ALL INDIA MOCK TEST

Sample Paper - 5

DURATION : 180 Minutes MARKS : 720

Topic Covered
Physics : FULL SYLLABUS
Chemistry : FULL SYLLABUS
Biology : FULL SYLLABUS

Please read the instructions carefully :

1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct
response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted. The maximum marks
are 720.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided in the Test Booklet only.

4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The
candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

5. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

6. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.

7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.

8. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

10. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice.

11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

12. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.

13. The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS
1. ,d okgd iV~ Vs ¼tksf d 1 ms–2 ls Rofjr gS ½ ds 1. Figure shows a man of mass 55 kg standing
lkis{k 55 kg nzO;eku dk ,d vkneh fLFkj [kM+k gS stationary with respect to a horizontal conveyor
belt that is accelerating with 1 ms-2. The net force
¼fp= esa fn[kk;k x;k gS½ rks vkneh ij dk;Z jr~ dqy acting on the man is :
cy gS %

(1) 35 N
(1) 35 N
(2) 45 N (2) 45 N
(3) 55 N (3) 55 N
(4) 65 N (4) 65 N
2. nkc] 'kfDr] ÅtkZ ] vkos x] xq :Roh; foHko] fo|q r 2. Consider the quantities, pressure, power, energy,
vkos'k] rkieku] {ks= Qy vkfn jkf'k;ksa esa ls dsoy impulse, gravitational potential, electrical
charge, temperature, area. Out of these, the only
lfn'k jkf'k;k¡ gS % vector quantities are
(1) vkosx] nkc rFkk {ks=Qy (1) impulse, pressure and area
(2) vkosx rFkk {ks=Qy (2) impulse and area
(3) {ks=Qy rFkk xq:Roh; foHko (3) area and gravitational potential
(4) vkosx rFkk nkc (4) impulse and pressure
3. ljy js[kh; vkoZr xfr dj jgs fdlh d.k ds fy, 3. The potential energy function for a particle
executing linear simple harmonic motion is
1
fLFkfrt ÅtkZ Qyu lehdj.k }kjk U ( x)  kx2 , 1 2
2 given by U ( x)  kx , where k is the fo rce
fn;k x;k gS] tgkW k nksyd dk cy fu;rkad gSA 2
constant of the osicllator. For k = 0.5 Nm-1, the
k = 0.5 Nm–1, ds fy, U (x) vkSj x ds eè; xz kQ fp= graph U (x) versus x is shown in the figure given
esa fn[kk;k x;k gSA below.

bl 'kfDr ds vUrxZr 1 twy dh dqy ÅtkZ ls pyrs

Find out position of a particle carrying total
gq, fdlh d.k dh og fLFkfr Kkr djsa ftlls ;g energy 1 J moving under this potential at which
fuf'pr :i ls okil gksdj viuh okLrfod fLFkfr it must turn back to its orignal position.
dks izkIr djsa% (1)  0.5 m
(1)  0.5 m
(2) 1 m
(2) 1 m
(3) 2 m (3) 2 m
(4) 3 m (4) 3 m
4. ,d vleku yEckbZ dh NM+ dk ? ku Ro
1m 4. The density of a non-uniform rod of lenght 1m is
given by (x) = (1 + bx2), where a and b are
(x) = (1 + bx ) fn;k x;k gS] tgkW a vkSj b fu;r
2

constants and 0 x 1 . The centre of mass of the

jkf'k rFkk 0 x 1 gSA NM+ dk nzO;eku dsUnz gksxk%
rod will be at.

3 2b 3 2b
(1) (1)
4 3b 4 3b

4 2b 4 2b
(2) (2)
3 3b 3 3b

3 3b 3 3b
(3) (3)
4 2b 4 2b

4 3b 4 3b
(4) (4)
3 2b 3 2b

5. vkn'kZ xSl ds fy, p-V xzkQ fuEufyf[kr :i ls 5. Consider p-V diagram for an ideal gas shown in
n'kkZ ;k tkrk gS A figure.

Out of the following diagrams, which figure

uhps fn, x;s fp=ksa esa ls dkSu&lk fp= oØ T-P
represents the T-P diagram ?
xzkQ dk lgh fu:ij.k gS%

T T 2
T T 2 2
2

(i) (ii)
(i) (ii) 1 1
1 1
P P
P P

T
T
1
1
2
2 (iii) (iv)
(iii) (iv)
P
P

(1) (iv) (1) (iv)

(2) (ii) (2) (ii)

(3) (iii) (3) (iii)

(4) (i) (4) (i)
6. v ms–1 pky ds lkFk rjaxnSè;Z  okyh èofu rjaxsa ,d 6. Sound waves of wavelenght  travelling in a
ekè;e esa xfr djrh gqbZ nwljs ekè;e esa iz os'k djrh medium with a speed of v ms–1 enter into another
medium where its speed in 2v ms–1. Wavelength
gS] tgk¡ budh pky 2v ms–1 gSA nwljs ekè;e esa èofu of sound waves in the second medium is.
dh rjaxnSè;Z gS%
(1) 
(1) 

 (2)
(2) 2
2
(3) (3) 2
2
(4) 4 (4) 4
7. ,d vuUr js[kh; vkos'k 2 cm dh nwjh ij 9 × 104 7. An infinite line charge produces a field of
N/C dk {ks= mRiUu djrk gSA blds js[ kh; vkos'k 9 × 104 N/C at a distance of 2cm. Calculate the
linear charge density.
?kuRo dk eku gksxk%
(1) 10–5 C/m
(1) 10–5 C/m
(2) 10–6 C/m (2) 10–6 C/m

(3) 10–7 C/m (3) 10–7 C/m

(4) 10–8 C/m (4) 10–8 C/m
8. rkj dh ,d o`Ùkkdkj dq.Myh esa 100 Qsjs gS] izR;sd 8. A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each
dh f=T;k 8.0 cm gS vkSj buesa 0.40 A dh fo|q r of radius 8.0 cm carries a current of 0.40 A. What
/kkjk iz o kfgr gks jgh gS A dq . Myh ds dsU nz ij is the magnitude of the magnetif field B at the
centre of the coil ?
pq Ecdh; {ks= dk ifjek.k D;k gS%
(1) 4T
(1) 4T
(2) 3.1 × 10-4 T (2) 3.1 × 10-4 T

(3) 2 × 10-3 T (3) 2 × 10-3 T

(4) 10-4 T (4) 10-4 T

9. dksbZ izdk'k iq¡t fcUnq P ij vfHklkfjr (convergent) 9. A beam of light converges at a point P. Now a
gksrk gSA dksbZ ysal bl vfHklkjh iq ¡t ds iFk esa lens is placed in the path of the convergent beam
12 cm from P. At what point does the beam
fcUnq P ls 12 cm nwj j[kk tkrk gSA ;fn ;g 20 cm converge if the lens is a convex lens of focal
Qksdl nwjh dk mÙky ysal gS] rks izdk'k iq¡t fdl lenght 20 cm :
fcUnq ij vfHklkfjr gksxk%
(1) 7.5 cm from lens
(1) ysUl ls 7.5 cm
(2) 8.5 cm from lens
(2) ysUl l 8.5 cm

(3) ysUl l 9.5 cm (3) 9.5 cm from lens

(4) ysUl l 6.5 cm (4) 6.5 cm from lens

10. 500 nm rjaxnSè;Z dk ,d lekUrj izdk'k iq ¡t ,d 10. A parallel beam of light of wavelenght 500 nm
iryh f>jhZ ij fxjrk gS] rFkk 1 m nwj ins Z ij falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction
ifj.kkeh foorZ u iz k:i ns[ kk tkrk gS A ;g ns[ kk pattern is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is
observed that the first minimun is at a distance
x;k gS fd igyk fufEu"B insZ ds dsUnz ls 2.5 mm of 2.5 mm from the centre of the screen. Find the
nwjh ij gSA f>jhZ dh pkSM+kbZ gksxh% width of the slit.

(1) 2 mm (2) 1mm (1) 2 mm (2) 1mm

(3) 0.2 mm (4) 0.1 mm (3) 0.2 mm (4) 0.1 mm

11. i` Foh dh lrg ij H Å¡pkbZ ls fxjk, x, fdlh 11. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de-
d.k dh ns& cz kWX yh rjax nS è ;Z fuEu ds lekuq i krh Broglie wavelenght associated with particle is
proportional to
gks x h%
(1) H
(1) H
(2) H1/2 (2) H1/2

(3) Ho (3) Ho
(4) H-1/2 (4) H-1/2
12. ;fn cksgj f=T;k ao = 53 pm rks Li2+ yhfFk;e 12. Taking Bohr radius, ao = 53 pm, the radius of Li2+
vk;u dh LFkkbZ voLFkk esa cksgj ekWMy ds vk/kkj ion in its ground state on the basis of Bohr model
ij f=T;k gksx hA will be

(1) 53 pm (1) 53 pm

(2) 27 pm (2) 27 pm

(3) 18 pm (3) 18 pm

(4) 13 pm (4) 13 pm

13. tc p-n laf/k ij vxz f nf'kd ck;l vkjksfir dh 13. When a forward bias is applied to a p-n juction.
It :
tkrh gS] rks bldk %
(1) foHko izkphj c<+ tkrk gS (1) raises the potential barrier

(2) cgqla[;d vkos'k ds dkj.k /kkjk ?kVdj 'kwU; gks (2) reduces the majority carrier current to zero
tkrh gS
(3) lowers teh potential barrier
(3) foHko izkphj de gks tkrk gS
(4) None of the above
(4) mijksDr esa dksbZ ugha
14. Bksl NM+ esa vuqnSè ;Z rjax dk osx fn;k tkrk gS& 14. Speed of a longitudinal wave in a solid bar is
given by( all the symbols have their usual
¼lHkh fpUg vius lkekU; vFkZ j[krs gS½ :
meaning)
Y
(1) v  Y
 (1) v 


P P
(2) v  (2) v 
 

P P
(3) v  (3) v 
 

B B
(4) v  (4) v 
 
15. vius Loa; ds Hkkj ds dkj.k fdlh izR;kLFkrk rkj 15. The extension in an elastic wire duo to self
dh yEckbZ esa o`f) gksxh% (lHkh fpUg vius lkekU; weight is (all the symbols have their usual
meaning) :
vFkksZ esa iz;q Dr gS )

(1) L  MgL (2) L  MgL (1) L  MgL

2 AY
(2) L  MgL
AY
2 AY AY

(3) L  2MgL (4) L  23MgL (3) L  2MgL

AY
(4) L  23MgL
AY
AY AY
16. fdlh izdk'k laosnh inkFkZ ij ns gyh vko` fÙk dh 16. light of freq uency1.5 times the threshold
1.5 xquh vko`fÙk dk iz dk'k Mkyk tkrk gSA izdk'k frequency is incident on a photosensitive
oS | q r /kkjk ij D;k iz H kko iM+ s x kA ;fn vko` f Ùk material. what will be photo electric current if
vk/kh vkS j rhozrk nq xuh dj nh tk;s% fre quency is halved and intensity is doubled :

(1) 4 xquk (1) 4 times

(2) 1/4 xquk (2) 1/4 times

(3) 'kwU; (3) zero

(4) 2 xquk (4) 2 times

17. o` Ùkh; xfr ds fy, fuEu esa lss dkSu lk dFku lR; 17. Which one of the following is not correct for
ugha gS% circular motion of a particle :
     
(a) v = r × ω (a) v = r × ω

v2 v2
(b) ifj.kkeh Roj.k dsUnz dh vksj gksxk (b) net acceleration is towards the center
r r

(1) dsoy a (1) only a

(2) dsoy b (2) only b

(3) a vkSj b esa dksbZ ugha (3) none of a and b

(4) nksuksa a vkSj b. (4) both of a and b.

18. fdlh vknZ 'k xSl dh Lora= rk dh dksfV n gks vkSj 18. Degree of freedom for an ideal gas is n and ratio
fLFkj nkc ,oa fLFkj vk;ru ij eksy j fof'k"V of molar specific heat at constant pressure and
Å"ek dk vuqikr  gks rks% constant volumeis then

 
(1) n  (2) (  1) n  2 (1) n  (2) (  1) n  2
2 2

(3) n  2   (4) (  1)  n  2 (3) n  2   (4) (  1)  n  2

19. ,d fcanq vkos'k q leku pky v ls r f=T;k ds o`Ùk 19. Point charge q moves in a circle of radius r at
constant speed v. What will be the current
ij ?kwe jgk gSA bl xfr ls lEc) fo|q r /kkjk associated with this uniform circular motion.
gks x h%
(1) qv/r
(1) qv/r
(2) 2qv/r
(2) 2qv/r

(3) qv/2r (3) qv/2r

(4) 4qv/r. (4) 4qv/r.

20. nks la/kfj= C1 ,oa C2 , 120 V vkSj 200 V rd vkosf'kr 20. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are charged to 120 V
fd;s x;s gSA muds rkj ls tksM+us ij izR ;sd ij and 200 V respectively. It is found that connecting
them together the potential on each one can be
foHko 'kwU ; gks tkrk gS] rks % made zero. Then :
(1) 5c1 = 3c2 (1) 5c1 = 3c2
(2) 3c1 = 5c2 (2) 3c1 = 5c2
(3) 3c1 +5c2 = 0 (3) 3c1 +5c2 = 0

(4) 9c1 = 4c2 (4) 9c1 = 4c2

21. 0.5 kg dk ,d fi.M osx v = kx3/2 ls ljy js[kk esa 21. A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line
pyrk gS tgkW k = 5 m–1/2 s–1 ifj.kkeh cy }kjk fd;k with velocity v = kx3/2 where k = 5 m–1/2 s–1. The
x;k dk;Z x = 0 ls x = 2 m rd ds foLFkkiu esa work done by the net force during its displacement
from x = 0 to x = 2 m is:
gks x k%
(1) 1.5 J (1) 1.5 J

(2) 50 J (2) 50 J

(3) 10 J (3) 10 J

(4) 100 J (4) 100 J

22. fdl rki ij vkxZu xSl ds v.kqvksa dk oxZ ekè; 22. At what temperature is the root mean square
ewy osx 20oC ij ghfy;e xSl ds v.kq vksa ds oxZ speed of an atom in an argon gas cylinder
ekè;ewy osx ds cjkcj gksxk% (ijek.kq Hkkj Ar = 39 equal to the rms speed of a helium gas atom at
20oC:(Atomic mass of Ar = 39 u and He = 4 u)
u vkSj He = 4 u)

(1) 2.85 × 103 K (1) 2.85 × 103 K

(2) 2.52 × 102 K (2) 2.52 × 102 K

(3) 4.03 × 103 K (3) 4.03 × 103 K

(4) 4.03 × 102 K (4) 4.03 × 102 K

23. leku inkFkZ ds nks pkyd rkj gS ftudh yEckbZ;k¡ 23. Two conductors are made of the same material
and have the same length conductor A is a solid
leku gSA pkyd A Bksl rkj gS ftldk O;kl D gS wire of diameter D conductor B is a hollow tube
,oa pkyd B ,d [kks[ kyh uyh gS ftldk ckà; of outer diameter 2D and inner diameter D. The
O;kl 2D ,oa vkUrfjd O;kl D gS A A ,oa B ds ratio of resistances of A and B :
iz frjks/kksa dk vuqikr gS% (1) 3 : 1
(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

24. ;fn fdlh dq.Myh ls lEc) Qyd 0.1 (t2 – 6t) T-m2 24. The flux through a loop varies with time according
to the relation 0.1 (t2 – 6t) T-m2 where t is in seconds.
ds vuqlkj ifjofrZr gksrk gS rks izfs jr fo|qr okgd The induced emf in the loop varies with time
cy le; dk xzkQ fuEu esa dSlk gksxk% according to the graph :

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

25. fdlh la/kfj= dk foHko 5V ls 10V djus esa W dk;Z 25. The amount of work done in increasing the voltage
gks rks 10V ls 15V djus esa fdruk dk;Z djuk gksxk% across the plates of a capacitor from 5V to 10V is
W. The work done in increasing it from 10V to 15V
(1) 0.6 W will be :

(2) W (1) 0.6 W

(2) W
(3) 1.25 W
(3) 1.25 W
(4) 1.67W
(4) 1.67W
26. ,d vkos f'kr d.k ,d leku pqE cdh; {ks= esa R 26. A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic
f=T;k ds o`Ùkkdkj iFk ij py jgk gSA ;fn d.k dh field in a circular path. Radius of circular path is
R. When energy of particle is doubled, then new
ÅtkZ nqxuh dj nsa rks u;h f=T;k gksxh% radius will be :
(1) 3R (1) 3R
(2) 2R (2) 2R

(3) R 2 (3) R 2

(4) R 3 (4) R 3

27. dsUnz P ij pq Ecdh; {ks= gksxk% 27. The magnetic field at centre, P will be :

(1) (1)
4 4

(2) (2)

(3) (3)
2 2

(4) 4 (4) 4

28. fuf'pr nzO;eku dh xSl dks ,d Å"ekxfrd izØe 28. In a thermodyamic process of a fixed mass of a
gas is changed in such a manner that the gas
esa ml ij 8 twy dk dk;Z fd;k x;k vkSj mlus 20
releases 20 joules of heat and 8 joules of work
twy dh Å"ek mRlftZr dhA ;fn xSl dh iz kjfEHkd was done on the gas. If the initial internal energy
vkarfjd ÅtkZ 30 twy gks rks xSl dh vafre vkarfjd of the gas was 30 joules, then the final internal
ÅtkZ crkb;sa% energy will be :

(1) 2 J (1) 2 J

(2) 42 J (2) 42 J

(3) 18 J (3) 18 J

(4) 58 J (4) 58 J
29. ,d pqEcd dks ,d fLFkj dq .Myh dh vksj fp=kuqlkj 29. As shown in the figure, a magnet is moved with a
rst xfr ls ys tk;k tkrk gSA dq .Myh esa iz sf jr fast speed towards a coil at rest. Due to this induced
electromotive force, induced current and induced
fo|qr okád cy E, izsfjr /kkjk I ,oa iz sfjr vkos'k charge in the coil is E, I and Q respectively. If the
Øe'k% E, I ,oa Q gSA ;fn pq Ecd dh xfr nqxuh dj speed of the magnet is doubled, the incorrect
nsa rks xyr dFku gS% statement is :

(1) E c<+sxk (1) E increases

(2) I ?kVsxk (2) I increases

(3) Q vifjofrZr jgsxk (3) Q remains same

(4) Q c<+sxk. (4) Q increases.

30. 1400 kg dk Vªd 15 m/s dh xfr ls py jgk gSA bl 30. A truck of mass 1400 kg is moving with a velocity
ij Rojd cy 600 U;wVu vkSj ,d iz frjks/kd cy 250 of 15 m/s. A resistive force of 250N and an
accelerating force 600 N act on it. The distance
U;wVu dk yx jgk gSA 10 lsds.M esa Vªd pysxk% travelled by the truck in 10 seconds will be :
(1) 16.25 m (1) 16.25 m
(2) 162.5 m (2) 162.5 m
(3) 1.625 m (3) 1.625 m
(4) zero. (4) zero.

31. fuEu fp= fdl ykWftd xsV dk gS % 31. The following logic symbol is for :

(1) OR gate
(1) OR gate
(2) AND gate (2) AND gate

(3) NOT gate (3) NOT gate

(4) NAND gate (4) NAND gate

32. nks ysu lM+d ij ,d dkj A, 36 kmh–1 dh pky ls 32. On a two-lane raod, car A is travelling with a
speed of 36 kmh–1. Two cars B and C approach
py jgh gSAnks dkj B rFkk C iz R;sd dh 54 kmh–1
car A in opposite directions with a speed of
dh pky ls foijhr fn'kk esa dkj A rd igq¡prh gSA 54 kmh –1 each At a certain instant, when the
,d {k.k ij tc nksuksa 1 km ij gS rc nwjh AB, BC distance AB is equal to AC, both being 1 km, B
ds cjkcj gS rc B, A ls vkxs fudyus dk fu'p; decides to overtake A before C does. What
djrk gS mlls igys C djrk gSA bl ?kVuk ls cpus minimum acceleration of car B is required to
ds fy, dkj B dk U;wure Roj.k D;k gksuk pkfg,% avoid an accident ?

(1) 2 ms–2 (1) 2 ms–2

(2) 5 ms–2 (2) 5 ms–2

(3) 1 ms–2 (3) 1 ms–2
(4) 10 ms–2 (4) 10 ms–2
33. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dja sA 33. Consider the following satements :

dFku A % ljy js[kk esa pyrk gqvk ,d d.k rhljs Statement I : A particle moving along straight
lsd.M esa 10 ehVj pyrk gSA line travels 10 m in third seconds.

dFku AA % tc dksbZ ukfHkd curk gS] rks dqN ÅtkZ Statement II : When a nucleus is formed some
energy is released that is known as binding
eqDr gksrh gS ftls ca/ku ÅtkZ dgrs gSaA energy.
dFku AAA % iz R;korhZ foHko VªkUlQkeZ j ds lkFk
Statement III : Alternating voltage works with
dk;Z djrk gS] ysfdu vizR;korhZ foHko ugha transformer but DC voltage does not:
mijksDr dFkuksa ds vk/kkj ij uhps ls lgh fodYi In the light of above statements choose one
pq u saA correct option from below:

(1) rhljk dFku xyr gSA (1) Statement III is wrong

(2) izFke dFku lR; gksxk ;fn d.k fojke ls fu;r (2) Statement I is correct if particle starts from rest
Roj.k 4 m/s2 ls pysA with constant acceleration 4 m/s2

(3) dFku AAA lgh gS ijarq dFku AA xyr gSA (3) Statement III is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(4) fdlh Hkh voLFkk esa dFku A laHko ugha gSA (4) Statement I is not possible in any case

34. ?kkl dkVus okyh e'khu dks /kDdk nsus dh rq yuk 34. It is earier to pull a lawn mower than to push it
esa [khapuk vklku gS] D;ksfa d % because

(1) [khapuk] /kDdk nsus dh rqyuk esa vf/kd vkjkenk;d (1) pulling is more comfortable than pushing
gS
(2) one gets extra energy in pulling
(2) [khapus esa vfrfjDr ÅtkZ izkIr gksrh gS
(3) [khapuk] ?kkl dkVus okyh e'khu dks gYdk cukrk gS (3) pulling makes the lawn mower lights

(4) [khapuk] i`"B ds ?k"kZ.k dks de djrk gS (4) pulling reduces friction of the surface

35. ,d fi.M fuokZr~ esa vdsys xq :Ro ds v/khu eqDr 35. A body is falling freely under the action of gravity
:i ls fxj jgk gS] rks dkSu&lh jkf'k;k¡ fxjus ds alone in vacuum. Which of the follow ing
nkSjku fu;r jgsx h% quantities remain constant during the fall ?

