South Poles.
● It covers large regions of the Earth. Almost a quarter of the land area in the Northern
Hemisphere has permafrost underneath. Although the ground is frozen, permafrost regions are
not always covered in snow.
● It is made of a combination of soil, rocks and sand that are held together by ice. The soil and
ice in permafrost stay frozen all year long.
● Near the surface, permafrost soils also contain large quantities of organic carbon—a material
leftover from dead plants that couldn’t decompose, or rot away, due to the cold. Lower
permafrost layers contain soils made mostly of minerals.
Relevance: According to a recent study, rivers and streams in Alaska are undergoing a colour transformation due to the
release of toxic metals from thawing permafrost.

Q11.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Chir Pine trees, also known as Pinus roxburghii, are known for their high flammability and contribution to
forest fires in the Himalayas and other regions. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Chir Pine trees have needle-like leaves with a high resin content. Resin is a flammable substance that can easily
ignite and spread fire. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The resin-rich nature of Chir Pine trees, which includes their leaves and twigs, makes them highly
flammable. Resin can easily ignite and sustain fire, contributing to the trees' overall susceptibility to forest fires.

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 Hence, the inflammability and proneness of forest fires of Chir Pine trees can be directly attributed to their resin-
rich composition.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Chir Pine:
● Native to the Himalayas, Chir Pine, also known as the longleaf Indian pine, was not
introduced to the region by the British, contrary to popular belief.
● It is widespread throughout the Western Himalayas, thriving at elevations between 1,000 and
2,000 meters. It covers extensive areas in Garhwal and Kumaon, often seen growing on steep
slopes. The tree is distinguishable by its three needles and round cones, in contrast to the
elongated cones of other pine species.

Q12.
Answer: c
Explanation:
National Savings Certificate (NSC) Scheme:
● It is a government-backed fixed-income investment scheme offered by India Post. It attracts
conservative investors making medium to small-scale investments for five years. The interest rates for NSC are
pre-determined and reviewed/revised by the Ministry of Finance quarterly.
● The following are the features of the National Savings Certificate (NSC) Scheme:
● Who can open:
○ a single adult
○ joint account (up to 3 adults)
○ a guardian on behalf of a minor or on behalf of a person of unsound mind
○ a minor above 10 years in his own name.
○ s/he must be a citizen of India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Deposit:
○ Minimum Rs. 1000 and in multiple of Rs. 100, no maximum limit.
○ Any number of accounts can be opened under the scheme. Hence it has no maximum limit nor a
limit on the number of deposits. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Deposits qualify for deduction under section 80C of the Income Tax Act (1961).
● Transfer of account from one person to another person:
○ NSC may be transferred from one person to another person on the following conditions
only:
■ On the death of the account holder to nominee/legal heirs.
■ On the death of the account holder to the joint holder(s).
■ On order by the court.
■ On pledging of account to the specified authority. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● Loan Collateral:
○ Most banks and NBFCs accept NSC certificates as collateral or security deposits if an investor
is opting for a secured loan. In such instances, banks or post offices attach a transfer stamp to this
certificate and transfer it to the bank or NBFC which will disburse the loan. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

Other provisions of the National Savings Certificate (NSC) Scheme:

● Maturity:
o The deposit shall mature on completion of five years from the date of the deposit.
● Pledging of account:
o NSC may be pledged or transferred as security, by submitting a prescribed application
form at the concerned Post Office supported with an acceptance letter from the
pledgee.
o Transfer/pledging can be made to the following authorities:
▪ The President of India/Governor of the State.
▪ RBI/Scheduled Bank/Co-operative Society/Co-operative Bank.
▪ Corporation (public/private)/Govt. Company/Local Authority.
o Housing finance company.
● Premature closure:
o NSC may not be prematurely closed before 5 years except for the following conditions:
▪ On the death of a single account, or any or all the account holders in a joint
account
▪ On forfeiture by a pledgee being a Gazetted officer.
▪ On order by court.
Relevance: Recently, the Prime Minister of India disclosed his investments in NSC while filing his electoral nomination
to contest the Varanasi Lok Sabha seat in Uttar Pradesh.

Q13.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has shifted over 100 tonnes of gold from the United Kingdom to its
vaults in the country. This is the first time since 1991 that the precious metal has been added to the stock kept in
the country.
● Central banks hold gold as part of their reserves to diversify their assets. Gold is considered a valuable
asset that can provide stability and security, particularly in times of economic uncertainty or when foreign
currency assets may be subject to fluctuations.
● Gold is widely recognized as a hedge against inflation and foreign currency risks. During periods of high
inflation, the value of gold tends to rise. Additionally, gold can protect against foreign currency risks, as its value
is not directly tied to any single currency and it tends to maintain its value over time.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● More than half of RBI’s gold reserves are held overseas in safe custody with the Bank of
England and the Bank of International Settlements, and about a third of it is stored
domestically. The move will also help RBI save storage costs, which are paid to the Bank of
England. According to the annual data released by the RBI, the central held 822.10 tonnes worth
of gold as a part of its foreign exchange reserves as of March 31, 2024, up from 794.63 tonnes
held during the same period last year.
Relevance: Recently the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has shifted over 100 tonnes of gold from the United Kingdom to its
vaults in the country.

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Q14.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Pig Butchering Scam:
● It is a type of smishing that is increasingly prevalent in India's cyber fraud landscape. Scammers build trust via
social media, offering fake job roles and investments to exploit and drain victims' finances. As the
name suggests, the victim is 'fattened up' through validation and friendship before being 'butchered,' or having their
funds stolen. A simple 'Hi' or 'Hello' from a stranger on social media can quickly turn into a major scam.
● This harmful scam involves fake job offers, often overseas, where scammers prey on job seekers by building trust
through emotional manipulation. They create fake apps and websites mimicking real financial
institutions and may pose as romantic interests or supportive friends. Once trust is established, they initiate
significant financial transactions through fake investments or job offers, ultimately draining the victim's finances.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Advance Fee Fraud: This scam involves promising the victim a significant sum of money or
benefits in exchange for an upfront payment.
● Juice jacking: It is a type of cybercrime that involves tampering with a mobile charging
station to steal data from the victim's electronic device.
● SQL injection: It is a type of cyberattack that targets websites and web applications. Attackers
will try to inject malicious code into a website's database queries to steal data, modify
data, or disrupt the website's operation.
Relevance: With ongoing digitalization, India registered around 1.13 million fraud cases, with pig butchering scams
becoming increasingly common.

Q15.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Vectors are living organisms that can transmit infectious pathogens between humans, or from animals
to humans. Many of these vectors are bloodsucking insects, which ingest disease-producing microorganisms
during a blood meal from an infected host (human or animal) and later transmit it into a new host after the
pathogen has replicated.
● Vector-borne diseases are human illnesses caused by parasites, viruses and bacteria that are
transmitted by vectors. In the World, every year there are more than 700,000 deaths from diseases such as
malaria, dengue, schistosomiasis, human African trypanosomiasis, leishmaniasis, Chagas disease, yellow fever,
Japanese encephalitis and onchocerciasis.
● Anopheles and Malaria: Anopheles mosquitoes transmit the Plasmodium parasite, causing malaria. So, row
1 is correctly matched.
● Aedes and Dengue: Aedes mosquitoes are vectors for the dengue virus, which causes dengue fever. So, row
2 is correctly matched.
● Tsetse fly and Sleeping sickness: Tsetse flies transmit the Trypanosoma parasite, causing African
trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness. So, row 3 is not correctly matched.
● Sandflies and Leishmaniasis: Sandflies transmit the Leishmania parasite, causing leishmaniasis, a disease
affecting the skin, mucosal surfaces, and internal organs. So, row 4 is not correctly matched.

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Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the spread of the mosquito species Anopheles stephensi across Africa poses a significant problem
to a continent already heavily burdened by malaria.

Q16.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Retail Direct Scheme: It was launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2021 which enables individual
investors to directly purchase government securities issued by both Central and State Governments. By
removing intermediaries, this scheme simplifies the investment process, enhancing transparency and accessibility
for investors.
● PRAVAAH Portal (Platform for Regulatory Application, Validation and Authorisation): It is a secure
and centralised web-based portal for any individual or entity to seek authorisation, licence, or regulatory
approval on any reference made by it to the RBI.
● FinTech Repository: It has been launched by the RBI to capture essential information about fintech
entities, their activities, technology uses, etc. Simultaneously, a related repository called EmTech
Repository, which is being launched for only RBI-regulated entities (banks and Non-Banking Financial
Companies (NBFCs)) on their adoption of emerging technologies (like ArtificialIintelligence (AI), Machine Learning
(ML), cloud computing, Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT), Quantum Computing, etc.).
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

Government Securities (G-sec):

● These are investment instruments issued by governments to raise funds. They offer a low-risk
investment option with fixed interest rates. Treasury bills are short-term securities with
maturities of less than 12 months, while bonds are issued for longer durations.
● RBI has introduced a mobile application named the 'G-sec app' under its Retail Direct
Scheme. This initiative is designed to simplify the process of investing in government securities
(G-secs) for retail investors.
Relevance: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a mobile application named the 'G-sec app' under its Retail
Direct Scheme.

Q17.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice (CCPCJ):
● It was established by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) in 1992 upon request of the United
Nations General Assembly (UNGA) as one of its functional commissions. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It acts as the principal policy-making body of the United Nations in the field of crime prevention and criminal
justice. Its mandate includes improving international action to combat national and transnational crime and the
efficiency and fairness of criminal justice administration systems.
● The UNGA further expanded the mandates of the CCPCJ to enable it to function as a governing body of the
United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) and to approve the budget of the United Nations
Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Fund. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The CCPCJ is the preparatory body for the United Nations Crime Congresses. Declarations adopted by the
congresses are transmitted through the CCPCJ and the ECOSOC to the GA for endorsement.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The 33rd session of the Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice was held recently.

Q18.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Ghugwa National Fossil Park:
● It is located in Madhya Pradesh. The site was declared a National Park in 1983. It is home to some of the oldest
plant fossils in India. It has plants in fossil form that existed in India anywhere between 40 million and 150
million years ago. Depending on the age in which the Pangaea split into Laurasia and Gondwanaland occurred, the
fossils belong to either Jurassic or Cretaceous Age.
● Recently, an interesting discovery was made in this fossil park where a team of archaeologists conducting research
in Bandhavgarh National Park and Tiger Reserve, found prehistoric artefacts made from fossil wood. This
discovery suggests that ancient hunter-gatherers used fossilised tree trunks as raw materials to create their tools
and artefacts.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Archaeologists from Ashoka University recently discovered prehistoric artifacts crafted from fossil wood at
the National Fossil Park in Ghugwa, Madhya Pradesh.

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Q19.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH): It is designated under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. These areas are
crucial for tiger conservation, identifying core regions within tiger reserves vital for their survival and breeding.
So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Critical Wildlife Habitat (CWLH): It falls under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. These areas are part of national parks and wildlife
sanctuaries required to be kept inviolate for wildlife conservation. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS): These are the areas with unique biodiversity, designated under the
Biological Diversity Act, 2002. These areas are recognized for their exceptional biodiversity value, including
unique flora and fauna and threatened species. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
● Eco-sensitive Zone (ESZ): They are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. These zones
are surrounding protected areas like national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, aimed at regulating activities that could
impact these protected regions negatively. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
So, all four of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Supreme Court has ordered the Rajasthan government to shut 68 mines operating within the periphery
of the Critical Tiger Habitat (CTH) of the Sariska Tiger Reserve.

Q20.
Answer: b
Explanation:
X chromosome:
● It is one of the two sex chromosomes in humans (the other is the Y chromosome). The sex chromosomes
form one of the 23 pairs of chromosomes in each cell. The X chromosome spans about 155 million DNA building
blocks (base pairs) and represents approximately 5 percent of the total DNA in cells.
● In mammals, the females have two copies of the X chromosome while the males carry a single copy.
The X chromosome is more significant than its role in determining sex. Recent genomic studies have shed light
on the fundamental biological processes the X chromosome modulates and the genes it encodes. The gathering
evidence suggests in fact that it plays a part in a variety of biological functions as well as controls the sex-specific
susceptibility to certain diseases.
● There are over 500 X-linked genetic diseases, primarily affecting males. Many are relatively common, such as red-
green colour blindness, which affects about 8% of males. Duchenne muscular dystrophy, caused by
mutations in the dystrophin gene, affects 1 in every 3,500-5,000 boys in India, and agammaglobulinemia, an
immunodeficiency disorder, affects around 1 in 200,000 live births.
● Scientists also recognize X chromosome aneuploidies. Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by an extra X
chromosome (XXY), while Turner’s syndrome involves the loss of one X chromosome in females (X
instead of XX).
● Hemophilia is a well-known X-linked recessive genetic disorder. The genes responsible for normal blood
clotting are located on the X chromosome. Males with only one altered copy on their X chromosome (females
have two X chromosomes) can exhibit Hemophilia symptoms.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, scientists have found a molecular link between altered X-chromosome inactivation and autoimmune
diseases.

