INSTA STATIC QUIZ

NOVEMBER 2024

WWW.INSIGHTSONINDIA.COM INSIGHTSIAS
 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Table of Contents

1. POLITY ...................................................................................................................... 2

2. GEOGRAPHY ............................................................................................................. 18

3. ECONOMY................................................................................................................ 24

4. ART AND CULTURE ..................................................................................................... 39

5. HISTORY .................................................................................................................. 43

6. ENVIRONMENT.......................................................................................................... 51

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1. Polity
1) Which of the following statements is/are correct about Public Interest Litigations (PIL) in India?
1. Like the class-action suit, none of the courts can go beyond the application of procedural law in a PIL.
2. The first PIL in India was filed in the Hussainara Khatoon vs State of Bihar case highlighting the pitiable
conditions of prisoners.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is not correct: PIL is essentially meant as a remedial jurisprudence for those who can’t approach
the court on account of poverty or some other disability.
In a PIL, in contrast to a class-action suit, the court may be flexible in its application of procedural law and go
beyond the legal issues raised to assume new roles such as that of an ombudsman, a legislator and a monitor.

Statement 2 is correct: The first PIL, Hussainara Khatoon vs State of Bihar, was filed in 1979 on the basis of reports
highlighting the pitiable conditions of prisoners awaiting trial for long periods.

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Substantive Motion:

1. It is an independent proposal that deals only with the impeachment of President.
2. If it is adopted by the House, it has the tendency to supersede the original motion.
3. It cannot state the decision of the House without reference to the original motion.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: d)

The motions moved by the members to raise discussions on various matters fall into three principal categories:
Statement 1 is not correct: Substantive Motion is a self-contained independent proposal dealing with a very
important matter like impeachment of the President or removal of Chief Election Commissioner.

Statement 2 is not correct: Substitute Motion is moved in substitution of an original motion and proposes an
alternative to it. If adopted by the House, it supersedes the original motion.

Statement 3 is not correct: Subsidiary Motion is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and cannot state the
decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House.

3) Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike the Code of Criminal Procedure, the Constitution provides for the remission of prison sentences.
2. Both the President and the Governor have been vested with the sovereign power of pardon by the
Constitution.
3. In case of death sentences, the Central government concurrently exercise the same power as the State
governments to remit the sentence.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
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d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) provides for remission of prison sentences,
which means the whole or a part of the sentence may be cancelled.

Statement 2 is correct: Both the President and the Governor have been vested with sovereign power of pardon by
the Constitution, commonly referred to as mercy or clemency power.

Statement 3 is correct: In the case of death sentences, the Central government may also concurrently exercise the
same power as the State governments to remit or suspend the sentence.

Under Article 72, the President can grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or suspend,
remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence in all cases.

Under Article 72 and Article 161, the respective governments advise the President/Governor to suspend, remit or
commute sentences.

4) Consider the following about the clemency powers of the Indian President under Article 72 of the
Constitution.
1. He can exercise this power in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
2. President’s power of pardon is a discretionary power and need not be exercised by him on the advice
of Council of Ministers.
3. The constitution does not provide for any mechanism to question the legality of decisions of the
President exercising mercy jurisdiction.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Clemency powers of the Indian President under article 72:

It says that the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment
or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.
The President can exercise these powers:
• In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court martial;
• In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to
which the executive power of the Union extends;
• In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.

S2: This power of pardon shall be exercised by the President on the advice of Council of Ministers.
S3: The constitution does not provide for any mechanism to question the legality of decisions of President or
governors exercising mercy jurisdiction.
But the SC in Epuru Sudhakar case has given a small window for judicial review of the pardon powers of President
and governors for the purpose of ruling out any arbitrariness

5) Consider the following statements:

1. An Appropriation Bill is a money bill that allows the government to withdraw funds from the
Consolidated Fund of India.
2. The Appropriation Bill is first passed by Lok Sabha and then sent to Rajya Sabha which has no power to
recommend any amendments in this Bill.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct: An Appropriation Bill is a money bill that allows the government to withdraw funds from
the Consolidated Fund of India to meet its expenses during the course of a financial year.
As per Article 114 of the Constitution, the government can withdraw money from it only after receiving approval
from Parliament. While the Finance Bill contains provisions on financing the expenditure of the government, an
Appropriation Bill specifies the quantum and purpose for withdrawing money.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Appropriation Bill is first passed by Lok Sabha and then sent to Rajya Sabha. Rajya
Sabha has the power to recommend any amendments in this Bill. However, it is the prerogative of Lok Sabha to
either accept or reject these recommendations.

6) The “Sovereignty” of India means

1. No external power can dictate the government of India.
2. Citizens cannot be discriminated against on any grounds.
3. There is freedom of speech and expression for Indian citizens.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Sovereignty simply implies that India is a state that takes its own decisions ultimately guided by the people. No
external agency dictates terms to India.
However, the notion of sovereignty does not seep into the framework of all democratic rights. For e.g. a
sovereign state might very well discriminate between its citizens.
A sovereign state may very well restrict freedom of speech, as it is not an absolute right, even though it is vital to
a democracy.

7) Consider the following statements.

1. Parliamentary democracy, with a cabinet form of government, is part of the basic structure of the
Indian Constitution.
2. A balanced federal structure mandates that the States enjoy freedom without any unsolicited
interference from the Central Government with respect to matters which exclusively fall within State’s domain.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Parliamentary democracy, with a cabinet form of government, is part of the basic structure of the Indian
Constitution. Its first article reads, “India that is Bharat shall be a Union of States.”

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The Constitution has mandated a federal balance wherein independence of a certain required degree is assured
to the State Governments.
As opposed to centralism, a balanced federal structure mandates that the Union does not usurp all powers and
the States enjoy freedom without any unsolicited interference from the Central Government with respect to
matters which exclusively fall within their domain.

8) Consider the following statements regarding the observations made by Supreme Court with respect to Right
to privacy.
1. Right to privacy is as sacrosanct as human existence and is inalienable to human dignity and autonomy.
2. This is an absolute right.
3. Any surveillance done on an individual by the state is an infringement of that person’s right to privacy.
4. Any violation of right to privacy by the state in national interest, has to follow procedures established
by the law.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) all four

Solution: c)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Court, pointing to its own judgment in K S Puttaswamy, has said that “right to privacy is as sacrosanct as
human existence and is inalienable to human dignity and autonomy”. While agreeing that it is not an absolute
right, the Court has said any restrictions “must necessarily pass constitutional scrutiny”.

Any surveillance or snooping done on an individual by the state or any outside agency is an infringement of
that person’s right to privacy. Hence, any violation of that right by the state, even in national interest, has to
follow procedures established by the law.

9) The Constitution of India provides which of the following protection for Minorities?
1. Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India having a distinct language, script or culture
of its own have the right to conserve the same.
2. All minorities, whether based on religion or language, have the right to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice.
3. A Special Officer for linguistic minorities has been appointed by the President.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: c)

What does the Constitution say about minorities?

* Article 29, which deals with the “Protection of interests of minorities”, says that “any section of the citizens
residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall
have the right to conserve the same”

* Article 30 deals with the “right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions”.
It says that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice.

* Article 350(A) says there shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President.
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10) Consider the following statements.

1. Access to justice for the weaker sections of the society is a constitutional mandate to ensure fair
treatment under Indian legal system.
2. Equal justice and free legal aid is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) under the Indian
Constitution.
3. Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was enacted by Parliament to organise Lok Adalats outside the
formal adjudicatory system, to address the problems of crowded cases.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: c)

Access to justice for the poor is a constitutional mandate to ensure fair treatment under our legal system.
Hence, Lok Adalats (literally, ‘People’s Court’) were established to make justice accessible and affordable to all. It
was a forum to address the problems of crowded case dockets outside the formal adjudicatory system.

The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976, inserted Article 39A to ensure “equal justice and free legal aid”.
To this end, the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was enacted by Parliament and it came into force in 1995
“to provide free and competent legal services to weaker sections of the society” and to “organise Lok Adalats to
secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity”.

11) Consider the following statements

1. ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Territory of India’.
2. The expression ‘Union of India’ includes not only the states, but also union territories and acquired
territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’. This provision
deals with two things: one, name of the country; and two, type of polity.

According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
• Territories of the states
• Union territories
• Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.

Notably, the ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only
states while the former includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be
acquired by the Government of India at any future time. Hence, both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.

The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of powers with the Centre. The union
territories and the acquired territories, on the other hand, are directly administered by the Central government.

12) The features of Indian style of Federalism include

1. Each tier of the government has its own jurisdiction.
2. Each tier of the government can draw its own financial resources.
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3. Each tier’s existence and authority are constitutionally guaranteed.
4. The division of powers between the tiers cannot be changed without a legitimate constitutional,
executive or legislative amendment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only One
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: d)

Each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration; for e.g. in India
states legislate in matters of police, and Centre legislates in areas of national security as a whole. So, 1 and 2 are
correct.

The constitution establishes both the Central and State council of Ministers. So, 3 is correct.

Statement 4: The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of
government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.
Moreover, changes in taxation or certain executive/legislative powers can only be brought in about by a proper
amendment. So, 4 is correct as well.

