CET Section

Subject Topic
Mock Test – 01
C+M+P Complete Syllabus

Max. Marks: 180 Duration: 3 Hours

1. This paper consists of 180 questions with 3 parts of Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics

 Chemistry: (Q. No. 1 to 60) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.
 Mathematics: (Q. No. 61 to 120) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct
answer carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.
 Physics: (Q. No. 121 to 180) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.

2. The OMR sheet for 200 questions is to be used

3. Use of calculators and log tables is prohibited

4. Darken the appropriate bubble using a pen in the OMR sheet provided to you. Once entered, the
answer cannot be changed. Any corrections or modifications will automatically draw a penalty of
1 mark

5. No clarification will be entertained during the examination. Doubts in the paper can be reported
to the coordinator after the exam

6. If the details in the OMR Sheet are not filled, If the OMR sheet is mutilated, torn, white Ink used,
the circles filled and scratched, then the OMR sheet will not be graded

All the best!!

Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N  14; O  16; H  1; S  32; Cl  35.5; Mn  55; Na  23; C  12; Ag  108; K  39; Fe  56; Pb  207
Physical Constants:

h  6.626 1034 Js , Na  6.022 1023 mol-1 , c  2.998 108 ms-1 , me  9.11031 kg , R  8.314 J mol-1 K-1
 Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60

Me
1. Monomer of CO2H is
Me

(a) 2-methylpropene (b) styrene (c) propylene (d) ethene

2. Which of the following reagents will convert CH3CH 2COCI into CH3CH 2CHO ?

(a) LialH 4 (b) H 2 / Pd (c) H 2 / Pd  BaSO4 , S (d) Na / C2 H5OH

3. The energy of an electron in an atomic orbital of a multi-electron atom depends upon

(a) the principal quantum number only
(b) the principal and azimuthal quantum numbers only
(c) the principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers only
(d) the principal, azimuthal, magnetic and spin quantum numbers.
4. A deep brown gas is formed by mixing two colourless gases. The two colourless gases are

(a) NO2 and O2 (b) NO and O2 (c) N 2 O and NO (d) NH 3 and HCl

5. An organic compound ' A ' on treatment with NH 3 gives ' B ' which on heating gives ' C ', ' C ' when

treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound ' A ' is

(a) CH3COOH (b) CH3CH 2CH 2COOH (c) CH 3 CHCOOH (d) CH3CH 2COOH
CH3

 
6. In the electrolysis of which solution, OH ions are discharged in Preference of to CL ions?
(a) dilute NaCl (b) Very dilute NaCl
(c) fused NaCl (d) Solid NaCl

7. Glycogen is a branched chain polymer of   D  glucose units in which chain is formed by C1  C4

glycosidic linkage whereas branching occurs by the formation of C1  C6 glycosidic linkage. Structure of

glycogen is similar to ……..

(a) amylose (b) amylopectin (c) cellulose (d) glucose
8. How many faradays are required to liberate 8 g of hydrogen gas?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 18
9. The Complex which has the highest magnetic moment among the following is
3 2 2
(a) COF6 3 (b) Co  NH 3 6  (c)  Ni  NH 3 4  (d)  Ni  CN 4 

10. Chlorobenzene can be prepared by reacting aniline with

(a) hydrochloric acid
(b) cuprous chloride
(c) chlorine in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride

(d) NaNO2 / HCl followed by heating with cuprous chloride

Deeksha House 2
11. What fraction of a reactant remains after 40 min if t1/2 is 20 min for a first order reaction?

1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 2 8 6

12. Propene, CH3CH  CH 2 can be converted into 1-propanol by oxidation. Indicate which set of reagents

amongst the following is ideal to effect the above conservation?

(a) KMnO4 (alkaline) (b) Osmium tetroxide (OsO4 / CH 2Cl2 )

(c) B2 H 6 and alk. H 2O2 (d) O3 / Zn

13. Select the correct statement/expression about the graph

(a) It is an irreversible compression

(b) Pressure is not constant and changes in finite steps during compression from initial volume, Vi

to
final volume, V f

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) Cannot say
14. The end product ' C ' in the following sequence of chemical reactions is
Ca (OH ) heat NH OH
CH 3COOH 
2  A 
 B 
2 C

(a) acetaldehyde oxime (b) formaldehyde oxime

(c) methyl nitrate (d) acetoxime

15. Why is HCl not used to make the medium acidic in oxidation reactions of KMnO4 in acidic medium?

(a) Both HCl and KMnO4 act as oxidising agents.

(b) KMnO4 oxidises HCl into Cl2 which is also a oxidising agent.

(c) KMnO4 is a weaker oxidising agent than HCl.

(d) KMnO4 acts as a reducing agent in the presence of HCl.