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Q21.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Artificial Intelligence (AI) Agents are sophisticated Artificial Intelligence (AI) systems that can engage in real-
time, multimodal (text, image, or voice) interactions with humans. Unlike conventional language models,
which solely work on text-based inputs and outputs, AI agents can process and respond to a wide variety of inputs
including voice, images, and even input from their surroundings.
● Large language models (LLMs) are a category of foundation models trained on immense amounts of
data making them capable of understanding and generating natural language and other types of content to perform
a wide range of tasks.
● Difference between ‘AI Agents’ and Large Language Models (LLMs):
○ While LLMs like GPT-3 and GPT-4 can only generate human-like text, AI Agents make
interactions more natural and immersive with the help of voice, vision, and environmental
sensors. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ Unlike LLMs, AI Agents are designed for instantaneous, real-time conversations with responses
much similar to humans. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ LLMs lack contextual awareness, while AI Agents can understand and learn from the context
of interactions, allowing them to provide more relevant and personalised responses. Also, language
models do not have any autonomy since they only generate text output. So, statement 3 is correct.
○ AI Agents, however, can perform complex tasks autonomously such as coding, data analysis, etc. When
integrated with robotic systems, AI Agents can even perform physical actions.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

The following are the potential uses of AI agents:

● AI agents can serve as intelligent and highly capable assistants. They are capable of handling an
array of tasks, from offering personalised recommendations to scheduling
appointments. Reports suggest that AI agents can be ideal for customer service as they can
offer seamless natural interactions, and resolve queries instantly without actually the
need for human interventions.
● In the field of education and training, AI agents can act as personal tutors, customise
themselves based on a student’s learning styles, and may even offer a tailored set of
instructions. In healthcare, they could assist medical professionals by providing real-time
analysis, diagnostic support, and even monitoring patients.
Relevance: Both the recently launched GPT-4o by OpenAI and Project Astra by Google can process real-world
information using audio and visual inputs to deliver intelligent responses.

Q22.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Recently a hoard of lead coins belonging to the Ikshvaku period was found during the latest round of excavations
by archaeologists at the early historic site of Phanigiri in Telangana.
● Phanigiri is part of a cluster of Buddhist sites in the region, which includes Vardhamanukota, Gajula
Banda, Tirumalagiri, Nagaram, Singaram, Aravapalli, Ayyavaripalli, Arlagaddagudem, and Yeleswaram. Strategically
located on a hilltop along the ancient trade route Dakshinapatha, which connected the west and east coasts of the
Deccan.

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 ● Phanigiri hosts one of the most significant Buddhist monasteries. This evolved Buddhist monastery surpasses the
monasteries at Amaravathi and Vijayapuri (Nagarjunakonda) in Andhra Pradesh.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent excavation by archaeologists at the early historic site of Phanigiri in Telangana uncovered a hoard
of lead coins from the Ikshvaku period.

Q23.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● According to the XII Schedule of the Constitution under Article 243(W), the fire services in India are under
the purview of the State Governments and are listed as a municipal function. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The National Building Code (NBC), published by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), serves as the
central standard for fire safety in the country. Published in 1970, it was last updated in 2016.
● The NBC provides guidelines on the construction, maintenance and fire safety of buildings. It is a “mandatory
requirement” for all States to incorporate the recommendations in their local building bylaws.
● The Code specifies the demarcation and restrictions of buildings in fire zones to ensure that industrial and
hazardous structures do not co-exist with residential, business and institutional buildings. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● Buildings are classified into nine groups – residential buildings are in Group A, hospitals in Group C and marriage
halls, nightclubs, and multiplexes in Group D.
● The NBC mentions the material to be used in construction to reduce the threat in case of a fire and minimise
danger before evacuation. It also provides guidelines on height for buildings, floor area ratio, open spaces and
provision of openings in walls and floors to prevent the spread of fire.
● The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) also provides guidelines on fire safety in homes, schools,
and hospitals. However, State Governments are required to incorporate NBC recommendations into local
building bylaws, as fire services are a State subject.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to the National Crimes Bureau of India (NCRB), numerous fire incidents over the past two years
were attributed to electrical short circuits.

Q24.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Treaty on Intellectual Property, Genetic Resources and Associated Traditional Knowledge (2024):
● It was adopted at the Diplomatic Conference held under the aegis of the World Intellectual Property
Organization (WIPO) at its headquarters in Geneva. It deals with genetic resources and traditional knowledge
held by indigenous peoples as well as local communities. So, statement 1 is correct.
● This is the first WIPO treaty to include specific provisions for indigenous peoples and local communities. This is
significant because, under current laws, while genetic resources themselves cannot be patented, inventions
developed using them can be protected. These inventions are often based on the traditional knowledge of
indigenous peoples and local communities.
● The treaty mandates that applicants must disclose the country of origin or source of genetic resources
for any claimed inventions. Additionally, if the patent is based on traditional knowledge, the applicant must identify
the indigenous peoples or local community that provided this knowledge. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Despite years of raised concerns, the treaty still fails to address the issue of biopiracy of genetic resources and
associated traditional knowledge through patents.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the Treaty on Intellectual Property, Genetic Resources and Associated Traditional Knowledge was
adopted in Geneva.
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Q25.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Global Red List of Mangrove Ecosystems:
● The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has recently issued a new report titled "Red
List of Mangrove Ecosystems," on International Day for Biodiversity (22nd May).
● According to the first-ever global assessment for the International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN) Red List of Ecosystems, over half of the world's mangroves face the risk of collapse by 2050.
● In the absence of additional conservation efforts, by 2050, about 7,065 km2(- 5%) more mangroves will be lost
and 23,672 km2 (-16%) will be submerged due to sea level rise.
● Sea-level rise is the main threat affecting mangrove ecosystems. According to the methodology used- if we
continue at the current rate:
○ 25% of the global mangrove area is predicted to be submerged in the next 50 years.
○ 1/3 rd of the world’s mangrove ecosystem provinces will be severely affected by sea-level rise.
○ The impact of sea-level rise on mangrove ecosystems will differ regionally: the Northwest Atlantic, North
Indian Ocean, Red Sea, South China Sea, and Gulf of Aden coasts are expected to be particularly severely
affected.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently IUCN released its first-ever global assessment on the Red List of Mangrove Ecosystems.

Q26.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Sand is one of the most extensively utilized natural resources. Moreover, sand is indispensable in infrastructure
development, including roads, houses, buildings, and dams. The escalating demand for sand has spurred a
proliferation of mining activities and businesses. Rapid urbanization stands as the primary catalyst driving this surge.
● Following are the possible consequences of any unlawful/illegal sand mining in the coastal zone:
○ Removing sand disrupts the natural balance of the coastline, weakening barriers against waves and storms.
This leads to increased coastal erosion. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Sand mining near river mouths and coastal areas can disrupt the natural sediment flow. Excessive sand
mining can allow salt water to penetrate further inland, contaminating freshwater aquifers and
rivers used for drinking water and agriculture. So, point 2 is correct.
○ Illegal extraction of sand from riverbeds reduces the sediment load in rivers. This depletion can cause the
riverbed to lower over time, which impacts water flow dynamics, sediment transport and the
overall health of riverine ecosystems. Lower riverbeds can also affect navigation, reduce water
storage capacity during floods, and disrupt habitats for aquatic species dependent on stable riverbed
conditions. So, point 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

River Sharavathi:
● It is a river in western Karnataka. It is one of the few westward-flowing rivers in India and a
major part of the river basin lies in the Western Ghats.
● Course:
○ Rising in the Western Ghats, it flows in a northwesterly direction to the Arabian Sea
at Honavar in Uttara Kannada District.
○ On its way, the Sharavathi forms the Jog Falls, one of the highest waterfalls in India,
where the river falls from a height of 253 m.
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 ● Major Tributaries: Nandihole, Haridravathi, Mavinahole, Hilkunji, Yennehole, Hurlihole and
Nagodihole.
Relevance: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has directed the State Environment Impact Assessment Authority
(SEIAA) to stop any unlawful/illegal sand mining in the Sharavathi River coastal zone.

Q27.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI):
● The Government of India approved and commenced the MvPI with the sole objective of monitoring the safety
and ensuring the quality of medical devices used. It was formally launched in 2015 at the Indian
Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC). It is regulated by the Central Drugs Standards Control
Organization (CDSCO).
● It helps in identifying and addressing any potential risk or adverse event associated with the medical device.
Timely reporting of adverse events allows for the identification of unidentifiable risks, analysing the frequency of
already identified risks and enabling the manufacturers and regulatory authorities to take appropriate measures to
mitigate risks and safeguard public health.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
Knowledge Box

Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC):

● It is an autonomous institution of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and also
functions as the National Coordination Centre (NCC) for the Materiovigilance Programme of
India.
National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA):
● It was constituted by the Government of India in 1997 as an attached office of the
Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers. It aims
to fix/revise the prices of controlled bulk drugs and formulations and to enforce prices
and availability of the medicines in the country, under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 1995.
● It is also entrusted with the task of recovering amounts overcharged by manufacturers for the
controlled drugs from the consumers. It also monitors the prices of decontrolled drugs to keep
them at reasonable levels.
Relevance: The DCGI mandates medical device license holders and manufacturers to report adverse events related to
life-saving equipment on the MvPI platform.

Q28.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● During the Ediacaran Period, which spanned approximately 635 to 541 million years ago, Earth experienced
its weakest magnetic field ever recorded—up to 30 times weaker than today's field—and this low field
strength persisted for at least 26 million years. This period was pivotal in Earth's history as it coincided with the
emergence of complex, multicellular organisms, laying the foundation for a biodiversity explosion.
● The weakened magnetic field allowed charged particles from the sun to strip lightweight atoms like hydrogen from
Earth's atmosphere, causing them to escape into space. This prolonged loss of hydrogen over tens of millions
of years likely contributed to increased oxygen levels in the atmosphere and surface oceans during the
Ediacaran Period. This rise in oxygenation was crucial in facilitating the evolution of more advanced life
forms. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

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 ● Overall, the ultraweak magnetic field during the Ediacaran Period played a significant role in shaping Earth's
environment and promoting the development of complex life forms by enhancing atmospheric oxygen levels over
an extended period.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to a new study, more solar radiation reached Earth while the magnetic field diminished, resulting
in an increase in oxygen and an explosion of multicellular organisms during the Ediacaran Period.

Q29.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC):
● It is a multinational grouping established in 2014 to enhance cooperation between India and 14 Pacific Island
nations, namely Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Samoa,
Solomon Islands, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu. The first meeting of FIPIC
took place in Suva, Fiji, in November 2014, where the annual summit was conceptualised. So, points 1, 2, 3 and
4 are correct.
● Comoros Island is not a member of FIPIC. The Comoros are a group of islands at the northern end of the
Mozambique Channel of the Indian Ocean, between Madagascar and the southeast African mainland. So, point 5
is not correct.
So, only four of the above are members of the Forum for India–Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC).
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: As a member of FIPIC, India has pledged $1 million for relief efforts in flood-hit Papua New Guinea,
demonstrating its solidarity with the affected nation.

Q30.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Zero Debris Charter:
● At the European Space Agency (ESA)/European Union (EU) Space Council, twelve nations have signed
the Zero Debris Charter, reinforcing their commitment to ensuring the long-term sustainability of human activities
in Earth orbit. This initiative, aiming for debris-neutrality in space by 2030, was unveiled at the ESA Space
Summit in 2023. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The charter is a non-legally binding agreement, but it fosters a community of proactive actors working
collectively towards jointly defined targets for 2030. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● It is the first time that countries have subscribed at the national level, boosting Europe as a leader in clean space
while demonstrating widespread acceptance of the charter. Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, Estonia, Germany,
Lithuania, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Slovakia, Sweden and the United Kingdom have all pledged to
adhere to the charter. India has not yet signed the charter. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● ESA estimates that there are currently more than one million pieces of space debris larger than one cm in Earth's
orbit. Each of these objects is capable of causing catastrophic damage to space assets.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Twelve nations have signed the Zero Debris Charter solidifying their commitment to the long-term
sustainability of human activities in Earth orbit.

Q31.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Arab League summit of 2024 in Manama, Bahrain, issued the “Manama Declaration” calling for UN
peacekeeping forces in the Palestinian territories. The declaration emphasizes the need for international
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 protection and peacekeeping by the United Nations in the occupied Palestinian territories until a
two-state solution is realized. Additionally, it urged an immediate ceasefire in Gaza and an end to forced
displacement in Palestinian territories.
● The convening leaders emphasized the immediate cessation of Israeli aggression in Gaza, the withdrawal
of Israeli forces from all areas, the lifting of the imposed siege, removing obstacles, and the opening of all
crossings for humanitarian aid. They called for unrestricted operations of UN agencies, particularly United
Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA), with adequate financial support.
They reiterated strong opposition to forced displacement of Palestinians from Gaza, the West Bank, and East
Jerusalem.
Points to remember:
United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees (UNRWA):
❖ It was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1949 to carry out direct
relief and work programmes for Palestine refugees.
❖ It is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN Member States. It also
receives some funding from the Regular Budget of the United Nations, which is used
mostly for international staffing costs.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Arab League:
● It is a regional organization comprising Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa.
● Established in Cairo in 1945, its primary objectives include promoting Arab interests and
coordinating political, cultural, economic, and social programs among member states.
● Headquarter: Cairo, Egypt
● Official Language: Arabic
● The League consists of 22 member states, with founding members such as Egypt, Syria, and
Iraq. Additionally, Brazil, Eritrea, India, and Venezuela hold observer status within the
organization.
Relevance: Recently, the Arab League called for UN peacekeeping forces in the Palestinian territories during a summit
in Bahrain's Manama.