13) India is described as a Republic because:

1. The political sovereignty of India is vested in the people of the country.
2. India has accepted the British Crown as the head of the Commonwealth.
3. The head of the state is always an elected individual.
4. Indian Constitution provides for only a single citizenship.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only One
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: b)

• A democratic polity can be classified into two categories—monarchy and republic. In a monarchy, the head of
the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a hereditary position, that is, he comes into office through succession,
e.g., Britain. In a republic, on the other hand, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for a
fixed period, e.g., USA.
• India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system. In other words, the Head of the State in
India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a
hereditary position. Therefore, the term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head
called the President. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years.
• A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single
individual like a king; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to
every citizen without any discrimination.
• India is a republic because the ultimate authority lies with its people, who elect their representatives and
leaders, reflecting the core principle of popular sovereignty. So, statement 1 is correct.
• India is part of the Commonwealth, but it is a republic and does not accept the British Crown as its head. The
British Crown’s role in the Commonwealth is purely symbolic and does not affect India's sovereignty or
republic status. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
• In a republic, the head of state (the President in India) is elected, unlike in a monarchy where the head of
state could be hereditary. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.

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• While India follows the principle of single citizenship, this feature has nothing to do with why India is called a
republic. Single citizenship pertains to India's federal structure, not to its republic status. So, statement 4 is
incorrect.

14) With reference to Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The principle of Cabinet Government and the relations between the executive and the legislature are
derived from Government of India Act, 1935.
2. The philosophical part of the Constitution including the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles
of State Policy are derived from the American Constitution.
3. Indian Constitution is described as a bargaining federalism as it is federal in form but unitary in spirit.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of India Act of 1935. The
political part of the Constitution (the principle of Cabinet Government and the relations between the executive
and the legislature) have been largely drawn from the British Constitution. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.

The philosophical part of the Constitution (the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy)
derive their inspiration from the American and Irish Constitutions respectively. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi -federal’ by
K C Wheare, ‘bargaining federalism’ by Morris Jones, ‘co-operative federalism’ by Granville Austin, ‘federation
with a centralising tendency’ by Ivor Jennings. So, Statement 3 is correct.

15) Which of the following are the salient features of the Constitution of India related to Rule of Law?
1. Judicial Review
2. Equality before Law
3. Supremacy of Law
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: d)

• Judicial Review is an essential part of the Rule of Law in India, ensuring that the actions of the legislature and
executive are subject to judicial scrutiny.
• Equality before Law is enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution, ensuring that every individual is treated
equally by the law.
• Supremacy of Law means that law is supreme over the government and all its institutions. This ensures no
individual or entity has arbitrary power.

16) Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation for both the houses of
Parliament.
2. The system of proportional representation is essentially aimed at removing the defects of territorial
representation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
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b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

• Though the Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of rajya Sabha,
it has not preferred the same system in the case of Lok Sabha.
• Instead, it has adopted the system of territorial representation for the election of members to the Lok
Sabha.
• Under territorial representation, every member of the legislature represents a geographical area known as a
constituency. From each constituency, only one representative is elected.
• Hence such a constituency is known as single-member constituency. In this system, a candidate who secures
majority of votes is declared elected.
• This simple majority system of representation does not represent the whole electorate. In other words, it
does not secure due representation to minorities (small groups).

• Statement 2 is correct: The system of proportional representation aims at removing the defects of
territorial representation.
• Under this system, all sections of the people get representation in proportion to their number. Even the
smallest section of the population gets its due share of representation in the legislature

17) Consider the following statements:

1. In each House of the Parliament, there is the ‘Leader of the House’.
2. Unlike the Lok Sabha there is no Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha.
3. Indian political system has a unique institution called the ‘Shadow Cabinet’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct: Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the ‘Leader of the House’ means the prime minister, if he is
a member of the Lok Sabha, or a minister who is a member of the Lok Sabha and is nominated by the prime
minister to function as the Leader of the House. There is also a ‘Leader of the House’ in the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 is not correct: In each House of Parliament, there is the ‘Leader of the Opposition’. The leader of the
largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognised as
the leader of the Opposition in that House.

Statement 3 is not correct: The British political system has a unique institution called the ‘Shadow Cabinet’. It is
formed by the Opposition party to balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare its members for future ministerial
offices.

18) Consider the following statements:

1. A Closure Motion is moved by a Member of Parliament to cut short the debate on a matter before the
House.
2. In a Kangaroo Closure, the clauses of a bill are grouped into parts before the commencement of the
debate.
3. Guillotine Closure takes place when the undiscussed clauses of a bill are put to vote along with the
discussed ones.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?

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a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: Closure Motion is a motion moved by a member to cut short the debate on a matter
before the House. If the motion is approved by the House, debate is stopped forthwith and the matter is put to
vote.

There are four kinds of closure motions:

• Simple Closure: It is one when a member moves that the ‘matter having been sufficiently discussed be now
put to vote’.
• Closure by Compartments: In this case, the clauses of a bill or a lengthy resolution are grouped into parts
before the commencement of the debate. The debate covers the part as a whole and the entire part is put to
vote.
• Kangaroo Closure: Under this type, only important clauses are taken up for debate and voting and the
intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as passed. Statement 2 is not correct.
• Guillotine Closure: It is one when the undiscussed clauses of a bill or a resolution are also put to vote along
with the discussed ones due to want of time (as the time allotted for the discussion is over). Statement 3 is
correct.

19) Which one of the followings is not an Original Jurisdiction of High Court?
a) Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the
Constitution to its own file.
b) Inter-state water disputes.
c) Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens.
d) Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures.

Solution: b)

Original Jurisdiction
It means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. It extends to the
following:
(a) Matters of admiralty and contempt of court.
(b) Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures.
(c) Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection.
(d) Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens.
(e) Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the Constitution to
its own file.

Before 1973, the Calcutta, Bombay and Madras High Courts also had original criminal jurisdiction. This was fully
abolished by the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.

The Interstate River Water Disputes Act 1956 bars the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or any other court
over interstate river water disputes.

20) How is a deadlock between the legislative assembly and the legislative council of a state resolved when it
comes to the passing of an ordinary bill?
a) The legislative assembly can send the bill to the legislative council for its reconsideration, with the
legislative assembly having the final say on the matter.
b) A joint sitting of both houses is called by the Governor to resolve the issue.
c) The Governor is bound to reserve such a bill for the consideration of the President whose decision shall
be final in this regard.
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d) Any of the above depending on the Governor’s discretion.

Solution: a)

• A deadlock between the two Houses takes place when the legislative council, after receiving a bill passed by
the legislative assembly, rejects the bill or proposes amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative
assembly or does not pass the bill within three months.
• The mechanism of passing the bill for the second time to resolve a deadlock applies to a bill originating in the
legislative assembly only. When a bill, which has originated in the legislative council and sent to the legislative
assembly, is rejected by the latter, the bill ends and becomes dead.
• The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature
to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.
• The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time and not
vice versa.
• When a bill is passed by the assembly for the second time and transmitted to the legislative council, if the
legislative council rejects the bill again, or proposes amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative
assembly, or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the
Houses in the form in which it was passed by the legislative assembly for the second time.

20) Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
1. When the Indian Constitution was being drafted, the ideals behind the preamble were first laid down in
the Objectives Resolution, adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1947.
2. Preamble is enforceable in a court of law.
3. The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, passed in 1976 replaced the words “sovereign democratic
republic” with “sovereign socialist secular democratic republic”.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

A preamble serves as an introduction to a document and contains its basic principles and goals. When the Indian
Constitution was being drafted, the ideals behind the preamble were first laid down in the Objectives
Resolution, adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1947.

Additionally, the violation of any principle mentioned in the preamble cannot be a reason to go to court, meaning
the preamble is “non-justiciable” — however, judgments of courts can cite it as an additional factor in their
reasoning, given that it constitutes the spirit of the Constitution.

The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, passed in 1976 when the Emergency was in place, replaced the
words “sovereign democratic republic” with “sovereign socialist secular democratic republic”. It also changed
“unity of the nation” to “unity and integrity of the nation”.

21) Part IV of the Constitution of India covers a wide range of principles, including
1. Securing of equal justice and free legal aid to citizens
2. Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry
3. Protection and improvement of the environment
4. Promotion of international peace and security
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one

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b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: d)

Part IV (Articles 36-51) covers a wide range of principles, including (apart from the UCC), the securing of equal
justice and free legal aid to citizens (Art 39A), participation of workers in the management of industries (Art 43A),
organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry (Art 48), protection and improvement of the environment
and safeguarding of forests and wildlife (Art 48A), promotion of international peace and security (Art 51), etc.

22) Consider the following statements.

1. The power under Article 161 is exercisable by the Governor in relation to matters to which the
executive power of the state extends.
2. While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the binding nature of such
advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

The power under Article 161 is exercisable in relation to matters to which the executive power of the state
extends. While the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 163), the binding nature
of such advice will depend on the constitutionality of the same.

23) Consider the following statements regarding the suspension of MLAs in the State Legislature.
1. The Constitution stipulates that the State Legislative Assembly may declare vacant the seat of a
member who is absent for 60 days without permission.
2. According to The Representation of the People Act, 1951, a bye -election for filling any vacancy shall be
held within a period of one year from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy.
3. During suspension, a member continues to hold office, but only loses their voice in the legislature.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Article 190(4) of the Constitution, stipulates that the House may declare vacant the seat of a member who is
absent for 60 days without permission.

Also, the Representation of the People Act, 1951, says any vacancy in the House has to be filled up through a by -
election within six months of its occurrence.

During suspension, a member continues to hold office, but only loses their voice in the legislature.

24) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Objectives resolution’.

1. The resolution laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.

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2. This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
3. It missed out on the safeguards for minorities, backward and tribal areas.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• In December, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid
down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.
• It included the major values and ideals of sovereignty, republic, fundamental rights, directive principles, non -
interference etc.
• It sought to secure to ideals mentioned in the Preamble.
• It provided for adequate safeguards for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other
backward classes.
• This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual
shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the
present Constitution.