16. Increasing pKb values of o, m  and p  toluidines is

(a) p  m  o (b) o  m  p (c) p  o  m (d) m  o  p

Deeksha House 3
17. When a catalyst increase the rate of a chemical reaction, the rate constant?
(a) remains constant (b) increases (c) decreases
(d) May increase (or) decrease depending on the order of reaction

18. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity due to the presence of

(a) lone pair of electrons (b) free valence electrons
(c) cations (d) anions
 
19. What is the free energy change for the half reaction Li  e  Li ?

Given E  3.0V , F  96500C mol1 and T  298K .

Li  / Li

(a) 289.5kJ mol1 (b) 298kJ mol1 (c) 32.166 kJ mol1 (d) 289500 kJ mol1

20. Which of the following does not exist as a zwitterion?

(a) Glycine (b) Alamine
(c) Sulphanilic acid (d) p  Aminobenzoic acid

21. The half life of a first order reaction is 30 min and the initial concentration of the reactant is 0.1 M. If the
initial concentration of reactant is doubled, then the half life of the reaction will be
(a) 1800 s (b) 60 min (c) 15 min (d) 900 s
22. Which of the following is reduced with zinc and hydrochloric acid to give the corresponding
hydrocarbon?
(a) ethyl acetate (b) acetic acid (c) acetamide (d) butan-2-one

23. 6.02 1020 molecules of urea are present in 100ml of its solution. The Concentration of the solution is

(a) 0.02M (b) 0.01M (c) 0.001M (d) 0.1M

24. Pure benzene freezes at 5.3C. A solution of 0.223 g of phenylacetic acid (C6 H5CH 2COOH ) in 4.4 g of

benzene ( K f  5.12K kg mol1 ) freezes at 4.47C . From this observation, one can conclude that

(a) phenylacetic acid exists as such in benzene

(b) phenylacetic acid undergoes partial ionization in benzene
(c) phenylacetic acid undergoes complete ionisation in benzene
(d) phenylacetic acid dimerises in benzene.

25. The time taken for 10% completion of a first order reaction is 20 mins . Then for 19% completion, the

reacting will take,

(a) 40 mins (b) 60mins (c) 30mins (d) 50mins

26. The titanium (atomic number 22) Compound that does not exist is

(a) TiO (b) TiO2 (c) TiCl3 (d) K2TiO4

2    
27. The electrode potential for Cu  aq   e  Cu  aq  and Cu  aq   e  Cu s  are 0.15V and 0.50V

0
respectively. The value of E Cu 2 / Cu will be

Deeksha House 4
 (a) 0.150V (b) 0.500V (c) 0.325V (d) 0.650V
28. On heating with soda-lime, salicylic acid gives
(a) Phenol (b) Benzoic acid (c) Sodium salicylate (d) Benzene

29. Red hot carbon will remove oxygen from the oxide AO and BO but not from MO , while B will
remove oxygen from AO . The activity of metals A, B and M in decreasing order is

(a) A  B  M (b) B  A  M (c) M  B  A (d) M  A  B

30. Which is the strongest base among the following?
(a) La  OH 3 (b) Lu  OH 3 (c) Ce  OH 3 (d) Yb  OH 3

31. Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction, because

(a) 5 f -electrons themselves provide poor shielding from element to element

(b) 4 f -electrons provide poor shielding as compared to 5 f -electrons

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) neither (a) nor (b)
32. 60 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) was discovered in 9.9 moles of water. If the vapour pressure of pure water is

p1 , the vapour pressure of solution is

(a) 0.10 p1 (b) 1.10 p1

33. Acetone on distillation with conc. H 2 SO4 forms

(a) phorone (b) acrolein (c) mesitylene (d) mesityl oxide

34. The half-life period of a radioactive element is 20 days. What will be the remaining mass of 100g of it

after 60 days?
(a) 25g (b) 50g (c) 12.5g (d) 20g

4 3
35. On the basis of information available from the reaction Al  O2  Al2O3 , G  827 kJ mol1 of O2 .
3 2

‘The minimum emf required to carry out an electrolysis of Al2O3 is ( F  96500C mol1 )

(a) 2.14 V (b) 4.28 V (c) 6.42 V (d) 8.56 V

36. The reaction,

C6 H5ONa  CO2  H 2O  C6 H5OH  NaHCO3 suggests that

(a) phenol is a stronger acid than carbonic acid
(b) carbonic acid is a stronger acid than phenol
(c) water is a stronger acid than phenol
(d) phenol is stronger acid than water.
37. Given: 2C(s)  2O2( g )  2CO2( g ) ; H1  767kJ …(i)