Q32.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Sea Otters:
● It is a member of the weasel family and is found along the coasts
of the Pacific Ocean in North America and Asia. They have
webbed feet, water-repellent fur to keep them dry and warm and
nostrils and ears that close in the water.
Floating Behavior of Sea Otters:
● They are known for their unique floating behaviour. They often
lie on their backs at the water's surface, sometimes gathering in
groups or entangling themselves in kelp forests for stability. While
floating, they use rocks to crack open shellfish like clams and
mussels, and they also feed on sea urchins, crabs, squid, octopuses
and fish. Mothers give birth and care for their young while floating on their backs, nursing and teaching them to
swim and hunt.
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 Points to remember:
❖ Sea Otters are exceptionally clean. After feeding, they wash
themselves in the ocean, using their teeth and paws to clean
their coat. It helps them to remain waterproof and insulated
against the cold.
❖ They have thick underfur that traps air to form an insulating layer
against the chilly waters (they have no insulating fat). This coat is
invaluable to otters, but it is worth it to some humans as well.
❖ IUCN Status: Endangered
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Dugongs, also known as sea cows, have a broad but fragmented range, encompassing tropical
waters from East Africa to Vanuatu, about 26 degrees both north and south of the equator.
Unlike their mostly freshwater cousins, manatees, dugongs are primarily marine
mammals. Dugongs generally inhabit shallow waters.
● Both seals and sea lions, together with the walrus, are pinnipeds. They differ in physical
characteristics and adaptations. Sea lions have small outer ear flaps, while seals lack external
ears. Sea lions are noisy; seals are quieter. Seals are better adapted to water and less mobile
on land, while sea lions can "walk" by rotating their hind flippers. Seals are more solitary, while
sea lions form large, social groups.
Relevance: A new study offers a fuller understanding of the tools used by Sea otters and utilizing rocks and other objects
to break open hard prey.

Q33.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The terms "AlphaFold and RoseTTAFold" are associated with Artificial Intelligence (AI) techniques
used in protein structure prediction. These methods have gained significant attention in the field of drug
development because they can accurately predict the 3D structures of proteins, which is crucial for designing
new drugs and understanding biological processes at a molecular level.
● The development of two AI-based prediction tools, AlphaFold and RoseTTAFold, developed by
researchers at DeepMind, a Google company, and the University of Washington, U.S., respectively, has provided
a major scientific breakthrough in the last four years in the area of computational drug
development. Both tools are based on deep neural networks. The tools’ neural networks use massive amounts
of input data to produce the desired output — the three-dimensional structures of proteins.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: AlphaFold and RoseTTAFold represent significant scientific breakthroughs over the past four years in the
field of computational drug development.

Q34.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● In astronomy, a ‘transient’ is any celestial object whose brightness changes in short spans of time.
There are many kinds of astronomical transients, all of them united by phenomena that are violent in some
measure. Astronomers study transients to understand where their violence comes from and what that can tell us
about non-transient events.

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 ○ Supernovae: It occurs when the outer layers of massive stars explode, while their cores implode
due to depleted fusion materials. These cosmic explosions can shine brighter than the combined light of
all other stars in their host galaxies. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Active Galactic Nuclei (AGN): At the centers of large galaxies, supermassive black holes reside.
During active phases, these black holes consume surrounding matter, causing it to emit varying levels
of brightness as it interacts with the black hole's gravitational forces. So, point 2 is correct.
○ Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs): Discovered in 2007, FRBs are elusive and intense bursts of radio waves
lasting milliseconds. Despite their brief duration, they can emit energy exceeding that of the Sun by over
ten times. The origin of FRBs remains unknown, posing a significant astronomical puzzle. So, point 4 is
correct.
● Asteroids: They are rocky bodies orbiting the Sun, their brightness variations are minimal and occur over
extended periods due to rotation and reflection of sunlight. So, point 3 is not correct.
● Eclipses: They are temporary alignments of celestial objects causing partial or total obscuration. Eclipses
are predictable events and do not involve an intrinsic change in the brightness of the objects themselves. So,
point 5 is not correct.
So, only three of the above are known as “astronomical transients”.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The Shaw Prize is awarded annually in three disciplines, namely, Astronomy, Life Science
and Medicine and Mathematical Sciences.
● In recognition of his groundbreaking discoveries in the field of astronomy, Shrinivas R. Kulkarni,
an Indian-origin professor from the California Institute of Technology (Caltech), has been
awarded the prestigious Shaw Prize in Astronomy for 2024.
Relevance: Indian-American astronomer Shrinivas Kulkarni was awarded the Shaw Prize for Astronomy in 2024 for his
work on the physics of astronomical transients.

Q35.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Enga Province: It is located in the northernmost region of the highlands of Papua New Guinea (PNG). In
May 2024, a devastating landslide in Yambali village of Enga province resulted in over 2,000 fatalities and impacted
more than 70,000 people. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Campi Flegrei: It is an active volcanic area near Naples, Italy. It is a complex volcanic system with multiple
centres located within a caldera—a large depression formed when the magma chambers beneath a volcano empty
and the surface collapses. It was formed 39,000 years ago after an eruption emptied it of magma. So, pair 2 is
not correctly matched.
● El-Fasher: It is the capital city of North Darfur, Sudan. It is home to more than 1.8 million residents and
displaced people and is the latest front in a war between the Sudanese army and the Rapid Support Forces which
began in 2023. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
● New Caledonia: It is a French overseas territory located in the southwestern Pacific Ocean. France
recently imposed a state of emergency in New Caledonia after a second night of unrest over changes to
voting rights in the overseas territory. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
So, only three of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The strongest earthquake to hit Italy’s Campi Flegrei supervolcano region in decades struck recently.

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Q36.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● India recorded a trade deficit with nine of its top ten trading partners, including China, Russia, Singapore and South
Korea in 2023-24. The deficit with China, Russia, South Korea, and Hong Kong increased compared to the
previous fiscal year (2022-2023), while it narrowed with the United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Russia, Indonesia
and Iraq.
● In 2023-24, the trade deficit with China rose to $85 billion, Russia to $57.2 billion, South Korea to
$14.71 billion and Hong Kong to $12.2 billion against $83.2 billion, $43 billion, $14.57 billion and $8.38
billion, respectively, in 2022-23.
● China became India’s largest trading partner with $118.4 billion in two-way trade, surpassing the United States,
whose bilateral trade with India stood at $118.28 billion.
● India has a trade surplus of $36.74 billion with the U.S. in 2023-24. America is one of the few countries with which
India has a trade surplus. The surplus is also there with the United. Kingdom., Belgium, Italy, France and Bangladesh.
● India’s total trade deficit narrowed to $238.3 billion in the last fiscal year from $264.9 billion in the previous year.
So, the correct sequence of countries in descending order based on their trade deficit with India in 2023-
24 is China-Russia-South Korea.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India recorded a trade deficit with nine of its top ten trading partners in 2023-24.

Q37.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Government of India is considering acquiring mining rights
for the metal-rich Carlsberg Ridge, located off India's western
shores, and the cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts in the deep
seabed region of the Afanasy-Nikitin Seamount (ANS),
located off the eastern shores, both situated in the expansive
Indian Ocean.
○ Carlsberg Ridge: It is the northern part of the
Central Indian Ridge, a tectonic plate boundary
between the African and Indian plates, running along the
ocean between India and Africa. It was formed nearly 30
million years ago and has been seismically active with
major earthquakes.
○ Afanasy-Nikitin Seamount (ANS): It is a structural feature in the Central Indian Basin, located
about 3,000 km away from India’s coast. It comprises a main plateau, rising 1200 m above the surrounding
ocean floor. It is rich in deposits of cobalt, nickel, manganese, and copper.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India is exploring obtaining rights to mine the Carlsberg Ridge and Afanasy-Nikitin Seamount (ANS).

Q38.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Bagru Printing: It is a traditional hand-block printing technique practised in Bagru village, Rajasthan. It
uses natural dyes and intricately carved wooden blocks. The process starts with preparing the fabric by soaking it
in a mixture of water and Fuller’s earth, ensuring proper dye adhesion. The carved blocks are then dipped in dye
and pressed onto the fabric to create intricate motifs. So, row 1 is correctly matched.

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 ● Bagh Printing: It originates from Bagh village in Madhya Pradesh and is known for its intricate floral and
geometric designs. It uses natural dyes, primarily in red and black. So, row 2 is correctly matched.
● Kalamkari Painting: It is a type of hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile produced in Srikalahasti
and Machilipatnam in Andhra Pradesh. The images are drawn free hand and the inspiration comes from
Hindu mythology. So, row 3 is not correctly matched.
● Sambalpuri Fabric: It originates from the Sambalpur region of Odisha and is known for its unique tie-dye
process called Ikat. In this technique, the threads are dyed first and then woven into the fabric, creating patterns
on the yarns themselves. This results in distinctive designs and a unique texture on the finished fabric. So, row 4
is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q39.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Ferroptosis:
● It is a newly discovered iron-dependent, non-apoptotic type of cell death that is highly negatively correlated
with cancer development. It is mainly caused by the abnormal increase in iron-dependent lipid reactive
oxygen species and the imbalance of redox homeostasis.
● It is different from other forms of cell death, such as apoptosis. This type of cell death requires iron, which is why
it has the name “FERroptosis.”
● It is characterized by a reduction in intracellular glutathione (GSH) and decreased activity of glutathione
peroxidase, so that lipid peroxides cannot be oxidized, leading to an increase in lipid peroxidation from iron.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Apoptosis:
● It is a programmed cell death process essential in multicellular organisms. It is tightly regulated,
serving as a natural mechanism during development and aging to maintain tissue balance. An
example of apoptosis in action is the separation of fingers and toes in human embryo
development, where cells between the digits undergo apoptosis to sculpt the final form.
Cell death:
● It is the irreversible termination of cell life processes and plays a significant role in organism
survival and development. There are many common forms of cell death, including necrosis and
apoptosis. Initially, apoptosis was thought to be the only programmed form of cell death, but
as research progressed, it was found that there are more types, including cysteine protease-1
(Caspase-1)-dependent apoptosis and receptor-interacting protein kinase 1 (RIPKl)-dependent
necroptosis.
Relevance: According to a recent study, researchers have identified ferroptosis as the primary mechanism of cell death
responsible for lung damage in COVID-19.

Q40.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Economic Capital Framework (ECF):
● It was adopted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2019, as per recommendations of the expert committee to
review the extant ECF of the RBI or the Bimal Jalan Committee. So, statement 1 is correct.
o The Committee recommended that risk provisioning under the Contingent Risk Buffer (CRB) should be
maintained within a range of 6.5% to 5.5% of the RBI’s balance sheet.

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 ● It provides a methodology for determining the appropriate level of risk provisions and profit distribution to
be made under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. So, statement 2 is correct.
● As per the ECF, the central bank is required to pay the balance of its profits to the Central Government after
making provisions for bad and doubtful debts, depreciation in assets, and contributions to staff. So,
statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved the transfer of
₹2,10,874 crore as surplus to the Union Government for the fiscal year 2023-24.

Q41.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP):
● It was introduced in April 2021 in response to the financial stress caused by the Covid pandemic, particularly
affecting small and mid-sized companies. The resolution of distressed Micro, Small, and Medium
Enterprises (MSMEs) requires a different approach due to the unique nature of their businesses. The PPIRP is
an alternate and faster resolution mechanism specifically for MSMEs in financial distress. So, statement 1
is correct.
● If the default amounts range between Rs 10 lakh to Rs 1 crore, the PPIRP is initiated. For defaults
exceeding this range, a corporate insolvency resolution process under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)
would be initiated. Unlike the corporate insolvency process, the PPIRP allows for an informal understanding
between creditors and debtors. This informal agreement serves as a preliminary step before the formal
insolvency process begins. Once 66% of creditors approve the informal proposal, the PPIRP is set in motion. So,
statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) has resulted in the full settlement of
operational creditors' claims in five cases.

Q42.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully tested the RudraM-II
air-to-surface missile from the Indian Air Force's Su-30 MK-I platform. RudraM-II is an indigenous solid-
propelled air-launched missile system developed for the air-to-surface role and capable of neutralising a wide
range of enemy assets. When deployed on an IAF Sukhoi-30MKI fighter aircraft, it has a striking range of over 350
kilometres.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The DRDO has successfully flight-tested the RudraM-II air-to-surface missile from the Su-30 MK-I platform
of the Indian Air Force (IAF).

Q43.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Regional Economic Outlook for Asia and Pacific Report: It discusses recent economic developments and
prospects for countries in Asia and Pacific regions. It is released by the International Monetary Fund. They
address regional policy developments and challenges and provide country-specific data and analysis, including
analytical pieces on issues of interest to a particular region. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.