25) Consider the following statements:

1. As per the Constitution, a person to be chosen a member of the Parliament must be registered as an
elector for a parliamentary constituency
2. As per the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified as a Member of Parliament if found guilty of
corrupt practices in the elections.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a
member of the Parliament:
• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the election
commission for this purpose.
• He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the Rajya Sabha and not less than 25 years of age
in the case of the Lok Sabha.
• He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.

The Parliament has laid down the additional qualification in the Representation of People Act (1951) that he
must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency.

Statement 2 is not correct: Unlike the Constitution, the Parliament has laid down the following additional
disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
• He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections.
• He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But,
the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification.

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26) Which of the following statements regarding Inter State Council is correct?
a) It is a permanent statutory body
b) Its recommendations are binding in nature.
c) It is headed by Minister of Home Affairs
d) None of the above statements are correct

Solution: d)

Inter-state council:
• The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body to facilitate coordination between states and the centre.
• The Council is a recommendatory body to investigate and discuss subjects, in which some or all of the
states or the union government have a common interest. Recommendations are not binding in nature.
• Article 263 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
• It considers recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action, and also matters of general
interest to the states.
• The inter-state council is not a permanent constitutional body for coordination between the states and
union government. It can be established ‘at any time’ if it appears to the President that the public interests
would be served by the establishment of such a council.
• The Prime minister is the chairman.

27) Consider the following statements regarding the grounds for judicial review in India:
1. A law can be struck down if it infringes on the Fundamental Rights (Part III).
2. A law can be struck down if it is outside the competence of the authority that framed it.
3. A law can be declared invalid if it is repugnant to constitutional provisions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, and 3
d) 1 only

Solution: c)

In India, judicial review is a crucial tool to ensure that laws and executive actions are in conformity with the
Constitution. The grounds for judicial review are based on three main principles.

First, if a law infringes upon the Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution, the judiciary has the
power to declare it invalid.

Second, the law can be struck down if it falls outside the legislative competence of the authority that enacted it.
This means that if a legislative body exceeds its jurisdiction, the law is considered ultra vires (beyond legal power).

Lastly, a law can be declared unconstitutional if it is repugnant to any other provisions of the Constitution. This
includes violations of the basic structure or conflicting with other constitutional principles.

28) Consider the following statements:

1. Both Articles 358 and 359 of Indian Constitution describe the effect of a National Emergency on
Fundamental Rights.
2. The President of India can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental
Rights during a National Emergency.
3. The right to protection in respect of conviction for offences remains enforceable even during the
emergency.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
d) None

Solution: d)

Statement 1 is correct: Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental
Rights. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article
359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).

Statement 2 is correct: Article 359 authorises the president to suspend the right to move any court for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
This means that under Article 359, the Fundamental Rights as such are not suspended, but only their
enforcement. The said rights are theoretically alive but the right to seek remedy is suspended.
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359 in two ways. Firstly, the President cannot
suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21.

Statement 3 is correct: In other words, the right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable even during emergency.

29) Consider the following statements:

1. The Suspensive Veto authorises President not to take any action on the bill.
2. The President possess the Suspensive veto in the case of money bills.
3. The President enjoys the veto power with respect to state legislation.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is not correct: The President exercises Suspensive veto when he returns a bill for reconsideration of
the Parliament. However, if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments and again
presented to the President, it is obligatory for the President to give his assent to the bill.

Statement 2 is not correct: The President does not possess suspensive veto in the case of money bills. In Pocket
Veto, the President neither ratifies nor rejects nor returns the bill, but simply keeps the bill pending for an
indefinite period.

Statement 3 is correct: The President has veto power with respect to state legislation also. A bill passed by a state
legislature can become an act only if it receives the assent of the governor or the President (in case the bill is
reserved for the consideration of the President).

30) Consider the following statements.

1. The equal protection of law concept originated from the United States Constitution, which means the
law should be applied equally and fairly to all people.
2. Article 14 says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal
protection of the laws within the territory of India.
3. Article 14 forbids class legislation and reasonable classification of persons.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Article 14 says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the
laws within the territory of India. This provision confers rights on all persons whether citizens or foreigners.

The Supreme Court held that where equals and unequals are treated differently, Article 14 does not apply. While
Article 14 forbids class legislation, it permits reasonable classification of persons, subjects and transactions by
the law.
For e.g. a special law can be made for differently abled as this classification is reasonable and just.

The concept of "equal protection of laws (EPL)" comes from the United States Constitution. It means that the
law should be applied equally and fairly to all people.

31) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Public order’.

1. Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees to all persons the right freely to profess, practise and
propagate religion subject to public order.
2. According to Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, the power to legislate on aspects of public
order rests with the states.
3. Public order is also one of the grounds to restrict fundamental rights.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: c)

Public order is one of the three grounds on which the state can restrict freedom of religion. Public order’ is also
one of the grounds to restrict free speech and other fundamental rights.

Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees to all persons right to freedom and conscience and the right freely to
profess, practise and propagate religion subject to public order, morality and health.

Public order is normally equated with equated with public peace and safety. According to List 2 of the Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution, the power to legislate on aspects of public order rests with the states.

In Ram Manohar Lohia vs State of Bihar (1965), the Supreme Court held that in the case of ‘public order’, the
community or the public at large have to be affected by a particular action.

32) Consider the following statements.

1. The Constitution of India refers to civil code only in its Directive Principles.
2. Implementation of Directive Principles is not mandatory and it cannot be enforced even by the courts.
3. The issue of personal laws falls in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule to the Indian Constitution.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
The Constitution refers to civil code only in its Directive Principles. It is critical to note that the Uniform Civil
Code was limited to Directive Principles. Implementation of Directive Principles is not mandatory. The court may
order to enforce Fundamental rights. But the Directive Principles of Article 44 of the Constitution cannot be
enforced even by the courts. It is essential to understand how much thought the founders of t he Constitution put
into their decision.

The issue of personal laws falls in List III —the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.
While subjects in the Union lists fall within the purview of the Parliament, states can legislate on subjects in the
State List.

33) Which of the following provisions of the constitution provide for the secular character of the Indian State?
1. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
2. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion
3. All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and
propagate any religion.
4. No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Solution: d)

The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official
religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian
State:
(a) The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42 nd Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1976.
(b) The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
(c) The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
(d) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
(e) Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
(f) All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and
propagate any religion (Article 25).
(g) Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article
26).
(h) No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).
(i) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28).
(j) Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or culture (Article 29).
(k) All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Article
30).
(l) The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44).

34) Right to Equality in the Indian constitution include which of the following?
1. Equality of opportunity in employment
2. Prohibition on discrimination on ground of religion
3. Abolition of titles
4. Rights of the accused and convicts
How many of the above options is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Solution: c)

Option 4 is incorrect.

Right to Equality includes the following laws:

• Equality before law
• Equal protection of laws
• Prohibition on discrimination on ground of religion
• Equal access to shops, bathing ghats, hotels etc.
• Equality of opportunity in employment
• Abolition of titles
• Abolition of untouchability

2. Geography
1) Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Indian Peninsula?
1. The Peninsula, being part of the Indo-Australian Plate, has experienced vertical movements and block
faulting.
2. Since the Cambrian era, it has existed as a rigid block, including the entirety of its western coastline.
3. The Peninsula features relict and residual mountain ranges, such as the Aravali Hills and the Nallamala
Hills.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: d)

• The Peninsula is formed essentially by a great complex of very ancient gneisses and granites, which
constitutes a major part of it.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Since the Cambrian period, the Peninsula has been standing like a rigid block with
the exception of some of its western coast which is submerged beneath the sea and some other parts
changed due to tectonic activity without affecting the original basement.
• Statement 1 is correct: As a part of the Indo-Australian Plate, it has been subjected to various vertical
movements and block faulting. The rift valleys of the Narmada, the Tapi and the Mahanadi and the Satpura
block mountains are some examples of it.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Peninsula mostly consists of relict and residual mountains like the Aravali hills, the
Nallamala hills, the Javadi hills, the Veliconda hills, the Palkonda range and the Mahendragiri hills, etc.

2) Evaluate the following statements:

1. The Deccan Plateau is bordered by the Maikal Range in the east and the Mahadeo Hills in the north.
2. The Western Ghats are generally higher and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats.
3. The Western Ghats are called Sahyadri in Maharashtra and Cardamom Hills in Karnataka.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Deccan Plateau is bordered by the Western Ghats in the west, Eastern Ghats
in the east and the Satpura, Maikal range and Mahadeo hills in the north.
• Statement 2 is correct: Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the
Eastern Ghats.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in
Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills and Cardamom hills in Kerala.
• Their average elevation is about 1,500 m with the height increasing from north to south. ‘Anaimudi’ (2,695
m), the highest peak of Peninsular plateau is located on the Anaimalai hills of the Western Ghats followed by
Dodabetta (2,637 m) on the Nilgiri hills.

3) The Ritchie Archipelago and Labrynth Islands, often mentioned in the news, are situated in:
a) The Bay of Bengal
b) The Arabian Sea
c) The Gulf of Mannar
d) The Gulf of Khambhat

Solution: a)

The Ritchie Archipelago and Labrynth Islands are part of the island group located in the Bay of Bengal. These
islands fall under the Andaman and Nicobar Islands region, which consists of approximately 572 islands/islets. The
Andaman Islands are in the north, and the Nicobar Islands are in the south, separated by the Ten Degree Channel.

4) Consider the following statements:

1. The Luni River is the largest river system in Rajasthan west of the Aravali Range.
2. The Tapi River originates from Multai in Betul district, Madhya Pradesh.
3. Unlike the Luni River, the Tapi River is entirely ephemeral.
How many of the statements given above are not correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is accurate. The Luni is Rajasthan’s largest river system west of the Aravali Range, originating near
Pushkar and formed by the Saraswati and Sabarmati branches.
Statement 2 is accurate. The Tapi River originates from Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh and flows
westward.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Tapi River is a perennial river, unlike the Luni, which is primarily ephemeral and dries
up during non-monsoon periods.