(1) xfrt ÅtkZ (1) Kinetic energy

(2) fLFkfrt ÅtkZ (2) Potential energy

(3) dqy ;kaf=d ÅtkZ (3) Total mechanical energy

(4) dqy js[kh; laosx (4) Total linear momentum
36. Js.kh RLC izR;korhZ ifjiFk esa vuqukn ds fy, fuEu 36. Which one of the following is not the expression
esa ls dkSu xq.koÙkk xq.kkad ds fy, O;atd ugha gS% for quality factor for resonance in series RLC ac
circuit :

(1) (1)
R R
1 1
(2) (2)

VL VL
(3) V (3) V
R R

VL VL
(4) V (4) V
C
C
37. ljy vkorZ xfr djus okys ,d d.k dh fLFkfrt 37. The potential energy of a simple harmonic
ÅtkZ D;k gksxh tc og ekè; ,oa vafre fLFkfr ds oscillator when the particle is half way to its end
point is :
eè; fcanq ij gSA
2
2 (1) E
(1) E 3
3
1
1 (2) E
(2) E 8
8

1 1
(3) E (3) E
4 4

1 1
(4) E (4) E
2 2
E laiw.kZ ÅtkZ gS% (where E is the total energy)

38. laf/k Mk;ksM dks vkn'kZ ekus AB esa /kkjk dk eku 38. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value
of current flowing through AB is
fdruk gks x k%

(1) 0 A (1) 0 A

(2) 10–2A (2) 10–2A

(3) 10–1 A (3) 10–1 A

(4) 10–3 A. (4) 10–3 A.

39. ehVj fczt dh nks Hkq tkvksa esa izfrjks/k 5  vkSj R  39. The resisitances in the two arms of the meter
gS] tc izfrjks/k R dks ,d leku izfrjks/k ls lekarj bridge are 5  and R  , respectively. When the
resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance
esa tksM+ fn;k tkrk gS rks u;k larq yu fcnaq 1.6 l1 ij the new balance point is at 1.6 l1 . The resistance
igaqp tkrk gS izfrjks/k ‘R’ dk eku gS% ‘R’ , is :

(1) 10  (1) 10 

(2) 15  (2) 15 

(3) 20  (3) 20 

(4) 25  (4) 25 
40. uhps fp= esa fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa fcanq A dk foHko 40. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential
'kwU; gS fcanq B dk foHko D;k gksxk% at point A is taken to be zero, the potential at point
B is :

(1) +1V (1) +1V

(2) –1V (2) –1V
(3) +2V (3) +2V
(4) –2V (4) –2V

41. ,d bysDVªkWu ljy js[kh; iFk XY ij fp= vuqlkj 41. An electron moves on a straight line path XY as
py jgk gS dqaMyh abcd bysDVªkWu ds iFk ds fcYdqy shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of
electron. What will be the direction of current, if
ikl esa gS dqM
a yh esa izfs jr fo|q r /kkjk dh fn'kk D;k any, induced in the coil :
gks x h%

(1) The current will reverse its direction as the electrons

(1) bysDVªkWu ds dqM
a yh dks ikj djus ds ckn /kkjk dh fn'kk goes past the coil
cny tk;sxh
(2) No current induced
(2) dksbZ izsfjr /kkjk ugha mRiUu gksxh
(3) abcd
(3) abcd
(4) adcb. (4) adcb.

42. fdlh fiz T e ds inkFkZ dk viorZ u ka d 2 gS vkS j 42. The refractive index of the material of a prism is
fizTe dk dks.k 30° gSA fizTe nks ijkorZd lrgka esa 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the
ls ,d dks ikWfy'k dj ds fejj cuk fn;k x;k gS two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a
mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of
,do.khZ; izdk'k dh ,d fdj.k nwljh okyh lrg ls monochromatic light entering the prism from the
vanj vkrh gS vkSj ijkorZd ry ls Vdjkdj vius other face will retrace its path (after reflection from
iRoFkj dks jhVªsl djrh gS fdj.k dk vkiru dks.k the silvered surface) if angle of incidence on the
prism is :
fizTe ij fdruk gS%
(1) zero
(1) 'kwU;
(2) 60o
(2) 60o
(3) 30o (3) 30o

(4) 45o. (4) 45o.

43. gkbMªkt s u ijek.kq ds cksj d{kk esa ?kwers gq, bysDVªkWu 43. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of
an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom,
dh xfrt ÅtkZ ,oa lEiw.kZ ÅtkZ dk vuqi kr D;k is:
gks x k%
(1) 1 : – 2
(1) 1 : – 2
(2) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : –1 (3) 2 : –1

(4) 1 : –1 (4) 1 : –1

44. M nzO;eku ds osx ij ,d m nzO;eku dk d.k j[kk 44. A mass m is placed at a height on the wedge of
x;k gSA /kjkryh; lrg ?k"kZ.k jfgr gSA ost dk osx mass M shown in the figure. The ground is smooth.
When the mass m reaches the ground, velocity of
crkb;sa tc d.k lcls uhps igaqprk gSA lHkh lrg the wedge is (assume all smooth surfaces) :
?k"kZ .k jfgr gS %

m 2gh
m 2gh (1)
(1) M
M

M 2mgh M 2mgh
(2) (2)

m 2mgh 2mgh
(3) (3)

m 2Mgh m 2Mgh
(4) (4)

45. LCR ifjiFk esa uhps fn, LraHkksa dks lqesfyr djsaA 45. Match the columns a series LCR circuit:
LraHk A LraHk AA Column I Column II

1 1
i. iz f r?kkr A. L  i. Impedance A. L 
C C

1 1
ii. iz f rck/kk B. ii. Reactance B.
CR CR

2 2
 1   1 
'kfDr xq .kkad 2
R   L  iii. Power factor C. R 2   L 
iii. C.


C   C 

R R
2 2
1   1 
iv. yC/krk xq.kkad D. 
R2   L 
iv. Q-factor D. R2   L 
 C   C 

(1) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B (1) i-C, ii-A, iii-D, iv-B
(2) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-D (2) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-D
(3) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B (3) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
(4) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D (4) i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207

46- ,d ;kSfxd esa C-40% vkSj H-6.66% ekStwn gSa] 46. In a compound, C-40% and H-6.66% are present,

;kSfxd dk ewykuqikrh lw= D;k gS what is the empirical formula of the compound :

(1) CH2O (1) CH2O

(2) C4HO4 (2) C4HO4

(3) CHO (3) CHO

(4) CH2O2 (4) CH2O2

47- fuEufyf[kr esa ls mHk;narh fyxaM dkSu lk gS 47. Ambidentate ligand among the following is :

(1) H2O (1) H2O

(2) en (2) en

(3) NH3 (3) NH3

(4) CN– (4) CN–

48- 0.02s–1 nj fLFkjkad okyh çFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k dh 48. Half-life of a first order reaction with rate constant
v/kkZ ; q yxHkx gksx h% of 0.02s–1 will be nearly :

(1) 69.3 s (1) 69.3 s

(2) 34.65 s (2) 34.65 s

(3) 100 s (3) 100 s

(4) 50 s (4) 50 s

49- f}rh;d&C;wVkby vYdksgy I2 vkSj NaOH ds lkFk 49. Sec-butyl alcohol on reaction with I2 and NaOH
vfHkfØ;k djus ij eq [; :i ls nsrk gS% majorly gives :

(1) CH2l2 vkSj CH3COONa (1) CH2l2 and CH3COONa

(2) CHI3 vkSj CH3CH2COONa (2) CHI3 and CH3CH2COONa

(3) CH2l vkSj CH3CH3CH2CH2–OH (3) CH2l and CH3CH3CH2CH2–OH

(4) Cl4 vkSj CH3CH2COONa (4) Cl4 and CH3CH2COONa

50- nh xbZ Lih'kht dh vk;fud f=T;kvks a dk lgh 50. Correct order of ionic radii of the given species is
Øe gS
(1) Nd3+ > Tb³+ >Tm³+
3+ + +
(1) Nd > Tb³ >Tm³
(2) Tm³+ >Tb³+ > Nd³+
+ + +
(2) Tm³ >Tb³ > Nd³
(3) Tb³+ > Nd³+ >Tm²+
(3) Tb³+ > Nd³+ >Tm²+
(4) Tb³+ >Tm³+ > Nd3+
(4) Tb³+ >Tm³+ > Nd3+
51- lwph&I esa fn, x, ;kS fxdksa dks lwph&II esa mudh 51. Match the compounds given in list-I with their
fof'k"V vfHkfØ;kvksa ls lq e s f yr djsa vkS j lgh characteristic reactions in list-II and choose the
mÙkj pq usaA correct answer.
lwph& I ¼;kS fxd½ lw p h& II ¼vfHkfØ;k,¡ ½ List-I (Compounds) List-II (Reactions)

CH3 CH3

a. i. foDVj es;j ds ijh{k.k a. i. Gives red colouration

OH OH
esa yky jax nsrk gS in victor Meyer's test

b ii. yq dkl vfHkdeZ d ds b ii. Produces immediate

lkFk rRdky eS ykiu turbidity with Luca's

mRiUu djrk gS reagent
C CH3CH2CHO iii. Forms white
C CH3CH2CHO iii. czkse hu ty ds lkFk
precipitate with
lQsn vo{ksi cukrk gS
bromine water
d C6H5CH2OH iv. veksf u;kdy AgNO 3
d C6H5CH2OH iv. Forms silver mirror on
foy;u ds lkFk reaction with
vfHkfØ;k djus ij jtr ammoniacal AgNO3
niZ .k cukrk gSA solution.
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

52- nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k esa ç;q ä mRçsjd gS 52. Catalyst used in the given reaction is

(1) Pd (1) Pd

(2) Mo2O3 (2) Mo2O3

(3) CuCl2 (3) CuCl2

(4) ZnO–Cr2O3 (4) ZnO–Cr2O3

53- vEyh; xq.k ds laca/k esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk 53. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. acidic
lgh gS % character :

(1) CH3COOH > C6H5OH > EtOH (1) CH3COOH > C6H5OH > EtOH
(2) C6H5OH > CH3COOH > EtOH (2) C6H5OH > CH3COOH > EtOH
(3) EtOH > CH3COOH > C6H5OH (3) EtOH > CH3COOH > C6H5OH
(4) EtOH > C6H5OH > CH3COOH (4) EtOH > C6H5OH > CH3COOH
54- fuEufyf[kr esa ls {kkjh; vehuks ,flM gS% 54. Basic amino acid among the following is :

¼1½ ykbflu (1) Lysine

¼2½ XywVkfed ,flM (2) Glutamicacid

¼3½ vkblksyqblhu (3) Isoleucine

¼4½ ,ykfuu (4) Alanine

55- DNA esa] C] -------------- gkbMªkstu ca/k }kjk ----------- 55. In DNA, C joins with .............. base by ...........
vk/kkj ls tqM+rk gSA hydrogen bonds.
(1) A, 2 (1) A, 2
(2) G, 3 (2) G, 3
(3) T, 2 (3) T, 2
(4) U, 3 (4) U, 3
56- fuEufyf[kr lek;kstu dk Ecell D;k gS\ 56. What is the Ecell of the following adjustment ?
(log 13 = 1.119) (log 13 = 1.119)
Ag (s) |Ag+ (0.0001M) || Mg2+ (0.13M)| Mg(s); Ag (s) |Ag+ (0.0001M) || Mg2+ (0.13M)| Mg(s);
Eocell = 3.17 V Eocell = 3.17 V
(1) 3.38 V (1) 3.38 V
(2) 2.97 V (2) 2.97 V
(3) 3.17 V (3) 3.17 V
(4) 2.75 V (4) 2.75 V
57- fn, x, ;kSfxdksa ds DoFkukad dk lgh Øe gSA 57. Correct order of boiling points for the given
compounds is

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

58- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ;kSfxd SN2 vfHkfØ;k 58. Which of the following compounds is most
ds çfr lcls vf/kd vfHkfØ;k'khyrk gS A reactive towards SN2 reaction.

(1) CH3–Cl (1) CH3–Cl

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

59- ;fn fdlh bysDVª‚u dk æO;eku 9.11×10–31 fdxz k 59. If the mass of an electron is 9.11×10–31 kg, and
gS] vkS j fLFkfr esa vfuf'prrk 10–8 m, ehVj gS] rks uncertainty in position is 10–8 m, the uncertainty
osx esa vfuf'prrk gksx h% in velocity would be:
(1) 5.8×10–3 ms–1 (1) 5.8×10–3 ms–1
(2) 5.8×103 ms–1 (2) 5.8×103 ms–1
(3) 5.8×10–8 ms–1 (3) 5.8×10–8 ms–1
(4) 5.8×108 ms–1 (4) 5.8×108 ms–1
60- v"VQydh; [CoCl6 ]+ ds fy, CFSE 18]000 ¼rjax 60. The CFSE for octahedral [CoCl 6 ]+ is corresponding
la[;k cm–1 ds laca/k esa½ ds vuq:i gSA prq"Qydh; to 18,000 (w.r.t wave number cm–1 ). The CFSE for
[CoCl4 ]2– ds fy, CFSE gksxk% tetrahedral [CoCl4 ]2– will be:

(1) 18000 cm–1 (1) 18000 cm–1

(2) 16000 cm–1 (2) 16000 cm–1

(3) 8000 cm–1 (3) 8000 cm–1

(4) 20000 cm–1 (4) 20000 cm–1

61- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS@gS a % 61. Which of the following statements (s) is/are true :

(a) eksyjrk çfr yhVj ?kksy esa ?kqys foys; ds eksyksa a. Molarity is the number of moles of solute
dh la[;k gSA dissolved per litre of solution.

(b) eksyjrk rkieku ls Lora= lkaærk 'kCn gSA b. Molarity is temperature independent
concentration term.
(c) fdlh ?kksy dh eksyyrk dks 1000 xz ke ?kksy esa
c. Molality of a solution is defined as the number
?kqys foys; ds eksyksa dh la[;k ds :i esa
of moles of solute dissolved in 1000 g of
ifjHkkf"kr fd;k tkrk gS A
solution
(4) foys; vkSj foyk;d ds eksy va'kksa dk vuqikr
d. The ratio of mole fractions of solute and
muds lacaf/kr eksyksa ds vuqikr esa gksrk gSA solvent is in the ratio of their respective moles.
¼1½ dsoy a vkSj c (1) a and c only
¼2½ dsoy a vkSj d (2) a and d only
¼3½ dsoy b vkSj c (3) b and c only

¼4½ dsoy a (4) a only

62- fdlh Hkh H tS l h çtkfr ds fy,] igyh] nwljh 62. For any H like species, the ratio of radii of 1st, 2nd
vkS j rhljh d{kkvksa dh f=T;kvksa dk vuqikr gS and 3rd orbits is

1 1 1 1
(1) 1 : 4 : 9 (2) 1: : (1) 1 : 4 : 9 (2) 1: :
4 9 4 9

(3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1 : 1

63- uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSaA 63. Given below are two statements.

dFku&I: ¶yksjhu dh _.kkRed bysDVª‚u yfC/k ,UFkSYih Statement-I: Negative electron gain enthalpy of
Dyksjhu ls vf/kd gSA fluorine is greater than chlorine.

dFku&II: ¶yksjhu dh vk;uu ,UFkSYih Dyksjhu ls de Statement-II: Ionisation enthalpy of fluorine is less
gSA than chlorine.

mijksä dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa] uhps fn, x, fodYiksa In the light of above statements, choose the most
esa ls lcls mi;q ä mÙkj pqusaA appropriate answer from the options given below.

¼1½ dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSa (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

¼2½ dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSa (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

¼3½ dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gS (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

¼4½ dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
64- larq yu ds fy,] C(s)+CO2(g)  2CO(g) 64. For the equillibrium, C(s)+CO2(g)  2CO(g)
kp = 60 atm 1000K ijA ;fn larqyu ij kp = 60 atm at 1000K. If at equillibrium PCO =10PCO2,
PCO = 10PCO2 gS] rks larq yu ij dqy ncko gS then the total pressure at equillibrium is

(1) 6.1 atm (1) 6.1 atm

(2) 6.6 atm (2) 6.6 atm

(3) 0.6 atm (3) 0.6 atm

(4) 66.6 atm (4) 66.6 atm

65- vfHkdFku ¼A½% PbI4 ,d fLFkj ;kSfxd gSA 65. Assertion(A): PbI4 is a stable compound.
dkj.k ¼R½% vk;ksMkbM mPp v‚Dlhdj.k voLFkk dks Reason(R): Iodide stabilises higher oxidation state.
fLFkj djrk gSA
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
¼1½ ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj ¼R½] ¼A½ dh lgh O;k[;k explanation of (A)
gS
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
¼2½ ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh gSa ysfdu ¼R½] ¼A½ dh lgh
O;k[;k ugha gS correct explanation of (A)

¼3½ ¼A½ lgh gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh ugha gS (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

¼4½ ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh ugha gSaA (4) Both the (A) and (R) are not correct.
66- vfHkdFku ¼A½% ukbVªkstu $5 v‚Dlhdj.k voLFkk çnf'kZr 66. Assertion(A) : Nitrogen exhibits +5 oxidation state
djrk gS
Reason(R) : Nitrogen does not form pentahalide
dkj.k ¼R½% ukbVªkstu isaVkgSykbM ugha cukrk
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
¼1½ ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj ¼R½] ¼A½ dh lgh O;k[;k
explanation of (A)
gS
¼2½ ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh gSa ysfdu ¼R½] ¼A½ dh lgh (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
O;k[;k ugha gS correct explanation of (A)
¼3½ ¼A½ lgh gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh ugha gS (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
¼4½ ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh ugha gSaA (4) Both the (A) and (R) are not correct.

67. ; C is: 67. ; C is:

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) PhF (4) PhF

68- fuEufyf[kr 0-1 eksyy tyh; foy;uksa esa ls fdldk 68. Out of the following 0.1 molal aqueous solutions
fgekad vf/kdre gks x k\ which will have maximum freezing point?

¼1½ Xywdkst (1) Glucose

¼2½ iksVSf'k;e DyksjkbM (2) Potassium chloride
¼3½ lksfM;e lYQsV (3) Sodium sulphate
¼4½ ,Y;qfefu;e lYQsV (4) Aluminum sulphate
69- 20 xz k e çfr dm 3 ;w f j;k ;q ä ,d foy;u] 69. A solution containing 20 g per dm³ urea is isotonic
xSj&ok"i'khy foys; 'B' ds 10% (W/V) foy;u ds with a 10% (W/V) solution of a non-volatile solute
lkFk vkblksVksfud gSA foys; 'B' dk eksyj æO;eku 'B'. The molar mass of the solute 'B' is.
gS A
(1) 100 g/mol
(1) 100 g/mol
(2) 200 g/mol
(2) 200 g/mol
(3) 300 g/mol (3) 300 g/mol

(4) 600 g/mols (4) 600 g/mols

70- ;fn NaCl, HCl vkSj CH3COONa dk eku Øe'k% 70. If of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are x, y and z

S cm² mol–¹ respectively then of CH3COOH will

x, yvkS j z S cm² mol–¹ gks rks , CH3COOH dk
eku gks xkA be.

(1) z + y + x (1) z + y + x

(2) x - z - y (2) x - z - y

(3) z + y - x (3) z + y - x

(4) z - y - x (4) z - y - x

71- NO dh Br2 ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k ls NOBr cuus ds 71 The following mechanism has been proposed for
fy, fuEufyf[kr fØ;kfof/k çLrkfor dh xbZ gS the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr

NO(g) + Br2(g)  NOBr2(g) NO(g) + Br2(g)  NOBr2(g)

NOBr2(g) + NO(g)  2NOBr(g) NOBr2(g) + NO(g)  2NOBr(g)

;fn nwljk pj.k nj fu/kkZj.k pj.k gS] rks NO(g) ds If the second step is the rate determining step,
lac a/k esa vfHkfØ;k dk Øe gS% the order of reaction w.r.t NO(g) is:

(1) 0 (1) 0

(2) 1 (2) 1

(3) 2 (3) 2

(4) 3 (4) 3
72. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be
72- fdlh jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k dh lfØ;.k ÅtkZ dk
determined by:
fu/kkZj.k fuEu çdkj ls fd;k tk ldrk gS%
(1) determining the rate constant at standard
¼1½ ekud rkieku ij nj fLFkjkad dk fu/kkZj.k djdsA temperature.