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 ● Global Trade Update Report: It is published by the United Nations Conference on Trade and
Development (UNCTAD). It provides insights into the latest trends in global trade, including data on trade
volumes, value, and analysis of trade patterns across different regions and sectors. So, pair 2 is not correctly
matched.
● Global Financial Stability Report (GFSR): It is published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It
assesses the stability of global financial markets and identifies potential systemic risks that could lead to financial
instability. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
● Global Competitiveness Report: It is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). It provides a
comprehensive assessment of the factors driving productivity and economic growth in countries around the world.
So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to a report from the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), India's
increasing trade dependence is shifting towards China and the European Union.

Q44.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Polar Radiant Energy in the Far-InfraRed Experiment (PREFIRE):
● The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) is set to launch its latest mission known as the Polar
Radiant Energy in the Far-Infrared Experiment (PREFIRE).
● It consists of twin satellites, each carrying one instrument and measuring the poles about six hours apart. The
objective of the mission is to reveal the full spectrum of heat loss from Earth’s polar regions for the first time,
making climate models more accurate.
● It was jointly developed by the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the
University of Wisconsin-Madison and is managed by the agency’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory in Southern
California.
● It is designed for a pair of tiny satellites to measure a little-studied portion of the radiant energy emitted
by Earth, for clues about sea ice loss, ice-sheet melting and a warming Arctic.
● PREFIRE will help address this lack of knowledge, giving scientists a better idea of how efficiently far-infrared heat
is emitted by things like snow and sea ice and how clouds influence the amount of far-infrared radiation that
escapes to space.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Bepi-Colombo Mission (2018):

● It is an international mission consisting of two spacecraft riding together to Mercury to orbit
and study the planet from unique vantage points. The primary scientific objectives of the mission
are to study Mercury's magnetic field, its composition, the geology of its surface, and its
interaction with the solar wind.
Europa Clipper (2024):
● NASA's Europa Clipper is the first mission to conduct a detailed science investigation of Jupiter's
moon Europa. Scientists predict Europa has a salty ocean beneath its icy crust that could hold
the building blocks necessary to sustain life.
ASTHROS (Astrophysics Stratospheric Telescope for High Spectral Resolution
Observations at Submillimeter-wavelengths) (2024):
● It is a high-altitude balloon mission of NASA to study astrophysical phenomena.
Relevance: NASA recently launched a new mission to study polar regions’ heat loss.
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Q45.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Food Irradiation:
● It is a technology that improves the safety and extends the shelf life of foods by
reducing or eliminating microorganisms and insects. So, statement 1 is
correct.
● Irradiated food is regulated in accordance with the Atomic Energy (Control of
Irradiation of Food) Rules, 1996 in India. A Food Irradiation Processing
Laboratory (FIPLY) was established in the Food Technology Division, Bhabha
Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in 1967, where a cobalt-60 gamma irradiation unit, called Food Package
Irradiator, was installed. This facility is still used to carry out large-scale test trials on food commodities. It has
provided design concepts and process parameters for all the modern-day commercial food irradiation plants in
India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Radiation-processed food cannot be recognized by sight, smell, taste or touch. As per Food Safety Standards (Food
Product Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011, the irradiated products need to be labelled and can be
identified with the 'Radura' logo. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Union Government intends to substantially increase onion irradiation this fiscal year to extend the shelf
life of its buffer stock.

Q46.
Answer: c
Explanation:
International Booker Prize:
● It began in 2005 as the Man Booker International Prize. It is awarded annually for the finest single work of fiction
from around the world which has been translated into English. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It can be awarded to any work of long-form fiction, written originally in English by an author of any nationality
and published in the UK and/or Ireland. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Jenny Erpenbeck's novel "Kairos," translated by Michael Hofmann, has recently won the 2024 International
Booker Prize. In 2023, Georgi Gospodinov received the same honour for his thought-provoking novel "Time
Shelter," which was translated from Bulgarian to English by Angela Rodel. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Kairos’ by Jenny Erpenbeck, has won the International Booker Prize 2024.

Q47.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Ujani Dam: It is located on the Bhima River in Maharashtra. It is an earth-fill cum masonry gravity dam. It
was constructed with the primary objective of providing irrigation water and hydroelectric power to the region.
So, row 1 is correctly matched.
● Idukki Dam: It is built on the Periyar River, in the ravine between the Kuravan and Kurathi Hills in Kerala,
India. At 167.68 metres, it is one of the highest arch dams in Asia. So, row 2 is correctly matched.
● Chungthang Dam: It is located on the Teesta River/basin in Sikkim. It is an integral part of the 1200 MW
mega Teesta Stage III Hydro Electric Project, a major source of electricity for Sikkim and West Bengal. So, row
3 is correctly matched.

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 ● Mullaperiyar Dam: It is an over-a-century-old dam located on the Periyar River along the Periyar Tiger
Reserve in Kerala. It was built to divert the west-flowing Periyar River eastwards to the arid rain shadow region
of Madurai (Tamil Nadu). So, row 4 is not correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, six individuals, including two children, drowned when their boat capsized in the backwaters of the
Ujani Dam in Pune district, Maharashtra.

Q48.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC):
● With the adoption of the charter at the 5th BIMSTEC summit (2022), the grouping has gained a 'legal
personality,' enabling it to engage in structured diplomatic dialogues with other groupings and
countries. This status enables BIMSTEC to independently engage in diplomatic dialogues with other groupings
and countries, welcome new members and observers, and conduct legal agreements and property ownership
under international law.
● A legal personality status means that BIMSTEC is now recognized as a legal entity under international law. This
allows it to enter into agreements, own property, and engage in diplomatic relations independently of its member
states.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation

(BIMSTEC):
● It was founded in 1997, through the signing of the Bangkok Declaration. Originally named BIST-
EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation), the organization expanded to
include Myanmar in 1997, followed by Bhutan and Nepal in 2004. In 1997, representatives from
Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand convened in Bangkok to sign the 'Declaration on the
Establishment of Bangladesh–India–Sri Lanka–Thailand Economic Cooperation (BIST-EC).'
Relevance: BIMSTEC has gained a 'legal personality' following the enactment of its charter.

Q49.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Kanwar Lake, locally known as Kabartal, is located in Bihar’s Begusarai district. It holds the distinction of being
Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake, formed from the meandering of the Burhi Gandak River, a tributary
of the Ganga. This rainfed lake fills up during the monsoon season. So, statement 1 is correct and statement
2 is not correct.
● While Bihar has many wetlands, only Kanwar Lake in Begusarai was recognized as a Ramsar site in August
2020. Recently, the state added two more Ramsar sites: Nakti and Nagi bird sanctuaries in Jamui district,
bringing the total to three Ramsar sites in Bihar. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Oxbow Lake:
● It is a curved or U-shaped body of water that was originally a bend in a river. It becomes
separated when the river takes a new, straighter course.

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 ●These lakes typically form in flat, low-lying plains, often
near where the river empties into another body of
water.
● They are considered Stillwater lakes, meaning that
water does not flow into or out of them. There is no
stream or spring feeding the lake, and it doesn't have
a natural outlet. Oxbow lakes often become swamps
or bogs, and they often dry up as their water
evaporates.
Relevance: Kanwar Lake was once a paradise for migratory birds is now struggling for its survival.

Q50.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS), an autonomous body under the
Union Ministry of Ayush, has launched “PRAGATI-2024” (Pharma Research in AyurGyan and Techno
Innovation). It aims to explore research opportunities and foster collaboration between CCRAS and
the Ayurveda drug industry.
Points to remember:
Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS):
❖ Autonomous Body: Operates under the Ministry of AYUSH, Government
of India.
❖ Apex Body: Responsible for undertaking, coordinating, formulating,
developing, and promoting research in Ayurvedic sciences on scientific lines.
❖ Formulation and Promotion: Engages in the formulation, coordination,
development, and promotion of research in Ayurveda and Sowa-Rigpa
systems of medicine.
❖ Headquarters: Located in New Delhi.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences Launches “PRAGATI-2024”, an initiative to shape the
future of Ayurveda.

Q51.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Kankesanthurai Port: It is located in the northern part of Sri Lanka. It is a significant port for the northern
province and plays a vital role in regional trade. It is also used for military purposes and humanitarian aid delivery.
So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Odessa Port: It is situated on the northwest coast of the Black Sea. It is the largest seaport in Ukraine and a
key hub for maritime trade and transportation. The port handles a wide range of cargo, including grain, oil products
and containers. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● Haifa Port: It is the largest of Israel's three major international seaports, the others being the Port of Ashdod
and the Port of Eilat. Its natural deep-water harbour operates all year long and serves both passenger and merchant
ships. It is part of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC). So, pair 3 is not correctly
matched.

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 ● Dammam Port: It is also called King Abdul Aziz Port. It is located in the city of Dammam, Saudi Arabia. It is
the largest port in the Persian Gulf and one of the largest and busiest ports in the Middle East and North
Africa (MENA) region, after the Jeddah Islamic Port. The Dammam Port is part of the India-Middle East-Europe
Economic Corridor (IMEC). So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Sri Lankan Government has recently decided to renovate the Kankesanthurai Port in the Northern
Province, with India agreeing to fund the entire project.

Q52.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Keeling Curve: It is a graph that represents the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) in Earth’s
atmosphere since 1958. The Keeling Curve is named after its creator, Dr. Charles David Keeling.
● Keeling began studying atmospheric carbon dioxide in 1956 by taking air samples and measuring the amount of
CO2 they contained. Over time he noticed a pattern. The air samples taken at night contained a higher
concentration of CO2 compared to samples taken during the day.
○ He drew on his understanding of photosynthesis and plant respiration to explain this observation: Plants
take in CO2 during the day to photosynthesize or make food for themselves but at night, they release
CO2.
○ By studying his measurements over the course of a few years, Keeling also noticed a larger seasonal
pattern. He discovered CO2 levels are highest in the spring, when decomposing plant matter
releases CO2 into the air, and are lowest in autumn when plants stop taking in CO2 for photosynthesis.
● Keeling was able to establish a permanent residence at the Mauna Loa Observatory in Hawai'i, United
States of America, to continue his research. At Mauna Loa, he discovered global atmospheric CO2 levels
were rising nearly every year. By analyzing the CO2 in his samples, Keeling was able to attribute this rise to
the use of fossil fuels. Since its creation, the Keeling Curve has served as a visual representation of
Keeling’s data, which scientists have continued to collect since his death in 2005.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: In March 2024, the global average concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) was 4.7 ppm, up from March 2023,
indicating a significant jump in the Keeling Curve.

Q53.
Answer: d
● Liquid nitrogen is a form of the element nitrogen that's cold enough to exist in a liquid state and is used for
many cooling and cryogenic applications.
● It has many uses, mainly based on its cold temperature and low reactivity. Examples of common applications
include:
○ Treatment of benign pre-cancers: It is commonly used in cryotherapy, a medical procedure that
involves freezing and removing abnormal tissue, including benign pre-cancers. So, point 1 is correct.
○ The branding of cattle: Freeze branding cattle using liquid nitrogen is a method of permanently
identifying animals and herds by altering the pigmentation of their hair. The process involves using liquid
nitrogen to cool copper or copper-alloy branding irons to a very low temperature, which destroys the
hair's natural pigments and causes white hair to grow in the branded area.
○ Giving a smokey effect to foods: Food vendors infuse food (biscuits usually) with liquid nitrogen, which
produces smoke when it evaporates. So, point 2 is correct.
○ Preservation of biological samples: The cryopreservation of biological samples, such as sperm,
eggs and animal genetic samples. So, point 3 is correct.

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Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Karnataka health department recently reiterated its restriction issued in early May on using liquid
nitrogen in treats such as smoking biscuits or ice creams.

Q54.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Shaksgam Valley or Trans Karakoram Tract, is part of the Hunza-
Gilgit region of Pakistan-Occupied Kashmir (POK) and is a disputed
territory claimed by India but controlled by Pakistan.
● It borders Xinjiang Province of the People’s Republic of
China (PRC) to the north, the Northern Areas of POK to the
south and west and the Siachen Glacier region to the east. It
was ceded to China by Pakistan in 1963, when both countries
signed a boundary agreement to settle their border differences. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● The Shaksgam Valley, located on the north side of the
Karakoram Mountains, is situated in the transition zone
between the Indian monsoon system and dry arid climate zones.
● The Shyok River is a tributary of the Indus River that flows through the northern areas of Ladakh,
India and parts of Pakistan. The river originates from the Rimo Glacier, a tongue of the Siachen Glacier, in the
Karakoram Range. It flows northwestward, fed by glacier meltwater and enters Pakistani-administered Gilgit-
Baltistan, where it joins the Indus River near Khapalu. It does not flow through the Shaksgam valley region. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The Shaksgam River is a left tributary of the Yarkand River. The river is also known as the
Kelechin River and Muztagh River. It rises in the Gasherbrum, Urdok, Staghar, Singhi and Kyagar
Glaciers in the Karakoram. It then flows in a general northwestern direction parallel to the
Karakoram ridge line in the Shaksgam Valley.
● The Sino-Pakistan Agreement (also known as the Sino-Pakistan Frontier Agreement and
Sino-Pak Boundary Agreement) is a 1963 pact between the government of Pakistan and China
that establishes the border between the two countries. Pakistan gave over the Shaksgam Valley
in Aksai Chin to China under the 1963 agreement. The agreement is not recognized as legal by
India, which also claims sovereignty over part of the land.
Relevance: India has lodged a strong protest with China for carrying out construction activities in the Shaksgam valley,
in an “illegal” attempt to alter the situation on the ground.