1
H 2( g )  O2( g )  H 2O(l ) ; H 2  266kJ ….(ii)
2

Deeksha House 5
 5
C2 H 2( g )  O2  2CO2( g )  H 2O(l ) ; H3  1290 kJ …(iii)
2
Heat of formation of acetylene is
(a) 1802 kJ (b) – 1802 kJ (c) 257 kJ (d) 237 kJ
38. The ease of dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides follows the order :
(a) 1  2  3 (b) 2  3  1 (c) 3  1  2 (d) 3  2  1
39. Gastric juice contains about 3.0 g of HCl per litre. If a person produces about 2.5 litre of gastric juice per

day, number of antacid tablets each containing 400 mg of Al (OH )3 needed to neutralize all the HCl

produced per day will be

(a) 10 (b) 18 (c) 14 (d) 8
40. The osmotic pressure of 0.1M aqueous solution of NaCl is ---------- Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M aqueous

solution of glucose
(a) Equal to (b) less than (c) half of (d) nearly double
41. Solubility of a gas in a liquid increases with
(a) increase of pressure and increase of temperature
(b) decrease of pressure and increase of temperature
(c) increase of pressure and decrease of temperature
(d) decrease of pressure and decrease of temperature
42. Consider the following:
1. EDTA – Hexadentate legand
2. ethylenediamine – Bidentate ligand
3. diethylenetriamine – Tridentate ligand
4. triethylenetetraamine – Tridentate ligand
Which is / are not correctly paried?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) only 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
43. The major product obtained when tert-butyl bromide is heated with sodium ethoxide is
(a) 2-methyl-1-propene (b) ethene
(c) tert-butyl methyl ether (d) diethyl ether
44. The correct order of increasing acid strength of the compounds

(A) CH3CO2 H (B) MeOCH 2CO2 H

Me
(C) CF3CO2 H (D) CO2H is
Me

(a) B < D < A < C (b) D < A < C < B (c) D < A < B < C (d) A < D < C < B

45. Which one of the following contains ionic, covalent and coordinate bonds?
(a) NaOH (b) NaCl (c) NaCN (d) NaNC
46. In the following decomposition reaction

Deeksha House 6
 
2 H 2O  2 H 2  O2

(a) hydrogen is oxidised (b) oxygen is reduced

(c) hydrogen is reduced (d) oxygen remains unaffected
47. Which of the following metal ions has highest tendency to form complex?
2 2 3 
(a) Ca (b) Co (c) Ce (d) Li

48. Which of the following 0.1M aqueous solution is likely to have the highest boiling point?

(a) Na 2SO4 (b) KCL (c) Glucose (d) urea

49. The rate law for the reaction,

2NOBr( g )  2NO( g )  Br2( g ) is rate  k[ NOBr ]2 . The rate constant for the reaction at a certain

1 1
temperature is 1.62M s . If the concentration of NOBr at a certain time is 2.00 103 M , what will be

the rate of reaction?

6 1 6 1 6 1 6 1
(a) 4.40  10 M s (b) 4.50  10 M s (c) 6.44 10 M s (d) 6.48 10 M s
50. Order of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction of the compounds
Cl Cl Cl Cl
NO 2 O2N NO 2

NMe 2 NO 2 NO 2 NO 2

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(a) i  ii  iii  iv (b) ii  i  iii  iv (c) iv  iii  ii  i (d) iii  iv  ii  i
51. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
2
(a) Cu  NH 3 4   Square planar?

(b)  Ni  CO 4   neutral ligand

3
(c)  Fe  CN 6   sp3d 2

+3
(d) Co  en 3   follows EAN rule

52. In Lassaigne’s test, the sodium extract of an organic compound containing both nitrogen and sulphur on

treatment with FeCl3 , produces a blood red colouration due to the formation of

(a) Fe(CNS )2 (b) NaCNS (c) NH 4CNS (d) Fe( SCN )3

53. Calculate the reduction potential of a half cell consisting of platinum electrode immersed in 2.0 M Fe2

and 0.02 M Fe3 , given E Fe3 / Fe2  0.771V

0

(a) 0.653V (b) 0.889 V (c) 0.683V (d) 2.771V

Deeksha House 7
54. Mercury is a liquid metal because
(a) it has a completely filled s  orbital
(b) it has a small atomic size
(c) it has a completely filled d -orbital that prevents d  d overlapping of orbitals
(d) it has a completely filled d -orbital that causes d  d overlapping

55. Which is a non-aromatic compound?

CH3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
N
H

56. The pH of the solution prepared by mixing 2 – 0 ml of HCl solution of pH 3.0 and 3-0 ml of NaOH

solution of pH 10.0 is

(a) 2.5 (b) 3.5 (c) 5.5 (d) 6.5

57. For the reaction C(s)  CO2 ( g )  2CO( g ), K p  63 atm at 100 K. If at equilibrium,

pCO  10 pCO2 , then the total pressure of the gases at equilibrium is

(a) 6.3 atm (b) 6.93 atm (c) 0.63 atm (d) 0.693 atm
58. In chromite ore, the oxidation number of iron and chromium are respectively
(a) 3, 2 (b) 3, 6 (c) 2, 6 (d) 2, 3
59. Which of the following can possibly be used as analgesic without causing addiction and modification?
(a) Morphine (b) N-Acetyl-para-aminophenol
(c) Diazepam (d) Tetahydrocatecol
60. Which of the following Carbonyls will have the strongest C  O bond?
 