¼2½ nks rkiekuksa ij nj fLFkjkad dk fu/kkZj.k djdsA (2) determining the rate constants at two
temperatures.
¼3½ Vdjko dh laHkkouk dk fu/kkZj.k djdsA
(3) determining probability of collisions.
¼4½ mRçsjd dk mi;ksx djdsA (4) using catalyst.
73 vk.kfod d{kh; fl)ka r dk mi;ks x djrs gq , ] 73 Using molecular orbital theory, predict which of
Hkfo";ok.kh djsa fd fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl çtkfr the following species has the shortest bond
dh ca/k yackbZ lcls NksVh gS\ length?
(1) O2+ (1) O2+
(2) O2– (2) O2–
(3) O22– (3) O22–
(4) O2 (4) O2
74- fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl v.kq dk f}/kz q o vk?kw. kZ 74. Which of the following molecules has the
vf/kdre gS \ maximum dipole moment ?
(1) NH3 (1) NH3
(2) NF3 (2) NF3
(3) CO2 (3) CO2
(4) CH4 (4) CH4
75- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ;kSfxd oqVZ~t vfHkfØ;k 75. Which of the following compounds can be best
}kjk loksZÙke :i ls rS;kj fd;k tk ldrk gS\ prepared by Wurtz reaction?
¼1½ n&isaVsu (1) n-pentane
¼2½ vkblksisaVsu (2) Isopentane

¼3½ vkblksC;wVsu (3) Isobutane

¼4½ n&C;wVsu (4) n-butane

76- A – A, B – B vkSj A–B ds fy, ca/k ÅtkZ,¡ Øe'k% 76. The bond energies for A – A, B – B and A – B are
a, b and c kj respectively. The rH for the reaction
a, b vkSj c kj gS aA vfHkfØ;k ds
will be :
fy, rH gksxk
(1) a + b – c (1) a + b – c

(2) c (2) c

(3) c – a – b (3) c – a – b

(4) (4)

77- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk rRo $3 v‚Dlhdj.k 77. Which among the following elements is unable
voLFkk esa ;kS fxd cukus esa vleFkZ gS\ to form a compound in +3 oxidatition state?
(1) Al (1) Al
(2) TI (2) TI
(3) Ga (3) Ga
(4) In (4) In
78. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k esa Cr2 (SO4)3 [mol, wt = M] 78. The equivalent weight of Cr2 (SO4)3 [mol, wt = M]
dk lerqY; Hkkj gS in the following reaction is
Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O2 + NaH  Na2CrO4 + Na2SO4+ H2O Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O2 + NaH  Na2CrO4 + Na2SO4+ H2O
(1) M/3 (1) M/3
(2) M/4 (2) M/4
(3) M (3) M
(4) M/6 (4) M/6

79- fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u lk bysD Vª ks ykbV eks yj 79. Which of the following electrolytes will give a
pkydrk vkSj lkaærk ds oxZewy ds chp ,d linear relationship between molar conductivity
jS f[kd lac a/k nsx k\ and square root of concentration?

(1) CH3COOH (2) KCI (1) CH3COOH (2) KCI

(3) HCOOH (4) NH4OH (3) HCOOH (4) NH4OH
80. lwph&l dks lwph&ll ls lq esfyr djsa vkSj lgh fodYi 80. Match list-l with list-ll and choose the correct
pq usaA option.

lw p h& I¼;kS f xd½ lw ph& II ¼leko;ork½ List-I(Compound) List-II (isomerism)

(a) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] i. çdkf'kd leko;ork (a) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] i. Optical isomerism

(b) [Fe(H2O)5 Cl]Br ii. leUo; leko;ork (b) [Fe(H2O)5 Cl]Br ii. Coordination isomerism

(c) [PtCl2 (NH3)2] iii. vk;uu leko;ork (c) [PtCl2 (NH3)2] iii. Ionisation isomerism

(d) K3 [Co (OX)3] iv. T;kferh; leko;ork (d) K3 [Co (OX)3] iv. Geometrical isomerism

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

81- dFku&I: vafre Å"ek”kks’kh vfHkfØ;k ds fy, vfHkfØ;k 81. Statement -I: Rate of reaction for end endothermic
dh nj rkieku esa o`f) ds lkFk c<+ tkrh gSA reaction increases with increases in temperature.

dFku&II: Å"ek{ksih vfHkfØ;k ds fy, vfHkfØ;k dh nj Statement-II: Rate of reaction for exothermic reaction
rkieku esa o`f) ds lkFk ?kV tkrh gSA decreases with increase in temperature.

mijksä dFkuksa ds çdk'k esa] uhps fn, x, fodYiksa In the light of above statements, choose the most
esa ls lcls mi;q ä mÙkj pqusaA appropriate answer from the options given below.

¼1½ dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gS (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

¼2½ dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gS (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

¼3½ dFku I vkSj dFku I nksuksa xyr gSa (3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

¼4½ dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSa (4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

82- fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k vuq Øe ij fopkj djsa 82. Consider the following reaction sequence

mRikn C gS Product C is

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

83- I¾ 2 vkSj n ¾ 3 okys midks'k esa bysDVª‚uksa dh 83. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell
vf/kdre la[;k gS having I= 2 and n = 3 is

(1) 2 (2) 6 (1) 2 (2) 6

(3) 10 (4) 14 (3) 10 (4) 14

84- fuEufyf[kr esa ls lcls çcy vEy gS 84. Strongest acid among the following is

(1) HCOOH (1) HCOOH

(2) C6H5COOH (2) C6H5COOH

(3) CH3COOH (3) CH3COOH

(4) CH2CH2COOH (4) CH2CH2COOH

85- lwph&I dks lwph&II ls lq esfyr djsa vkS j lgh mÙkj 85. Match list-I with list-II and choose the correct
pq usaA answer.

lw p h& I lwp h& II List -I List-ll

(Group attached in (Effect shown by

¼lewg esa layXu lewg½
benzene) the group)
a. –NO2 (i) –R effect and –I effect
a. –NO2 (i) –R effect and –I effect
b. –O– (ii) +R effect and –l effect
b. –O– (ii) +R effect and –l effect
c. –O–CH3 (iii)+R effect and +I effect
c. –O–CH3 (iii)+R effect and +I effect
d. –CH3 (iv) +I effect and no
resonance d. –CH3 (iv) +I effect and no
resonance
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

86. 86.

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

COOH
(4) (4)
87- ,d dkcZ f ud ;kS fxd ¼X½ ,Fksuks bd ,ugkbMªk bM 87. An organic compound (X) on reaction with
ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djus ij N&Qsfuy ,FksuekbM ethanoic anhydride gives N-phenyl ethanamide.
nsrk gSA ;kSfxd ¼X½ ds ckjs esa lgh dFku gSa Correct statements about the compound (X) are
I- Dy k s j k s Q ‚e Z v kS j , Fk s u ‚f yd i ks V S f' k ; e I. X on reaction with chloroform and ethanolic
gkbMª‚DlkbM ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k djus ij X potassium hydroxide forms isocyanide
vkblks l kbukbM cukrk gS
II. X on reaction with nitrous acid at low
II - de rkie ku ij ukbV ª l ,flM ds lkFk
temperature forms benzene diazonium salt
vfHkfØ;k djus ij X csathu Mk;tksfu;e yo.k
cukrk gS III. X is more basic than pyridine
III- X ikbjhMhu ls vf/kd {kkjh; gS
(1) I and III only
¼1½ dsoy I vkSj III
(2) I and II only
¼2½ dsoy I vkSj II
(3) II and III only
¼3½ dsoy II vkSj III
¼4½ lHkh I, II vkSj III (4) All I, II and III

88- 72u vk.kfod æO;eku okys gkbMªksdkcZu dk dkSu 88. Which branched chain isomer of hydrocarbon
lk 'kkf[kr J` a [ kyk leko;oh ds o y ,d eks u ks with molecular mass 72 u gives only one mono
çfrLFkkfir ,Ydkby gS ykbM nsrk gS substituted alkyl halide

¼1½ vkblksisaVsu (1) Isopentane

¼2½ fu;ksisaVsu (2) Neopentane

¼3½ gsDlsu (3) hexane

¼4½ fu;ksgsfDlu (4) Neohexene

89- fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k dk çeq [ k mRikn gS 89. The major product of the following reaction is

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

90- fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk pØh; çfØ;k ds fy, 90. Which among the following is not true for a cyclic
lR; ugha gS % process :
(1) W = 0 (1) W = 0
(2) U = 0 (2) U = 0
(3)  = 0 (3)  = 0
(4) S = 0 (4) S = 0
TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

91. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gS a % 91. Given below are two statements
Statement I:
dFku -I:
During the chemical reaction the number of carbon
jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k ds nkSjku ,Utkbe v.kqvks esa dkcZu
atom and functional group are changed in enzyme
ijek.kq dh la[;k vkSj fØ;kRed lewg cny tkrh gSA
molecule.
dFku - II : Statement II :
lHkh ,Utkbe esa ,d uku izksVhu vo;o lgdkjd dgykrk In all enzymes A non protein constituents called
gSA ,Utkbe ls c¡/kdj ,Utkbe dks mRizsjd :i ls lfØ; cofactors are bound to the enzyme to make the
cukrk gSA enzyme catalytically active.

uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

92 dsUnzd esa f>Yyh jfgr dsUnz dnzO;h; lajpuk lØh; 92 Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in
la'ys"k.k ds fy, LFky gksrk gSA nucleus are the site for active synthesis of
(1) izksVhu la'ys"k.k (1) protein synthesis
(2) mRNA (2) mRNA
(3) rRNA (3) rRNA
(4) tRNA (4) tRNA
93. Which of the following nucleic acids is present in
93. fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u lk U;q Dyhd vEy ds oy
an organism having 70 S ribosomes only?
70 S jkbckslkse j[kus okys ,d tho esa mifLFkr gS
(1) Single stranded DNA with protein coat
(1) ,dy LVªSUMsM DNA izksVhu vkoj.k ds lkFk (2) Double stranded circular naked DNA
(2) Mcy LVªSUMsM pØh; uXu DNA (3) Double stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear
membrane
(3) Mcy LVSªUMsM DNA dsUnzd f>Yyh ls f?kjk gqvk
(4) Double stranded circular DNA with histone
(4) Mcy LVªSUMsM pØh; DNA fgLVksu izkVs hUl ds lkFk proteins

94 v/kZ lw=h foHkktu I ds ckn] iSnk gqbZ iq=h dksf'kdkvksa 94 After meiosis I, the resultant daughter cells have

ds ikl gksrk gS (1) same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in S

(2) twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid
(1) S izkoLFkk esa iSr`d dksf'kdk dh rqyuk esa DNA dh
gametes
leku ek=k
(3) same amount of DNA in comparison to haploid
(2) gsIykW;M ;qXed dh rqyuk esa DNA dh ek=k nks xquh gamete
(3) gsIykW;M ;qXed dh rqyuk esa DNA dh leku ek=k (4) four times the amount of DNA in comparison to

(4) gsIykW;M ;qXed dh rqyuk esa DNA dh ek=k pkj xquk haploid gamete
95. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u dkcZ fud ;kS fxd yslhFkhu 95. Which of the following organic compounds is the
dk eq[; vo;o gS main constituent of Lecithin?

(1) ,jkdksMksuhd vEy (1) Arachidonic acid

(2) QWkLQksfyfiM (2) Phospholipid

(3) dksyLs VªkWy (3) Cholesterol

(4) QkWLQksizksVhu (4) Phosphoprotein

96. dks f'kdk f>Yyh ds vkj&ikj lfØ; vkS j fuf"Ø; 96. The main difference between active and passive
ifjogu ds chp eq[; vUrj gS transport across cell membrane is :
(1) fuf"Ø; ifjogu xSj&p;ukRed gksrk gS tcfd lfØ;
(1) passive transport is non-selective whereas active
ifjogu p;ukRed gksrk gSA
transport is selective
(2) fuf"Ø; ifjogu dks dksf'kdk f>Yyh ds vkj&ikj ,d
lkUnzrk izo.krk dh t:jr gksrh gS tcfd lfØ; (2) passive transport requires a concentration gradient
ifjogu esa foys; dks pykus ds fy, ÅtkZ dh across a biological membrane whereas active
vko';drk gksrh gSA transport requires energy to move solutes.
(3) buds chp dksbZ vUrj ugha gS (3) No any difference between them
(4) lfØ; ifjogu dks T;knk ATP dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(4) active transport requires more ATP while passive
tcfd fuf"Ø; ifjogu esa foy; dks pykus ds fy,
transport requires less ATP to move solutes
de ATP dh vko';drk gksrh gSA
97. Select the correct sequence of events.
97. ?kVukvksa ds lgh Øe dk p;u djsa
(1) Gametogenesis  Gamete transfer  Syngamy
(1) ;qXed tuu  ;qXed LFkkukUrj.k  fluxSeh 
 Zygote Cell division (Cleavage) Cell
;qXeut  dksf'kdk foHkktu ¼fonyu½  dksf'kdk
foHksnu  thoksRifRr differentiation  Organogenesis

(2) ;qXed tuu ;qXed LFkkukUrj.k  fluxSeh  (2) Gametogenesis  Gamete transfer  Syngamy

;qXeut dksf'kdk foHkktu ¼fonyu½ thoksRifRr  Zygote Cell division (Cleavage)

dksf'kdk foHksnu Organogenesis Cell differentiation

(3) ;qXed tuu fluxSeh ;qXed LFkkukUrj.k  ;qXeut (3) Gametogenesis  Syngamy Gamete transfer

 dksf'kdk foHkktu ¼fonyu½ dksf'kdk foHksnu  Zygote  Cell division (Cleavage) Cell

thoksRifRr differentiation  Organogenesis

(4) ;qXed tuu ;qXed LFkkukUrj.k fluxSeh  ;qXeut (4) Gametogenesis Gamete transfer Syngamy
 dksf'kdk foHksnu  dksf'kdk foHkktu ¼fonyu½   Zygote  Cell differentiation  Cell division
thoksRifRr (Cleavage)  Organogenesis

98. vkrZo pØ ds Y;wVh;y iz koLFkk es a dksb Z Hkh u;h 98. No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the
iqVd fodflr ugha gksrh gS D;ksfd
menstrual cycle because :
(1) ckn esa v.Mk'k; esa iqVd 'ks"k ugha cpk jgrk gS
(1) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after
(2) Y;qVh;y izkoLFkk esa FSH dk Lrj mPp gksrk gS
(2) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
(3) Y;qVh;y izkoLFkk esa LH dk Lrj mPp gksrk gS
(3) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
(4) Y;qVh;y izkoLFkk esa FSH vkSj LH nksuks dk Lrj de
gksrk gS (4) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase
99. DNA ds fuEufyf[kr foLrkj ds }kjk mRNA dk D;k 99. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by
vuq Øe gksx k the following stretch of DNA?

3' ATGCATGCATGCATG 5' lk¡pk LVªSUM 3' ATGCATGCATGCATG 5' TEMPLATE STRAND

5' TACGTACGTACGTAC 3' dksfMax LVªSU M 5' TACGTACGTACGTAC 3' CODING STRAND

(1) 3' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5' (1) 3' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5'

(2) 5' UACGUACGUACGUAC 3' (2) 5' UACGUACGUACGUAC 3'

(3) 3' UACGUACGUACGUAC 5' (3) 3' UACGUACGUACGUAC 5'

(4) 5' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3 (4) 5' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3

100. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 100. Select the correct match

(1) piVsd`fe – VªSfd;k dk tky (1) Flatworms – Network of trachea

(2) LikWUt – iqLr QsQM+k (2) Sponges – Book lungs

(3) tyh; vkFkzkZsiksM~l – Dykse (3) Aquatic arthropods – Gills

(4) flysUVªVs ~l – QsQM+s (4) Coelenterates – Lungs

101. okgd pBR 322 ij nks iz f rtS fod iz f rjks /kh thu 101. The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR
fdlds fy, gksrk gS 322 are for

(1) ,fEilhyhu vkSj VsVªklkbDyhu (1) Ampicillin and Tetracycline

(2) ,fEilhyhu vkSj DyksjeQsuhdkWy (2) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol

(3) DyksjeQsuhdkWy vksj VsVªkWlkbDyhu (3) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline

(4) VsVªklkbDyhu vkSj dsukekblhu (4) Tetracycline and Kanamycin

102. eYVhus 'kuy dEifu;ksa }kjk fdlh jk"Vª ;k mlls 102. Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by
lEcfU/kr yksxks ls fcuk O;ofLFkr vuqeksnu ds tSo multinational companies without authorization
lalk/kuksa dk mi;ksx djuk dgykrk gS from the concerned country is referred to as

(1) ck;ksosiu (1) Bioweapon

(2) ck;ksik;jslh (2) Biopiracy

(3) ck;ksbfFkDl (3) Bioethics

(4) ck;ksokWj (4) Biowar

103. A jDr lewg okys uj dk B jDr lewg okys eknk ds 103. In a marriage between male with blood group A
lkFk fookg gksus esa] iz kstuh ;k rks AB jDr lewg and female with blood group B, the progeny had
vFkok B j[krk gS A iS j s U V~ l dk D;k lEHkkfor either blood group AB or B. What could be the
thuksVkbi gks ldrk gS A possible genotype of parents?
(1) IA i (uj) ; IB IB (eknk) (1) IA i (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
(2) IA IA (uj) ; IB IB (eknk) (2) IA IA (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
(3) IA IA (uj) ; IB i (eknk) (3) IA IA (Male) ; IB i (Female)
(4) IA i (uj) ; IB i(eknk) (4) IA i (Male) ; IB i(Female)
104. gkWeksZu fØ;k dh fØ;kfof/k ds fp=kRed fu:i.k esa 104. Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic
A, B vkSj C dks igpkus representation of the mechanism of hormone
action.

fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa

Select the correct option from the following:

(1) A = LVhjkW;M gkWeksZ u; B = gkWeks Zu xzkgh lfEeJ; (1) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormone receptor
Complex; C = Protein
C = izksVhu
(2) A = Protein Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic
(2) A = izksVhu gkWeksZu; B = xzkgh; C = pØh; AMP AMP

(3) A = LVhjkW;M gkWeksZu; B = xzkgh; C = f}rh;d lUns'kokgd (3) A = Steroid Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Second
Messenger
(4) A = izksVhu gkWeksZu; B = pØh; AMP; C = gkWeksZu xzkgh
(4) A = Protein Hormone; B = Cyclic AMP; C =
lfEeJ Hormone-receptor Complex

105. ekuo ds ikl mikftZr iz frj{kk rU= gksrk gSA tks 105. Humans have acquired immune system that
fd jks x tud dks fu"iz H kkoh djrk gS A fQj Hkh produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still
tUetkr izfrj{kk rU= tUe ds le; ij ik;h tkrh innate immune system is present at the time of
gSA D;kasfd ;g birth because it
(1) cgqr fof'k"V vkSj fofHkUu eSØksQst dk mi;ksx djrh (1) is very specific and uses different macrophages
gS
(2) produces memory cells for mounting fast secondary
(2) rhoz f}rh;d izfrfØ;k dks c<+kus ds fy, Le`fr
response.
dksf'kdkvksa dk fuekZ.k
(3) has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and
(3) izkd`frd ?kkrd dksf'kdk;sa j[krk gS tks fd ekbØksCl
dks Hk{k.k vkSj u"V djrk gSA destroy microbes

(4) fuf"Ø; izfrj{kk iznku djrk gS (4) provides passive immunity.

106. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh chekjh ,d Lo&izfrj{kk 106. Which of the following diseases is an auto-immune

chekjh gS A disorder?

(1) ekbLFkhfu;k xzsfol (1) Myasthenia gravis

(2) tksM+ks dh 'kksFk (2) Arthritis

(3) vfLFklqf"kjrk (3) Osteoporosis

(4) xkÅV (4) Gout

107. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 107. Select the correct match

A. ekbØksLiksje I. dod A. Microsporum I. Fungi

B. ,UVvehck II. izksVkstksvk B. Entamoeba II. Protozoa

fgLVksfyfVdk histolytica

C. oqpjs sjh;k III. tUrq C. Wuchereria malayi III. Animal

D. LVªSIVksdksdl IV. thok.kq D. Streptococcus IV. Bacteria

U;weksuh pneumoniae

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

108. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lh voLFkk iS j kFkkbjkbM 108. Which of the following conditions will stimulate
xzfUFk ls iSjkFkkbjkbM gkWeksZu dks eqDr djus ds fy,
parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone
mn~ n hfir djs xh
(1) Fall in active Vitamin D levels
(1) fØ;k'khy foVkfeu D Lrj esa deh
(2) Fall in blood Ca+2 levels
(2) jDr Ca+2 Lrj eas deh
(3) Fall in bone Ca+2 levels
(3) vfLFk Ca+2 Lrj esa deh
(4) Rise in blood Ca+2 levels
(4) jDr Ca+2 Lrj esa c<+kRs rjh
109. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gSA 109. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(1) IUDs ,d ckj Hkhrj izfo"V djus ds ckn izfrLFkkfir (1) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.
djus dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS
(2) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.
(2) IUDs lkekU;r% mi;ksxdrkZ ds }kjk Lo;a gh Hkhrj
izfo"V fd;k tkrk gSA (3) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the
(3) IUDs 'kqØk.kqvksa ds QSxkslkbVksfll dks xHkkZ'k; esa c<+krk
uterus.
gS
(4) IUDs ;qXed tuu dks voeUnhr djrk gS (4) IUDs suppress gametogenesis.

110. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk ;kS u la p kfjr chekjh 110. Which of the following sexually transmitted
diseases do not specifically affect reproductive
fo'ks"k :i ls tuu vaxksa dks iz Hkkfor ugha djrk gSA
organs ?
(1) tsukbVy okVZl vkSj fgiSVkbfVl-B
(1) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
(2) flQfyl vkSj tsukbVy gihZt (2) Syphilis and Genital herpes

(3) AIDS vkSj fgiSVkbfVl B (3) AIDS and Hepatitis B

(4) DysekbMh,fll vkSj AIDS (4) Chlamydiasis and AIDS

111. fuEufyf[kr oU'k dks buds lecfU/kr Qkbye ds 111. Match the following genera with their respective
lkFk lqesfyr djs phylum :

(a) vksQh;wjk (i) eksyLdk (a) Ophiura (i) Mollusca

(b) Qkblsfy;k (ii) IysVhgsfYeUFkht (b) Physalia (ii) Platyhelminthes

(c) fiUdVkMk (iii) bdkbuksMesZVk (c) Pinctada (iii) Echinodermata

(d) Iysusfj;k (iv) lhysuVªVs k (d) Planaria (iv) Coelenterata

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

112. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u lk tUrq lR; izx qgh; ds 112. Which of the following animals are true
lkFk f}ik'oZl eferh okyk gS A coelomates with bilateral symmetry ?

(1) o;Ld bdkbuksMeZl (1) Adult Echinoderms

(2) ,LdS gSfYeUFkht (2) Aschelminthes

(3) IySVhgSfYeUFkht (3) Platyhelminthes

(4) ,uhyhM~l (4) Annelids

113. fuEufyf[kr dksf'kdh; la jpuk dks buds yk{kf.kd 113. Match the following cell structure with its
xq.kksa ds lkFk lqesfyr djsa characteristic feature :
(a) n`<+ lfU/k (i) 'khV fuekZ.k ds fy, (a) Tight junctions (i) Cement neighbouring
iM+kslh dksf'kdkvksa dks cells together to form
,d lkFk tksM+rh gS sheet
(b) vklath lfU/k (ii) jlk;u ds ekè;e ls
(b) Adhering junctions (ii) Transmit information
lwpuk dks nwljh
through chemical to
dksf'kdkvksa dks lapkfjr
another cells
djrk gS
(c) xSi lfU/k (iii) midyk dksf'kdvksa ds (c) Gap junctions (iii) Establish a barrier to
vkj&ikj fjlko dks prevent leakage of fluid
jksdus ds fy, jks/k dks across epithelial cells
LFkkfir djrk gS
(d) Synaptic junctions (iv) Cytoplasmic channels
(d) lkbuSfIVd lfU/k (iv) vkl&ikl dh
to facilitate
dksf'kdkvksa ds chp communication
lapkj.k dks vklku djus between adjacent cells
ds fy, lkbVksIyktehd
pSuy Select correct option from the following :

fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b )-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b )-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
114. cyiwoZ d fu%'olu ds ckn ok;q dh og vf/kdre 114. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe
ek=k ¼vk;ru½ tks ,d O;fDr vUr%'olu dj ldrk in after a forced expiration is known as :
gS A
(1) Expiratory Capacity
(1) fu%'olu {kerk
(2) Vital Capacity
(2) tSo {kerk
(3) vUr%'olu {kerk (3) Inspiratory Capacity

(4) QsQM+s dh dqy {kerk (4) Total Lung Capacity

115. uksMy Årdksa ds lHkh vo;o LomRrstu'khy gksrs gS 115. All the components of the nodal tissue are

D;ks SA uksM lkekU; islesdj ds :i esa dk;Z djrk autoexcitable. Why does the SA node act as the
normal pacemaker ?
gS
(1) SA node has the lowest rate of depolarisation
(1) SA uksM fo/kzqohdj.k dh fuEure nj j[krk gS
(2) SA node is the only component to generate the
(2) SA uksM FkzslksYM foHko dks iSnk djus ds fy, ,dek= threshold potential.
vo;o gS
(3) Only SA node can convey the action potential to
(3) dsoy SA uksM nwljks dks lfØ; foHko Hkst ldrk gS the other

(4) SA uksM fo/kzqohdj.k dh mPpre nj j[krk gS (4) SA node has the highest rate of depolarisation

116. ,d fo'ks " k uks M y Ård nk¡; s ,Vªh ;e ds uhpys 116. A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower
fdukjs es a /ka l k gq v k gks r k gS A ,Vª h;ks& osU VªhD;qy j corner of the right atrium, close to Atrio-ventricular
lsIVe ds lehi] ân; 'kh"kZ ds fy, vkosxks dks QSyus septum, delays the spreading of impulses to heart
esa 0.1 lsd.M ds fy, nsjh djrk gS A apex for about 0.1 sec.

;g nsjh vuqefr nsrh gSA This delay allows -

(1) jDr dks /keuh esa izos'k djus ds fy, (1) blood to enter aorta.

(2) fuy; iw.kZ:i ls [kkyh djus ds fy, (2) the ventricles to empty completely.

(3) jDr dks iYeksujh /keuh esa izos'k djus ds fy, (3) blood to enter pulmonary arteries.

(4) ,Vªh;k iw.kZ:i ls [kkyh djus ds fy, (4) the atria to empty completely

117. i'kqvksa esa eSMdkÅ chekjh ,d dkjd ds dkj.k gksrh 117. Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an agent
gS tks fd j[krk gS which has :
(1) vØh; fØLVy (1) Inert crystal

(2) vfu;fer :i ls oy;hr izksVhu (2) Abnormally folded protein

(3) fcuk izkVs hu vkoj.k ds eqDr RNA (3) Free RNA without protein coat

(4) fcuk izksVhu vkoj.k ds eqDr DNA (4) Free DNA without protein coat

118. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu pØh; i.kZ foU;kl iz nf'kZr 118. Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy?
djrk gSA
(1) Mustard
(1) ljlksa
(2) China rose
(2) xqM+gy
(3) Alstonia
(3) ,YlVksfu;k
(4) dSykVªkWfil (4) Calotropis
119. f}v.Mih] flUdkiZl v.Mk'k; ns[kus dks feyrk gSA 119. Bicarpellary, Syncarpous ovary with obliquely
placed septum is seen in :
(1) czSfldk
(1) Brassica
(2) xqyeksgj
(2) Gulmohar
(3) lks;kchu (3) Soyabean
(4) lsLcsfu;k (4) Sesbania

120. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkS u ,fUt;ksLieZ esa Hkzw.kdks"k dk 120. Which of the following is most common type of
embryo sac in angiosperms?
lcls lkekU; izdkj gS
(1) Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of divisions
(1) ,d lelw=h foHkktu voLFkk ds lkFk prq"d chtk.kqd
(2) Monosporic with three sequential mitotic
(2) rhu Øec) lelw=h foHkktu ds lkFk ,dchtk.kqd divisions

(3) Monosporic with two sequential mitotic

(3) nks Øec) lelw=h foHkktu ds lkFk ,dchtk.kqd
divisions
(4) nks Øec) lelw=h foHkktu ds lkFk f}chtk.kqd (4) Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
121. fuEufyf[kr esa ls] vkuq oaf'kd dwV ds fo'ks"k y{k.k 121. From the follow ing, identify the correct
dk lgh la;kstu gS combination of salient features of Genetic Code

(1) lkoZHkkSfed] Li"V] vfrO;kih (1) Universal, Non-ambiguous,Overlapping

(2) fMtsusjsV] vfrO;kih] dkWekjfgr (2) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless

(3) lkoZHkkSfed] vLi"V] fMtsusjsV (3) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate

(4) fMtsusjsV] xSj&vfrO;kih] vLi"V (4) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non ambiguous

122. dkSu ls oSKkfud us cSfDVfj;ksQst esa fl) fd;k fd 122. Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is
DNA gh ,dek= vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ gS the sole genetic material in bacteriophage ?

(1) chMy vkSj VsVe (1) Beadle and Tatum

(2) eslsYlu vkSj LVkWy (2) Messelson and Stahl

(3) g"ksZ vkSj psl (3) Hershey and Chase

(4) tSdc vkSj eksukM (4) Jacob and Monod

123. ;q d S f j;ks V ~ l es a vuq y s [ ku dh iz f Ø;k es a ] RNA 123. In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes, the
ikWyhejst I vuqysf[kr djrk gSA RNA polymerase I transcribes -

(1) vfrfjDr izlaLdj.k ds lkFk mRNA] vkPNknu vkSj (1) mRNA with additional processing, capping and
iwPNu tailing
(2) tRNA, 5 S rRNA vkSj snRNAs (2) tRNA, 5 S rRNA and snRNAs
(3) rRNAs - 28 S, 18 S vkSj 5.8 S (3) rRNAs - 28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
(4) mRNA dk vxzxkeh] hnRNA (4) Precursor of mRNA, hnRNA
124. dkS u lh vkuq oaf'kd voLFkk esa] izH kkfor O;fDr es a 124. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
iz R;sd dksf'kdk] rhu fyax xq.klw= XXY j[krk gS affected person, has three sex chromosomes XXY?

(1) FkSyslhfe;k (1) Thalassemia

(2) DykbuQsYVj flUMªkse (2) Klinefelter's Syndrome

(3) fQukbydhVksU;wjh;k (3) Phenylketonuria

(4) VuZj flUMªkes (4) Turner's Syndrome

125. lef"V vUrZfØ;k ds fy, lgh vuq :irk dk p;u 125. Select the correct match for population
djs a interactions

(1) ijHk{kd vkSj f'kdkj = + vkSj + (1) Predator and prey = + and +

(2) fyoj ¶ywd vkSj ekuo = + vkSj – (2) Liver fluke and human = + and –

(3) dks;y vkSj dkSok = + vkSj + (3) Cuckoo and crow = + and +

(4) lh ,uheksu vkSj Dykmu = – vkSj 0 (4) Sea anemone and = – and 0

eNyh clown Fish

126. fuEufyf[kr nks dFku fn, x, gS a] ,d vfHkdFku 126. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
(A) (R) ls yscYM gS asAssertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
vfHkdFku (A) : vkyw vkSj 'kdjdUn rqY;:irk dk ,d
Assertion (A): Potato and sweet potato is an example
mnkgj.k gSA
of analogy.
dkj.k (R) : vkyw rus dk :ikUrj.k gS tcfd 'kdjdUn
Reason(R): Potato is modification of stem while sweet
tM+ dk :ikUrj.k gS ysfdu ;s leku dk;Z djrs gS ¼Hkkstu
potato is modification of root but they perform similar
dk laxzg.k½
function (storage of food).
mijksDr dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa lgh p;u djsa] uhps
In the light of the above statements, choosethe
fn, x, fodYiksa esa lgh mRrj pq usa correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) lgh gS ijUrq (R) lgh ugha gS (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) lgh ugha gS ijUrq (R) lgh gS (2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
djrk gSA explanation of (A)

(4) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dk lgh (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
O;k[;ku ugh djrk gSA explanation od (A)

127. iz ksL FkS fVd lewg dks&,Utkbe ls fdlesa fHkUu gSA 127. Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that

(1) viuh lfØ;rk ds fy, /kkrq vk;uksa dh t:jr gksrh (1) they require metal ions for their activity
gS
(2) they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to
(2) ;s ¼izksLFkSfVd lewg½ ,iks,Utkbe ls n`<+rk ls ca/ks gksrs
apoenzymes.
gS
(3) budk ,iks,Utkbe ls tqM+ko {kf.kd gksrk gS (3) their association with apoenzymes is transient.

(4) ;s ,Utkbe mRizsfjr vfHkfØ;kvksa dh ,d la[;k esa (4) they can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme
lgdkjd dh rjg dke djrs gSA catalyzed reactions.
128. fofue; dkSu ls v/kZxq.klw=ksa ds chp ?kfVr gksrk gS 128. Crossing over takes place between which
vkSj dksf'kdk pØ ds dkSu ls iz koLFkk esa chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle?

(1) iwokZoLFkk&I ds tkbxksVhu voLFkk ij xSj&letkr xq.klw=ksa (1) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
ds xSj larfr v/kZxq.klw= ds chp chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I.

(2) iwokZoLFkk&I ds tkbxksVhu voLFkk ij xSj&letkr (2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous

xq.klw=ksa ds xSj larfr v/kZxq.klw= ds chp chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I.

(3) iwokZoLFkk&I ds tkbxksVhu voLFkk ij xSj&letkr (3) Non-sister chromatids of homologous

xq.klw=ksa ds xSj larfr v/kZxq.klw= ds chp chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I.

(4) iwokZoLFkk&I ds tkbxksVhu voLFkk ij xSj&letkr (4) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous

xq.klw=ksa ds xSj larfr v/kZxq.klw= ds chp chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I.

129. ikS/ks esa (ETS) 'oluh; bysDVªkWu ifjogu rU= dgk¡ 129. Where is the respiratory electron transport system
ij fLFkr gksrk gS (ETS) located in plants?

(1) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;y eSfVªDl (1) Mitochondrial matrix

(2) ckgjh ekbVksdkf.Mª;y f>Yyh (2) Outer mitochondrial membrane

(3) vkUrfjd ekbVksdkWf.Mª;y f>Yyh (3) Inner mitochondrial membrane

(4) vUrjf>Yyh; vodk'k (4) Intermembrane space

130. gSp ,oa LySd ikFkos esa] izkFkfed CO2 xzkgd gS 130. In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO 2
acceptor is-
(1) vkDlsyks,lhVhd vEy
(1) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) QkLQksfXylhjhd vEy (2) Phosphoglyceric acid
(3) QkWLQksbuky ikb:osV (3) Phosphoenol pyruvate

(4) RuBisCO (4) RuBisCO

131. ,tksVkscSDVj ds fuyEcu esa ,d oSKkfud DySMksQksjk 131. One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension
dks laof/kZr djrk gS vkSj lao/kZu dks iz dkf'kr djrk of Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by

gSA ,d fizTe ds ekè;e ls izdk'k dk caVokjk djrk splitting light through a prism. He observed that
bacteria accumulated mainly in the region of :
gSA ;g ns[krk gS fd thok.kq eq[; :i ls {ks= esas
tek gksrk gSA (1) Violet and green light
(1) cSaxuh vkSj gjk izdk'k (2) Indigo and green light
(2) bfUMxks vkSj gjk izdk'k
(3) Orange and yellow light
(3) ukjUxh vkSj ihyk izdk'k
(4) Blue and red light
(4) uhyk vkSj yky izdk'k
132. In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crop,
132. xUus dh Qly dh iSn kokj dks c<+ kus ds Øe esa]
which of the following plant growth regulators
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls ikni o`f) fu;ked dk should be sprayed ?
fNM+dko fd;k tkrk gS ?
(1) Ethylene
(1) bFkkbZyhu
(2) Auxins
(2) vkDthu
(3) Gibberellins
(3) ftCcsjsyhu
(4) lkbVksdkbfuu (4) Cytokinins
133. fdl izdkj dk ijkx.k oSyhlusj h;k esa ?kfVr gksrk 133. What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria
gS
(1) Pollination occurs in submerged condition by water.
(1) ijkx.k ty ds }kjk fueXu voLFkk esa ik;k tkrk gS
(2) Flowers emerge above surface of Water and
(2) iq"i ty ds lrg ds Åij fudyrk gS vkSj ijkx.k dhV
pollination occurs by insects.
ds }kjk ik;k tkrk gS
(3) Flowers emerge above water surface and pollen is
(3) iq"i ty ds lrg ds Åij fudyrk gS vkSj ijkx gok
carried by wind.
ds }kjk ys tk;k tkrk gS
(4) uj iq"i ty dh /kkjkvksa }kjk ty dh lrg ij eknk (4) Male flowers are carried by water currents to female

iq"iksa dks ys tk;k tkrk gS flowers at surface of water.

134. fuEufyf[kr esa ls ,d fdlesa] nksuks Lo;qXeu vkSj 134. In which one of the following, both autogamy and
ltkriq " ih ijkx.k izfrcfU/kr gks tkrk gS geitonogamy are prevented?

(1) xsgw¡ (1) Wheat

(2) iihrk (2) Papaya

(3) dSLVj (3) Castor

(4) eDdk (4) Maize

135. if'peh ?kkV ikn~ i dh vkSj tUrq vksa dh ,d cM+h 135. Western Ghats have a large number of plant and
la[;k j[krk gSA tks fd dgh vkSj ugha ik;h tkrh animal species that are not found anywhere else.
gS A Which of the following terms will you use to notify
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ls 'kCn dks bl iz dkj dh such species ?
tk¡fr ds fy, ?kksflr djsxs
(1) Endemic
(1) LFkkuhd
(2) Vulnerable
(2) vlqjf{kr
(3) Threatened
(3) ladVxzLr
(4) ewyrRo tkfr;k¡ (4) Keystone

136. fuEufy f[kr es a ls fd lds chp] le cU/k ,d 136. Between which among the following, the

deUlsfyTe dk mnkgj.k ugha gS relationship is not an example of commensalism?

(1) vkdhZM vkSj ;g ftl ij o`f) djrk gS (1) Orchid and the tree on which it grows

(2) cxqyk vkSj xzsthax i'kq (2) Cattle Egret and grazing cattle

(3) lh ,uheksu vkSj DykÅu eNyh (3) Sea Anemone and Clown fish

(4) eknk cjZ vkSj vUthj tkfr (4) Female wasp and fig species

137. dksdk ,YdkykW,M vFkok dksdsu iz kIr gksrk gS 137. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from

(1) iSisoj lksEuhQsje (1) Papaver somniferum

(2) ,Vªkis k cSykMksuk (2) Atropa belladona

(3) bjhFkzkt
s kbye dksdk (3) Erythroxylum coca

(4) /krqjk (4) Datura

138. fuEufyf[kr ekbØksCl ds tksM+ ks ds chp dkS u lk 138. Among the following pairs of microbes, which pair
tksM+k nksuks ekbØksCl j[krk gS tks fd tS omoZjd dh has both the microbes that can be used as
rjg mi;ksx fd;s tkrs gS biofertilizers ?

(1) ,Lijftyl vkSj jkbtksil (1) Aspergillus and Rhizopus

(2) jkbtksfc;e vkSj jkbtksil (2) Rhizobium and Rhizopus

(3) lk;ukscSDVhfj;k vkSj jkbtksfc;e (3) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium

(4) ,Lijftyl vkSj lk;ukscSDVhfj;k (4) Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria

139. ,d ,Utkbe DNA ls U;qDyh;ksVkbM~l dks gVkus dks 139. An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides
mRiz sfjr djrk gSA from DNA is :

(1) DNA ykbxst (1) DNA ligase

(2) ,.MksU;qDyh,t (2) Endonuclease

(3) dkbVhust (3) Chitinase

(4) izksVh,t (4) Protease

140. RNAi esa, thUl dks lkbysU l fdldk mi;ksx djds 140. In RNAi, the genes are silenced using :
fd;k tkrk gS A
(1) dsRNA
(1) dsRNA
(2) ssDNA
(2) ssDNA
(3) ssRNA
(3) ssRNA

(4) dsDNA (4) dsDNA

141. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr djs vkSj lgh fodYi dk 141. Match the following and choose the correct options
p;u djsa Column-I Column-II
lw ph -I lw ph -II A. Trophoblast i. Embedding of
A. VªksQksCykLV i. b.MksesVªh;e esa blastocyst in the
CykLVksflLV dk /kaluk endometrium

B. fonyu ii. dksf'kdkvksa dk lewg B. Cleavage ii. Group of cells that

tks fd Hkzw.k ds :i esa would differentiate

foHksfnr gksrk gS as embryo

C. vUrjdksf'kdk iii. CykLVksflLV dh ckgjh C. Inner cell mass iii. Outer layer of

lewg ijr ,.MksesVªh;e blastocyst attached

ls tqM+rh gS to the endometrium

D. vUrjksZi.k iv. ;qXeut dk lelw=h D. Implantation iv. Mitotic division of

foHkktu zygote

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i (3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
142. thok.kqoh; :ikUrj.k esa 'fgV 'kWkd ' fof/k dk egRo 142. Significance of 'heat shock' method in bacterial
gSA fdls vklku djus esa transformation is to facilitate
(1) dksf'kdk fHkRrh ls DNA dk ca/kuk (1) Binding of DNA to the cell wall
(2) f>Yyh ifjogu izksVhUl ds ekè;e ls DNA dk xzg.k (2) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
(3) thok.kqoh; dksf'kdk fHkRrh esa {kf.kd fNnz ds ekè;e ls (3) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the
DNA dk xzg.k bacterial cell wall
(d) izfrtSfod izfrjks/kh thu dk vfHkO;Dr gksuk (d) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
143. fuEufyf[kr es a ls dkS u lk tho ,d iz f rcU/ku 143. Which of the following organism is not a source of
,.MksU ;wDyh,t dk lz ksr ugha gS restriction endonuclease ?
(1) fgeksQhyl bU¶yw,Uth (1) Haemophilus influenzae
(2) bLpsfjfp;k dksykbZ (2) Escherichia coli
(3) ,UVvehck dksykbZ (3) Entamoeba coli
(4) cSlhyl ,ekbyksfyDohQslh,Ul (4) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
144. jksx dkf;Z dh gksrk gS A 144. Pathophysiology is the
(1) jksxtud dh dkf;Zdh dk vè;;u (1) Study of physiology of pathogen
(2) ijiks"kh dh lkekU; dkf;Zdh dk vè;;u (2) Study of normal physiology of host
(3) ijiks"kh dh cnyh gqbZ dkf;Zdh dk vè;;u (3) Study of altered physiology of host
(4) dksbZ ugha (4) None of the above
145. vxj ,d tyk'k; esa 50 iSjkfef'k;e dh tula[;k 145. If a population of 50 Paramecium present in a pool
mifLFkr gSA ,d ?k.Vs ds ckn c<+dj 150 gks tkrh increases to 150 after an hour, what would be the
gSA tula[;k dh o`f) nj D;k gksxh growth rate of population?
(1) 50 izfr ?k.Vs (1) 50 per hour
(2) 200 izfr ?k.Vs (2) 200 per hour
(3) 5 izfr ?k.Vs (3) 5 per hour
(4) 100 izfr ?k.Vs (4) 100 per hour
146. D;k leku gS rduhd ds fy, (i) bu&foVªks fu"kspu, 146. What is common to the techniques (i) in vitro
(ii) Øk;ksfizt osZ 'ku (iii) Ård lao/kZu? fertilisation, (ii) Cryopreservation and (iii) Tissue
culture ?
(1) lHkh LoLFkkus laj{k.k fof/k gS
(1) All are In-situ conservation methods
(2) lHkh ckg~;LFkkus laj{k.k fof/k gS
(2) All are Ex-situ conservation methods
(3) lHkh dks lqij vk/kqfud midj.k vkSj cM+s LFkku dh
vko';drk gksrh gS (3) All require ultra modern equipment and large space