Q55.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 imposes several restrictions on the right to vote. It
broadly states that "No person shall vote at any election if they are confined in a prison, whether under a sentence
of imprisonment, transportation, or otherwise, or if they are in the lawful custody of the police." The exception
to this rule applies to those in preventive detention. Essentially, this provision prevents individuals with
criminal charges from voting unless they have been released on bail or acquitted. So, statement 1 is correct.

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 ● The Representation of People Act, 1951 disqualifies a person from contesting elections to Parliament or State
Legislatures from the date of their conviction. Additionally, they face a six-year disqualification from
contesting elections starting from their release date. This disqualification applies only upon conviction and
not merely if they are charged with criminal offences. Another situation where a disqualified Member of
Parliament or Memeber of Legislative Assembly can still contest is when their conviction is stayed on appeal to a
higher court. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ A person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years other than
any offence referred to in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of the Act shall be disqualified from the date
of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release.
● The Election Commission of India (ECI) is empowered under the RPA Act to “remove” or “reduce” the
period of disqualification. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The jailed head of the pro-Khalistan outfit Waris Punjab De, contested the Lok Sabha elections from Punjab's
Khadoor Sahib seat.

Q56.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• The United Nations General Assembly designates specific days, weeks, years and decades as occasions to
mark particular events or topics in order to promote, through awareness and action, the objectives of the
Organization.
• International days are proposed to the UN General Assembly by Member States. The General Assembly then
decides by consensus whether to adopt the resolution establishing the particular day.
• The themes of international days are always linked to the main fields of action of the United Nations,
namely the maintenance of international peace and security, the promotion of sustainable development, the
protection of human rights, and the guarantee of international law and humanitarian action.
• In its resolutions, the General Assembly usually explains what prompted it to proclaim the International
Day.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

• The World Press Freedom Day was proclaimed by the United Nations General
Assembly (UNGA) in December 1993, following the recommendation of the United
Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) General
Conference. Since then, 3 May, the anniversary of the Declaration of Windhoek
(Declaration for the Development of a Free, Independent and Pluralistic Press) has been
celebrated worldwide as World Press Freedom Day.
• World Press Freedom Index 2024, published annually by Reporters Without Borders
(RWB), lists the best and worst press freedom across 180 countries.
• As per the recent index, India has been ranked in the 159th position, which is two ranks
higher than last year, however, India still lags behind countries like Turkey, Pakistan and Sri
Lanka, which are ranked at 158, 152 and 150, respectively.
Relevance: Recently, Reporters Without Borders (RWB) released the 2024 World Press Freedom Index.

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Q57.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● National Aeronautics and Space Administration’s (NASA) Artemis is a new generation lunar
exploration mission. NASA's Artemis initiative aims to create a long-term human presence on the Moon as a
stepping stone to Mars missions. The mission is named after Artemis, Apollo's twin sister and Greek goddess of
the moon. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
● China’s Chang’e-6 has become the world’s first spacecraft to bring back samples from the part of the Moon
that the Earth never gets to see. It was launched by a Chinese Long March-5 rocket. It consisted of an orbiter, a
returner, a lander and an ascender. The lander was equipped with multiple sensors, including microwave, laser
and optical imaging sensors which can measure distance and speed and identify obstacles on the lunar surface. So,
pair 2 is correctly matched.
● Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM) is a Japanese Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
mission designed to demonstrate accurate lunar landing techniques by a small explorer, with the objective of
accelerating the study of the Moon and planets using lighter exploration systems. It landed on the Moon in 2024.
So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: China’s Chang’e-6 is set to make its lunar landing attempt.

Q58.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● According to the Supreme Court’s ‘State of the Judiciary’ report published recently, the Supreme Court has
reserved one-third of the seats in the executive committee of the Supreme Court Bar Association
(SCBA) for women. A minimum of 3 out of 9 positions in the Executive Committee and 2 of 6 Senior Executive
Member posts will be reserved for women. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The representation of women judges in Indian courts has seen a significant rise, from 27 per cent in 2018 to a
promising 34.6 per cent in 2023, as per the Supreme Court’s ‘State of the Judiciary’ report. So, statement 2 is
correct.

Points To Remember
● Highest number of women judges: High Courts of Punjab and Haryana, Delhi
and Bombay
● No women judges: High Courts of Patna, Uttarakhand, Tripura, Meghalaya and
Manipur

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Relevance: Recently, it was observed that the Indian courts see an increase in women judges between 2018-2023.

Q59.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Goldene is a free-standing sheet of gold. It is the first free-standing 2D metal and is only one atom thick.
These sheets of goldene are roughly 100 nanometres thick, approximately 400 times thinner than the thinnest
commercially available gold leaf. It holds promise as a great catalyst because it’s much more economically
viable than thicker, three-dimensional gold.
● Goldene can be used in:
○ electronics industry,
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 ○ carbon dioxide conversion,
○ hydrogen-generating catalysis,
○ selective production of value-added chemicals,
○ hydrogen production and
○ water purification.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, researchers have created a free-standing sheet of gold that is only one atom thick and named it as
Goldene.

Q60.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Biocover: It is an inexpensive way to reduce greenhouse-active methane emissions from existing
Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) landfills through exploiting the natural process of microbial methane oxidation
through improved landfill cover design.
● Landfill top covers, which optimise environmental conditions for methanotrophic bacteria and enhance biotic
methane consumption, are often called ‘biocovers’ and function as vast bio-filters.
● Biocovers are typically spread over an entire landfill area. They are often waste materials, such as diverse
composts, mechanically-biologically treated waste, dewatered sewage sludge or yard waste. So,
points 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
● Methane oxidation in compost materials shows high oxidation capacity. Manipulation of landfill covers to
maximise their oxidation capacity provides a promising complementary strategy for controlling
methane emissions.
● Simple but well-engineered biocovers can mitigate methane emissions from landfills. Mature composts show
higher microbial methane consumption relative to conventional landfill soil, which can most probably
be related to nutritional factors provided by the compost or to changes in the microbial ecology.
● Physical factors such as the increased porosity, water-holding capacity, or thermal insulation properties
of compost seem to be responsible for much of the observed positive effects.
So, all four of the above can be used as biocover to control methane emissions.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A study suggests using biocover, a microbial methane oxidation technology, to reduce fugitive methane
emissions from abandoned landfill sites.

Q61.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Models of Artifical Intelligence (AI): At present, there are two kinds of models that are fuelling the AI
innovation – transformers and diffusion models. These are essentially architecture that have redefined the
landscape of machine learning, a subset of AI, applications.
○ Transformer-based models have radically changed how machine learning models engage with text data, in
terms of classifying it and generating it.
○ On the other hand, diffusion models have become the most preferred for AI that generates
images. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Diffusion models are the process of diffusion which is essentially the spreading of particles from a dense space
to a lesser dense area.
● Diffusion Transformer (DiT) is essentially a class of diffusion models that are based on the transformer
architecture. So, statement 2 is correct.

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 ○ DiT has been developed by William Peebles at UC Berkeley, who is currently the research scientist at
OpenAI and Saining XE at New York University in 2023.
○ DiT is aimed at improving the performance of diffusion models by switching the commonly used U-Net
(an architecture employed in diffusion models for iterative image denoising) backbone with a transformer.
● DiT uses transformers in a latent diffusion process, where a simple prior is gradually transformed into the
target image. This is done by reversing the diffusion process guided by a transformer network.
○ An important aspect of DiT is the concept of diffusion timesteps. These timesteps represent the stages
of the diffusion process and the transformer network is conditioned on the timestep at each stage.
○ This allows the network to generate different features at different stages of the diffusion process.
○ DiT can also be conditioned on ‘class labels’, allowing it to generate images of specific classes.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, OpenAI’s launched the latest Artificial Intelligence model Sora which is powered by Diffusion
transformer (DiT).

Q62.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): It is used to obtain images of soft tissues within the body.
○ Soft tissue is any tissue that hasn’t become harder through calcification. It is a non-invasive diagnostic
procedure widely used to image the brain, the cardiovascular system, the spinal cord and joints, various
muscles, the liver, arteries, etc.
● As an MRI uses strong magnetic fields, individuals with embedded metallic objects (like shrapnel) and metallic
implants, including pacemakers, may not be able to undergo MRI scans. In fact, if individuals have a credit card
in their pocket, the magnetic fields will wipe its magnetic strip. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Metals possessing ferromagnetism are strongly attracted to a static magnetic field and present the
greatest danger to patients and staff in the MRI environment. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Ferromagnetism is a property of certain elemental solids and alloys that form magnetic domains in which
arrays of electron spins become locked together in alignment. Iron and its alloys are the most commonly
used ferromagnetic materials.
○ A magnetic stripe card is a type of card in which the data is embedded on an iron-based magnetic
strip by modifying the magnetism of the particles on the strip.
○ Thus, during an MRI scan, if the person has a credit card in their pocket, its magnetic strip gets wiped off
due to the presence of magnetic field.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, an MRI procedure reveals an image of a body part using the hydrogen atoms in that part.

Q63.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Matter Composition: All matter is composed of atoms and atoms are made of protons and neutrons inside the nucleus
and electrons outside. But unlike electrons, protons and neutrons are composite particles because they are further made
up of quarks.
● Quarks can’t exist in isolation. They can only be found in groups of two or three, if not more. Such clumps of
quarks are called hadrons. Protons and neutrons are common examples.
● There are six types of quarks: up, down, top, bottom, strange and charm. Each quark can have one of three
types of colour charge: red, green and blue.
○ Then there are also antiquarks, their antimatter versions. A quark-antiquark clump is called a meson
(they don’t annihilate each other because they are of different types, e.g. up + anti-down).
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 ○ Three-quark clumps are called baryons and they form the normal matter surrounding us.
○ Quarks are further held together by another set of particles called gluons. Because nuclear forces are
very strong, quarks are always tightly bound to each other and are not free, even in the vacuum of empty
space.
● The nuclear force that holds quarks together is explained by a theory called quantum chromodynamics. It
predicts that at sufficiently high (by all means extreme) energies, nuclear matter can become ‘deconfined’ to create
a new phase of matter in which quarks don’t have to exist in clumps.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, scientists have reported that the insides of most massive neutron stars are most likely made of an
unusual state of matter called quark matter.

Q64.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Pulicat Lake:
● It is the second largest brackish water lagoon in India after Chilika, sprawling across Andhra Pradesh and
Tamil Nadu.
● Most of the lake falls in Andhra Pradesh and less than 20% in Tiruvallur district of Tamil Nadu. The lagoon is
separated from the Bay of Bengal by the Sriharikota island.
● It is a unique ecotone that supports rich biodiversity — from aquatic life such as mudskippers, seagrass beds and
oyster reefs to more than 200 avian species, including migratory birds such as Eurasian curlews, oystercatchers,
bar-tailed godwits, sand plovers and greater flamingos.
● In 1980, the Pulicat bird sanctuary was notified under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, (declaring an
“intention” to make any area, other than an area comprising reserve forests or the territorial waters, into a
sanctuary), encompassing 13 revenue villages surrounding the lake.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Sasthamkotta: The largest freshwater lake in Kerala is spring-fed and is the major source
of drinking water. The water contains no common salts or other minerals and supports no
water plants; a larva called "cavaborus" abounds and eliminates bacteria in the water, thus
contributing to its exceptional purity.
● Kolleru: It is a natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the
Godavari and the Krishna, fed by two seasonal rivers and a number of drains and channels,
which functions as a natural flood balancing reservoir between the deltas of the two rivers. It
provides habitat for a number of resident and migratory birds, including declining numbers of
the vulnerable Grey Pelican (Pelecanus philippensis), and sustains both culture and capture
fisheries, agriculture and related occupations of the people in the area.
● Vemband: It is the largest lake in Kerala and the longest lake in India. It is also known
as Vembanad Kayal, Vembanad Kol, Punnamada Lake (in Kuttanad) and Kochi Lake (in Kochi).
The lake has its source in four rivers, Meenachil, Achankovil, Pampa and Manimala. It is
separated from the Arabian Sea by a narrow barrier island and is a popular backwater stretch
in Kerala.
Relevance: Recently, the Tamil Nadu Government has taken steps to denotify the boundaries of the Pulicat bird
sanctuary.

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Q65.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Nitrogen tetroxide (N₂O₄) and Monomethyl Hydrazine (MMH) are widely used as hypergolic rocket
propellants.
○ Hypergolic propellants ignite spontaneously on contact with each other, eliminating the need for an
external ignition source. This property makes them highly reliable for use in spacecraft and missile systems
where precise and immediate ignition is crucial.
● N₂O₄ is a high density storable oxidizer, while MMH serves as the fuel. When these two chemicals come
into contact, they react violently and produce thrust.
● Although N₂O₄ and MMH are toxic, because of their high specific impulse, extreme storage stability and hypergolic
nature, the combination is extensively used in orbital maneuvers, reaction controls and launch vehicle
propulsion.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The uncontrolled descent and explosion of a Chinese rocket released gases, potentially from the nitrogen
tetroxide oxidizer and dimethylhydrazine fuel mixing with air.