5) Match the following pairs:

Hill Station State
1. Dalhousie Uttarakhand
2. Wilson Hills Maharashtra
3. Jampui Hills Mizoram
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) None of the pairs
b) Only one pair
c) Only two pairs
d) All three pairs

Solution: a)

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
• A beautiful hill station in the state of Himachal Pradesh, Dalhousie is emerged as one of the highly visited hill
stations of India. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
• Wilson Hills is a hill station in the Indian state of Gujarat. Wilson Hills stands in a densely forested region close
to the Pangarbari Wildlife Sanctuary. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
• Jampui Hills is a hill range located in the North Tripura district in the north eastern part of the Indian state of
Tripura.

6) Which of the following correctly represents deposition as a phase in erosion?

a) The process by which sediments are picked up by agents like wind and water
b) The accumulation of new soil layers formed by chemical reactions within rocks
c) The rapid breakdown of rocks into smaller particles through physical forces
d) The final stage of erosion where transported sediments are settled due to a decrease in the carrying
agent’s energy

Solution: d)

Deposition marks the end of the erosion process and occurs when the energy of the transporting agent (such as
wind, water, or ice) diminishes to a point where it can no longer hold or move the sediment. This leads to the
settling and accumulation of sediment in areas like riverbeds, lakes, coastlines, and valleys. This concept is
essential in understanding sedimentary landscapes and features such as deltas, sand dunes, and alluvial fans,
where sediment deposited over time creates new landforms.

7) Which of the following statements is correct about the transition from V -shaped to U-shaped valleys?
1. The transition occurs during the youthful stage of a river.
2. The change in shape is due to intensified vertical erosion at the valley floor.
3. The transition is driven by lateral erosion that widens the valley over time.
4. U-shaped valleys are a temporary formation that quickly revert to V-shaped profiles.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only

Solution: c)

The transition from a V-shaped to a U-shaped valley typically occurs as the river reaches maturity, not during
the youthful stage, making statement 1 incorrect.

Statement 2 is also incorrect because the transition to a U-shaped valley is primarily due to lateral erosion, not
vertical erosion, which widens the valley floor rather than deepening it.

Statement 3 is correct; as the river matures, lateral erosion becomes more prominent, causing the valley walls to
recede and the valley to broaden into a U shape.

Statement 4 is incorrect because U-shaped valleys, once formed, do not revert to V-shaped profiles.

The U-shaped profile is common in mature rivers and glacial valleys where lateral erosion reshapes the valley,
forming a broad base with a gentle, concave slope.

8) Consider the following statements regarding hailstones:

1. Hailstones can form in any weather condition as long as there is precipitation.
2. Hailstones consist of layers of clear and cloudy ice, formed from super-cooled droplets.
3. Hail is generally larger than sleet and can vary in size from a pea to larger than a grapefruit.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is correct as hailstones form in layers of clear and cloudy ice through the freezing of super-cooled
droplets within strong updrafts.

Statement 3 is also correct; hailstones can indeed be much larger than sleet, with sizes ranging from a pea to
larger than a grapefruit.

Statement 1 is incorrect because hailstones require specific conditions, including strong thunderstorms with
updrafts and are not common in mild weather conditions.

9) Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-Gangetic Plains and oxbow lakes:
1. The southward shifting of the Ganga River has left oxbow lakes to the north of its present course.
2. Oxbow lakes in the Indo-Gangetic plains are formed primarily due to glacial activity.
3. These oxbow lakes provide evidence of historical changes in the river’s course.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

The Indo-Gangetic plains have several oxbow lakes, especially to the north of the present Ganga River course,
resulting from the southward shifting of the river over time, making statement 1 correct.

These oxbow lakes provide significant evidence of past river courses and meandering patterns, confirming
statement 3 as correct.

However, statement 2 is incorrect, as the formation of oxbow lakes in the plains is due to fluvial processes—
particularly river meandering and lateral shifting—rather than glacial activity.
The presence of oxbow lakes helps geologists trace historical patterns of river movement and changes in the
river’s dynamics over time.

10) Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with the formation of snow?
a) Low humidity levels and high temperatures
b) High temperatures and high humidity levels
c) Sub-freezing temperatures with cirrus clouds
d) Rainy weather with cumulus clouds

Solution: c)

Snow generally forms in sub-freezing temperatures and often accompanies high, thin cirrus clouds, which are
typical in colder atmospheric conditions. When the temperature is below freezing, water vapor directly
crystallizes into ice, forming snowflakes. These ice crystals often fall as snow if the air near the surface is also cold,
but they may partially melt if they pass through warmer layers, sometimes resulting in mixed precipitation. Snow
can fall even at slightly above-freezing temperatures if rapid cooling around the flakes prevents full melting. This
cooling is achieved through immediate evaporation, which temporarily cools the air around the snowflakes,
allowing them to reach the ground as snow.

11) Consider the following statements:

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
1. The southern part of India lies within the tropics and its northern part lies in the sub -tropical zone.
2. India is bounded by Hindukush and Sulaiman ranges in the north and Purvachal hills in the northeast.
3. Four north-eastern states including Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram share borders
with Myanmar.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is correct: From the values of latitude, it is understood that the southern part of the country lies
within the tropics and the northern part lies in the sub-tropical zone or the warm temperate zone. This location
is responsible for large variations in land forms, climate, soil types and natural vegetation in the country.

Statement 2 is not correct: Indian is bounded by the Himalayas in the north, Hindukush and Sulaiman ranges in
the north-west, Purvachal hills in the north-east and by the large expanse of the Indian Ocean in the south, it
forms a great geographic entity known as the Indian subcontinent.
It includes the countries — Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and India. The Himalayas, together with other
ranges, have acted as a formidable physical barrier in the past.

Statement 3 is correct: India shares a long land border of over 1600 kms with Myanmar as well as a maritime
boundary in the Bay of Bengal. Four north-eastern states, viz., Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and
Mizoram, have a boundary with Myanmar.

12) Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Indian Peninsula?
1. As a part of the Indo-Australian Plate, it has been subjected to vertical movements and block faulting.
2. Since the Cambrian period, along with its western coast it has been standing as a rigid block.
3. The Peninsula consists of relict and residual mountains including the Aravali Hills and the Nallamala
Hills.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: d)

The Peninsula is formed essentially by a great complex of very ancient gneisses and granites, which constitutes a
major part of it.

Statement 1 is correct: As a part of the Indo-Australian Plate, it has been subjected to various vertical
movements and block faulting. The rift valleys of the Narmada, the Tapi and the Mahanadi and the Satpura block
mountains are some examples of it.

Statement 2 is not correct: Since the Cambrian period, the Peninsula has been standing like a rigid block with
the exception of some of its western coast which is submerged beneath the sea and some other parts changed
due to tectonic activity without affecting the original basement.

Statement 3 is correct: The Peninsula mostly consists of relict and residual mountains like the Aravali hills, the
Nallamala hills, the Javadi hills, the Veliconda hills, the Palkonda range and the Mahendragiri hills, etc.

13) Consider the following statements:

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
1. The northern plains of India are formed by the alluvial deposits exclusively brought by the rivers the
Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
2. The northern plains have characteristic features of the mature stage of fluvial erosional landforms such
as oxbow lakes and meanders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The northern plains are formed by the alluvial deposits brought by the rivers-The
Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These plains extend approximately 3,200 km from the east to the west.
The average width of these plains varies between 150 -300 km. The maximum depth of alluvium deposits varies
between 1,000-2,000 m.
From the north to the south, these can be divided into three major zones: the Bhabar, the Tarai and the alluvial
plains. The alluvial plains can be further divided into the Khadar and the Bhangar.

Statement 2 is correct: These plains have characteristic features of mature stage of fluvial erosional and
depositional landforms such as sand bars, meanders, oxbow lakes and braided channels. The Brahmaputra
plains are known for their riverine islands and sand bars.
The mouths of these mighty rivers also form some of the largest deltas of the world, for example, the famous
Sundarbans delta

14) Consider the following:

1. The Palamu Plateau
2. The Malwa Plateau
3. The Hazaribagh Plateau
How many of the above-mentioned Patland plateaus together comprise Peninsular India?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: c)

Rising from the height of 150 m above the river plains up to an elevation of 600-900 m is the irregular triangle
known as the Peninsular plateau.
Delhi ridge in the northwest, (extension of Aravalis), the Rajmahal hills in the east, Gir range in the west and the
Cardamom hills in the south constitute the outer extent of the Peninsular plateau.
However, an extension of this is also seen in the northeast, in the form of Shillong and Karbi-Anglong plateau.

The Peninsular India is made up of a series of patland plateaus such as the Hazaribagh plateau, the Palamu
plateau, the Ranchi plateau, the Malwa plateau, the Coimbatore plateau and the Karnataka plateau, etc. This is
one of the oldest and the most stable landmass of India.

15) Consider the following statements:

1. The Deccan Plateau is bordered by the Maikal Range in the east and the Mahadeo hills in the north.
2. The Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the Eastern Ghats.
3. The Western Ghats are locally known as Sahyadri in Maharashtra and Cardamom hills in Karnataka.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Deccan Plateau is bordered by the Western Ghats in the west, Eastern Ghats in
the east and the Satpura, Maikal range and Mahadeo hills in the north.

Statement 2 is correct: Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation and more continuous than the
Eastern Ghats.

Statement 3 is not correct: Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in
Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills and Cardamom hills in Kerala.