(4) lHkh foyqIr thoksa ds laj{k.k dh fof/k;k¡ gS (4) All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms

147. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gS 147. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) ikFksZfu;e gekjs ns'k dh ,d LFkkuhd tkfr gS (1) Parthenium is an endemic species of our country
(2) vÝhdu dSVfQ'k Lons'kh dSV fQ'k ds fy, [krjk ugha (2) African cat fish is not a threat to indigenous
gksrh gSA cat fishes
(3) LVhyj leqnzh xk; ,d foyqIr tUrq gS
(3) Steller's sea cow is an extinct animal
(4) ySUVkuk yksdfiz; :i ls xktj ?kkl ds uke ls tkuk
(4) Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass
tkrk gS
148. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 148. Select the correct match
A. TMV – RNA laØked gksrk gS A. TMV – RNA is infectious
B. cSDVhfj;ksQst – DNA laØked gksrk gS B. Bacteriophage – DNA is infectious
C. okbjkbM & RNA laØked gksrk gS C. Viroids – RNA is infectious
D. ykbdsu & nks izdkj ds tho 'kkfey gS D. Lichen – Two types of organism involved
(1) dsoy A, B, D (1) Only A, B, D
(2) dsoy B, C, D
(2) Only B, C, D
(3) dsoy A, C, D
(3) Only A, C, D
(4) lHkh (4) All
149. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr djs vkSj lgh fodYi dk 149. Match the following and choose the correct option
p;u djsa from below
dkWye I dkWye II Column I Column II
A. D;qVhdy i. }kj dksf'kdk;sa A. Cuticle i. Guard cells
B. vko/kZ Rod dksf'kdk;sa ii. ,dy ijr B. Bulliform cells ii. Single layer
C. jU/kz iii. ekseh; ijr C. Stomata iii. Waxy layer
D. ckg~;Ropk iv. [kkyh jaxghu dksf'kdk;sa D. Epidermis iv. Empty colourless cell
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv (4) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
150. bl Ård dh dksf'kdk;sa thfor vkSj dks.kh; fnokj 150. Cells of this tissue are living and show angular
dh eksVkbZ iz nf'kZ r djrh gSA ;s ;kfU=d lgkjk Hkh wall thickening. They also provide mechanical
iz nku djrs gSA suport. The tissue is
(1) tkbye (1) Xylem
(2) Ldysjsudkbek (2) Sclerenchyma
(3) dksysudkbek (3) Collenchyma
(4) bihMfeZl (4) Epidermis
151. fdrus 'kh"kZ foHkT;ksr d ,d ikS /ks dh Vgfu;ks a esa 151. How many shoot apical meristems are likely to be
ik;s tkus dh lEHkkouk gS tksfd 4 'kk[kk;sa vkSj 26 present in a twig of a plant possessing 4 branches
iRrh;k¡ j[krk gS A and 26 leaves
(1) 26 (1) 26

(2) 1 (2) 1

(3) 5 (3) 5

(4) 30 (4) 30

152. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku dkWdjksp ds fy, 152. Which one of the following statements is true for
lgh gS A cockroach ?

(1) izR;sd v.Mk'k; esa v.Mufydk dh la[;k nl gksrh gSA (1) The number of ovarioles in each ovary are ten

(2) ykokZ dh voLFkk dSVjfiyj dgykrh gSA (2) The larval stage is called caterpillar

(3) xqnk 'kwd eknk esa vuqifLFkr gS (3) Anal styles are absent in females

(4) ;g ;qjh;ksVsyhd gksrk gS (4) They are ureotelic

153. dkWdjksp ds lUnHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr djs 153. Match the following with reference to cockroach
vkSj lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa and choose the correct option

dkWye I dkWye II Column I Column II

A. QSykseh;j i. fodflr gks jgs v.Mks A. Phallomere i. Chain of developing ova

dh Ja`[kyk B. Gonopore ii. Bundles of sperm

B. xksuksiksj ii. 'kqØk.kqvksa dk xqPNk C. Spermatophore iii. Opening of the

C. LiesZVksQksj iii. L[kyu ufydk dk fNnz ejaculatory duct

D. v.M ufydk iv. ckg~; tuusfUnz; D. Ovarioles iv. The external genitalia

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i (3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

154. G1 izkoLFkk ds fo"k; esa lgh dFku dk p;u djs 154. Select the correct statement about G1 phase

(1) dksf'kdk mikip;h :i ls fuf"Ø; gksrh gSA (1) Cell is metabolically inactive

(2) DNA dksf'kdk esa izfrd`fr;u ugha djrk gS (2) DNa in the cell does not replicate

(3) ;g o`gnv.kqvksa ds la'ys"k.k dh ,d izkoLFkk ugha gS (3) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules

(4) dksf'kdk o`f) djuk jksd nsrh gS (4) Cell stops growing

155. dkS u lh rjaxnSè ;Z (in nm) dh Js.kh iz dk'kla' ys " kh 155. Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called
fØ;k'khy fofdj.k (PAR) dgykrh gS ? photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) ?

(1) 100 – 390 (1) 100 – 390

(2) 390 – 430 (2) 390 – 430

(3) 400 – 700 (3) 400 – 700

(4) 760 – 1000 (4) 760 – 1000

156. fuEufyf[kr dks lq esfyr djsa 156. Match the following

A. 2,4–D i. gsfjax 'kqØk.kq DNA A. 2,4–D i. Herring sperm DNA

B. ABA ii. cksfYVax B. ABA ii. Bolting
C. bFkkbZyhu iii. jU/kz dk cUn gksuk C. Ethylene iii. Stomatal closure
D. GA iv. [kjirokj jfgr ?kkl dk
D. GA iv. Weed - free lawns
eSnku
E. Cytokinins v. Ripening of fruits
E. lkbVksdkbfuUl v. Qyksa dk iduk
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-v, D-ii E-i
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-v, D-ii E-i

(2) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii, E-i (2) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii, E-i

(3) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-iii E-ii (3) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-iii E-ii

(4) A-v, B-iii, C-ii, D-i E-iv (4) A-v, B-iii, C-ii, D-i E-iv
157. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgha gS 157. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) ADH – jDr esa ,fUt;ksVUs lhukstsu dk ,fUt;ksVsUlhu esa (1) ADH – prevents conversion of angiotensinogen in
cnyko dks jksdrk gSA blood to angiotensin

(2) ,YMksLVhjkWu& ty iqujko'kks"k.k dks vklku djrk gS (2) Aldosterone – Facilitates water reabsorption

(3) ANF – lksfM;e iqujko'kks"k.k dks c<+krk gS (3) ANF – enhances sodium reabsorption

(4) jsfuu (Renin) – okfgdk dk izlkj djrk gS (4) Renin – causes vasodilation
158. Mk;ykbflax bZdkbZ ¼d`f=e o`Dd½ ,d nzO; j[krk 158. Dialysing unit (artificial kidney) contains a fluid
gS tks fd yxHkx Iyktek ds leku gks r k gS A which is almost same as plasma except that it has
fdldks NksM+dj ;g j[krk gS
(1) High glucose
(1) mPp Xywdkst
(2) High urea
(2) mPp ;qjh;k
(3) No urea
(3) dksbZ ;qjh;k ugha
(4) mPp ;qjhd vEy (4) High uric acid

159. foJke f>Yyh ds vkj&ikj foHko _.kkRed gSA ;g 159. Potential difference across resting membrane is
negative. This is due to differential distribution of
fuEufyf[kr vk;Ul ds vUrj lEcU/kh forj.k ds
the following ions
dkj.k gksrh gS
(1) Na+ and K+
(1) Na+ vkSj K+
(2) CO3++ and CI–
(2) CO3++ vkSj CI–
(3) Ca++ and Mg++
(3) Ca++ vkSj Mg++
(4) Ca++ and CI–
(4) Ca++ vkSj CI–
160. Select the correct match
160. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
(A) Resting potential i. Chemicals involved in
(A) foJke foHko i. lkbusIl ij vkosxks ds
the transmission of
lapj.k esa 'kkfey
impulses at synapses
jlk;u
(B) Nerve impulse ii. Gap between the pre
(B) rfU=dk vkosx ii. vxzlhusfIVd vkSj i'p
synaptic and post
lhusfIVd rfU=dk
synaptic neurons
ds chp xSi
(C) Synaptic cleft iii. Electrical potential
(C) lkbusfIVd njkj iii. foJke rfU=dk f>Yyh
difference across the
ds vkj&ikj fo|qrh;
resting neural
foHko dk vUrj membrane
(D) rfU=dk lapkjh iv. mn~nhiu ds fy, ,d (D) Neurotransmitters iv. An electrical wave like
rfU=dk dk fo|qrh; response of a neuron
rjax tSlh izfrfØ;k to a stimulation
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
161. MN-jDr lewg rU= ds fy, M vkSj N ,yhYl dh 161. For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies
vko` f Rr 0.7 vkS j 0.3, Øe'k% MN- jDr lew g dh of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively.
lEHkkfor vko` f Rr j[kus okys thoks ds gks u s dh The expected frequency of MN-blood group
lEHkkouk gS A bearing organisms is likely to be

(1) 42% (1) 42%

(2) 49% (2) 49%

(3) 9% (3) 9%

(4) 58% (4) 58%

162. dkWye 'I' ds vUnj lwfpr oSKkfudksa dks lwph 'II' esa 162. Match the scientists listed under column 'I' with
muds fopkj ds lkFk lqesfyr djsa ideas listed column 'II'
dkye I dkye II Column I Column II
A. MkfoZu i. jklk;fud fodkl ds A. Darwin i. Origin of life through
ekè;e ls thou dh chemical evolution
mRifRr
B. Oparin ii. Use and disuse of
B. vksisfju ii. vaxks dk mi;ksx vkSj
organs
vuqiz;ksx
C. Lamarck iii. Mutation theory
C. ySekdZ iii. mRifjrZu fl)kUr
D. Hugo devries iv. Evolution by natural
D. g~;qxks Mhozht iv. izkd`frd p;u ds
selection
}kjk fodkl
(1) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii (1) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i (3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

163. lq ij Dykl ihlst ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djsa 163. Select the correct statement for supar class pisces

a. dkWfUMªDFkht esa DySlij uj esa mifLFkr gS a. In chondrichthyes claspers are present in male
b. vkWLVhDFkht esa ,;j CySMj mRiykou dks fu;fU=r b. Air bladder regulates buoyancy in osteichtyes
djrk gSA c. Heart is usually two chambered but three
c. ân; izk;% nks d{kh; ysfdu es<+d esa rhu d{kh; gksrk chambered in frog
gSA
d. Members of pisces are called true fish
d. ihlst dh lnL; lR; eNfy;k¡ dgykrh gSA
(1) a, b, d (2) Only a, b
(1) a, b, d (2) dsoy a, b
(3) a, b, c (4) lHkh (3) a, b, c (4) All

164. lwjteq[kh ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djsa 164. Select the correct statement for sunflower

a. ;g ,LVsjl s h QSfeyh dk lnL; gS a. It is the member of asteraceae family

b. chtk.Mklu v.Mk'k; ds vk/kkj ij gksrk gS vkSj blesa b. The placenta develops at the base of ovary and a
dsoy ,d chtk.M gksrk gSA single ovule is attached to it
c. ,d vdsyh iRrh izR;sd xkaB ij ,dkUrj :i esa yxh c. A single leaf arise at each node in alternate manner
jgrh gSA
d. Ovary inferior
d. v/kksorhZ v.Mk'k;
(1) All (2) Only a, b, c
(1) lHkh (2) dsoy a, b, c
(3) Only b, c, d (4) Only a, c, d
(3) dsoy b, c, d (4) dsoy a, c, d
165. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 165. Select the correct match
Dykl Qkbye@fMohtu Class Phylum/Division
A. Lru/kkjh vkFkzksZiksMk A. Mammalia Arthropoda
B. bUlsDVk ,fUt;ksLiehZ B. Insecta Angiospermae
C. MkbZdkVhfyMksuh ,fUt;ksLiehZ C. Dicotyledonae Angiospermae
D. eksuksdkWVhfyMksuh ftEuksLieZ D. Monocotyledonae Gymnosperm
(1) A, B, C (1) A, B, C
(2) dsoy C (2) Only C
(3) C, D (3) C, D
(4) A, C (4) A, C
166. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa 166. Select the correct match
vehuks vEy R lewg Amino acid R group
A. Xykblhu gkbMªkstu A. Glycine Hydrogen
B. ,ykuhu ,d feFkkby lewg B. Alanine A methyl group
C. lsjhu gkbMªkWDlhfeFkkby lewg C. Serine Hydroxymethyl group
D. ,ykuhu vkblksizksikby lewg D. Alanine Isopropyl group
(1) dsoy A, B, C (1) Only A, B, C
(2) dsoy B, C (2) Only B, C
(3) dsoy A, B, D (3) Only A, B, D
(4) dsoy B, C, D (4) Only B, C, D
167. Select the incorrect match for colourblindness
167. o.kkZU/krk ds fy, xyr vuq :irk dk p;u djsa
(1) XCY – colourblind man
(1) XCY – o.kkZU/k vkneh
(2) XCX – carrier man
(2) XCX – okgd vkneh
(3) XCXC – colourblind women
(3) XCXC – o.kkZU/k efgyk
(4) XY – normal man
(4) XY – lkekU; vkneh
168. Select the correct match
168. lgh vuq:irk dk p;u djsa
A. Haemophilia – Sex linked recessive
A. fgeksQhfy;k – fyax yXu vizHkkoh
B. Thalassemia – Genetic disorder
B. FkSyslhfe;k – vkuqoaf'kd fodkj
C. Cystic fibrosis – Mendelian disorder
C. flLVhd Qkbczksfll – es.Msyh;u fodkj
D. Turner syndrome – Mendelian disorder
D. VuZj flUMªkse – es.Msyh;u fodkj
(1) All
(1) lHkh
(2) dsoy A, C (2) Only A, C
(3) A, C, D (3) A, C, D

(4) A, B, C (4) A, B, C
169. Select the correct match for mendel experiment
169. es.My ds iz ;ksx ds fy, lgh vuq :irk dk p;u djsa
Dominant Recessive
iz H kkoh viz H kkoh
A. Terminal Axial
A. VfeZuy v{kh;
B. xksy >qjhZnkj B. Round Wrinkled

C. yEck ckSuk C. Tall Dwarf

D. Qyh dk gjk jax Qyh dk ihyk jax D. Green colour of pod Yellow colour of pod
(1) A, B, C (1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D (2) B, C, D
(3) dsoy B, C (3) Only B, C
(4) lHkh (4) All
170. is ' kh; lad q p u dh fØ;kfo/kh ds lUnHkZ esa lgh 170. Select the correct statements regarding
dFku dk p;u djsa mechanism of muscle contraction :
A. bldh 'kq:vkr laosnh rfU=dk dksf'kdk ds tfj, A. It is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via sensory
CNS }kjk ladsr Hksts tkus ls gksrh gS neuron.
B. rfU=dk lapkjh lkdksZysek esa fØ;k foHko iSnk djrk B. Neurotransmitter generates action potential in the
gSA sarcolemma.
C. Ca++ Lrj dh c<+ksRrjh ls ,fDVu rUrq ij Vªki
s ksfuu dh C. Increased Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium
mi bdkbZ ls dSfY'k;e cU/k cukrk gSA with troponin on actin filaments.
D. ,fDVu ds fy, lfØ; LFky dk <duk fØ;k'khy gks D. Masking of active site for actin is activated.
tkrk gS
E. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis to form
E. ATP futZyhdj.k ls ÅtkZ dks mi;ksxhr djds ØkWl
cross bridge.
lsrq dk fuekZ.k
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
fn;s x;s fodYiksa es ls lcls mi;q Dr mRrj dk options given below :
p;u djsa
(1) B, C and E only
(1) dsoy B, C vkSj E
(2) C, D and E only
(2) dsoy C, D vkSj E
(3) A and D only
(3) dsoy A vkSj D
(4) dsoy B, D vkSj E (4) B, D and E only

171. ikfjrU= ds fo"k; esa D;k dFku xyr gSA 171. What is incorrect statement about ecosystem? :

(1) ;g NksVs vkdkj ds rkykc ls ysdj cM+s vkdkj ds leqnz (1) It can vary from small sized pond to large sized
sea
rd gks ldrk gS
(2) ;g mRifRr esa ekuo fØ;kdykiksa ls Hkh gks ldrk gS (2) It may be anthropogenic in origin
(3) ;g vLFkk;h vFkok LFkk;h gks ldrk gS (3) It may be temporary or Permanent
(4) blesa ÅtkZ izokg dk dk;Z 'kkfey gSA ysfdu iks"kd (4) It involves the function of flow of energy but
not recycling of nutrients
rRoksa dk iquZpØ.k ugha
172. Match List-I with List-II:
172. lwph-I dks lwph -II ls feyku djsa
List-I List-II
lw ph -I lw ph -II
A. Tertiary consumer I. Grass
A. r`rh;d miHkksDrk I. ?kkl
B. Secondary consumer II. Lion
B. f}rh;d miHkksDrk II. 'ksj
C. Primary consumer III. Wolf
C. izkFkfed miHkksDrk III. HksfM+ ;k
D. Primary producer IV. Goat
D. izkFkfed mRiknd IV. cdjh Choose the correct answer form the options given
fn;s x;s fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj dk p;u djsa below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
173. Select the Incorrect match
173. xyr vuq :irk dk p;u djsa
(1) MkbZgkbMªksDlh - Xykbdksfyfll (1) Dihydroxyacetone - Glycolysis
,lhVksuQkWLQsV Phosphate

(2) ¶;qesjhd vEy - Xykbdksfyfll (2) Fumaric Acid - Glycolysis

(3) OAA - ØsCl pØ (3) OAA - Krebs cycle

(4) 3-QkLQksfXylhjhd - Xykbdksfyfll (4) 3-Phosphoglyceric - Glycolysis
vEy Acid
174. xyr vuq :irk dk p;u djsa 174. Select the Incorrect match:
(1) 'kkjhfjd jks/k - 'olu iFk dks vkLrfjr (1) Physical barrier - Mucus coating of the
djus okyh ,fiFkhfy;e epithelium lining
Respiratory tract
dk 'ys"ek vkysi
(2) Physiological - Saliva in the mouth
(2) dkf;Zdh; jks/k - eq¡g esa ykj
barrier
(3) dksf'kdh; jks/k - Y;qdkslkbV~l
(3) Cellular barrier - Leucocytes
(4) lkbVksdkbu jks/k - Ård esa eSØksQst (4) Cytokine barrier - Macrophage in tissues
175. izfrd`fr;u ds fy, lgh dFku dk p;u djsa 175. Select the correct statements for Replication:
(1) izfrd`fr;u esa fdlh Hkh rjg dh xyrh ds ifj.kke (1) Any mistake during replication would result into
Lo:i mRifjorZu gksrk gSA mutations.
(2) DNA ij fuHkZj DNA ikWyhejst cgqydu dks dsoy (2) The DNA dependent DNA polymerases catalyse
,d fn”kk 5’  3’ dh vksj mRizsfjr djrk gS polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5’  3’

(3) DNA dh izfrd`fr;u o dksf”kdk foHkktu pØ dkQh (3) The replication of DNA and cell division cycle should
be highly co-ordinated.
laHkkfor <ax ls gksrh gS
(4) All
(4) lHkh
176. Given below are two statements
176. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gS a %
Statement I:
dFku - I : For plants the earliest systems of classification used
ikS/kks ds fy, igys fn;s x;s oxhZdj.k esa dsoy dqy lrgh only gross superficial morphological characters such
vkdkfjdh y{k.kksa dk mi;ksx fd;k x;k tSls fd ifRr;ksa as habit, colour, number and shape of leaves etc.
dh izd`fr] jax] la[;k vkSj vkd`fr Statement II :
dFku - II : Natural classification systems were based on natural
izkd`frd oxhZdj.k rU= thoks esa izkd`frd lecU/k rFkk affinities among the organisms and consider, not only
ckg~; xq.kks ds lkFk & lkFk Hkhrjh xq.kks] tSls ijklajpuk] external features, but also internal features, like
ultrastructure, anatomy, embryology and
,ukVkWeh] Hkz.w kfoKku vkSj ikni jlk;u ds vk/kkj ij fodflr
phytochemistry.
gqvk gSA
Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
177. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gS a % 177. Given below are two statements
dFku - I : Statement I:
LQsxue esa uj vkSj eknk xSehVksQkbV dk LorU= eqDr&thoh In Sphagnum male and female gametophyte are
independent free living existence.
vfLrRo gksrk gSA
Statement II :
dFku - II :
In Pinus male and female gametophyte are not
ikbul esa uj vkSj eknk xSehVksQkbV dk LorU= eqDr thoh
independent free living existence.
vfLrRo ugha gksrk gSA Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
178. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gS a % 178. Given below are two statements

dFku -I: Statement I:

Fruits is a mature or ripened ovary developed after
Qy fu"kspu ds ckn ,d ifjiDo vFkok idk gqvk v.Mk'k;
fertilisation.
gksrh gSA
Statement II :
dFku - II :
In all types of fruit pericarp is clearly differentiated into
lHkh izdkj ds Qy esa QyfHkRrh ckg~;QyfHkRrh] eè;QyfHkRrh epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp.
vkSj vUr%QyfHkRrh esa Li"V :i ls foHksfnr gksrh gSA Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa below:

(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA
179. Given below are two statements
179. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gS a %
Statement I:
dFku -I:
In case of plants or microbes the term morphology
ikS/kks vFkok lw{ethoksa ds lUnHkZ esa] vkdkfjdh 'kCn dk precisely means only the study of form or externally
oLrqr% eryc thoks dh ckg~; lajpuk ;k ckg~; fn[kus okys visible features.
vkdkj dk vè;;u gSA
Statement II :
dFku - II :
The word anatomy conventionally is used for the study
tUrqvksa esa ,ukVkWeh 'kCn dk mi;ksx ikjEifjd :i ls of morphology of internal organs in the animals.
vkUrfjd vaxks dh vkdkfjdh dk vè;;u gSA Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

180. uhps fn, x, nks dFku gS a % 180. Given below are two statements
dFku -I: Statement I:
?kukdkj midyk esa dksf'kdk;sa l?kurk ls iSd dh gqbZ de In cuboidal epithelium the cells are compactly packed
vUrjdksf'kdh; eSfVªDl ds lkFk gksrh gSA with little intercellular matrix.
Statement II :
dFku - II :
The salivary gland is secrete peptide hormone.
ykj xzfUFk isIVkbM gkWekZsu lzkfor djrh gSA
Choose the correct answer from the option given
uhps fn, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mRrj pqusa below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
 SOLUTION
PHYSICS
1. (3) [NCERT XI-I-59] 1. (3) [NCERT XI-I-59]
pwafd vkneh iV~Vs ds lkis{k fLFkj gS vr% mldk Hkh As the man is stationary with respect to belt, his
Roj.k 1 m/s2. gSA acceleration is also 1 m/s2.

mlij ifj.kkeh cy = m a =55 x 1= 55N Net force on him = m a =55 x 1= 55N

2. (2) [NCERT XI-I-27] 2. (2) [NCERT XI-I-27]

3. (3) [NCERT XI-II-226] 3. (3) [NCERT XI-II-226]

vius okil eqM+us ds fcanq ij K = 0 vr% Since paticle is at turning point, K = 0 therefore
E = 1 = U = (1/2) k x2
E = 1 = U = (1/2) k x2
putting k = 0.05, we get x2 = 4 and x = +2 and
k = 0.05, j[kus ij 2
x =4 vkSj x = +2 izkIr gksrk gSA x = –2.