Q66.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The India Employment Report 2024, was recently brought out by the Institute for Human Development
(IHD) and the International Labour Organisation (ILO).
● Major findings:
○ Unemployment and underemployment rates increased till 2018 but declined thereafter. The
unemployment rate has declined from 6 percent in 2018 to 3.2 per cent in 2023. This also
holds for the youth unemployment rate, which also decreased from 17.8 percent to 10 per cent over this
period. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ The employment quality, as shown by a robust Employment Condition Index, has improved in all
states, albeit differently. This is also corroborated by the increase in the share of non-farm employment
(and decline in agriculture employment) between 2000 and 2019, as happens with the increasing prosperity
of a country and implies a movement towards the structural transformation of the economy.
■ This trend was accompanied by a steady increase in regular employment and a decline in
unorganised sector employment, which was halted only during the Covid period.
○ Despite an improvement in employment conditions over time, jobs largely remain informal and of lower
productivity.
● The increase in the Female Workforce Participation (FWFP) rate from 24.5 per cent in 2019 to 37.0 in
2023 is quite remarkable, notwithstanding it being overwhelmingly in the agricultural sector and of the own-
account and unpaid family work kind. So, statement 2 is correct.
● In comparison to the wages of regular workers, the wages of casual workers increased even during 2019-
22. In fact, the increase was more in the case of the bottom groups. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● It is also reported that even though there was a massive increase in farm jobs during the pandemic (almost
9 per cent per year), overall non-farm jobs also went up by more than 2.6 per cent, a rate higher than that achieved
from 2012 to 2019.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Institute for Human Development (IHD) and the International Labour Organisation (ILO)
released the India Employment Report 2024.

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Q67.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Nairobi Declaration, 2023 on fertiliser and soil health was endorsed by African Presidents at a special
summit held in Kenya. It aims to prioritise domestic fertiliser production and triple it within the next 10
years to boost agricultural productivity across the African continent.
● This initiative is a response to the global fertiliser crisis, which has disproportionately affected Africa, causing a
significant decline in fertiliser consumption.
● The declaration also emphasises the need for regional cooperation, coordination and harmonisation of
fertiliser policies and regulations.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Nairobi Declaration on fertiliser and soil health was endorsed by African presidents at the second Africa
Fertilizer and Soil Health Summit held in Kenya.

Q68.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme that was launched in 2023 for
comprehensive development of the select villages in 46 blocks in 19 districts of abutting northern border in the
States of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and UT of Ladakh. So, statement 1 is not
correct and statement 2 is correct.
● It is being implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs. Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by the
district administration with the help of Gram Panchayats. So, statement 3 is correct.
● There will not be overlap with the Border Area Development Programme. The Vibrant Villages Programme
(VVP) envisages focused areas of interventions in the select villages for creation of opportunities for livelihood
generation through promotion of tourism & cultural heritage, skill development & entrepreneurship and
development of cooperative societies including agriculture/horticulture, cultivation of medicinal plants/herbs etc.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The government is likely to spend over ₹2 crore on each kilometre of road to be constructed along the
China border in Uttarakhand and Sikkim under the Vibrant Village Programme (VVP).

Q69.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Right to Shelter: In Chameli Singh v. State of U.P, (1995) a Bench of three Judges of the Supreme Court
had considered and held that the Right to Shelter is a fundamental right available to every citizen. It was
read into Article 21 of the Constitution of India. As encompassing within its ambit, the right to shelter to
make the right to life more meaningful.
● The Court observed that: Shelter for a human being, therefore, is not mere protection of his life and limb. It
is however where he has opportunities to grow physically, mentally, intellectually and spiritually. Right to shelter,
therefore, includes adequate living space, safe and decent structure, clean and decent surroundings, sufficient light,
pure air and water, electricity, sanitation and other civic amenities like roads etc. so as to have easy access to
his daily avocation. The right to shelter, therefore, does not mean a mere right to a roof over one's head but
right to all the infrastructure necessary to enable them to live and develop as a human being.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, a nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court decided to take up another issue of Article 31C.

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Q70.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● 3D printing, also known as additive manufacturing, is a process of creating three-dimensional objects from
a digital file.
● The creation of a 3D printed object is achieved using additive processes, where an object is created by laying
down successive layers of material until the object is completed.
● Design for Additive Manufacturing (DfAM): It involves designing products specifically for 3D printing
technologies. It optimises designs to take full advantage of the capabilities and constraints of additive manufacturing,
such as creating complex geometries that are not possible with traditional manufacturing methods.
● Various Techniques of 3D Printing:
○ Fused Deposition Modeling (FDM): It works by extruding thermoplastic filaments through a heated
nozzle, melting the material and depositing it layer by layer to form an object.
○ Stereolithography (SLA): It uses a laser to cure liquid resin into hardened plastic in a layer-by-layer
process to build highly detailed and precise parts.
○ Digital Light Processing (DLP): Similar to SLA, DLP uses a digital light projector screen to flash a
single image of each layer all at once, curing the resin.
○ Selective Laser Sintering (SLS): It uses a laser to sinter powdered material (typically nylon), binding
the material together to create a solid structure.
○ Laser Powder Bed Fusion (LPBF): It includes technologies like Selective Laser Melting (SLM) and
Direct Metal Laser Sintering (DMLS), uses a laser to melt and fuse metallic powders together.
○ Binder Jetting: It uses a binding agent selectively deposited onto a powder bed to bond powder particles
and form an object layer by layer.
○ Material Jetting: It deposits droplets of photopolymer onto a build surface, which are then cured by UV
light to form solid layers.
○ Electron Beam Melting (EBM): It uses an electron beam to melt and fuse metal powder together to
form a part layer by layer in a high-vacuum environment.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: ISRO has achieved a significant milestone by successfully hot testing a liquid rocket engine manufactured using
3D printing technology.

Q71.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Auroras: They are essentially natural lights that appear as bright, swirling curtains in the night sky and can be seen in a
range of colours, including blue, red, yellow, green and orange. They are caused by the interaction of charged particles
from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field and atmosphere.
● These lights primarily appear near the poles of both the northern and southern hemispheres all year round but
sometimes they expand to lower latitudes. In the north, the display is called the aurora borealis; in the
south, it is known as the aurora australis. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The colors of the aurora vary, depending on altitude and the kind of atoms involved.
○ If ions strike oxygen atoms high in the atmosphere, the interaction produces a red glow. This is an unusual
aurora—the most familiar display, a green-yellow hue, occurs as ions strike oxygen at lower altitudes.
○ Reddish and bluish light that often appears in the lower fringes of auroras is produced by ions striking
atoms of nitrogen.
○ Ions striking hydrogen and helium atoms can produce blue and purple auroras, although our eyes
can rarely detect this part of the electromagnetic spectrum. So, statement 2 is not correct.

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 ● Auroras are not just something that happens on Earth. If a planet has an atmosphere and magnetic field, they
probably have auroras. Scientists have seen auroras on Jupiter and Saturn.
○ Recently, Aurora has been confirmed around the seventh planet, Uranus, after scientists studied the ice
giant world in the infrared. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, aurora borealis was seen at Hanle village in Ladakh.

Q72.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control & Discipline) Act, 2024: It empowers Commanders-
in-Chief and Officers-in-Command of Inter-services Organisation (ISOs) to exercise control over Service
personnel, serving under them, for effective maintenance of discipline and administration, without disturbing the
unique service conditions of each individual Service.
● Key Features includes:
○ Inter-services Organisation (ISOs): The Central Government may constitute an ISOs which has
personnel belonging to at least two of the three services: the army, the navy and the air force. So,
statement 1 is correct.
○ Control of ISOs: It empowers the Commander-in-Chief or the Officer-in-Command of an Inter-Services
Organisation to exercise command and control over the personnel serving in or attached to it. He would
be responsible for maintaining discipline and ensuring proper discharge of duties by the service personnel.
○ The superintendence of an ISOs will be vested in the Central Government. The Government may also
issue directions to such organisations on grounds of national security, general administration, or public
interest.
○ Commander-in-Chief: The officers eligible to be appointed as the Commander-in-Chief or Officer-in-
Command are:
(i) a General Officer of the regular Army (above the rank of Brigadier), So, statement 2 is
not correct.
(ii) a Flag Officer of the Navy (rank of Admiral of the Fleet, Admiral, Vice-Admiral, or Rear-Admiral), or
(iii) an Air Officer of the Air Force (above the rank of group captain).
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, The Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Act, 2024 has been notified
through a gazette notification.

Q73.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Nitroplast:
● Modern biology asserts that only bacteria can take nitrogen from the atmosphere and convert it into a form that
is usable for life. Plants that fix nitrogen, such as legumes, do so by harbouring symbiotic bacteria in root nodules.
But a recent discovery upends that rule.
● An international team of scientists used soft X-ray tomography and proteomics (analysis of the proteins produced
by an organism) to establish the first known example of a nitrogen-fixing organelle, intrinsic to certain
algae cells. Dubbed “nitroplasts,” the organelles are the result of primary endosymbiosis—the process by
which a host organism engulfs a symbiont and evolves beyond symbiosis to become part of the host cells, analogous
to what occurred with mitochondria and chloroplasts.

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 ● The discovery raises the prospect of engineering plants that can fix nitrogen directly from the air,
reducing the need for synthetic nitrogen fertilisers, the production of which generates enormous amounts of
carbon dioxide.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the discovery of a new organelle, termed nitroplast, reignites interest in the endosymbiotic theory.

Q74.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Nipun Bharat Mission:
● It means “National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy” (NIPUN Bharat). A
National Mission on Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN).
● FLN refers to a child’s ability to read with meaning and solve basic math problems by Class 3. These are crucial
basic skills that help them succeed in life.
● The National Education Policy 2020 accords the highest priority to FLN.
● It was launched by the Ministry of Education and aims to ensure every child has these basic skills by Class 3 by
2026-27.
● Key components :
○ Oral Language Development: This helps develop phonological awareness and is important when
learning to read and write.
○ Decoding: This domain includes competencies of print awareness, aksharas knowledge and word
recognition.
○ Reading Fluency with comprehension: Accurately reading text with meaning and understanding
expressions and punctuations.
○ Writing: Writing alphabets and words with expressions.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has instructed all its schools to make use of
educational material through the Nipun Bharat Mission.

Q75.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) technology is a form of carbon sequestration that is set to play a
central role in helping India reach net zero by 2050. CCS takes two basic forms:
○ Biological carbon capture and storage: It is when the natural environment – such as forests and
oceans – sequesters CO2 from the atmosphere.
○ Artificial/Geological carbon capture and storage: It is when CO2 as an emission is extracted from
human-made processes and is stored in vast underground facilities.
Major Carbon Capture Technologies:
● Orca: It is the world’s first and largest direct air capture and storage plant, making carbon dioxide removal
on a large scale a reality. It is located in Iceland. The facility consists of eight collector containers, with an annual
capture capacity of 500 tons each.
● Endurance: Deep saline aquifers are large stretches of porous sedimentary rock that contain salt water. CO2
can be injected into these and stored permanently – in fact, saline aquifers have the largest identified storage
potential among all other forms of engineered CCS. The ‘Endurance’ aquifer, located in the North Sea off
the coast of the United Kingdom (UK), is one such formation, which sits approximately 1 mile (1.6km) below
the sea bed.

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 ● Mammoth: Mammoth, the largest carbon dioxide capture and storage facility of its kind, launched
operations which is situated on a dormant volcano in Iceland.
○ With Mammoth's 72 industrial fans, Swiss start-up Climeworks intends to suck 36,000 tonnes of CO2
from the air annually to bury underground, vying to prove the technology has a place in the fight against
global warming.
○ It adds significant capacity to the Climework's first project Orca, which also sucks the primary greenhouse
gas fuelling climate change from the atmosphere.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Mammoth, the largest carbon dioxide capture and storage facility of its kind, recently launched operations.

Q76.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Pratyaksh Hanstantrit Labh (PAHAL) Scheme: It was launched in 2015 to transfer the Liquefied
Petroleum Gas (LPG) subsidy directly into the bank accounts of eligible beneficiaries. It aimed to make the
LPG subsidy distribution more transparent and efficient, thereby encouraging the use of cleaner cooking
fuels. So, point 1 is correct.
● Surya Nutan: It is a stationary, rechargeable and always kitchen-connected indoor solar cooking product. This
is a patented product designed and developed by IndianOil R&D Centre, Faridabad. It reduces the reliance on
traditional biomass fuels and reduces indoor air pollution. So, point 2 is correct.
● Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY): It was launched in 2016, this flagship scheme of the Government
of India aims to provide LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households. By providing
subsidised LPG connections and promoting the use of clean cooking fuel, the scheme aims to protect the health
of women and children from the adverse effects of household air pollution caused by traditional cooking methods.
So, point 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above initiatives have been directed to reduce household air pollution.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Data from the 2014-2015 ACCESS survey, conducted by the Council on Energy, Environment and Water,
found LPG’s cost to be the foremost barrier to its adoption and continued use in rural poor households.