(a)  Mn  CO 6  (b) Cr  CO 6 (c) V  CO 6 (d) Fe  CO 5

Mathematics
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60
2
61. The value of  1  x dx is
0

3
(a) 2 (b) (c) 0 (d) 1
2
62. The area enclosed by the curve x 2  4ay , the x – axis, and the ordinates x  0, x  4a , in square units, is

2 16a 2 2 2
(a) 16a (b) (c) 3a (d) 48a
3

63. The area of the region bounded by y  2 x  x2 and the x  axis is

Deeksha House 8
 7 2 8 4
(a) sq. units (b) sq. units (c) sq. units (d) sq. units
3 3 3 3

64. The solution of the differential equation ydx  x  x2 y dy  0 is  

1 1 1
(a)  ln y  c (b)   ln y  c (c) c (d) ln y  cx
xy xy xy

2
d2y  dy 
65. The order and degree of the differential equation x     y 2  0 are respectively
dx 2  dx 
(a) 2 and 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 2 (d) 1 and 1

dy x  y
66. Solution of the differential equation  satisfying the condition y 1  1 is
dx x

(a) y  log x  x (b) y  x log x  x 2 (c) y  xe x 1 (d) y  x log x  x

      
67. The shortest distance between the lines r  4iˆ  ˆj   iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ and r  iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ   2iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ is 
6
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) (d) 6 5
5

68. Vector equation of the line 6 x  2  3 y  1  2 z  2 is r 


(a) iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ   iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ  1 1 
(b) iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ    iˆ  ˆj  kˆ 
 3 3 

(c)
1ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ

i  j  k   iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ
3 3
 
(d) 2iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ   6iˆ  3 ˆj  2kˆ 
x  3 y 1 z  3
69. Equations of a line through 1, 2, 2 and parallel to the line whose equations are  
2 7 2
x 1 y  2 z  2 x2 y7 z2
(a)   (b)  
2 7 2 3 1 3

x 2 y 3 z 3 x  3 y 1 z  2
(c)   (d)  
2 1 1 2 1 1
70. The minimum value of z  5x  4 y subject to constrains x  y  10, y  4 ; x, y  0 will be at the point

(a) 10, 4  (b)  10, 4 (c)  6,4 (d)  0,4

71. The region represented by the system of equations x, y  0, y  6, x  y  3 is

(a) unbounded in first quadrant

(b) unbounded in first and second quadrants
(c) bounded in first quadrant
(d) bounded in 2nd quadrant

72. If A is a square matrix such that A2  A then  I  A3  7 A is equal to

(a) A (b) I  A (c) I (d) 3A

1 0   1 0 
73. If A  B    , A  2 B   0 1 then A is
1 1   

Deeksha House 9
 2 1 1 1 1 
 0
1 0 
(a)  (b)  3 3 
(c)  3 3 
(d)  3
   
1 1  1 2 2 1 2 1
 3 3   3 3   3 3 

 1 3  4
74. If A    , then A in terms of A is
 2 4 
(a) 14 A  15I (b) 15 A  14I (c) 5 A  12 I (d) 4 A  15I

43 44 45
75. The value of 44 45 46 is
45 46 46

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 1 (d) 2

76. Which one of the following is one  one?

x2  1
(a) f  x   x 2 (b) f  x  
2
(c) f  x   2x  5 (d) f  x   cos x.  0  x  2 

 
 2sin x if x
2

 
77. Let f  x    a sin x  b if  x . The values of a and b so that f  x  is continuous are
2 2

 cos x 
 if x
 2
(a) a  1, b  1 (b) a  1, b  1 (c) a  1, b  1 (d) a  1, b  1

78. f  x   sin x  loge x is continuous

(a)  x (b)  x  0 (c)  x  0 (d)  x  (0,1]

79. Let   denote the greatest integer function and f  x   tan2 x  then


(a) lim f  x  does not exist (b) f  x  is continuous at x  0

x 0

(c) f  x  is not differentiable at x  0 (d) f '  0   1

80. The function f  x   sin x


(a) differentiable at x  0 (b) not differentiable at x 
2

(c) not differentiable at x  0 (d) differentiable at x  0 and x 
2
 2x  dy
81. If y  tan 1  is equal to
2
then
 1 x  dx

2 3 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1 x 2
1 x 2
1 x 2
1  x2

1  2  1 
82. Derivative of sin  2 x 1  x  with respect to tan 1 x
is equal to;  x  
  1  x2  2