3. Economy
1) Consider the following statements.
1. Inflation can never be good for a growing economy.
2. Only a nation that has a positive trade balance can become a developed country.
3. High public debt is always bad for an economy.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: d)

High public debt is not a problem when it is being used for creation of infrastructure , employment and other
productive areas. Inflation is needed for any economy to grow because inflation suggests that the demand for
goods has outstripped the supply. In this case more production is required which leads to higher growth. A
positive trade balance has little relation with a criterion of development. USA has a large trade deficit, yet it is a
developed country. However, having a positive trade balance is good for the economy because it means we are
competitive in the world export market.

2) Consider the following statements.

1. Nominal GDP is the total market value of all the goods and services produced in India in a financial
year.
2. The nominal GDP is derived from the real GDP by removing the effect of inflation.
3. The Fiscal responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 stipulates that the total borrowings
(fiscal deficit) cannot be more than 3% of the (nominal) GDP.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Nominal GDP is nothing but the total market value of all the goods and services produced in India in a financial
year. For purposes of analysing the economy one often uses the “real” GDP but for preparing the budget, it is the
nominal GDP that matters. The real GDP is “derived” from the nominal GDP by removing the effect of inflation.

Once the government knows the nominal GDP of the current financial year, it uses this number to project the
likely nominal GDP in the next financial year for which the budget is being made.

Typically in India, as indeed is the case with most developing economies, the governments are forced to spend
more than they earn. That means they have to borrow money from the market. But overtime India instituted
strict rules limiting how much the Union government can borrow. These limits are set by the Fiscal responsibility
and Budget Management (FRBM) Act. The FRBM Act stipulates that the total borrowings (fiscal deficit) cannot
be more than 3% of the (nominal) GDP.

3) Consider the following statements.

1. Gross domestic capital formation is the addition to the capital stock within the domestic territory of a
country during a year.
2. Gross domestic capital formation includes all expenses made by households, businesses, people and
government, adding new durable goods to the fixed capital stock of a country.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

• Capital is the produced means of production, or it is called produced wealth by which more wealth is possible
in the economy directly and indirectly.
• Capital formation means the creation of physical assets and non- physical capital consisting of public health
efficiency, visible and no visible capital.
• Gross domestic capital formation is the addition to the capital stock within the domestic territory of a country
during a year.
• Gross domestic capital formation includes all expenses made by households, business people and Govt,
adding new durable goods to the fixed capital stock of a country.
• These assets are in the form of infrastructure such as buildings, roads canals, bridges, means of transport,
machinery and other equipment.

4) In Economy, Kuznets’ theory is related to

a) Fiscal deficit
b) Population growth
c) GDP per capita
d) Inequality

Solution: d)

While there is an argument in literature that inequalities are a manifestation of the average level of
income, as explained by the Kuznets’ theory.

Kuznets believed that inequality would follow an inverted "U" shape as it rises and then falls again with the
increase of income per-capita.

5) Consider the following statements.

1. National income is the sum of all incomes earned by all citizens of India.
2. Gross Value Added (GVA) is the sum of a country’s GDP and net of subsidies and taxes in the economy.

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3. GVA calculates the national income from the supply side by looking at the value added in each sector of
the economy.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

National income is not the sum of all incomes earned by all citizens, but only those incomes which accrue due
to participation in the production process.

Gross Value Added (GVA):

GVA is the sum of a country’s GDP and net of subsidies and taxes in the economy.
It calculates the national income from the supply side by looking at the value added in each sector of the
economy.

GVA is defined as the value of output minus the value of intermediate consumption and is a measure of the
contribution to growth made by an individual producer, industry or sector.
It provides the rupee value for the number of goods and services produced in an economy after deducting the
cost of inputs and raw materials that have gone into the production of those goods and services.
Gross Value Added = GDP + subsidies on products – taxes on products.

6) Which of the following is the correct relation between Factor Price and Market Price?
a) Factor Price = Market Price + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies
b) Market Price = Factor Price - Indirect Taxes – Subsidies
c) Market Price = Factor Price + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies
d) Factor Price = Market Price + Indirect Taxes + Subsidies

Solution: c)

Factor Price is total cost of all factors of production (such as labour, capital, land etc) used in producing goods or
services. It is the price of the commodity from the producer’s side.
When a commodity is produced, it is sold in the market.

Market Price – It is the price at which a product is sold in the market. It includes the cost of production in the form
of wages, rent, interest, input prices, profit etc. It also includes the taxes imposed by the government. It excludes
Government subsidy.

Thus, relationship between Factor price and Market price is

Market Price = Factor Price + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies

7) Consider the following statements regarding Gross value added (GVA) and Gross domestic product (GDP).
1. Gross value added is a measure of total output and income in the economy.
2. GVA is sector specific while GDP is calculated by summation of GVA of all sectors of economy with
taxes added and subsidies are deducted.
3. While GVA gives a picture of the state of economic activity from the consumers’ side or demand
perspective, the GDP gives the picture from the producers’ side or supply side.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
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d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

What is gross value added?

Put simply, it is a measure of total output and income in the economy. It provides the rupee value for the
amount of goods and services produced in an economy after deducting the cost of inputs and raw materials that
have gone into the production of those goods and services. It also gives sector-specific picture like what is the
growth in an area, industry or sector of an economy.

GVA is sector specific while GDP is calculated by summation of GVA of all sectors of economy with taxes
added and subsidies are deducted.

While GVA gives a picture of the state of economic activity from the producers’ side or supply side , the GDP
gives the picture from the consumers’ side or demand perspective. Both measures need not match because of
the difference in treatment of net taxes.

A sector-wise breakdown provided by the GVA measure can better help the policymakers to decide which sectors
need incentives/stimulus or vice versa.

8) Consider the following statements regarding Gross Domestic product (GDP).

1. If the GDP of the country is rising, the welfare will rise as a consequence.
2. Many activities in an economy are not evaluated in monetary terms and hence, they are not included in
calculating GDP.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

GDP is the sum total of value of goods and services created within the geographical boundary of a country in a
particular year. We may be tempted to treat higher level of GDP of a country as an index of greater well-being of
the people of that country. But there are reasons why this may not be correct.
• If the GDP of the country is rising, the welfare may not rise as a consequence. This is because the rise in
GDP may be concentrated in the hands of very few individuals or firms.
• Many activities in an economy are not evaluated in monetary terms. For example, the domestic services
women perform at home are not paid for. The exchanges which take place in the informal sector without
the help of money are called barter exchanges. But since money is not being used here, these exchanges
are not registered as part of economic activity.

9) Which of the following is/are the components used to derive Personal Income (PI)?
1. National Income
2. Corporate tax
3. Transfer payments to the households from the government
4. Net interest payments made by households
How many of the above options is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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Solution: d)

Personal income refers to all income collectively received by all individuals or households in a country.
Personal income includes compensation from a number of sources, including salaries, wages, and bonuses
received from employment or self-employment, dividends and distributions received from investments, rental
receipts from real estate investments, and profit sharing from businesses.

Personal Income (PI) = National Income – Undistributed profits – Net interest payments made by households –
Corporate tax + Transfer payments to the households from the government and firms.

10) Consider the following statements.

1. GDPs evaluated at current market price is not the right metric to compare the GDP figures of different
countries.
2. Nominal GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods and services are evaluated at some constant
set of prices.
3. If the Real GDP changes, we can be sure that it is the volume of production which is undergoing
changes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3

Solution: c)

In order to compare the GDP figures (and other macroeconomic variables) of different countries or to compare
the GDP figures of the same country at different points of time, we cannot rely on GDPs evaluated at current
market prices. For comparison we take the help of real GDP. Real GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods
and services are evaluated at some constant set of prices (or constant prices).
Since these prices remain fixed, if the Real GDP changes, we can be sure that it is the volume of production
which is undergoing changes. Nominal GDP, on the other hand, is simply the value of GDP at the current
prevailing prices.

11) Consider the following statements regarding Federal Funds Rate (FFR).
1. The FFR is the interest rate at which commercial banks in the US borrow from each other overnight.
2. Like in India, where the RBI decides the repo rate, the Federal Reserve directly specifies the Federal
Funds Rate.
3. When the Federal Reserve wants to raise the prevailing interest rates in the US economy, it reduces the
money supply.
How many of the above options are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

What is the Federal Funds Rate (FFR) and how does the US Fed tweak it?
The FFR is the interest rate at which commercial banks in the US borrow from each other overnight. Arguably, if
banks borrow at higher rates from each other, they will also lend the money to consumers at a higher rate.
Now, unlike in India, where the RBI decides what the repo rate (or the interest rate at which RBI lends money to
banks) will be, in the US, the Fed can’t directly specify the FFR. Instead, it tries to “target” the FFR by controlling
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the money supply. So when the Fed wants to raise the prevailing interest rates in the US economy, it reduces
the money supply. This forces every bank in the economy to charge higher interest rates. The process starts with
commercial banks charging higher interest rates to lend to each other for overnight loans.

12) ‘Monetary Base’, managed by the Reserve Bank of India, consists of

1. Deposits held by the Government of India with RBI
2. Sum total of the capital of all financial institutions regulated by RBI
3. Notes and coins in circulation with the public
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Monetary Base is also called as High powered money.

It consists of currency (notes and coins in circulation with the public and vault cash of commercial banks) and
deposits held by the Government of India and commercial banks with RBI.
If a member of the public produces a currency note to RBI the latter must pay her value equal to the figure
printed on the note.
Similarly, the deposits are also refundable by RBI on demand from deposit-holders. These items are claims which
the general public, government or banks have on RBI and hence are considered to be the liability of RBI.