Q77.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Trichoderma asperellum is a biocontrol agent to manage 'foot rot' disease in Basmati rice crops. It
offers an eco-friendly alternative to chemical treatments, aiding in disease management while minimising
environmental harm.
Points To Remember:
● Biological control agents are living organisms, including:
○ Parasites
○ Predators
○ Disease causing fungi, bacteria and viruses
The development and use of this biocontrol agent are significant because they provide a non-chemical solution to
combating the fungal pathogen Fusarium verticillioides, which causes foot rot disease, thereby ensuring safer and more
sustainable agricultural practices.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

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 Knowledge Box

About the Foot Rot Disease:

● It is a fungal disease that affects Basmati rice crops, particularly at the seedling stage. It might
also cause infection after transplantation in case infected seedlings are transplanted.
● It is caused by the fungus Fusarium verticillioides, a soil-seed-borne pathogen which
spreads the infection through the root of the plant and eventually leads to the colonisation of
the stem base. Infected seedlings first turn pale yellow, then elongate and dry up and
eventually (usually) die.
● Currently, seedlings are treated with Trichoderma harzianum before sowing and
transplantation.
● Seeds are also treated with fungicides such as Sprint 75 WS (carbendazim + mancozeb)
before sowing. But these are the chemical treatments which are harmful to the soil and can
be toxic for consumers of the rice.
Relevance: Recently, Ludhiana’s Punjab Agricultural University has come up with the biocontrol agent Trichoderma
asperellum.

Q78.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) recently released the third edition of the World
Wildlife Crime Report 2024. It provides a comprehensive analysis of the illegal wildlife trade between 2015 and
2021. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The rhino (animal) and the cedar (plant) were the most threatened by worldwide illegal wildlife trade from
2015 to 2021. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Rhino horn accounts for the highest component of the illegal animal trade (29%), followed by pangolin scales
(28%), and elephant ivory (15%). So, statement 3 is correct.
● Corals were the most commonly seized animals between 2015 and 2021, followed by crocodiles and elephants.
Seizures of animal species increased gradually from 2015 to 2019 before declining in 2020 and 2021. Seizures
of plant species have increased significantly in 2020 and 2021.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) has recently released the World Wildlife Crime
Report 2024.

Q79.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● A cyclical disease is characterised by a recurring pattern of outbreaks in a region. This means that the
disease comes and goes in cycles or waves, rather than being constantly present (endemic) or showing a
continuous rise in cases.
● For example, COVID-19 is described as a cyclical disease because it is expected to arrive intermittently in
waves, rather than remaining steady in a region like an endemic disease (such as malaria) or showing a continuous
rise in cases.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A surge in COVID-19 cases in the U.S. and U.K., attributed to a group of variants, has led to a redefinition
of the disease as cyclical, characterised by periodic increases in cases.

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Q80.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Solar moss is a patchy, moss-like structure made of plasma in the solar atmosphere, resembling the green and mushy
algal moss found on wet rock structures near water bodies. Temperatures in the moss region can reach up to 5.5 lakh
degrees Celsius, which is over 100 times hotter than the layer immediately below it.
● It is composed of chromospheric jets, known as spicules, which are dynamic jets of plasma that shoot up
from the Sun’s lower atmosphere. These jets are interspersed with elements that emit extreme ultraviolet
radiation, contributing to the patchy, moss-like appearance observed in the solar atmosphere. So, statement 1
is correct.
● It forms in regions of the Sun's atmosphere where the magnetic conditions are particularly strong,
specifically around the centres of sunspot groups. Sunspots themselves are areas of intense magnetic activity
and the surrounding strong magnetic fields create conditions conducive to the formation of solar moss. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● While the solar moss region is dominated by a complex network of strong magnetic field lines, its magnetic field
is not stronger than those found in sunspots.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent NASA study led by Indian astronomer Souvik Bose identified that interactions between strong
magnetic fields generate electric currents in the moss region.

Q81.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Blue holes are water-filled vertical caverns, or sinkholes, found in
coastal regions where the bedrock is made of soluble material, such
as limestone, marble or gypsum.
● They form when water on the surface percolates through the
rock, dissolving minerals and widening cracks, which eventually
causes the rock to collapse.
● Famous examples include Dean's Blue Hole in the Bahamas,
the Dahab Blue Hole in Egypt and the Great Blue Hole in Belize.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the researchers have discovered Mexico's Taam Ja'
Blue Hole is the deepest known underwater sinkhole in the world.

Q82.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● ‘Floor Test’ is a constitutional mechanism under which a Chief Minister appointed by the Governor can
be asked to prove majority on the floor of the Legislative Assembly of the State. When a single party
secures the majority of the seats in the House, the Governor appoints the leader of the party as the Chief Minister.
In case the majority is questioned, the leader of the party which claims majority has to move a vote of confidence
and prove majority among those present and voting. The Chief Minister has to resign if they fail to prove their
majority in the House. So, statement 1 is correct.
● On the other hand, ‘Composite Floor Test’ is conducted only when more than one person stakes claim to
form the government. When the majority is not clear, the Governor might call for a special session to see
who has the majority. The majority is counted based on those present and voting. This can also be done through
a voice vote where the member can respond orally or through division voting. So, statement 2 is correct.

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 ● Under Article 163, the Governor can summon the House and call for a floor test to prove whether the
government has the numbers. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Jannayak Janta Party seeks floor test in Haryana as Bharatiya Janata Party loses majority.

Q83.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Government of India instituted two civilian awards-Bharat Ratna & Padma Vibhushan in 1954. The
Padma Vibhushan had three classes namely Pahela Varg, Dusra Varg and Tisra Varg. These were subsequently
renamed as Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri in 1955.
● Bharat Ratna: It is the highest civilian award of the country awarded in recognition of exceptional
service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. It is treated on a different
footing from Padma Award. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the
President of India. No formal recommendations for Bharat Ratna are necessary. So, pair 4 is correctly
matched.
● Padma Awards: They are announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day. All nominations received for
Padma Awards are placed before the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister
every year. The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary and includes Home
Secretary, Secretary to the President and four to six eminent persons as members.
○ Padma Vibhushan: Awarded for ‘exceptional and distinguished service.’ So, pair 1 is not
correctly matched.
○ Padma Bhushan: Awarded for ‘distinguished service of a high order.’ So, pair 2 is not correctly
matched.
○ Padma Shri: Awarded for ‘distinguished service.’ So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
So, only one of the above pairs is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: President of India conferred the Bharat Ratna on former Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao.

Q84.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Cook Islands is one of the smallest and most remote
nations with 15 volcanic islands and coral atolls in the
southern Pacific Ocean, between Tonga to the west
and French Polynesia to the east. So, statement 1 is
correct.
● It is a self-governing island country in free
association with New Zealand. This means that while
it governs itself, New Zealand is responsible for its
defence and foreign affairs, though this is done in
consultation with the Cook Islands. Cook Islanders are
citizens of New Zealand with rights to live and work in New Zealand and Australia. So, statement 4 is correct.
● Cook Islands are not located in the Clarion-Clipperton Zone. The Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ) is a
significant area in the Pacific Ocean known for its abundance of polymetallic nodules, situated between the Clarion
and Clipperton fracture zones. So, statement 3 is not correct.

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 ● Cook Islands boast the world's largest documented collection of polymetallic nodules, estimated at
a staggering 6.7 billion tonnes. These valuable resources, located within the Cook Islands' waters and under
its jurisdiction, are managed and regulated by the Cook Islands Seabed Minerals Authority (SBMA). So,
statement 2 is correct.
○ Polymetallic nodules are concretions comprised of concentric layers of manganese and iron
oxides/hydroxides containing elevated abundances of cobalt, nickel, rare earth elements, lithium, titanium,
zirconium, copper, molybdenum and thallium.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Cook Islands Ship Owners Association (CISOA) recently became a member of the Asian Shipowners’
Association.

Q85.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Natural wetland systems have often been described as the “earth’s kidneys” because they filter pollutants from
water that flows through on its way to receiving lakes, streams and oceans.
• As wetlands can improve water quality, engineers and scientists construct the wetlands (called
Constructed wetlands/Human-made wetlands) that use natural processes involving wetland
vegetation, soils and their associated microbial assemblages to improve water quality. Unlike
conventional concrete tanks, these wetlands foster biodiversity, welcoming a diverse array of life forms - ranging
from microorganisms to aquatic plants and even birds - to engage in the purification process.
• Constructed wetlands are typically divided into two categories:
o Subsurface Flow (SSF): These wetlands direct wastewater through gravel beds or porous media,
promoting microbial activity that degrades organic matter and improves the water quality.
o Surface Flow (SF): These wetlands demonstrate their aesthetic appeal above the water’s surface,
with gently flowing streams and lush vegetation. These are constructed shallow water systems that
use the combined processes of physical, chemical and biological interactions to treat wastewater.
• Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary in Delhi, situated on the city’s outskirts is a Constructed Wetland system
aids in purifying sewage from nearby settlements while also providing a sanctuary for diverse flora and fauna, thus
contributing to regional biodiversity conservation. So, point 1 is correct.
• Kabartal Wetland, also known as Kanwar Jheel, covers a large area of the Indo-Gangetic plains in
northern Bihar. The site is one of 18 wetlands within an extensive floodplain complex; it floods during the
monsoon season. This absorption of floodwaters is a vital service in Bihar where 70% of the land is vulnerable to
inundation. The Wetland is an important stopover along the Central Asian Flyway. So, point 2 is not correct.
• Chandertal Wetland is located in the Himachal Pradesh in Chandertal wild life Sanctuary. Its catchment is an
area of meadows, rugged rocks, snow and scree. The area falls in the rain-shadow areas of Himalayas. The
monsoon hardly penetrates and reaches the valley in the form of misty drizzles. Precipitation here occurs in the
form of snowfall. The catchment area of this wetland is formed by the kunzam range which is covered
with snow for most of the year. Area is free from any human activity in the immediate vicinity. So, point 3
is not correct.
• Hokera Wetland in Jammu & Kashmir wetland is a natural perennial wetland contiguous to the Jhelum
basin, it is the only site with remaining reedbeds of Kashmir and a pathway of many waterfowl species like Large
Egret and Great Crested Grebe. So, point 4 is not correct.
So, only one of the above is the examples of the Constructed Wetland systems.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Constructed Wetlands are helping in mitigating the serious threats to ecosystems, public health and water
security.

Q86.
Answer: d
Explanation:

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 ● Soil Nailing is a recently invented in-situ geotechnical engineering
technique used to stabilise slopes to prevent the potential
landslides.
● The process of Soil Nailing consists of reinforcing the natural
ground with insertion of solid or hollow steel or glass fibre
bars into an existing slope to reinforce it, transferring part of
the load from the potentially unstable mass to more competent
strata, typically where the potentially unstable mass has a maximum
thickness of 6 to 8 m.
● It finds application in various scenarios such as roadway cuts, road
widening beneath existing bridge abutments, tunnel portals and the
repair and reconstruction of retaining structures and mechanically
stabilised earth (SMSE) walls.
● Soil Nailing generally does not have a direct role in mitigating
soil acidity, for ploughing in agriculture to bring nutrients rich deep
soil to the surface creating seedbed for plantation of crops and in
enhancing biological nitrogen fixation in the soil.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Tamil Nadu State Highways Department is stabilising slopes along major roads in the Nilgiris.

Q87.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 is a legislation in India that deals with children in conflict
with the law and children in need of care and protection. It was enacted in 2000 and has been amended since then
including in 2015.
● Juvenile Justice Board (JJB) is a quasi-judicial body established under the Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children) Act, 2015, which acts as a separate court for Child in Conflict with Law (CCLs), since
they are not to be taken to a regular criminal court. The Board comprises a Principal Magistrate and two Social
Workers, one of whom at least should be a woman. A CCL is defined under the Act as a child who is alleged or
found to have committed an offence and who has not completed eighteen years of age on the date of
commission of offence. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Children’s Court is a Court established under the ‘Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005’ or a
‘Special Court’ under the ‘Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012. It is established wherever
existing and where such courts have not been designated, the Court of Sessions having jurisdiction to try offences
under the Act. As per the mandate of the Act, the JJB conducts preliminary assessment where a CCL, between
16 years to 18 years of age, is alleged to have committed a heinous offence and it may transfer him to Children’s
Court for trial as an adult. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 declares that, ‘First Information Report’ (FIR) or
Zero FIR can be registered only in heinous offences or in cases, where offence has been allegedly
committed by a child jointly with adults. In all other cases, information is recorded in the General daily diary
and forwarded to the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB) for further legal action. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Points to remember:
Zero FIR:
● It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of
the area where the offense is committed.
● The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
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Relevance: In its recent judgement, the Supreme Court has ruled that an appeal against the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB)
order should be filed within 30 days.