Deeksha House 10
 (a) 1 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 2

83. The critical values of x of the function f  x   sin 2 x in 0,   are

    2
(a) 0,  (b) 0, (c) , (d) ,
2 3 2 3 3
sin x  cos x sin x
84. The value of  1  sin 2 x
e .cos x dx is

sin x cos x
c c (c) ln sin x  cos x   c c
sin x cos x
(a) e (b) e (d) e

dx
85. The value of  is
 
1  x 2 sin 1 x

  sin 1 x  c (c) 2 sin 1 x  c

2
(a) sin 1 x c (b) (d)

 
2
2 sin 1 x c

x  sin x
86. The value of  dx is
1  cos x

x x x 1 x
(a) tan  c (b) cot  c (c) x tan c (d) cos  c
2 2 2 2 2
87. The value of  tan 2x dx is
2

sec2 2 x tan 2 x tan 2 x 1

(a) xc (b)  xc (c)  xc (d) cot 2 x  x  c
2 2 2 2
1/2
 1 x 
88. The value of cos x ln 

 dx is
1 x 
1/2

(a) 1 (b) 2 e (c) 0 (d) e

 /2
a sin x  b cos x
89. The value of  sin x  cos x
dx is
0

 a  b  a  b  a  b  a  b
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 4 2 2
2
dx
90. The value of  is
0 4  4 x  x2

  
(a)  (b) (c) (d)
4 2 3
91. The system of equations x  y  z  6, x  2 y  3z  10 and x  2 y   z   has no solution, if

(a)   3,   10 (b)   3,   10 (c)   3,   10 (d)   3,   10

92. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and A  3, then adj A is

(a) 3 (b) 9 (c) 1, 3 (d) 0

Deeksha House 11
  cos90  sin 90 
93. The value of tan 1   is
 cos90  sin 90 

   
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 4 2
  3 
94. The value of sin  2 cos 1    is
  5 

24 2 6 2 5 16
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25 5 6 25

95. If p   2,1,3 , q   2,3,1 and r   3, 2, 4  and ˆj is the unit vector in the direction of y -axis, then

 2 p  3q  4r  . ˆj is

(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 21

96. The area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides are iˆ  kˆ and 2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ is

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 3 (d) 4

97. When direction cosines of two lines satisfy l  m  n  0 and 2lm  2ln  mn, then (l , m, n) is equal to

 1 2 1   1 1 1 
(a) 1, 2,1 (b)  2, 1, 1  (c)  , ,  (d)  , , 
 6 6 6  3 3 3

1 1
98. For k = 1, 2, 3 the box Bk contains k red balls and  k  1 white balls. Let P  B1   , P  B2  
2 3
1
and P  B3   . A box is selected at random and a ball is drawn from it. If a red balls is drawn, then the
6

probability that it has come from box B2 , is

35 14 10 12
(a) (b) (c) (d)
78 39 13 13

3x  1 1 x 1  2x
99. Events A, B, C are mutually exclusive events such that P  A   , P  B  and P  C   .
3 4 2
The set of possible values of x are in the interval

1 1  1 2   1 13 
(a)  ,  (b)  ,  (c)  ,  (d) 0,1
3 2 3 3 3 3 
100. A box contains 12 bulbs of which 3 are defective. If three bulbs are chosen at random without
replacement, find the probability of at least one bulb is good.
1 21 219 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
120 40 220 220

101. The number of terms in the expansion of  a  b  c 10 is

(a) 11 (b) 21 (c) 55 (d) 66

3 3
102. If x and y are acute angles, such that cos x  cos y  and sin x  sin y  , then sin  x  y  equals
2 4

Deeksha House 12
 2 3 3 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 4 5 5
103. cos1  cos 2  cos3   cos180 is equal to
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 1

104. The value of k such that the lines 2 x  3 y  k  0, 3s  4 y  13  0 and 8x 11y  33  0 are concurrent, is

(a) 20 (b) 7 (c) 7 (d) 20

105. A straight line passes through the points  5, 0  and  0, 3 . The length of perpendicular from the point

 4, 4 on the line is

15 17 17 17
(a) (b) (c) (d)
34 2 2 2

106. If one end of a diameter of the circle x2  y 2  4 x  6 y  11  0 is  3, 4  , then find the coordinates of the

other end of the diameter

(a)  2, 1 (b) 1, 2 (c) 1, 1 (d) None of these

x2 y 2
107. The equation of a directrix of the ellipse   1 is
16 25
(a) 3 y  5 (b) y  5 (c) 3 y  25 (d) y   3

108. The eccentricity of the hyperbola with latus rectum 12 and semi-conjugate axis 2 3 is

3
(a) 3 (b) (c) 2 3 (d) 2
2

109. The sum of the reciprocals of focal distances of a focal chord PQ of y 2  4ax is

1 1
(a) (b) a (c) 2a (d)
a 2a
110. A spherical balloon is being inflated at the rate of 35 cc/min. The rate of increase of the surface area of
the balloon when its diameter is 14 cm is
(a) 7 sq.cm/min (b) 10 sq.cm/min (c) 17.5 cm/min (d) 28 sq.cm/min