13) ‘Money illusion’, a phrase coined by Keynes, is mainly caused by an ignorance of the real detrimental effect of
a) high unemployment
b) recession
c) low interest rates
d) inflation

Solution: d)

Money illusion is an economic theory positing that people have a tendency to view
their wealth and income in nominal dollar terms, rather than in real terms. In other words, it is assumed that
people do not take into account the level of inflation in an economy, wrongly believing that a dollar is worth
the same as it was the prior year.
Money illusion is sometimes also referred to as price illusion.

14) Consider the following statements regarding RBI’s Open Market Operations (OMOs).
1. OMOs can be used to tame short-term inflation in the economy.
2. They are to be mandatorily conducted once every year to adjust liquidity in the security markets.
3. No intermediaries such as commercial banks are involved in OMOs.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

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• OMOs are conducted by the RBI by way of sale or purchase of government securities (g-secs) to adjust money
supply conditions.
• RBI carries out the OMO through commercial banks and does not directly deal with the public.
• The central bank sells g-secs to suck out liquidity from the system and buys back g-secs to infuse liquidity into
the system.
• These operations are often conducted on a day-to-day basis in a manner that balances inflation while
helping banks continue to lend.
• The RBI uses OMO along with other monetary policy tools such as repo rate, cash reserve ratio and statutory
liquidity ratio to adjust the quantum and price of money in the system.
• When the RBI wants to increase the money supply in the economy, it purchases the government securities
from the market and it sells government securities to suck out liquidity from the system.

15) Consider the following statements regarding the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF).
1. MSF functions as the last resort for banks to borrow short-term funds over and above that available
under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility Window (LAF).
2. MSF is an extraordinary rate at which banks can borrow money from the central bank by a much
cheaper route than repo rate.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Marginal standing facility (MSF) is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an
emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely.

Banks borrow from the central bank by pledging government securities at a rate higher than the repo rate under
liquidity adjustment facility or LAF in short.

Under MSF, banks can borrow funds up to one percentage of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL).

16) Consider the following statements regarding RBI Retail Direct (RBI-RD) scheme.
1. RBI Retail Direct (RBI-RD) scheme facilitates investment in Government Securities by Individual
Investors.
2. The scheme provides investors an opportunity to invest only in primary market and not in secondary
market.
3. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB) are kept out of the scheme.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Retail Direct Scheme. The scheme provides investors an opportunity to invest in
government securities in a safe and hassle-free way, in the primary and secondary market. Government
securities under this scheme, includes Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills), Government of India dated
securities (dated G-Sec), State Development Loans (SDLs), Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB).

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Retail Direct Scheme offers retail investors the opportunity to buy securities directly and free of charges.
Individual retailers can open a Gilt Securities Account, called a Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) account with RBI to
participate in the buying and selling of government securities.

17) As per Classical Economic thought

1. Markets function best without government interference
2. If the buyers and sellers in each market take their decisions following only their own self -interest,
markets will collapse.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Classical thought is also known as the non-interventionist school.

As per them, markets function best without government interference.
Classical economists observe that markets generally regulate themselves, when free of coercion. Adam Smith
referred to this as a metaphorical "invisible hand," which moves markets toward their natural equilibrium. So, if
everyone acts in their self-interest, there will be no market collapse.

In contrast to classical economics, Keynesian economics supports policies such as government intervention,
deficit spending, control of the money supply, and a progressive income tax to counter recession and income
inequality.
Most classical economists reject these ideas. They assert that state intervention makes situations of economic
slowdown worse.

18) Consider the following statements.

1. In a floating exchange rate system, market forces determine the value of a currency.
2. The demand for rupees in the forex market depends on foreign demand for Indian exports.
3. Currency appreciation encourages a country’s export activity as its products and services become
cheaper to buy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b)

In the forex market, the supply of rupees is determined by the demand for imports and various foreign assets.
So, if there is high demand to import oil, it can lead to an increase in the supply of rupees in the forex market and
cause the rupee’s value to drop. The demand for rupees in the forex market, on the other hand, depends on
foreign demand for Indian exports and other domestic assets. So, for instance, when there is great enthusiasm
among foreign investors to invest in India, it can lead to an increase in the supply of dollars in the forex market
which in turn causes the rupee’s value to rise against the dollar.

Appreciation Vs Depreciation:
● In a floating exchange rate system, market forces (based on demand and supply of a currency) determine the
value of a currency.
● Currency Appreciation: It is an increase in the value of one currency in relation to another currency.
● Currencies appreciate against each other for a variety of reasons, including government policy, interest rates,
trade balances and business cycles.

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● Currency appreciation discourages a country’s export activity as its products and services become costlier to
buy.

19) Consider the following statements regarding BSE SENSEX.

1. The BSE SENSEX is a free-float market-weighted stock market index of 100 well-established and
financially sound companies listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange.
2. It is considered the benchmark index of the Indian stock market.
3. DOLLEX-30, launched by BSE, is a dollar-linked version of the SENSEX.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Sensex is the benchmark index of the BSE in India. It was launched on January 1, 1986 as a basket of 30 stocks
representing the country's largest, financially-sound companies listed on the BSE.

The Sensex reflects the movements in the Indian stock market. It is considered the benchmark index of the
Indian stock market.

In 2001 BSE launched DOLLEX-30, a dollar-linked version of the SENSEX.

20) Hard currency is usually preferred because

1. It is seen as politically and economically stable.
2. It is not likely to depreciate or appreciate suddenly.
3. It is widely accepted around the world as a form of payment for goods and services.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

Hard currency refers to money that is issued by a nation that is seen as politically and economically stable. Hard
currencies are widely accepted around the world as a form of payment for goods and services and may be
preferred over the domestic currency.
A hard currency is expected to remain relatively stable through a short period of time, and to be highly liquid in
the forex or foreign exchange (FX) market. The most tradable currencies in the world are the U.S. dollar (USD),
European euro (EUR) and Japanese yen (JPY). They are not generally prone to dramatic depreciation or
appreciation.

21) The economic theory of wage-price spiral is mainly used in the context of
a) Balance of Payments
b) Current Account Deficit
c) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
d) Inflation

Solution: d)

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What is the wage-price spiral?
If prices go up, it is natural that workers will ask for higher wages. But if wages go up, it only fuels the overall
demand, while doing nothing to boost the supply. End result: inflation surges further because while a worker has
more money, so does his colleague. When they go to the market then the only thing that changes is the price of
the good — in other words, inflation rises.
Raising interest rates slows down overall economic activity and demand, often leading to job losses. Through this
rather unjust and iniquitous method, the central banks prevent a wage -price spiral and consequent inflation.

22) Consider the following statements.

1. Phillips Curve is an economic concept stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable and
inverse relationship.
2. Stagflation is an economic scenario where an economy faces high inflation and low growth and high
unemployment at the same time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Stagflation is an economic scenario where an economy faces both high inflation and low growth (and high
unemployment) at the same time.

The Phillips curve states that inflation and unemployment have an inverse relationship. Higher inflation is
associated with lower unemployment and vice versa.

23) Which of the following statements best describe the ‘hawkish stance in RBI monetary policy’?
a) RBI can either cut rate or increase rate.
b) Cut in the interest rate by RBI is off the table.
c) RBI’s top priority is to keep the inflation low.
d) RBI is prepared to expand the money supply to boost economic growth.

Solution: c)

A hawkish stance indicates that the central bank’s top priority is to keep the inflation low. During such a phase,
the central bank is willing to hike interest rates to curb money supply and thus reduce the demand. A hawkish
policy also indicates tight monetary policy.

24) Consider the following statements.

1. Deflation refers to a period when even though prices are rising it is happening at a slower rate each
passing month.
2. Disinflation is the exact opposite of inflation.
3. Reflation typically follows deflation as policymakers try to pump up economic activity either by
government spending more and/or interest rates being reduced.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only statement 3 is correct.

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Disinflation refers to the trend when the inflation rate decelerates. Suppose it was 10% in April, 7% in May and
5% in June. This is disinflation. In other words, disinflation refers to a period when even though prices are rising
(or inflation is happening), it is happening at a slower rate each passing month.

Deflation is the exact opposite of inflation. Imagine if the general prices level in June was 5% lower than what it
was in June last year. That’s deflation.

Reflation typically follows deflation as policymakers try to pump up economic activity either by government
spending more and/or interest rates being reduced.

25) Under the RBI Act, 1934, if the central bank fails to meet the inflation target for three consecutive quarters, it
is required to provide the following information to the government
1. Reasons for the failure to achieve the inflation target
2. Remedial actions proposed to be taken
3. An estimate of the time period within which the inflation target shall be achieved
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: c)

Under the RBI Act, 1934, if the central bank fails to meet the inflation target for three consecutive quarters, it is
required to provide the following information to the government:
• reasons for the failure to achieve the inflation target;
• remedial actions proposed to be taken; and
• an estimate of the time period within which the inflation target shall be achieved pursuant to timely
implementation of the proposed remedial actions.

26) Consider the following statements regarding Economic Survey.

1. Economic Survey is a detailed report of the state of the national economy in the financial year that is
coming to a close.
2. It is prepared by the Department of Expenditure in the Union Finance Ministry, under the guidance of
the Chief Economic Adviser.
3. The assessment and recommendations carried out in the survey are binding on the Budget.
4. The first Economic Survey was presented for 1950-51 and since then it is released a day before the
Budget.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

The Economic Survey is a detailed report of the state of the national economy in the financial year that is
coming to a close. It is prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) in the
Union Finance Ministry, under the guidance of the Chief Economic Adviser. Once prepared, the Survey is
approved by the Finance Minister.

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The first Economic Survey of India was presented in 1950-51 as part of the Union Budget. After 1964 it was
separated from the Budget and presented each year during the Budget Session before the presentation of the
budget

Even though it comes just a day before the Budget, the assessment and recommendations carried out in the
survey are not binding on the Budget.