Q88.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The sources of electricity generation in India can be broadly classified into conventional and non-conventional. The
conventional sources of power generation are thermal (coal, lignite, natural gas and oil), hydro and nuclear power,
whereas nonconventional sources of power generation (renewable energy sources) include solar, wind, agricultural
and domestic waste, etc.
● Thermal energy is a major source of electricity generation
in India, contributing 57% of the total capacity of
generation in 2022-23, followed by renewable energy
sources (RES) (30.1%), hydro (11.3%) and nuclear
(1.6%). So, statement 1 is not correct.
● From 2008-09 to 2022-23, the share of hydro-
based generation capacity also decreased from
24.9% to 11.3%, whereas renewables-based generation
capacity witnessed an increase from 8.9% to 30.1% [RES
includes Small Hydro Project (≤ 25 MW)]. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
● The hydropower generation has further reduced in 2023-24 as compared to 2022-23 due to various
reasons such as less rainfall, natural disasters in 2023-24 such as flash floods in North-East India in October 2023
that have hindered the operation of several hydropower stations, thus affecting the generation severely.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The lack of adequate renewable energy storage capacities is one of the reasons for increasing reliance on
coal-based and gas-based thermal plants.

Q89.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The NISAR (NASA ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) satellite is a joint National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA)-Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Earth-imaging satellite mission,
scheduled to be launched in 2024. So, statement 1 is correct.
● NISAR is the first spacecraft mission to collect radar data in two microwave bandwidth regions, the
L-band and the S-band using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) technology to measure changes in our planet’s surface
less than a centimetre across. This allows the NISAR to observe a wide range of Earth processes such as changes
in Earth's ecosystems, dynamic surfaces and icy rocks, providing valuable information about biomass, natural
hazards, sea-level rise and groundwater changes. So, statement 2 is correct.
● NISAR will be launched by ISRO's Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark II (GSLV MK II) into a polar
Sun-synchronous dawn-dusk orbit (crossing the poles, trailing Earth's shadow to remain in a perpetual sunrise
or sunset). So, statement 3 is correct.
SAR technology has already provided terrain structural information, natural resource mapping for mineral
exploration and study of surface deformation by seismic activities to geologists; coastal erosion, changes in seashore and
variation of winds in coastal waters and oil spill boundaries on the water to environmentalists; sea state and ice hazard
mapping to navigators; assessment of agricultural biomass over the full duration of the crop cycle, estimation
of soil moisture and monitoring of floods for agricultural scientists; and reconnaissance and targeting information to military
operations. By using SAR Technology, NISAR is also capable of looking at water stressing on the earth and
monitoring the tectonic movements to centimetre accuracy. So, statement 4 is correct.
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So, all four of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to ISRO, the NISAR satellite is capable of measuring tectonic movements with centimetre
accuracy.

Q90.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The India-Middle East-Europe Economic
Corridor (IMEC) is an ambitious plan to
create a new trade route connecting
India, Europe and the Persian Gulf region.
● A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
was signed by India, the European
Union (EU), Germany, Italy,
France, the United States of
America, Saudi Arabia and the
United Arab Emirates (UAE)
(participants) in 2023, on the sidelines of
the G20 Summit to establish the IMEC,
comprising railway lines, sea lines and
road networks. The IMEC is a proposed
route and the specific countries along the northern corridor in Europe are still under discussion. So, points 1,
2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
● Upon completion, the corridor will have a cost-effective and reliable cross-border railway network, which will be
supplemented by the available road transport and maritime routes, facilitating the movement of goods and services
between India, the UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, Israel, Greece and Italy, France and Germany. In
addition, along the corridor, the countries will also lay the network of electricity grids, optical fibre cable for digital
connectivity and pipelines for the transportation of hydrogen gas.
So, all five of the above countries are members of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC)
project.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The IMEC project faces uncertainty amid the West Asia crisis, prompting India to explore initiating work on
the eastern part of the corridor.

Q91.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Widal Test is a rapid blood test that helps detect typhoid or enteric fever in the human body. It was
first conducted in 1896 by Georges Ferdinand Widal and was named after him.
● It is an advanced way to check for antibodies that your body makes against the salmonella bacteria that cause
typhoid fever. It looks for O and H antibodies in a patient’s sample blood (serum).
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Typhoid fever, also known as enteric fever, is a severe illness caused by salmonella
bacteria. This bacteria affects your digestive system after you consume food or water
contaminated with faecal material.

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 ● The main principle of the Widal test is that if a particular antibody is present in the serum,
it will react with a specific antigen and show visible clumping on the test card.
Relevance: Recently, it was observed that the Widal test’s propensity for erroneous results is obfuscating India’s typhoid
burden, increasing expenses and risking more antimicrobial resistance.

Q92.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Ultra-Processed Foods (UPF) are ready-to-eat or ready-to-heat industrial preparations made largely or
entirely with substances extracted from food, often chemically modified, with additives and with a small
proportion of whole food. Therefore, the term UPF includes soft drinks, packaged snacks, sugared breakfast
cereals, cookies, processed meats and packaged frozen or shelf-stable meals, but also flavored yogurts, low-calorie
or low-fat products, breakfast cereals, and products "fortified" with beneficial nutrients. So, statement 2 is
correct.
• To date, consumption of UPF has been shown to negatively impact human health by adversely affecting
body weight, insulin resistance, systemic inflammation, blood pressure, and gut microbiota. Recent
epidemiological studies also suggest that higher consumption of UPF has long-term effects on cardiometabolic
health, increasing the risk of obesity, type 2 diabetes, dyslipidemia, and cardiovascular disease (CVD). So,
statement 1 is not correct.
So, statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is incorrect.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent study found that consuming Ultra-processed food (UPF) is associated with a higher risk of early
death.

Q93.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is the Central Drug Authority for discharging
functions assigned to the Central Government under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940. It works under
the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India. It is India's Central
Drug Regulator and is a Statutory Agency. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● CDSCO is responsible for:
○ Approval of Drugs
○ Conduct Clinical Trials
○ Laying down the Standards for Drugs
○ Control over the quality of imported drugs in the country. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations
○ Along with state regulators, CDSCO is jointly responsible for the grant of licences to certain specialised
categories of critical Drugs such as vaccines and sera, etc.
● The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is an official of the CDSCO which is the final regulatory
authority for the approval of clinical trials in the country. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the CDSCO ordered that medical device manufacturers need to take appropriate action for timely
reporting of adverse events.

Q94.
Answer: b
Explanation:

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 ● BHISHM Portable Cubes are part of Project BHISHM (Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog, Hita, and Maitri),
which aims to treat up to 200 casualties. It is made up of 72 tiny cubes outfitted with innovative medical
equipment that is Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)-tagged. Recently, the Indian Air Force performed a test
so that the portable hospital can be deployed to cater to emergencies anywhere.
● It combines artificial intelligence and data analytics to provide efficient coordination and real-time
monitoring of medical services in the field. These cubes are strong, waterproof, and lightweight, with multiple
configurations to suit a variety of emergency scenarios.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Indian Air Force tested BHISHM portable cubes, a cutting-edge indigenous mobile hospital, in Agra for
airdrops.

Q95.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Armoured Sailfin Catfish: It is commonly referred to as the Rakashior devil fish. It is an invasive fish. It
possesses an uncanny ability to subsist on a diverse diet and can endure oxygen-deprived conditions. It can even
navigate on land using its powerful fins. It has the unique ability to clean algal growth in tanks and aquaria.
So, statement 1 is correct.
○ It has been found that these fish have spread to 60% of the water bodies of Eastern Ghats. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
● A sea anemone is an aquatic animal marked by soft bodies and an ability to sting. They are close associates of
corals and live rocks. They are carnivorous, feeding on tiny plankton or fish. Their stinging tentacles are
triggered by the slightest touch, firing a harpoon-like filament called a nematocyst into their prey. So, statement
3 is not correct.
○ Some sea anemones can burrow into sand. Cerianthus lloydii is a brownish, tube-dwelling anemone.
The mouth and tentacles project above the surface of the sand from the soft tube, which can be
up to 40 cm long and is permanently buried. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, it was discovered that the armoured sailfin catfish has spread to 60% in the water bodies of the
Eastern Ghats, damaging the fishing nets and the ecosystem.

Q96.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Susta:
○ It is a disputed territory between Nepal and India. It is administered by India as part of Bihar. It is located
on the eastern side of the Gandak River (Narayani River in Nepal). So, pair 1 is not correctly
matched.
● Saltora ridge:
○ The Siachen glacier demarcates central Asia from the Indian subcontinent and separates Pakistan from
China in the region. Saltoro Ridge of the Siachen glacier serves as a divide that prevents direct
linking of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir with China, stopping them from developing geographical
military linkages in the area.
○ Due to its control over Saltoro Ridge, India is better placed to strike a bargain while settling bilateral
territorial disputes with Pakistan in the future. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● Kalapani:

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 ○ The territorial dispute includes Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh
and Kalapani at the India-Nepal-China
trijunction in Uttarakhand.
○ Nepal has claimed for long that these areas belong to
it both historically and evidently.
○ Kalapani, which is where India, China and Nepal meet,
has a strategic military position and has been held by
India’s Indo-Tibetan border security forces since the
1962 war with China. The Mahakali River defines the
border in Kalapani but India and Nepal each claim the
river originates in different places, thus the conflict. So,
pair 3 is correctly matched.
So, only two of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Nepal’s cabinet decided to put a map on its Rs 100 currency note showing certain areas
administered by India in Uttarakhand as part of its territory.

Q97.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● An Urban Heat Island occurs when a city or parts of a city experience much warmer temperatures
than nearby areas. It results from complex interactions between built environments, natural factors and human
activities.
● It occurs when cities replace natural land cover with dense concentrations of pavement, buildings
and other surfaces that absorb and retain heat. This effect increases energy costs (e.g., for air conditioning), air
pollution levels and heat-related illness and mortality.
● World Resources Institute – WRI in Bengaluru have found that Urban Heat Island could lead to temperature
differences of up to six degrees centigrade within a given area or neighbourhood. This could change
depending on the construction material used, the number of buildings around the area and the way it is built, the
road materials that have been used and tree/green cover presence and density in the particular locality.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q98.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Orangutans are the largest arboreal ( inhabiting in the trees) mammals and the most socially solitary of the
great apes. All three orangutan species — Bornean, Sumatran and the newly discovered Tapanuli — are critically
endangered, primarily due to habitat loss. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Food/Eating Habits: Orangutans are omnivores. They eat primarily fruit and play an important role in
dispersing seeds through defecation. Although they spend a
majority of their total foraging time feeding on fruits whenever Points To Remmember:
● Orangutans are critically endangered
they are available, orangutans also eat insects and flowers and
under the IUCN Red List .
during times of fruit scarcity, fall back on a variety of other types
of food, including inner bark, leaves and other vegetation. They
have also been observed eating mineral-rich soil, bird eggs and, occasionally, small mammals such as rats and
slow lorises. So, statement 2 is not correct.

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 ● Native Habitat: They are found only in the rain forests of the Southeast Asian islands of Borneo and
Sumatra. They are highly arboreal and live in all levels of the forest, from floor to canopy. They spend nearly
their entire lives in trees—swinging in tree tops and building nests for sleep. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Malaysia plans to introduce orangutan diplomacy.

Q99.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Bail: Bail refers to the provisional release of the accused in a criminal case in which the court has yet to announce
the judgment. The term ‘bail’ means the security that is deposited to secure the release of the accused.
● Interim bail: It is granted for a short period of time and it is granted before the hearing for the grant of regular
bail or anticipatory bail.
○ Interim bail provides short-term temporary relief to those involved in judicial procedures before the
hearing for the grant of regular or anticipatory bail.
○ The period for interim bail can be extended, but if the accused person fails to pay the court to confirm
or prolong the interim bail, they will lose their freedom and may be imprisoned or served a warrant.
○ In the Parminder Singh and Ors. v. The State of Punjab (November 02, 2001) case, the Delhi High Court
identified the following scenarios under which interim relief should be granted:
■ There is no risk of the accused fleeing justice or tampering with evidence.
■ There is not a clear case for custodial questioning.
■ The application for granting anticipatory bail cannot be heard at an early date.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box
Types of Bail In India:
● Regular bail: It is generally granted to a person who has been arrested or
is in police custody. A bail application can be filed for the regular bail.
● Anticipatory bail: It is granted either by the session court or the High
Court. An application for the grant of anticipatory bail can be filed by the
person who discerns that he may be arrested by the police for a non-
bailable offence.
Relevance: Recently, the Supreme Court has rejected the Delhi Chief Minister's plea for a 7-day extension of his interim
bail.

Q100.
Answer: a
Explanation:
U. N. Trust Fund for Counter-Terrorism (UNCTTF):
• It was established in 2009 by the Secretary-General and transferred to the UN Office of Counter-Terrorism
(UNOCT)when it was created in 2017. It aims to support global efforts in countering terrorism. So,
statement 1 is correct.
• Recently, India has contributed $500,000 to the UNCTTF, underscoring its unwavering commitment to
support multilateral efforts in the global fight against the scourge of terrorism.
• The Fund accepts contributions from governments, inter-governmental and non-governmental organizations,
private institutions and individuals.
• Qatar is the largest contributor to the fund. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, India contributed $5,00,000 to the UN Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund.

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