111. If a  0 , the function f  x   eax  e  ax is decreasing for all values of x , where

(a) x  0 (b) x  0 (c) x  1 (d) x  1

112. On the interval 0, 1 the function x25 1  x 75 takes its maximum value at the point

1 1 1
(a) 0 (b) (c) (d)
4 2 3
113. The sum of an infinite geometric series is 2 and the sum of the geometric series made from the cubes of
this infinite series is 24. Then the series is
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
(a) 3    (b) 3     (c) 3     (d) none of these
2 4 8 2 4 8 2 4 8

114. The minimum value of 4 x  41 x , x  R , is

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) none of these

Deeksha House 13
115. 15 C8 15 C9  15C6  15C7 is equal to

(a) 8 (b) 0 (c) 6 (d) none of these

n
116. The smallest positive integral value of n for which  1  i  is purely imaginary with positive
1 i 
imaginary part, is
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) none of these

2i
117. The conjugate complex number of is
1  2i 2
2 11 2 11 2 11 2 11
(a)  i (b)  i (c)   i (d)   i
25 25 25 25 25 25 25 25

118. The multiplicative inverse of  6  5i 2 is

11 60 11 60 9 60
(a)  i (b)  i (c)  i (d) none of these
61 61 61 61 61 61
119. The standard deviation for the set of numbers 1, 4, 5, 7, 8 is 2.45 nearly. If 10 is added to each number
then, new standard deviation is
(a) 24.45 (b) 12.45 (c) 2.45 (d) 0.245
120. The mean of 18 observations is 7 and if each observation 5 is added, then the new mean will be
(a) 2 (b) 12 (c) 7 (d) none of these

Physics
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60
121. Out of the following pairs which one does not have identical dimensions?
(a) Moment of inertia and moment of a force
(b) Work and torque
(c) Angular momentum and Planck’s constant
(d) Impulse and momentum
122. In 1.0 s, a particle goes from point A to point B, moving in a semicircle of radius 1.0 m. The magnitude

of the average velocity of the particle is

(a) 3.14 m s1 (b) 2.0 m s1 (c) 1.0 m s1 (d) zero

6 4
123. If wavelength of maximum intensity of radiation emitted by sun and moon are 0.5  10 m and 10 m
respectively, the ratio of the temperature is
(a) 1 : 100 (b) 1 : 200 (c) 200 : 1 (d) 400 : 1

124. A body is allowed to fall from a height of 100 m. If the time taken for the first 50 m is t1 , and for the

remaining 50 m is t 2 , then

(a) t1  t2 (b) t1  t2 (c) t1  t2 (d) depends upon the mass

Deeksha House 14
125. A wall is made of equally thick layers A and B of different materials. Thermal conductivity of A is
twice that of B . In the steady state, the temperature difference across the wall is 36C . The temperature
difference across the layer A is
(a) 12C (b) 18C (c) 6C (d) 24C
126. Two bodies are thrown up at angles of 45 and 60 respectively, with the horizonal. If both bodies
attain same vertical height, then the ratio of velocities with which these are thrown is

2 2 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 2 2

127. 400 cc volume of a gas having   5 / 2 is suddenly compressed to 100 cc. If the initial pressure is P, then

the final pressure will be

(a) P / 32 (b) 8P (c) 32P (d) 16P

128. A spring of force constant 800 N m1 has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm

to 15 cm is
(a) 16 J (b) 8 J (c) 32 J (d) 24 J
129. If the air column in a pipe which is closed at one end, is in resonance with a vibrating tuning fork at a
frequency 260 Hz, then the length of the air column is
(a) 35.7 cm (b) 31.7 cm (c) 12.5 cm (d) 62.5 cm
130. Which of the following is an expression for power?
(a) P   (b) P  I (c) P  I  (d) P  

131. A body constrained to move in y  direction is subjected to a force given by F  (2iˆ  15 ˆj  6kˆ)N .

The work done by this force in moving the body a distance of 10 m along the y -axis is

(a) 20 J (b) 150 J (c) 160 J (d) 190 J

132. A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. If its angular frequency is
doubled and its kinetic energy halved, then the new angular momentum is