4. (1) [NCERT XI-I-95] 4. (1) [NCERT XI-I-95]

5. (3) [NCERT XI-I-242] 5. (3) [NCERT XI-I-242]
6. (3) [NCERT XI-II-281] 6. (3) [NCERT XI-II-281]

vko`fRr vifjofrZr jgrh vr%  ds v vuqØekuqikrh The frequency remains the same ,  will be
gksxkA proportional to speed v

7. (3) [NCERT XII-I-23] 7. (3) [NCERT XII-I-23]

Electric field are due to infinite line

,E  
2 o r charge, E 
2 o r

2  2
E   2  2
2 2 o r 4 o r E  
2 2 o r 4 o r

eku j[kus ij ge ikrs gSaA putting the values, we get

2  9  109   2  9  109  
9  104  9  104 
2  102 2  102
9  104  2  102 9  104  2  102
 
2  9  109 2  9  109
 107 Cm 1  107 Cm 1

8. (2) [NCERT XII-I-112] 8. (2) [NCERT XII-I-112]

;gk¡, n = 100, r = 8 cm = 8 × 10-2 m Here, n = 100, r = 8 cm = 8 × 10-2 m

vkSj I = 0.40 A and I = 0.40 A

The magnetic field B at the centre,

dsUnz ij pqEcdh; {ks= B

 2 In 107  2  3.14  0.4  100  o 2 In 107  2  3.14  0.4  100

B . 
B o .  4 r 8  102
4 r 8  102
 3.1 104 T
 3.1 104 T
9. (1) [PYQ Modified] 9. (1) [PYQ Modified]
;gk¡ fcanq P ysUl ds nkfguh vksj gS] vr% ;g vkHkklh Here, the point P is on the right side of lens
oLrq dh rjg dk;Z djsxkA acts as a vertual object.
Given, distance of object from the lens
oLrq ls ysUl dh nwjh u = 12 cm gSA
u = 12 cm
mRry ysUl dh Qksdl nwjh f = +20 cm gSA Focal length of convex lens f = +20 cm
ysUl dk lehdj.k mi;ksx djus ijA Using Lens formula,

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
         
v u f v 12 20 v u f v 12 20
1 1 1 35 8 1 1 1 35 8
       
v 20 12 60 60 v 20 12 60 60
v  7.5 cm v  7.5 cm

vr% iqat ysUl ds nkfguh vksj 7-5 lseh- dh nwjh ij Thus, the beam converges on the right side
vfHklfr gksxkA of lens at a distance of 7.5 cm.

10. (3) [NCERT XII-II-266] 10. (3) [NCERT XII-II-266]

 = 500 nm  = 500 nm

= 500 x 10-9 m D = 1 m, n = 1, x = 2.5 mm = 500 x 10-9 m D = 1 m, n = 1, x = 2.5 mm

= 2.5 x 10-3 m = 2.5 x 10-3 m

nD nD
x x
d d
nD 1  1  500  109 nD 1  1  500  109
d  d 
x 2.5  103 x 2.5  103

 2  104 m  d  0.2 mm  2  104 m  d  0.2 mm

11. (4) [NLI Expert] 11. (4) [NLI Expert]

v  2 gH v  2 gH
h h h h h h
       
P mv m 2 gH P mv m 2 gH

   H 1/2    H 1/ 2

12. (3) [NCERT XII-II-297] 12. (3) [NCERT XII-II-297]

gkbMªkstu dh rjg ijek.kq ds fy, For a hydrogen like atom

n2 n2
rn  0.53 rn  0.53
Z Z
For (ground state)
tehuh lrg ds fy,
13. (3) [NCERT XII-II-233]
13. (3) [NCERT XII-II-233]
14. (1) [NCERT XI-II-280] 14. (1) [NCERT XI-II-280]

15. (1) [NCERT XI-II-170]

15. (1) [NCERT XI-II-170]
The self-weight acts at the center of mass of the
viuk Hkkj rkj ds e/; fcanq ij dk;Z djsxkA vr% lw=
wire which is middle point. Thus in
esa izHkkoh yEckbZ L/2 ysaxsA formula we will take effective length as L/2.
16. (3) [NCERT XII-II-276] 16. (3) [NCERT XII-II-276]
The new frequency of light is (1.5/2) =0.75 times
ubZ vko`fRr nsgyh vko`fRr ls NksVh gS] vr% dksbZ izdk'k the threshold frequency and which is
oS|qr izHkko ugha gksxkA vkSj izdk'k /kkjk 'kwU; gksxhA less than it. hence no emission will take place and
photoelectric current will be zero.
17. (4) [NCERT XI-I-63] 17. (4) [NCERT XI-I-63]

18. (2) [NCERT XI-II-253] 18. (2) [NCERT XI-II-253]

19. (3) [PYQ Modified Manipur 2022] 19. (3) [PYQ Modified Manipur 2022]

20. (3) [NCERT XII-I-71] 20. (3) [NCERT XII-I-71]

lw= iz;ksx djus ij   C1  120  C 2  200 Use the formula   C1 120 C 2 200
  
C1  C 2 C1  C 2

21. (2) [NCERT XI-I-73] 21. (2) [NCERT XI-I-73]

dk;Z ÅtkZ izes; iz;ksx djsaA use work energy theorem

22. (1) [NCERT XI-II-248] 22. (1) [NCERT XI-II-248]

, ,

T= 2.85 × 103 K Gives T= 2.85 × 103 K

23. (1) [NLI Expert] 23. (1) [NLI Expert]

4 4 4
4
RA
RA

24. (1) [NCERT-XII-I-29]

24. (1) [NCERT-XII-I-29]

Now sketch.
vc vkjsf[kr dj ysaA
25. (4) [NLI Expert]
25. (4) [NLI Expert]

1 1
W = U = W = U =
2 2

W1 W1

26. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-117] 26. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-117]

R R
27. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-112] 27. (3) [NCERT-XII-I-112]

28. (3) [NCERT-XI-II-233] 28. (3) [NCERT-XI-II-233]

–20 – (–8) = U2 – 30 U2 = 18 J. –20 – (–8) = U2 – 30 U2 = 18 J.
29. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-154] 29. (4) [NCERT-XII-I-154]
izsfjr vkos'k ¶yDl ds ifjorZu ij fuHkZj djrk gS] osx Induced charge depends upon change in flux, not
the speed.
ij ugha
30. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-59]
30. (2) [NCERT-XI-I-59]

S = 15 × 10 +
S = 15 × 10 + 2 1400
2 1400

= 162.5 m
= 162.5 m
31. (3) [NTA]
31. (3) [NTA]
32. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-15]
32. (3) [NCERT-XI-I-15]
5
1 5 v A  36kmh1  36   10ms 2
v A  36kmh  36   10ms 2 18
18
5
5 vB  54kmh 1  54   15ms 1
vB  54kmh 1  54   15ms 1 18
18
5
5 vC  54kmh 1  54   15ms 1
vC  54kmh 1  54   15ms 1 18
18
Relative velocity of C w.r.t A,
C dk osx A ds lkis{;
vCA vC vA ms
vCA vC vA ms
 Time that C requires to just cross
 ikj djus ds fy, C ds }kjk fy;k tkus okyk le;A 1km 1000 m
A   40s
1km 1000 m vCA 25ms 1
A   40s
vCA 25ms 1 -1 -1 -1
V B = 54 kmh V A = 36 kmh V C = 54 kmh
-1 -1 -1 B A C
V B = 54 kmh V A = 36 kmh V C = 54 kmh
B 1000 m 1000 m
A C
1000 m 1000 m In order to avoid the accident the accident, B must
overtake A in a time less than 40 s. So, for car B we
nq?kZVuk dks u gksus ds fy, B dks 40 lsd.M ls igys A dks have
ikj dj ysuk pkfg,A Relative velocity of car B w.r.t. A,
vBA  v B  v A  15  10  5ms 1 vBA  v B  v A  15  10  5ms 1

 s  1km  1000m, u  5ms 1 , t  40s  s  1km  1000m, u  5ms 1 , t  40s

1 1 2
vr%, s  ut  at 2 As, s  ut 
2
at
2
1 1
 1000  5  40  a  (40) 2  1000  5  40  a  (40) 2
2 2

vkSj 1000  200  800a or a  1ms 2 or 1000  200  800a or a  1ms 2

33. (2) [NLI Expert] 33. (2) [NLI Expert]
34. (4) [PYQ Modified] 34. (4) [PYQ Modified]
35. (3) [NLI Expert] 35. (3) [NLI Expert]
36. (4) [PYQ Modified Jhajjhar] 36. (4) [PYQ Modified Jhajjhar]
37. (3) [NLI Expert] 37. (3) [NLI Expert]
ljy vkorZ xfr esa fLFkfrt ÅtkZ Potential energy of simple harmonic oscillator

2 2
ds fy, for

38. (2) [NCERT-XII-II-334] 38. (2) [NCERT-XII-II-334]

vxzvfHkur eas Mk;ksM dk izfrjks/k 'kwU; gksrk gSA In forward bias, resistance of diode will be zero.

VA  VB VA  VB
i i
R R

4  ( 6) 4  ( 6)
 
1 10 3 1 103

10 10
i  10 2 amp i  10 2 amp
10 3 103
39. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-100] 39. (2) [NCERT-XII-I-100]

5 R 5 R
 --- (1) 
 1 100  1 --- (1)
1 100  1

f}rh; 'krZ ls By second condition

5 R/2 5 R/2
 ---- (2)  ---- (2)
1.6  1 100  1.6 1 1.6 1 100  1.6 1

2(100  1.6 1 ) 2(100  1.6 1 )

1.6  1.6 
100  1.6 1 100  1.6  1

1.6×100 – 1.6  1 = 2(100 – 1.6  1 ) 1.6×100 – 1.6  1 = 2(100 – 1.6  1 )

0.8×100 – 0.8  1 = 100 – 1.6  1 0.8×100 – 0.8  1 = 100 – 1.6  1

0.8  1 = 100 ×0.2 0.8  1 = 100 ×0.2

 1 = 25  1 = 25

5 R 5 R
by eq (1)   R = 15 ohm by eq (1)   R = 15 ohm
25 75 25 75
40. (1) [Experimental skills] 40. (1) [Experimental skills]

Applying Kirchhoff voltage law in the circuit as shown

fp= esa iznf'kZr ifjiFk esa fdjpkWQ dk fu;e yxkus ij
in the figure below.

 VA + 1 + 2(1) – 2 = VB  VA + 1 + 2(1) – 2 = VB
0 + 1 = VB { VA = 0V (Given)} 0 + 1 = VB { VA = 0V (Given)}
VB = +1V. VB = +1V.
41. (1) [NLI Expert] 41. (1) [NLI Expert]
42. (4) [Experimental skill] 42. (4) [Experimental skill]

fizTe dk dks.k (A) = 30o Prism angle (A) = 30o

Retracing path take place
fdj.k vius iFk dks nksgjk;sxh ;fn ;g pk¡nh dh xbZ
when ray fall normaly to silvered surface
lrg ij yEcor~ iM+sA
 i2 = 0 r2 = 0 r1 = A = 30o
 i2 = 0  r2 = 0 r1 = A = 30o

sin i1 o
sin i1 o

43. (4) [NCERT-XII-II-297] 43. (4) [NCERT-XII-II-297]

44. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-59] 44. (4) [NCERT-XI-I-59]

mv1 + Mv2 = 0 where mv1 + Mv2 = 0 where

v2 v2

45. (1) [NLI Expert] 45. (1) [NLI Expert]

 CHEMISTRY
46. (1) [NCERT-XI-18] 46. (1) [NCERT-XI-18]

47. (4) [NCERT-XII-121] 47. (4) [NCERT-XII-121]

dkcZu vkSj ukbVªkstu nksuksa CN esa nku LFky ds :i
–
Both carbon and nitrogen can work as donating
esa dke dj ldrs gSa] blfy, ;g ,d mHk;narh fyxSaM
site in CN– hence it is an ambidentate ligand.
gSA
48. (2) [NCERT-XII-76] 48. (2) [NCERT-XII-76]

t1/ 2 t1/ 2

49. (2) [NCERT-XII-240] 49. (2) [NCERT-XII-240]

50. (1) [NCERT-XII-109] 50. (1) [NCERT-XII-109]

Long Radii(pm) Long Radii(pm)
Nd3+ 99
Nd 3+
99
Tb3+ 92 3+
Tb 92
Tm3+ 87 3+
Tm 87
51. (4) [Practical Chemistry]
51. (4) [Practical Chemistry]

52. (4) [PYQ Mod.]

52. (4) [PYQ Mod.]

53. (1) [PYQ Mod.]

53. (1) [PYQ Mod.]
vEyh; 'kfä dk Øe gS
Order of acidic strength is
dkcksZfDlfyd ,flM > fQuksy > vYdksgy
Carboxylic acids > Phenols > Alcohols
54. (1) [NCERT-XII-291] 54. (1) [NCERT-XII-291]
ykbflu ,d ewy vehuks vEy gS D;ksafd blesa Lysine is a basic aminoacid as it has more number
–COOH lewgksa dh rqyuk esa –NH2 lewgksa dh la[;k
of –NH2 groups than –COOH groups.
vf/kd gksrh gSA
55. (2) [NCERT-XII-293]
55. (2) [NCERT-XII-293]
In DNA, C joins with G by three hydrogen bonds.
DNA esa] C rhu gkbMªkstu ca/kksa }kjk G ls tqM+rk gSA
56. (1) [NCERT-XII-37]
56. (1) [NCERT-XII-37]

57. (3) [NCERT-XII-169]

57. (3) [NCERT-XII-169]

58. (1) [PYQ Mod.]

58. (1) [PYQ Mod.]
59. (2) [NCERT-XI-51]
69. (2) [NCERT-XI-51]

60. (3) [NCERT-XII-132]

60. (3) [NCERT-XII-132]

61. (2) [NCERT-XII-5]

61. (2) [NCERT-XII-5]

vr% fodYi ¼1½ vkSj ¼4½ lgh gSaA So, option (1) and (4) are correct.
62. (1) [NCERT-XI-47] 62. (1) [NCERT-XI-47]

63. (2) [NCERT-XI-91]

63. (2) [NCERT-XI-91]
¶yksjhu dh _.kkRed bysDVª‚u ykHk ,UFkSYih Dyksjhu
Negative electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less
ls de gksrh gS tcfd Dyksjhu ls vf/kd gksrh gSA than chlorine while is more than the chlorine.
64. (2) [NCERT-XI-180] 64. (2) [NCERT-XI-180]
C(s)+CO2(g)  2CO(g) C(s)+CO2(g)  2CO(g)

2 2
10PCO2 10PCO2
PCO2 PCO2

65. (4) [NCERT-XII-100] 65. (4) [NCERT-XII-100]

Pbi4 fLFkj ugha gS- Pbi4 is not stable.

66. (2) [p-Block] 66. (2) [p-Block]

ukbVªkstu +5 v‚Dlhdj.k voLFkk çnf'kZr djrk gS] Nitrogen exhibits +5 oxidation state but does not
ysfdu isaVkgSykbM ugha cukrk gS] D;ksafd blesa d- form pentahalides because it does not have d-
v‚fcZVYl ugha gksrs gSa] ftlls bldh lgla;kstdrk
orbitals to expands its covalence beyond four.
pkj ls vkxs c<+ tkrh gSA
67. (4) [NCERT-XII-276]
67. (4) [NCERT-XII-276]

68. (1) [NCERT-XII-18] 68. (1) [NCERT-XII-18]

fT = imKf fT = imKf
leku m vkSj Kf ds lek/kku ds fy, For the solutions of same m and Kf
fT i fT i
For C6H12O6 i=1 For C6H12O6 i=1
KCl i=2 KCl i=2
Na2SO4 i=3 Na2SO4 i=3
Al2SO4 i=5 Al2SO4 i=5
U;wure i Xywdkst ds fy, gS blfy, Tf blds fy, Minimum i is for glucose so Tf will be minimum
U;wure gksxk vkSj fgekad fcanq Xywdkst ds fy, for it and freezing point will be maximum for
glucose.
vf/kdre gksxkA
69. (3) [NCERT-XII-24]
69. (3) [NCERT-XII-24]
= CRT = CRT

600 600
eksyj æO;eku B = = 300 g/mol Molar mass of B = = 300 g/mol
2 2
70. (3) [NCERT-XII-46] 70. (3) [NCERT-XII-46]

71. (3) [NCERT-XII-69] 71. (3) [NCERT-XII-69]

nj = k [NO] [Br2] 2
Rate = k [NO] [Br2]2

72. (2) [NCERT-XII-79] 72. (2) [NCERT-XII-79]

vjgsfu;l lehdj.k dk ç;ksx fd;k tkuk gSA Arrhenius equation is to be employed.
73. (1) [NCERT-XI-130] 73. (1) [NCERT-XI-130]

ca/k Øe c<+us ij ca/k yackbZ ?kVrh gSA Bond length decreases as bond order increases.
74. (1) [NCERT-XI-111] 74. (1) [NCERT-XI-111]

75. (4) [PYQ Mod.] 75. (4) [PYQ Mod.]

oqVZ~t vfHkfØ;k le la[;k esa dkcZu ijek.kqvksa okys Wurtz reaction is useful to prepare symmetrical
lefer ,Ydsu rS;kj djus ds fy, mi;ksxh gSA alkanes with even number of carbon atoms.
76. (4) [NCERT-XI-154] 76. (4) [NCERT-XI-154]

77. (2) [p-Block]

77. (2) [p-Block]
fuf"Ø; ;qXe çHkko ds dkj.k Tl eq[;r% $1 v‚Dlhdj.k
Tl predominantly exists in +1 oxidation state, due
voLFkk esa ik;k tkrk gSA to inert pair effect.
78. (4) [PYQ Mod.] 78. (4) [PYQ Mod.]

• çfr ijek.kq Cr dh v‚Dlhdj.k voLFkk esa ifjorZu ¾ • Change in oxidation state of Cr per atom = 3
3
• As there are two Cr atoms in Cr2(SO4)3 so the total
• pw¡fd Cr2(SO4)3 esa nks Cr ijek.kq gSa] blfy, bysDVª‚uksa
changes or total transfer of electrons = 3×2 = 6
dk dqy ifjorZu ;k dqy LFkkukarj.k ¾ 3×2 = 6
• Equivalent weight of Cr2(SO4)3 = M/6
• Cr2(SO4)3 dk lerqY; Hkkj ¾ M/6
79. (2) [NCERT-XII-46]
79. (2) [NCERT-XII-46]

çcy fo|qr vi?kVî ds fy, dk vkys[k The plot of for strong electrolyte is a
straight line with negative slope.
_.kkRed <yku okyh ,d lh/kh js[kk gSA
80. (2) [NCERT-XII-125]
80. (2) [NCERT-XII-125]
• [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] can show Coordination
• [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] leUo; leko;ork n'kkZ ldrk isomerism
gS
• [Fe(H2O)5 Cl]Br can show Ionisation isomerism
• [Fe(H2O)5 Cl]Br vk;uu leko;ork n'kkZ ldrk gS
• [PtCl2 (NH3)2] can show Geometrical isomerism
• [PtCl2 (NH3)2] T;kferh; leko;ork n'kkZ ldrk gS
• K3 [Co (OX)3] can show Optical isomerism
• K3 [Co (OX)3] çdk'kh; leko;ork n'kkZ ldrk gS
81. (4) [PYQ Mod.] 81. (4) [PYQ Mod.]
rkieku esa o`f) ds lkFk Å"ek'kks"kh vkSj Å"ek{ksih Rate of both endothermic and exothermic reaction
nksuksa vfHkfØ;kvksa dh nj c<+ tkrh gSA increase with increase in temperature.
82. (2) [PYQ Mod.] 82. (2) [PYQ Mod.]