27) How would you distinguish between the capital and revenue receipts of the government?
1. Capital receipts are always debt creating unlike revenue receipts.
2. Revenue receipts are non-redeemable unlike certain capital receipts.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

The main difference between revenue receipts and capital receipts is that in the case of revenue receipts,
government is under no future obligation to return the amount, i.e., they are non-redeemable. But In case of
capital receipts which are borrowings, government is under obligation to return the amount along with Interest.

Capital receipts may be debt creating or non-debt creating.

Examples of debt creating receipts are—Net borrowing by government at home, loans received from foreign
governments, borrowing from RBI. Examples of non-debt capital receipts are—Recovery of loans, proceeds from
sale of public enterprises (i.e., disinvestment), etc. These do not give rise to debt.

28) Consider the following statements regarding Inheritance tax.

1. It is a tax paid for inheriting a property or asset from a deceased person.
2. In India it can be as high as 55%.
3. Outstanding debts or liabilities are also included while assessing the value of all assets owned by the
deceased.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

Inheritance tax:
• It is a tax paid for inheriting a property or asset from a deceased person.
• It is levied on the value of the inheritance received by the beneficiary, and it is paid by the beneficiary.
• Depending on the country, it can be as high as 55%.
• A person can receive inheritance either under a Will or under the personal law of the deceased.
• In India, the concept of levying tax on inheritance does not exist
• It involves assessing the value of all assets owned by the deceased, including real estate, investments, bank
accounts, vehicles, and personal belongings, while also considering any outstanding debts or liabilities.

29) Consider the following statements about perpetual bonds:

1. Perpetual bonds are considered part of the equity capital of a company.
2. They provide interest payments indefinitely, without a fixed maturity date.
3. The principal of perpetual bonds is repaid after a set period, usually 30 years.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
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b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect because perpetual bonds, although often used to bolster a company's Tier I capital, are
considered debt instruments rather than equity.

Statement 2 is correct as perpetual bonds are designed to provide interest payments indefinitely, with no fixed
maturity date for the repayment of the principal.

Statement 3 is incorrect because perpetual bonds do not have a fixed period after which the principal is repaid;
instead, they continue to exist as long as the issuer or the market supports them. This indefinite nature of
perpetual bonds makes them a distinct and sometimes risky investment compared to traditional bonds.

30) Consider the following statements about the risks of financialisation:

1. Excessive financialisation can lead to inflated asset prices, making markets vulnerable to crashes.
2. Financialisation tends to benefit wealthy individuals more than lower-income groups, contributing to
economic inequality.
3. Increased financialisation generally decreases the overall debt levels in an economy.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Excessive financialisation occurs when the financial sector dominates an economy, prioritizing profit -making
through financial instruments over productive activities.
• Statement 1 is correct: Excessive financialisation often inflates asset prices beyond their intrinsic value,
leading to speculative bubbles. When these bubbles burst, markets can crash, causing widespread
economic instability. The 2008 Global Financial Crisis is a prime example of this phenomenon.
• Statement 2 is correct: Financialisation disproportionately benefits wealthy individuals and large
corporations, as they have greater access to financial markets and instruments. This exacerbates
economic inequality, leaving lower-income groups with fewer benefits and potentially higher financial
burdens.

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• Statement 3 is incorrect: Financialisation frequently results in increased debt levels due to easy access to
credit, speculative investments, and leveraging by both households and corporations. This can amplify
systemic risks in the economy.

31) Consider the following statements.

1. A loan turns into a nonperforming asset (NPA), if the interest or instalment remains unpaid for a period
of more than 60 days.
2. To avoid classifying a loan as an NPA, banks adopt the evergreening of loans.
3. An accommodative monetary policy strictly restrict banks from indulging in evergreening of loans.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

The process of evergreening of loans, a form of zombie lending, is typically a temporary fix for a bank. If an
account turns into a non-performing asset (NPA), banks are required to make higher provisions which will impact
their profitability. A loan turns into a nonperforming asset, or NPA, if the interest or instalment remains unpaid
even after the due date — and remains unpaid for a period of more than 90 days.

So, to avoid classifying a loan as an NPA, banks adopt the evergreening of loans. In the past, many banks had
indulged in dressing up bad loans and given additional funds to companies who didn’t have the capacity to repay.
An accommodative monetary policy creates an enabling environment for weak banks to evergreen loans to
zombies and keeps them alive. The RBI has been following an accommodative policy since March 2020 when the
pandemic struck the country. Most of the evergreening has happened in public sector banks which subsequently
led to a jump in NPAs.

32) The central belief of Keynesian economics is that:

a) The government intervention cannot stabilize the economy.
b) The government intervention can stabilize the economy.
c) Higher taxes are required to stimulate demand and pull economy out of depression.
d) None of the above is correct in this regard.

Solution: b)

Keynesian economics is a macroeconomic theory of total spending in the economy and its effects on output,
employment, and inflation. It was developed by British economist John Maynard Keynes during the 1930s in an
attempt to understand the Great Depression.

The central belief of Keynesian economics is that government intervention can stabilize the economy. Keynes’
theory was the first to sharply separate the study of economic behavior and individual incentives from the study
of broad aggregate variables and constructs.
Based on his theory, Keynes advocated for increased government expenditures and lower taxes to stimulate
demand and pull the global economy out of the Depression.

33) Which of the following provides an accurate definition of the term 'monopsony'?
a) A single entity serving as the sole supplier of a specific commodity or service.
b) An industry controlled by a few major suppliers.
c) An industry dominated by a small group of buyers.
d) A single buyer having significant control over the market.

Solution: d)

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A monopsony occurs when a market is characterized by the presence of just one buyer, known as the
monopsonist. This market structure empowers the monopsonist to wield significant influence as the primary
purchaser of goods and services from numerous potential sellers.
An oligopoly, on the other hand, arises when a small number of firms hold sway over a market. When a market is
primarily controlled by a handful of companies, it is considered highly concentrated.
In contrast, a monopoly occurs when a single firm is the exclusive producer of goods or services without any near
equivalents or substitutes.

34) Which of the following constitute the ‘Public debt’ of India?

1. Liabilities of Central Government contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India
2. Liabilities that are accrued through transactions associated with the Public Account
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Public Debt refers to the obligations that the Central Government is responsible for, which are incurred against
the Consolidated Fund of India, as specified in Article 292 of the Constitution of India. This definition excludes
any liabilities that are accrued through transactions associated with the Public Account.

Public Debt is further categorized into two primary categories: Internal Debt and External Debt. Internal debt can
be divided into marketable and non-marketable securities. Marketable government securities encompass G -secs
and T-Bills that are issued through an auction mechanism. Non-marketable securities include intermediate
treasury bills issued to state governments, special securities issued to the National Small Savings Fund, among
other similar instruments.

35) Consider the following statements regarding Follow-on Public Offer (FPO).
1. A follow-on public offer (FPO) is the additional issuance of shares to investors by a company listed on a
stock exchange.
2. It is made by a company after the initial public offering (IPO).
3. Companies usually announce FPOs to raise equity or reduce debt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

• A follow-on public offer (FPO), also known as a secondary offering, is the additional issuance of shares after
the initial public offering (IPO).
• Companies usually announce FPOs to raise equity or reduce debt.
• The two main types of FPOs are dilutive—meaning new shares are added—and non-dilutive—meaning
existing private shares are sold publicly.
• Follow-on offerings are also known as secondary offerings.

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4. Art and Culture

1) Consider the following statements regarding Dholavira.
1. Here the walls were made of sandstone or limestone instead of mud bricks in many other Harappan
sites.
2. It was a hub of manufacturing jewellery made of shells and semi-precious stones.
3. Extensive mortal remains of humans have been discovered at Dholavira.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The site has a fortified citadel, a middle town and a lower town with walls made of sandstone or limestone
instead of mud bricks in many other Harappan sites.

Archaeologists cites a cascading series of water reservoirs, outer fortification, two multi-purpose grounds — one
of which was used for festivities and as a marketplace — nine gates with unique designs, and funerary
architecture featuring tumulus — hemispherical structures like the Buddhist Stupas— as some of the unique
features of the Dholavira site.

While unlike graves at other IVC sites, no mortal remains of humans have been discovered at Dholavira.

Remains of a copper smelter indicate of Harappans, who lived in Dholavira, knew metallurgy. It is believed that
traders of Dholavira used to source copper ore from present-day Rajasthan and Oman and UAE and export
finished products. It was also a hub of manufacturing jewellery made of shells and semi-precious stones, like
agate and used to export timber.

2) Consider the following statements regarding Gupta Art and Architecture.

1. Both the Nagara and Dravidian styles of art evolved during this period.
2. Metallurgy had made a wonderful progress during the Gupta period.
3. It had extensive influence of Gandhara style.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Both the Nagara and Dravidian styles of art evolved during this period. But most of the architecture of this
period had been lost due to foreign invasions like that of Huns.

The temple at Deogarh near Jhansi and the sculptures in the temple at Garhwas near Allahabad remain important
specimen of the Gupta art. There was no influence of Gandhara style. But the beautiful statue of
standing Buddha at Mathura reveals a little Greek style.

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Metallurgy had also made a wonderful progress during the Gupta period. The craftsmen were efficient in the art
of casting metal statues and pillars. The Delhi Iron pillar of the Gupta period is still free from rust though
completely exposed to sun and rain for so many centuries.

3) Consider the following statements regarding North Indian Temple Style.

1. In North India it is common for an entire temple to be built on a stone platform with steps leading up to
it.
2. It does usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways.
3. The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as nagara. In North India it is
common for an entire temple to be built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it. Further, unlike in South
India it does not usually have elaborate boundary walls or gateways. While the earliest temples had just one
tower, or shikhara, later temples had several. The garbhagriha is always located directly under the tallest tower.