L L
(a) (b) 2L (c) 4L (d)
4 2
133. If the metal bob of a simple pendulum is replaced by a wooden bob, then its time period will
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remain the same (d) first increases then decreases
134. Two satellites of masses M and 9M are orbiting a planet in a circular orbit of radius r . Their frequency
of revolution will be in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 9 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 3 : 1
135. Two tuning forks A and B vibrating simultaneously produce 5 beats. Frequency of B is 512 Hz. It is
seen that of one arm of A is filed, then the number of beats increases. Frequency of A will be
(a) 502 Hz (b) 507 Hz (c) 517 Hz (d) 522 Hz
136. Two point charges exert on each other a force F when they are placed r distance apart in air. When
they are placed R distance apart in medium of dielectric constant K , they exert the same force. The
distance R equals
Deeksha House 15
 r r
(a) (b) (c) rK (d) r K
K k
137. If potential difference of a capacitor 6 F is changed from 10 V to 20 V, then increase in energy is

4 4 4 4
(a) 2  10 J (b) 4  10 J (c) 3  10 J (d) 9  10 J
138. The electric field E , current density J and conductivity  of a conductor are related as
1
(c)   J E (d)  
2
(a)   E / J (b)   J / E
JE
139. For circuit the equivalent capacitance between points P and Q is

P Q
C C C C C C

3 6
(a) 6C (b) 4C (c) C (d) C
2 11
140. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10 V. The
potential at the centre of the sphere is
(a) 0 V
(b) 10 V
(c) same as at a point 5 cm away from the surface
(d) same as at a point 20 cm away from the surface
141. A negatively charged oil drop is prevented from falling under gravity by applying a vertical electric field

100 V m1 . If the mass of the drop is 1.6 103 g , the number of electron carried by the drop is

( g  10 m s2 )

18 15 12 9
(a) 10 (b) 10 (c) 10 (d) 10

142. Three charges Q0 , q and  q are placed at the vertices of an isosceles right angled triangle as in the

figure. The net electrostatic potential energy is zero if Q0 is equal to

q

Q0 l q

q 2q
(a) (b) (c) 2q (d)  q
4 32

Deeksha House 16
143. The potential gradient along the length of a uniform wire is 10 volt per metre. B and C are two points
at 30 cm and 60 cm on a metre scale along the wire. The potential difference between B and C will be
(a) 3 volt (b) 0.4 volt (c) 7 volt (d) 4 volt

144. The figure shows stopping potential Vs and frequency  for two different metallic surface A and B .
The work function of A , as compared to that of B is
Vs
A B

(a) less (b) more (c) equal (d) nothing can be said

145. Figure shows currents in a part of an electric circuit, then current I is

2A 1A

1.3A

2A

(a) 1.7 A (b) 3.7A (c) 1.3 A (d) 1 A

146. The emf of a cell is  and its internal resistance is r . Its terminals are connected to a resistance R . The
potential difference between the terminals is 1.6 V for R  4 , and 1.8 V for R  9 . Then,
(a)   1V, r  1 (b)   2 V, r  1 (c)   2V, r  2 (d)   2.5V, r  0.5

147. A wire of resistance R is stretched till its length is double of the original wire. Then the resistance of the
stretched wire is
(a) 2R (b) 4R (c) 8R (d) 16R
148. An electric heating element consumes 500 W when connected to a 100 V line. If the line voltage becomes
150 V, the power consumed will be
(a) 500 W (b) 750 W (c) 1000 W (d) 1125 W
149. A circuit is as shown in the figure. Then, the current from A to B is
A
10 15
 
10V  10 5V


Deeksha House 17
 (a) + 500 mA (b) + 250 mA (c) – 250 mA (d) – 500 mA
150. The ratio of the de Brogile wavelength of proton and  particle which have been accelerated through
same potential difference is

(a) 2 3 (b) 3 2 (c) 2 2 (d)

3 3
151. The relative permeability of a medium is 0.075. what is its magnetic susceptibility?
(a) 0.925 (b) – 0.925 (c) 1.075 (d) – 1.075
152. If a galvanometer current is 10 mA, resistance of the galvanometer is 40 and shunt of 2 is
connected to the galvanometer, the maximum current which can be measured by this ammeter is
(a) 0.21 A (b) 2.1 A (c) 210 A (d) 21 A
4 2
153. A magnet of length 0.1 m and pole strength 10 Am is kept in a magnetic field of 30 Wb/m at an angle

of 30 . The couple acting on it is… 104 N m

(a) 7.5 (b) 1.5 (c) 4.5 (d) 6.0

154. To produce a magnetic field of  tesla at the centre of circular loop of diameter 1 m, the current flowing
through loop is

(a) 5  10 A (c) 2.5  10 A (d) 2  10 A

6 7 6 6
(b) 10 A
155. Two wires of same length are shaped into a square and a circle. If they carry same current, ratio of
magnetic moment is
(a) 2 :  (b)  : 2 (c)  : 4 (d)
4 :

156. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry current I1 and I 2 in the same direction. They

exert a force F on each other. Now the current in one of them is increased to two times and its direction
is reversed. The distance is also increased to 3d . The new value of the force between them is
(a) 2F (b) F / 3 (c) 2 F / 3 (d) F / 3
157. Two long thin wires ABC and DEF are arranged as shown in figure. They carry currents I . The
magnitude of the magnetic field at O is
F