83. (3) [NCERT-XI-61]

midks'k ¾ 3d 83. (3) [NCERT-XI-61]
d midks'k esa bysDVª‚uksa dh vf/kdre la[;k 10 gSA Subshell = 3d
84. (1) [PYQ Mod.] Maximum number of electrons in d subshell is 10.
pKa ?kVusij vEyh; 'kfä c<+rh gSA HCOOH dk 84. (1) [PYQ Mod.]

pKa eku lcls de gS] blfy, ;g fuEufyf[kr esa Acidic strength increases as pKa decreases.
lcls çcy vEy gksxkA HCOOH has least pKa value so it will be strongest
85. (1) [NCERT-XI-275] acid among the following.
85. (1) [NCERT-XI-275]
–NO2  –R vkSj –I çHkko
–NO2  –R and –I effect
–O–  +R vkSj +I çHkko
–O–  +R and +I effect
–O–CH3  +R vkSj –I çHkko –O–CH3  +R and –I effect
–CH3  +I çHkko- –CH3  +I effect.
86. (1) [NCERT-XI-304] 86. (1) [NCERT-XI-304]

87. (2) [PYQ Mod.] 87. (2) [PYQ Mod.]

• fifjMhu ,fufyu ls vf/kd {kkjh; gS D;ksafd ,fufyu • Pyridine is more basic than aniline because in
aniline the lone pair of nitrogen is delocalized.
esa ukbVªkt
s u dk ,dkdh ;qXe foLFkkfir gksrk gSA
88. (2) [Examplar]
88. (2) [Examplar]

89. (2) [PYQ Mod.]

89. (2) [PYQ Mod.]

90. (1) [PYQ Mod.]

90. (1) [PYQ Mod.]
Work is a path function, therefore will not be zero
dk;Z ,d iFk Qyu gS] blfy, pØh; çfØ;k ds fy, for a cyclic process whereas rest all are state
'kwU; ugha gksxk tcfd 'ks"k lHkh voLFkk Qyu gSaA functions.
 BIOLOGY
91. (1) [NCERT-I-115 to 118] 91. (1) [NCERT-I-115 to 118]
dFku - I : Statement I:
jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k ds nkSjku ,Utkbe v.kqvks esa dksbZ During the chemical reaction no changed in enzyme
cnyko ugha gksrk gSA molecule.
dFku - II : Statement II :
dqN ,Utkbe esa ,d uku izkVs hu vo;o lgdkjd dgykrk In some enzymes A non protein constituents called
gSA ,Utkbe ls c¡/kdj ,Utkbe dks mRizsjd :i ls lfØ; cofactors are bound to the enzyme to make the
cukrk gSA
enzyme catalytically active.
92. (3) [NCERT-I-100]
92. (3) [NCERT-I-100]
rRNA – dsUnzd esa f>Yyh jfgr dsUnzdnzO;h; lajpuk lØh;
Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus
la'ys"k.k ds fy, LFky gksrk gSA
are the site for active synthesis of rRNA
93. (2) [NCERT-I-89, 90]
93. (2) [NCERT-I-89, 90]
Mcy LVªSUMsM pØh; uXu DNA – U;qDyhd vEy dsoy
70 S jkbckslkse j[kus okys ,d tho esa mifLFkr gS Double stranded circular naked DNA – nucleic acids is
present in an organism having 70 S ribosomes only
94. (2) [NCERT-I-126 to 128]
94. (2) [NCERT-I-126 to 128]
v/kZlw=h foHkktu I ds ckn] iSnk gqbZ iq=h dksf'kdkvksa ds
ikl gksrk gS After meiosis I, the resultant daughter cells have

(2) gsIykW;M ;qXed dh rqyuk esa DNA dh ek=k nks xquh (2) twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid
95. (2) [NCERT-I-106, 107] gametes

QWkLQksfyfiM & dkcZfud ;kSfxd yslhFkhu dk eq[; vo;o 95. (2) [NCERT-I-106, 107]
gS Phospholipid – organic compounds is the main
96. (2) [NCERT-I-94] constituent of Lecithin
dksf'kdk f>Yyh ds vkj&ikj lfØ; vkSj fuf"Ø; ifjogu 96. (2) [NCERT-I-94]
ds chp eq[; vUrj gS The main difference between active and passive transport
(2) fuf"Ø; ifjogu dks dksf'kdk f>Yyh ds vkj&ikj ,d across cell membrane is :
lkUnzrk izo.krk dh t:jr gksrh gS tcfd lfØ;
(2) passive transport requires a concentration gradient
ifjogu esa foys; dks pykus ds fy, ÅtkZ dh
across a biological membrane whereas active
vko';drk gksrh gSA
transport requires energy to move solutes.
97. (1) [NCERT-II-26]
97. (1) [NCERT-II-26]
(1) ;qXed tuu  ;qXed LFkkukUrj.k  fluxSeh 
(1) Gametogenesis  Gamete transfer  Syngamy
;qXeut  dksf'kdk foHkktu ¼fonyu½  dksf'kdk
 Zygote Cell division (Cleavage) Cell
foHksnu  thoksRifRr
differentiation  Organogenesis
98. (4) [NCERT-II-33 to 35]
98. (4) [NCERT-II-33 to 35]
vkrZo pØ ds Y;wVh;y izkoLFkk esa dksbZ Hkh u;h iqVd
No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the
fodflr ugha gksrh gS D;ksfd
menstrual cycle b ecause
(4) Y;qVh;y izkoLFkk esa FSH vkSj LH nksuks dk Lrj de
gksrk gS (4) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase

99. (2) [NCERT-II-92] 99. (2) [NCERT-II-92]

(2) 5' UACGUACGUACGUAC 3' (2) 5' UACGUACGUACGUAC 3'

100. (3) [NCERT-I-42 to 44] 100. (3) [NCERT-I-42 to 44]
(1) piVsd`fe – lkekU; 'kjhj lrg (1) Flatworms – General body surface
(2) LikWUt – lkekU; 'kjhj lrg (2) Sponges – General body surface

(3) tyh; vkFkzkZsiksM~l – Dykse (3) Aquatic arthropods – Gills

(4) flysUVªVs ~l – lkekU; 'kjhj lrg (4) Coelenterates – General body surface

101. (1) [NCERT-II-169] 101. (1) [NCERT-II-169]

okgd pBR 322 ij nks izfrtSfod izfrjks/kh thu fdlds The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR 322
fy, gksrk gS are for
(1) Ampicillin and Tetracycline
(1) ,fEilhyhu vkSj VsVªklkbDyhu
102. (2) [NCERT-II-185] 102. (2) [NCERT-II-185]

eYVhus'kuy dEifu;ksa }kjk fdlh jk"Vª ;k mlls lEcfU/kr Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational
companies without authorization from the concerned
yksxks ls fcuk O;ofLFkr vuqeksnu ds tSo lalk/kuksa dk
country is referred to as Biopiracy
mi;ksx djuk ck;ksik;jslh dgykrk gS
103. (1) [NCERT-II-61]
103. (1) [NCERT-II-61]
In a marriage between male with blood group A and
A jDr lewg okys uj dk B jDr lewg okys eknk ds lkFk
female with blood group B, the progeny had either blood
fookg gksus esa] izkstuh ;k rks AB jDr lewg vFkok B j[krk
group AB or B. the possible genotype of parents is – IA
gSA iSjsUV~l dk IA i (uj) ; IB IB (eknk) lEHkkfor thuksVkbi i (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
gks ldrk gSA
104. (2) [NCERT-I-248]
104. (2) [NCERT-I-248]
(2) A = Protein Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic
(2) A = izksVhu gkWeksZu; B = xzkgh; C = pØh; AMP
AMP
105. (3) [NCERT-II-134 to 136]
105. (3) [NCERT-II-134 to 136]
ekuo ds ikl mikftZr izfrj{kk rU= gksrk gSA tks fd
Humans have acquired immune system that produces
jksxtud dks fu"izHkkoh djrk gSA fQj Hkh tUetkr izfrj{kk antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still innate immune
rU= tUe ds le; ij ik;h tkrh gSA D;kasfd ;g system is present at the time of birth because it
(3) izkd`frd ?kkrd dksf'kdk;sa j[krk gS tks fd ekbØksCl (3) has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and
dks Hk{k.k vkSj u"V djrk gSA destroy microbes
106. (1) [NCERT-I-227] 106. (1) [NCERT-I-227]
ekbLFkhfu;k xzsfol ,d Lo&izfrj{kk chekjh gSA Myasthenia gravis diseases is an auto-immune disorder
107. (1) [NCERT-II-130 to 133]
107. (1) [NCERT-II-130 to 133]
A. ekbØksLiksje I. dod A. Microsporum I. Fungi
B. ,UVvehck II. izksVkstksvk B. Entamoeba II. Protozoa
fgLVksfyfVdk histolytica
C. oqpjs sjh;k III. tUrq C. Wuchereria malayi III. Animal
D. LVªSIVksdksdl IV. thok.kq D. Streptococcus IV. Bacteria
U;weksuh pneumoniae
108. (2) [NCERT-I-243] 108. (2) [NCERT-I-243]
jDr Ca+2 Lrj eas deh & iSjkFkkbjkbM xzfUFk ls iSjkFkkbjkbM Fall in blood Ca+2 levels – will stimulate
gkWeksZu dks eqDr djus ds fy, mn~nhfir djsxh parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone
109. (3) [NCERT-II-44, 45] 109. (3) [NCERT-II-44, 45]
(3) IUDs 'kqØk.kqvksa ds QSxkslkbVksfll dks xHkkZ'k; esa c<+krk (3) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the
gS uterus.
110. (3) [NCERT-II-47] 110. (3) [NCERT-II-47]
AIDS vkSjfgiSVkbfVl B – ;kSu lapkfjr chekjh fo'ks"k :i AIDS and Hepatitis B – sexually transmitted diseases
ls tuu vaxksa dks izHkkfor ugha djrk gSA
do not specifically affect reproductive organs
111. (2) [NCERT-I-41 to 45]
111. (2) [NCERT-I-41 to 45]
(a) vksQh;wjk (iii) bdkbuksMesZVk
(b) Qkblsfy;k (iv) lhysuVªVs k (a) Ophiura (iii) Echinodermata

(c) fiUdVkMk (i) eksyLdk (b) Physalia (iv) Coelenterata

(d) Iysusfj;k (ii) IysVhgsfYeUFkht (c) Pinctada (i) Mollusca

112. (4) [NCERT-I-43] (d) Planaria (ii) Platyhelminthes
,uhyhM~l & lR; izxqgh; ds lkFk f}ik'oZleferh okyk 112. (4) [NCERT-I-43]
gSA
Annelids are true coelomates with bilateral symmetry
113. (3) [Old-NCERT-I]
(a) n`<+ lfU/k (iii) midyk dksf'kdvksa ds 113. (3) [Old-NCERT-I]

vkj&ikj fjlko dks (a) Tight junctions (iii) Establish a barrier to

jksdus ds fy, jks/k dks prevent leakage of fluid
LFkkfir djrk gS across epithelial cells
,d lkFk tksM+rh gS (b) Adhering junctions (i) Cement neighbouring
(b) vklath lfU/k (i) 'khV fuekZ.k ds fy, cells together to form
iM+kslh dksf'kdkvksa dks sheet
(c) xSi lfU/k (iv) vkl&ikl dh
(c) Gap junctions (iv) Cytoplasmic channels
dksf'kdkvksa ds chp
to facilitate
lapkj.k dks vklku djus
communication
ds fy, lkbVksIyktehd
pSuy (d) Synaptic junctions (ii) Transmit information
(d) lkbuSfIVd lfU/k (ii) jlk;u ds ekè;e ls through chemical to
lwpuk dks nwljh another cells
dksf'kdkvksa dks lapkfjr 114. (2) [NCERT-I-187]
djrk gS
The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in
114. (2) [NCERT-I-187]
after a forced expiration is known as Vital Capacity
tSo {kerk &cyiwoZd fu%'olu ds ckn ok;q dh og vf/
kdre ek=k ¼vk;ru½ tks ,d O;fDr vUr%'olu dj ldrk 115. (4) [NCERT-I-199 to 201]
gSA
116. (4) [NCERT-I-199 to 201]
115. (4) [NCERT-I-199 to 201]
117. (2) [NCERT-I-21]
116. (4) [NCERT-I-199 to 201]
117. (2) [NCERT-I-21] Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by an agent

i'kqvksa esa eSMdkÅ chekjh ,d dkjd ds dkj.k gksrh gS tks which has Abnormally folded protein
fd vfu;fer :i ls oy;hr izksVhu j[krk gS 118. (3) [NCERT-I-61]
118. (3) [NCERT-I-61]
Alstonia – shows whorled phyllotaxy
,YlVksfu;k & pØh; i.kZfoU;kl iznf'kZr djrk gSA
119. (1) [NMC Syllabus] 119. (1) [NMC Syllabus]

czSfldk & f}v.Mih] fludkiZl v.Mk'k; ns[kus dks feyrk Bicarpellary, Syncarpous ovary is seen in Brassica.
gSA
120. (2) [NCERT-II-10, 11] 120. (2) [NCERT-II-10, 11]
,fUt;ksLieZ esa Hkzw.kdks"k dk lcls lkekU; izdkj gS The most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms
(2) rhu Øec) lelw=h foHkktu ds lkFk ,dchtk.kqd (2) Monosporic with three sequential mitotic
121. (4) [NCERT-II-96] divisions
vkuqofa 'kd dwV ds fo'ks"k y{k.k dk lgh la;kstu gS 121. (4) [NCERT-II-96]
(4) fMtsusjsV] xSj&vfrO;kih] vLi"V the correct combination of salient features of Genetic
122. (3) [NCERT-II-85, 86] Code

g"ksZ vkSj psl & oSKkfud us cSfDVfj;ksQst esa fl) fd;k fd (4) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non ambiguous
DNA gh ,dek= vkuqofa 'kd inkFkZ gS 122. (3) [NCERT-II-85, 86]
123. (3) [NCERT-II-94, 95] Hershey and Chase – scientist experimentally proved
;q d S f j;ks V ~ l es a vuq y s [ ku dh iz f Ø;k es a ] RNA that DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage
ikWyhejst I vuqysf[kr djrk gSA 123. (3) [NCERT-II-94, 95]
(3) rRNAs - 28 S, 18 S vkSj 5.8 S In the process of transcription in Eukaryotes, the RNA
124. (2) [NCERT-II-75, 76] polymerase I transcribes -

DykbuQsYVj flUMªkse & vkuqofa 'kd voLFkk esa] izHkkfor (3) rRNAs - 28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S
O;fDr esa izR;sd dksf'kdk] rhu fyax xq.klw= XXY j[krk gS 124. (2) [NCERT-II-75, 76]
125. (2) [NCERT-II-196 to 202] Klinefelter's Syndrome – each cell in the affected person,
lef"V vUrZfØ;k ds fy, lgh vuq:irk gS has three sex chromosomes XXY

(1) ijHk{kd vkSj f'kdkj = + vkSj – 125. (2) [NCERT-II-196 to 202]

(2) fyoj ¶ywd vkSj ekuo = + vkSj – the correct match for population interactions
(3) dks;y vkSj dkSok = + vkSj – (1) Predator and prey = + and –
(4) lh ,uheksu vkSj Dykmu = + vkSj 0 (2) Liver fluke and human = + and –
eNyh (3) Cuckoo and crow = + and –
126. (3) [NCERT-II-114, 115] (4) Sea anemone and = + and 0
(3) nksuks (A) vkSj (R) lgh gS vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k clown Fish
djrk gSA 126. (3) [NCERT-II-114, 115]
127. (2) [NCERT-I-117, 118]
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
,iks,Utkbe ls izksLFkSfVd lewg ls n`<+rk ls ca/ks gksrs gS explanation of (A)
tcfd dks,Utkbe <hys rjhds ls ca/ks gksrs gS 127. (2) [NCERT-I-117, 118]
128. (2) [NCERT-I-126]
prosthetic groups are tightly bound to
fofue; iwokZoLFkk&I ds tkbxksVhu voLFkk ij xSj&letkr
apoenzymes while coenzyme is loosely bound
xq.klw=ksa ds xSj larfr v/kZxq.klw= ds chp ?kfVr gksrk gS
128. (2) [NCERT-I-126]
(1) iwokZoLFkk&I ds tkbxksVhu voLFkk ij xSj&letkr xq.klw=ksa
ds xSj larfr v/kZxq.klw= ds chp Crossing over takes place between Non-sister
chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Pachytene
(2) iwokZoLFkk&I ds tkbxksVhu voLFkk ij xSj&letkr
xq.klw=ksa ds xSj larfr v/kZxq.klw= ds chp stage of prophase I of the cell cycle

129. (3) [NCERT-I-159, 160] 129. (3) [NCERT-I-159, 160]

ikS/ks esa (ETS) 'oluh; bysDVªkWu ifjogu rU= dksf'kdk esa the respiratory electron transport system (ETS) located
vkUrfjd ekbVksdkWf.Mª;y f>Yyh ij fLFkr gksrk gS in Inner mitochondrial membrane of cell in plants

130. (3) [NCERT-I-145 to 147] 130. (3) [NCERT-I-145 to 147]

gSp ,oa LySd ikFkos esa] izkFkfed CO2 xzkgd QkWLQksbuky In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO2 acceptor
ikb:osV gS is Phosphoenol pyruvate
131. (4) [NCERT-I-134, 135] 131. (4) [NCERT-I-134, 135]
,tksVkscSDVj ds fuyEcu esa ,d oSKkfud DySMksQksjk dks One scientist cultured Cladophora in a suspension of
laof/kZr djrk gS vkSj lao/kZu dks izdkf'kr djrk gSA ,d Azotobacter and illuminated the culture by splitting light
fizTe ds ekè;e ls izdk'k dk caVokjk djrk gSA ;g ns[krk through a prism. He observed that bacteria accumulated
gS fd thok.kq eq[; :i ls uhyk vkSj yky izdk'k {ks= mainly in the region of Blue and red light
esas tek gksrk gSA 132. (3) [NCERT-I-176]
132. (3) [NCERT-I-176] In order to increase the yield of sugarcane crop,
xUus dh Qly dh iSnkokj dks c<+kus ds Øe es]a ftCcsjsyhu Gibberellins plant growth regulators should be sprayed
ikni o`f) fu;ked dk fNM+dko fd;k tkrk gS 133. (1) [NCERT-II-13]
133. (1) [NCERT-II-13] The type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria
ijkx.k oSyhlusjh;k esa ?kfVr gksrk gS (1) Pollination occurs in submerged condition by water.
(1) ijkx.k ty ds }kjk fueXu voLFkk esa ik;k tkrk gS 134. (2) [NCERT-II-15]
134. (2) [NCERT-II-15] Papaya – both autogamy and geitonogamy are
iihrk & nksuks Lo;qXeu vkSj ltkriq"ih ijkx.k izfrcfU/kr prevented
gks tkrk gS 135. (1) [NCERT-II-224]
135. (1) [NCERT-II-224] Endemic – Western Ghats have a large number of plant
LFkkuhd & if'peh ?kkV ikn~i dh vkSj tUrqvksa dh ,d cM+h and animal species that are not found anywhere else.
la[;k j[krk gSA tks fd dgh vkSj ugha ik;h tkrh gSA 136. (4) [NCERT-II-201, 202]
136. (4) [NCERT-II-201, 202] Mutualism – Female wasp and fig species
lgksidkfjrk & eknk cjZ vkSj vUthj tkfr 137. (3) [NCERT-II-143]
137. (3) [NCERT-II-143] Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from
dksdk ,YdkykW,M vFkok dksdsu izkIr gksrk gS (3) Erythroxylum coca
(3) bjhFkzkt
s kbye dksdk 138. (3) [NCERT-II-157, 158]
138. (3) [NCERT-II-157, 158] the following pairs of microbes, which pair has both the
tSomjoZd dh rjg ekbØksCl mi;ksx fd;s tkrs gS microbes that can be used as biofertilizers
(3) lk;ukscSDVhfj;k vkSj jkbtksfc;e (3) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium
139. (2) [NCERT-II-165 to 167] 139. (2) [NCERT-II-165 to 167]
,.MksU;qDyh,t & ,d ,Utkbe DNA ls U;qDyh;ksVkbM~l An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from
dks gVkus dks izsfjr djrk gSA DNA is Endonuclease
140. (1) [NCERT-II-180] 140. (1) [NCERT-II-180]
RNAi es,a
thUl dks lkbysUl dsRNA dk mi;ksx djds In RNAi, the genes are silenced using dsRNA
fd;k tkrk gSA 141. (2) [NCERT-II-35 to 38]
141. (2) [NCERT-II-35 to 38] A. Trophoblast iii. Outer layer of
A. VªksQksCykLV iii. CykLVksflLV dh ckgjh blastocyst attached
ijr ,.MksesVªh;e to the endometrium
ls tqM+rh gS B. Cleavage iv. Mitotic division of
B. fonyu iv. ;qXeut dk lelw=h zygote
foHkktu C. Inner cell mass ii. Group of cells that
C. vUrjdksf'kdk lewg ii. dksf'kdkvksa dk lewg would differentiate
tks fd Hkzw.k ds :i ls as embryo
foHksfnr gksrk gS D. Implantation i. Embedding of
D. vUrjksZi.k i. b.MksesVªh;e esa blastocyst in the
CykLVksflLV dk /kaluk endometrium
142. (3) [NCERT-II-170, 171] 142. (3) [NCERT-II-170, 171]
thok.kqoh; :ikUrj.k esa 'fgV 'kWkd' fof/k dk egRo gSA Significance of 'heat shock' method in bacterial
(3) thok.kqoh; dksf'kdk fHkRrh esa {kf.kd fNnz ds ekè;e ls transformation is to facilitate
DNA dk xzg.k (3) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the
143. (3) [NCERT-II-165, 166] bacterial cell wall
,UVvehck dksykbZ ,d izfrcU/ku ,.MksU;wDyh,t dk lzksr 143. (3) [NCERT-II-165, 166]
ugha gS Entamoeba coli is not a source of restriction
144. (3) [NCERT-II-182, 183] endonuclease
jksxdkf;Zdh gksrk gSA 144. (3) [NCERT-II-182, 183]
(3) ijiks"kh dh cnyh gqbZ dkf;Zdh dk vè;;u Pathophysiology is the Study of altered physiology of
145. (4) [NCERT-II-191] host
146. (2) [NCERT-II-225] 145. (4) [NCERT-II-191]
rduhd (i) bu&foVªks fu"kspu, (ii) Øk;ksfiztosZ'ku (iii) Ård 146. (2) [NCERT-II-225]
lao/kZu ds fy, leku gS The common to the techniques (i) in vitro fertilisation,
147. (3) [NCERT-II-222, 223] (ii) Cryopreservation and (iii) Tissue culture
(1) ikFksZfu;e gekjs ns'k dh ,d fons'kh tkfr gS (2) All are Ex-situ conservation methods
(2) vÝhdu dSVfQ'k Lons'kh dSV fQ'k ds fy, [krjk 147. (3) [NCERT-II-222, 223]
gksrh gSA (1) Parthenium is an exotic species of our country
(3) LVhyj leqnzh xk; ,d foyqIr tUrq gS (2) African cat f ish is a threat to indigenous
(4) ikFksZfu;e yksdfiz; :i ls xktj ?kkl ds uke ls cat fishes
tkuk tkrk gS (3) Steller's sea cow is an extinct animal
148. (4) [NCERT-I-20, 21] (4) Parthenium is popularly known as carrot grass
A. TMV – RNA laØked gksrk gS 148. (4) [NCERT-I-20, 21]
B. cSDVhfj;ksQst – DNA laØked gksrk gS A. TMV – RNA is infectious
C. okbjkbM & RNA laØked gksrk gS B. Bacteriophage – DNA is infectious
D. ykbdsu & nks izdkj ds tho 'kkfey gS C. Viroids – RNA is infectious
149. (1) [NCERT-I-71 to 77]
D. Lichen – Two types of organism involved
A. D;qVhdy iii. ekseh; ijr
149. (1) [NCERT-I-71 to 77]
B. vko/kZ Rod dksf'kdk;sa iv. [kkyh jaxghu dksf'kdk;sa
A. Cuticle iii. Waxy layer
C. jU/kz i. }kj dksf'kdk;sa
B. Bulliform cells iv. Empty colourless cell
D. ckg~;Ropk ii. ,dy ijr
C. Stomata i. Guard cells
150. (3) [Old-NCERT-I]
D. Epidermis ii. Single layer
dksysudkbek & bl Ård dh dksf'kdk;sa thfor vkSj 150. (3) [Old-NCERT-I]
dks.kh; fnokj dh eksVkbZ iznf'kZr djrh gSA ;s ;kfU=d
Cells of this tissue are living and show angular wall
lgkjk Hkh iznku djrs gSA thickening. They also provide mechanical suport. The
151. (3) [Old-NCERT-I] tissue is Collenchyma
152. (3) [Old-NCERT-I] 151. (3) [Old-NCERT-I]
dkWdjksp ds fy, lgh dFku gS 152. (3) [Old-NCERT-I]
(1) izR;sd v.Mk'k; esa v.Mufydk dh la[;k vkB gksrh The statements is true for cockroach
gSA (1) The number of ovarioles in each ovary are eight
(2) ykokZ dh voLFkk fuEQ dgykrh gSA (2) The larval stage is called Nymph
(3) xqnk 'kwd eknk esa vuqifLFkr gS (3) Anal styles are absent in females
(4) ;g ;qfjdksVsfyd gksrk gS (4) They are uricotelic
153. (2) [Old-NCERT-I] 153. (2) [Old-NCERT-I]
A. QSykseh;j iv. ckg~; tuusfUnz; A. Phallomere iv. The external genitalia
dh Ja`[kyk B. Gonopore iii. Opening of the
B. xksuksiksj iii. L[kyu ufydk dk fNnz ejaculatory duct

C. LiesZVksQksj ii. 'kqØk.kqvksa dk xqPNk C. Spermatophore ii. Bundles of sperm

D. v.M ufydk i. fodflr gks jgs v.Mks D. Ovarioles i. Chain of developing ova
154. (2) [NCERT-I-121, 122] 154. (2) [NCERT-I-121, 122]
G1 izkoLFkk ds fo"k; esa lgh dFku gSdk p;u djs the correct statement about G1 phase
(1) dksf'kdk mikip;h :i ls lfØ; gksrh gSA (1) Cell is metabolically active
(2) DNA dksf'kdk esa izfrd`fr;u ugha djrk gS (2) DNa in the cell does not replicate
(3) ;g o`gnv.kqvksa ds la'ys"k.k dh ,d izkoLFkk gS (3) It is a phase of synthesis of macromolecules
(4) dksf'kdk o`f) djus dh voLFkk esa gksrh gS
(4) Cell in growing stage
155. (3) [NCERT-I-137]
155. (3) [NCERT-I-137]
400 – 700 = rjaxnSè;Z (in nm) dh Js.kh izdk'kla'ys"kh
400 – 700 = The range of wavelength (in nm) is called
fØ;k'khy fofdj.k (PAR) dgykrh gS
photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)
156. (1) [NCERT-I-175 to 178]
156. (1) [NCERT-I-175 to 178]
A. 2,4–D iv. [kjirokj jfgr ?kkl dk
A. 2,4–D iv. Weed - free lawns
eSnku
B. ABA iii. Stomata closure
B. ABA iii. jU/kz dk cUn gksuk
C. Ethylene v. Ripening of fruits
C. bFkkbZyhu v. Qyksa dk iduk
D. GA ii. Bolting
D. GA ii. cksfYVax
E. Cytokinins i. Herring sperm DNA
E. lkbVksdkbfuUl i. gsfjax 'kqØk.kq DNA
157. (2) [NCERT-I-212]
157. (2) [NCERT-I-212]

(1) jsfuu (Renin) – jDr esa ,fUt;ksVsUlhukstsu dk (1) Renin– prevents conversion of angiotensinogen in

,fUt;ksVsUlhu esa cnyko dks jksdrk gSA blood to angiotensin

(2) ,YMksLVhjkWu& ty iqujko'kks"k.k dks vklku djrk gS (2) Aldosterone – Facilitates water reabsorption

(3) ADH – lksfM;e iqujko'kks"k.k dks c<+krk gS (3) ADH ANF – enhances sodium reabsorption

(4) ANF – okfgdk izlkjd djrk gS (4) ANF – causes vasodilation

158. (3) [NCERT-I-213, 214] 158. (3) [NCERT-I-213, 214]

Mk;ykbflax bZdkbZ ¼d`f=e o`Dd½ ,d nzO; j[krk gS tks Dialysing unit (artifical kidney) contains a fluid which is
fd yxHkx Iyktek ds leku gksrk gSA ;wfj;k NksM+dj ;g almost same as plasma except that it has No urea
j[krk gS 159. (1) [NCERT-I-232, 233]
159. (1) [NCERT-I-232, 233] Potential difference across resting membrane is
foJke f>Yyh ds vkj&ikj foHko _.kkRed gSA ;g Na +
negative. This is due to differential distribution of Na+
vkSj K+ vk;Ul ds vUrj lEcU/kh forj.k ds dkj.k gksrh gS and K+
160. (1) [NCERT-I-232 to 235] 160. (1) [NCERT-I-232 to 235]
(A) foJke foHko iii. foJke rfU=dk f>Yyh (A) Resting potential iii. Electrical potential
ds vkj&ikj fo|qrh; difference across the
foHko dk vUrj resting neural
(B) rfU=dk vkosx iv. mn~nhiu ds fy, ,d membrane
rfU=dk dk fo|qrh; (B) Nerve impulse iv. An electrical wave like
rjax tSlh izfrfØ;k response of a neuron
(C) lkbusfIVd njkj ii. vxzlhusfIVd vkSj i'p to a stimulation
lhusfIVd rfU=dk (C) Synaptic cleft ii. Gap between the pre
ds chp xSi synaptic and post
(D) rfU=dk lapkjh i. lkbusIl ij vkosxks ds synaptic neurons
lapj.k esa 'kkfey (D) Neurotransmitters i. Chemicals involved in
jlk;u the transmission of
161. (1) [NCERT-II-120, 121] impulses at synapses
162. (2) [NCERT-II-111 to 119] 161. (1) [NCERT-II-120, 121]
A. MkfoZu iv. izkd`frd p;u ds 162. (2) [NCERT-II-111 to 119]
}kjk fodkl A. Darwin iv. Evolution by natural
B. vksisfju i. vthokr thoksRifRr selection
C. ySekdZ ii. vaxks dk mi;ksx vkSj
B. Oparin i. Abiogenesis
vuqiz;ksx
C. Lamarck ii. Use and disuse of
D. g~;qxks Mhozht iii. mRifjrZu fl)kUr
organs
163. (1) [NCERT-I-47, 48]
D. Hugo devries iii. Mutation theory
lqij Dykl ihlst ds fy, lgh dFku gS
163. (1) [NCERT-I-47, 48]
a. dkWfUMªDFkht esa DySlij uj esa mifLFkr gS
The correct statement for supar class pisces
b. vkWLVhDFkht esa ,;j CySMj mRiykou dks fu;fU=r
djrk gSA a. In chondrichthyes claspers are present in male
c. ân; nks d{kh; gksrk gSA b. Air bladder regulates buoyancy in osteichtyes
d. ihlst dh lnL; lR; eNfy;k¡ dgykrh gSA c. Heart is two chambered
164. (1) [NCERT-I-61 to 65] [NMC Syllabus] d. Members of pisces are called true fish
lwjteq[kh ds fy, lgh dFku gSa 164. (1) [NCERT-I-61 to 65] [NMC Syllabus]
a. ;g ,LVsjl s h QSfeyh dk lnL; gS The correct statement for sunflower
b. chtk.Mklu v.Mk'k; ds vk/kkj ij gksrk gS vkSj blesa a. It is the member of asteraceae family
dsoy ,d chtk.M gksrk gSA b. The placenta develops at the base of ovary and a
c. ,d vdsyh iRrh izR;sd xkaB ij ,dkUrj :i esa yxh single ovule is attached to it
jgrh gSA c. A single leaf arise at each node in alternate manner
d. v/kksorhZ v.Mk'k;
d. Ovary inferior
165. (2) [NCERT-I-8]
165. (2) [NCERT-I-8]
Dykl Qkbye@fMohtu Class Phylum/Division
A. Lru/kkjh dkMsZVk A. Mammalia Chordata
B. bUlsDVk vkFkzksZiksMk B. Insecta Arthropoda
C. MkbZdkVhfyMksuh ,fUt;ksLiehZ C. Dicotyledonae Angiospermae
D. eksuksdkWVhfyMksuh ,fUt;ksLiehZ D. Monocotyledonae Angiospermae
166. (1) [NCERT-I-106, 107] 166. (1) [NCERT-I-106, 107]
vehuks vEy R lewg Amino acid R group
A. Xykblhu gkbMªkstu A. Glycine Hydrogen
B. ,ykuhu ,d feFkkby lewg B. Alanine A methyl group
C. lsjhu gkbMªkWDlhfeFkkby lewg C. Serine Hydroxymethyl group
167. (2) [NCERT-II-73, 74] 167. (2) [NCERT-II-73, 74]
o.kkZU/krk ds fy, lgh vuq:irk gS The correct match for colourblind
(1) XCY – o.kkZU/k vkneh (1) XCY – colourblind man
(2) XCX – okgd efgyk (2) XCX – carrier woman
(3) XCXC – o.kkZU/k efgyk (3) XCXC – colourblind women
(4) XY – lkekU; vkneh (4) XY – normal man
168. (4) [NCERT-II-73 to 76] 168. (4) [NCERT-II-73 to 76]
A. fgeksQhfy;k – fyax yXu vizHkkoh A. Haemophilia – Sex linked recessive
B. FkSyslhfe;k – vkuqoaf'kd fodkj B. Thalassemia – Genetic disorder
C. flLVhd Qkbczksfll – es.Msyh;u fodkj C. Cystic fibrosis – Mendelian disorder
D. VuZj flUMªkse – xq.klw=h; fodkj D. Turner syndrome – Chromosomal disorder
169. (2) [NCERT-II-55]
169. (2) [NCERT-II-55]
es.My ds iz;ksx ds fy, lgh vuq:irk gSsa The correct match for mendel experiment
izHkkoh vizHkkoh Dominant Recessive
A. v{kh; VfeZuy
A. Axial Terminal
B. xksy >qjhZnkj
B. Round Wrinkled
C. yEck ckSuk
C. Tall Dwarf
D. Qyh dk gjk jax Qyh dk ihyk jax
D. Green colour of pod Yellow colour of pod
170. (1) [NCERT-I-221, 222]
170. (1) [NCERT-I-221, 222]
is'kh; ladqpu dh fØ;kfo/kh ds lUnHkZ esa lgh dFku gSA
The correct statements regarding mechanism of
A. bldh 'kq:vkr eksVj rfU=dk dksf'kdk ds tfj, CNS
muscle contraction :
}kjk ladsr Hksts tkus ls gksrh gS
A. It is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via motor
B. rfU=dk lapkjh lkdksZysek esa fØ;k foHko iSnk djrk
neuron.
gSA
B. Neurotransmitter generates action potential in the
C. Ca++ Lrj dh c<+ksRrjh ls ,fDVu rUrq ij Vªki
s ksfuu dh
sarcolemma.
mi bdkbZ ls dSfY'k;e cU/k cukrk gSA
C. Increased Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium
D. ,fDVu ds fy, lfØ; LFky dk u <duk fØ;k'khy
with troponin on actin filaments.
gks tkrk gS
E. ATP futZyhdj.k ls ÅtkZ dks mi;ksxhr djds ØkWl D. Unmasking of active site for actin is activated.
lsrq dk fuekZ.k E. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis to form
cross bridge.
171. (4) [NCERT-II-205, 206]
171. (4) [NCERT-II-205, 206]
ikfjrU= ds fo"k; esa D;k dFku xyr gSA
The correct statement about ecosystem? :
(1) ;g NksVs vkdkj ds rkykc ls ysdj cM+s vkdkj ds leqnz
(1) It can vary from small sized pond to large sized
rd gks ldrk gS
sea
(2) ;g mRifRr esa ekuo fØ;kdykiksa ls Hkh gks ldrk gS (2) It may be anthropogenic in origin
(3) ;g vLFkk;h vFkok LFkk;h gks ldrk gS (3) It may be temporary or Permanent
(4) blesa ÅtkZ izokg dk dk;Z 'kkfey gS vkSj iks"kd (4) It involves the function of flow of energy and
rRoksa dk iquZpØ.k Hkh 'kkfey gSA recycling of nutrients also
172. (4) [NCERT-II-210] 172. (4) [NCERT-II-210]
A. r`rh;d miHkksDrk II. 'ksj A. Tertiary consumer II. Lion
B. f}rh;d miHkksDrk III. HksfM+ ;k B. Secondary consumer III. Wolf
C. izkFkfed miHkksDrk IV. cdjh C. Primary consumer IV. Goat
D. izkFkfed mRiknd I. ?kkl D. Primary producer I. Grass
173. (2) [NCERT-I-156 to 159] 173. (2) [NCERT-I-156 to 159]
(1) MkbZgkbMªksDlh - Xykbdksfyfll (1) Dihydroxyacetone - Glycolysis
,lhVksuQkWLQsV Phosphate

(2) ¶;qesjhd vEy - Xykbdksfyfll (2) Fumaric Acid - Krebs cycle

(3) OAA - ØsCl pØ (3) OAA - Krebs cycle

(4) 3-QkLQksfXylhjhd - ØsCl pØ (4) 3-Phosphoglyceric - Glycolysis

vEy Acid
174. (4) [NCERT-II-134, 135]
174. (4) [NCERT-II-134, 135]
(1) Physical barrier - Mucus coating of the
(1) 'kkjhfjd jks/k - 'olu iFk dks vkLrfjr
epithelium lining
djus okyh ,fiFkhfy;e Respiratory tract
dk 'ys"ek vkysi (2) Physiological - Saliva in the mouth
(2) dkf;Zdh; jks/k - eq¡g esa ykj barrier

(3) dksf'kdh; jks/k - Y;qdkslkbV~l (3) Cellular barrier - Leukocytes

(4) dksf'kdh; jks/k - Ård esa eSØksQst (4) Cellular barrier - Macrophage in tissues

175. (4) [NCERT-II-90, 91] 175. (4) [NCERT-II-90, 91]

izfrd`fr;u ds fy, lgh dFku gS The correct statements for Replication:

(1) izfrd`fr;u esa fdlh Hkh rjg dh xyrh ds ifj.kke (1) Any mistake during replication would result into

Lo:i mRifjorZu gksrk gSA mutations.

(2) The DNA dependent DNA polymerases catalyse
(2) DNA ij fuHkZj DNA ikWyhejst cgqydu dks dsoy
polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5’  3’
,d fn”kk 5’  3’ dh vksj mRizsfjr djrk gS
(3) The replication of DNA and cell division cycle should
(3) DNA dh izfrd`fr;u o dksf”kdk foHkktu pØ dkQh
be highly co-ordinated.
laHkkfor <ax ls gksrh gS
176. (4) [NCERT-I-23, 24]
176. (4) [NCERT-I-23, 24]
Statement I:
dFku -I:
For plants the earliest systems of classification used
ikS/kks ds fy, igys fn;s x;s oxhZdj.k esa dsoy dqy lrgh only gross superficial morphological characters such
vkdkfjdh y{k.kksa dk mi;ksx fd;k x;k tSls fd ifRr;ksa as habit, colour number and shape of leaves etc.
dh izd`fr] jax] la[;k vkSj vkd`fr
Statement II :
dFku - II :
Natural classification systems were based on natural
izkd`frd oxhZdj.k rU= thoks esa izkd`frd lecU/k rFkk affinities among the organisms and consider, not only
ckg~; xq.kks ds lkFk & lkFk Hkhrjh xq.kks] tSls ijklajpuk] external features, but also internal features, like
,ukVkWeh] Hkz.w kfoKku vkSj ikni jlk;u ds vk/kkj ij fodflr ultrastructure, anatomy, embryology and
gqvk gSA phytochemistry.
177. (4) [NCERT-I-28 to 33] 177. (4) [NCERT-I-28 to 33]
dFku - I : Statement I:
LQsxue esa uj vkSj eknk xSehVksQkbV dk LorU= eqDr&thoh In Sphaghum male and female gametophyte are
vfLrRo gksrk gSA independent free living existence.
dFku - II : Statement II :
ikbul esa uj vkSj eknk xSehVksQkbV dk LorU= eqDr thoh In Pinus male and female gametophyte are not
vfLrRo ugha gksrk gSA independent free living existence.
178. (2) [NCERT-I-65 to 67] 178. (2) [NCERT-I-65 to 67]
dFku - I : Statement I:
Qy fu"kspu ds ckn ,d ifjiDo vFkok idk gqvk v.Mk'k; Fruits is a mature or ripened ovary developed after
gksrh gSA fertilisation.

dFku - II : Statement II :

xwnns kj Qy esa QyfHkRrh ckg~;QyfHkRrh] eè;QyfHkRrh In fleshy types of fruit pericarp is clearly differentiated
vkSj vUr%QyfHkRrh esa Li"V :i ls foHksfnr gksrh gSA into epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp.

179. (4) [NCERT-I-79 to 80] 179. (4) [NCERT-I-79 to 80]

dFku - I : Statement I:

ikS/kks vFkok lw{ethoksa ds lUnHkZ esa] vkdkfjdh 'kCn dk In case of plants or microbes the term morphology
oLrqr% eryc thoks dh ckg~; lajpuk ;k ckg~; fn[kus okys precisely means only the study of form or externally
vkdkj dk vè;;u gSA visible features.
Statement II :
dFku - II :
The word anatomy conventionally is used for the study
tUrqvksa esa ,ukVkWeh 'kCn dk mi;ksx ikjEifjd :i ls
of morphology of internal organs in the animals.
vkUrfjd vaxks dh vkdkfjdh dk vè;;u gSA
180. (2) [Old-NCERT-I]
180. (2) [Old-NCERT-I]
dFku - I : Statement I:
In cuboidal epithelium the cells are compactly packed
?kukdkj midyk esa dksf'kdk;sa l?kurk ls iSd dh gqbZ de
with little intercellular matrix.
vUrjdksf'kdh; eSfVªDl ds lkFk gksrh gSA
Statement II :
dFku - II :
The salivary gland is exocrine gland so it is not secrete
ykj xzfUFk cfg%lzkoh xzfUFk gS] ;g gkeksZu lzkfor ugha djrh
hormone.
gSA