A I B O I
E D
I
a

0 I 0 I 0 I
(a) zero (b) (c) (d)
4 a 2 a 2 2 a

158. The moment of a magnet (15 cm  2 cm 1 cm) is 1.2 A-m2 . What is its intensity of magnetisation?

Deeksha House 18
 1 4 1 1
(a) 4  10 Am
4 4
(b) 2×10 Am (c) 10 Am (d) None of these
159. Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of
(a) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons (b) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
(c) 11 protons and 13 neutrons (d) 11 protons and 13 electrons
160. A tritium contains
(a) 1 proton + 2 neutrons (b) 1 proton + 1 neutron
(c) 2 protons + 1 neutron (d) 2 protons + 2 neutrons
161. According to classical theory, the circular path of an electron in Rutherford atom model is
(a) Spiral (b) Circular (c) Parabolic (d) Straight line
162. As one considers orbits with higher values of n in a hydrogen atom, the electric potential energy of the
atom
(a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Remains the same (d) Does not increase
163. Which of the following statements is true for hydrogen atom?

1 1
(a) Angular momentum  (b) Linear momentum 
n n
1 1
(c) Radius  (d) Energy 
n n

164. Doubly ionised helium atom and hydrogen ions are accelerated, from rest, through the same potential
difference. The ratio of final velocities of helium and hydrogen is

(a) 1: 2 (b) 2 :1 (c) 1: 2 (d) 2 :1

1 1
165. What is conductivity of a semiconductor (in  m ) if electron density  5 10 /cm and hole density
12 3

 8 1013 / cm3 ? (e  2.3m2 V1s1, h  0.01m2 V1s1 )

(a) 5.634 (b) 1.968 (c) 3.421 (d) 8.964
166. If c is the velocity of light, which of the following is correct?

1 1
(a) 0 0  c (b) 0 0  c2 (c) 0 0  (d) 0 0 
c c2
167. Temperature coefficient of resistance of semiconductor is
(a) Zero (b) Constant (c) Positive (d) Negative
168. A potential barrier of 0.3 V exists across a p  n junction. If the depletion region is 1μm wide, what is the

intensity of electric field in this region?

(a) 2 105 V m1 (b) 3 105 V m1 (c) 4 105 V m1 (d) 5 105 V m1

169. In the half wave rectifier circuit operating form 50 Hz mains frequency, the fundamental frequency in

the ripple would be

(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz (c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz

170. Ozone layer earth’s atmosphere will not

(a) Prevent infrared radiations from sun reaching earth

Deeksha House 19
 (b) Prevent infra-red radiations originated from earth from escaping earth’s atmosphere
(c) Prevent ultraviolet rays from sun
(d) Reflect back radio waves
171. A circular coil of radius 0.1 m has 80 turns of wire. If the magnetic field through the coil increases from 0
to 2 tesla in 0.4 sec and the coil is connected to a 11 ohm resistor, what is the current (in A) flow through
the resistor during the 0.4 sec?
(a) (8/7) A (b) (7/8) A (c) 8 A (d) 7 A
172. In a series LCR circuit the voltage across the resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10 V each. If the
capacitance and inductance is 10 V each. If the capacitance is short circuited. The voltage across the
inductance will be

(a) 10 V (b) 10 2 V (c) (10 / 2) V (d) 20 V

173. If N is the number of turns in a coil, the value of self-inductance varies as

0 2 2
(a) N (b) N (c) N (d) N
174. In an ac circuit, the reactance is equal to the resistance. The power factor of the circuit will be

1 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d) zero
2 2
175. The core of a transformer is laminated to reduce
(a) flux leakage (b) hysteresis (c) copper loss (d) eddy current
176. The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is
(a) virtual and diminished (b) real and diminished
(c) real and enlarged (d) virtual and enlarged

177. A substance is behaving as convex lens in air and concave in water, then its refractive index is
(a) greater than air but less than water (b) greater than both air and water
(c) smaller than air (d) almost equal to water

178. The locus of all particles in a medium, vibrating in the same phase is called
(a) Wavelet (b) fringe (c) wave front (d) none of these
179. In a Young’s double slit experiment, d  0.5mm and D  100cm . It is found that 9th bright fringe is at a
distance of 7.5 mm from the second dark fringe pattern. The wavelength of light used is (in Å )
2500 5000
(a) (b) 2500 (c) 5000 (d)
7 7

180. The focal length of a biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 0.06 m. Radii of curvature are in the
ratio 1: 2. Then radii of curvature of two lens surfaces are
(a) 0.045 m, 0.09 m (b) 0.09 m, 0.18 m (c) 0.04 m, 0.08 m (d) 0.06 m, 0.12 m

Deeksha House 20