4) Consider the following statements regarding the temple architecture of Kashmir.

1. Kashmir’s proximity to prominent Gandhara sites lent the region a strong Gandhara influence.
2. The Karkota period of Kashmir is most significant in terms of architecture.
3. There was a tradition of a water tank attached to the shrine.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: c)

Kashmir’s proximity to prominent Gandhara sites (such as Taxila, Peshawar and the northwest frontier) lent the
region a strong Gandhara influence by the fifth century CE.

The Karkota period of Kashmir is the most significant in terms of architecture. One of the most important
temples is Pandrethan, built during the eighth and ninth centuries. In keeping with the tradition of a water tank
attached to the shrine, this temple is built on a plinth built in the middle of a tank. Although there are evidences
of both Hindu and Buddhist followings in Kashmir, this temple is a Hindu one, possibly dedicated to Shiva. The
architecture of this temple is in keeping with the age-old Kashmiri tradition of wooden buildings.

5) Consider the following statements regarding Vesara School of architecture.

1. In the Vesara School of architecture, the pillars, doorways and the ceilings were decorated with
intricate carvings.
2. The Influence of Nagara style is in intricate carvings and sculptures, design of Vimana and Step or
terraced Shikara of Vesara temples.
3. The Influence of Dravida style is seen in Curvilinear Shikhara and square base of Vesara temples.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Also known as the Karnataka school of architecture, it was conceptualized under the later Chalukya rulers in the
mid-seventh century A.D. It combined features of both Nagara school and Dravidian school and resulted in
a hybridised style. Some of its features are:
• Emphasis on vimana and mandapa
• Open ambulatory passageway
• The pillars, doorways and the ceilings were decorated with intricate carvings.

Influence of Nagara style is in Curvilinear Shikhara and square base of Vesara temples.

Influence of Dravida style is seen in intricate carvings and sculptures, design of Vimana and Step or terraced
Shikara of Vesara temples.

Example: Doddabasappa temple at Dambal, Ladkhan temple at Aihole, temples at Badami etc.

6) Which of the following statement about Saptak is correct?

a) Emotions which are evoked through singing.
b) The rhythmic groupings of beats.
c) The seven swaras.
d) A system of classification of the ragas in different groups.

Solution: c)

• The seven swaras together are called Saptak or Sargam.

• The emotions which are evoked through the singing and playing of instruments are called Rasas.
• The rhythmic grouping of beats are called Tala.
• A system of classification of the ragas in different groups are called Thaat.

7) Consider the following:

1. Temple at Deogarh near Jhansi
2. Giant copper statue of Buddha originally found at Sultanganj
3. Delhi Iron pillar
4. Bagh caves paintings
The above statements belong to which of the following dynasties of India?
a) Paramara
b) Guptas
c) Peshwas
d) Western Ganga

Solution: b)

• The Delhi Iron pillar of the Gupta period is still free from rust though completely exposed to sun and rain for
so many centuries.
• The paintings of the Gupta period are seen at Bagh caves near Gwalior.
• Moreover, the mural paintings of Ajantha mostly illustrate the life of the Buddha as depicted in the Jataka
stories.
• There was little influence of Gandhara style on Gupta art. But the beautiful statue of standing Buddha at
Mathura reveals a little Greek style. The Buddha statue unearthed at Saranath was unique piece of Gupta art.

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8) Consider the following statements.

1. Udayagiri caves are famous for the Hathigumpha inscription which is carved out in Devanagari script.
2. Stupas became larger and more decorative in the post- Mauryan period.
3. The Gandhara School of Art had the influence of Greek and Roman traditions.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

Udayagiri caves are famous for the Hathigumpha inscription which is carved out in Brahmi script.

Stupas became larger and more decorative in the post- Mauryan period. Stone was increasingly used in place of
wood and brick.

The Gandhara School of Art developed in the western frontiers of Punjab, near modern day Peshawar and
Afghanistan. The Greek invaders brought with them the traditions of the Greek and Roman sculptors, which
influenced the local traditions of the region.
Thus, Gandhara School also came to be known as Greco-Indian School of Art.

9) According to experts, which of the following statements regarding Kalibangan is/are correct?
1. Kalibangan in Rajasthan has given the evidence of the earliest ploughed agricultural field ever revealed
through an excavation.
2. It is also a site which has given an evidence of earliest archaeologically recorded Earthquake.
Select the correct answer code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Kalibangan has given the evidence of the earliest (2800 BC) ploughed agricultural field ever revealed through an
excavation as per Dr. B Lal. It is also a site which has given an evidence of earliest recorded “Earthquake”.

10) Aihole inscription, is known as the Cradle of Indian architecture, was issued under the reign of
a) Chalukyas
b) Pallavas
c) Rashtrakutas
d) Marathas

Solution: a)

• Aihole was the first capital of Chalukyas where they built numerous temples dating back to the 6th century
CE.
• Many inscriptions found at Aihole, but the inscription which found at Meguti Temple popularly known as
Aihole inscription, which has the significance in the history of India, witnessed for the many historical events
of Chalukyas.
• The Aihole inscription issued by Pulakeshin II gives the details of his reign.

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5. History
1) Consider the following statements regarding the Landholders Society:
1. The Landholders Society was established to promote the rights of landlords in British India.
2. Its methods included using armed protests and mass mobilization to pressurize the British authorities.
3. The Landholders Society marked the beginning of organized political activity in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Solution: a)

Statement 1 is correct: Landholders Society, also known as the Zamindari Association, was indeed founded in
1838 to protect the interests of landlords.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Society used constitutional agitation rather than armed protests or mass
mobilization, focusing on peaceful methods for redressal of grievances.
Statement 3 is correct: The establishment of the Landholders Society was a significant development, marking the
beginning of organized political activities in India.

2) Consider the following statements regarding the issues raised by the Bombay Association:
1. It petitioned for the abolition of certain taxes on Indian goods.
2. The Association highlighted the lavish expenditure on administrative posts held by Europeans.
3. It focused on ensuring that Indians would hold all top administrative positions in British India.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect as there is no record that the Bombay Association specifically demanded the
abolition of taxes on Indian goods.
• Statement 2 is correct. The Association indeed criticized the lavish spending on posts given to Europeans,
highlighting how this was detrimental to Indian interests.
• Statement 3 is incorrect as the Bombay Association did not aim to place Indians in all top positions but rather
advocated for fair representation and inclusion.

3) With reference to modern history of India, consider the following statements:

1. The French position in India strengthened with the outbreak of war between the Dutch and the French.
2. The Treaty of Ryswick restored Pondicherry to the French and made the Dutch to immediately leave
India.
3. Under Francois Martin, Pondicherry turned out to be an important settlement of the French in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Solution: a)

Statement 1 is not correct: The French position in India was badly affected with the outbreak of war between the
Dutch and the French.
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Bolstered by their alliance with the English since the Revolution of 1688, the Dutch captured Pondicherry in 1693.

Statement 2 is not correct: Although the Treaty of Ryswick concluded in September 1697 restored Pondicherry to
the French, the Dutch garrison held on to it for two more years.

Statement 3 is correct: Once again, under Francois Martin’s able guidance Pondicherry flourished and turned out
to be the most important settlement of the French in India.

4) Consider the following statements regarding the Status of Education in India in the 18th century:
1. Elementary education was widespread among both Hindus and Muslims.
2. Chatuspathis and Maktabs were essentially the centers of higher education.
3. The study of natural sciences was highly prioritized along with ancient learning.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

• Option (a) is correct: The education imparted in 18th-century India was still traditional which could not match
with the rapid developments in the West.
• The knowledge was confined to literature, law, religion, philosophy, and logic and excluded the study of
physical and natural sciences, technology and geography.
• In fact, due to over-reliance placed on ancient learning, any original thought got discouraged.
• Elementary education among the Hindus and the Muslims was quite widespread. The Hindu and Muslim
elementary schools were called pathshalas and maktabs respectively. The education was confined to
reading, writing, and arithmetic.
• Children from the lower caste sometimes attended the schools, but female presence was rare. Chatuspathis
or Tols, as they were called in Bihar and Bengal, were the centres of higher education.

5) With reference to the Rowlatt Act of 1919, consider the following statements:
1. It was passed even when every Indian member of the Central Legislative Council opposed it leading the
members to resign from the Council.
2. It enabled the Government to suspend the right of Habeas Corpus which was the foundation of civil
liberties in Britain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

• In March 1919, it passed the Rowlatt Act even though every single Indian member of the Central Legislative
Council opposed it.
• Three of them, Mohammed Ali Jinnah, Madan Mohan Malaviya and Mazhar-ul-Huq resigned their
membership of the Council.
• This Act authorised the Government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law.
• The Act would thus also enable the Government to suspend the right of Habeas Corpus which had been the
foundation of civil liberties in Britain.

6) Consider the following statements regarding Mohenjo-Daro:

1. Evidence of double burial (male and female)

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2. Cultivation of rice
3. Pasupati seals
4. Steatite image of bearded men
How many of the above evidences have been found from Mohenjo-Daro?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: b)

Options 3 and 4 are correct.

Mohenjo-Daro (Indus river) (mounds of Dead)

• 2nd Indus site to be discovered
• Great granary (the largest building)
• Pasupati seals
• Bronze dancing girl
• Steatite image of bearded men said to be the priest
• 3 cylindrical seals of Mesopotamia
• Great Bath
• Hordes of Skeletons found on stairs (indicating warfare)
• Multi-pillar assembly halls
• Mohenjo-Daro has no cemeteries
• Bronze mirror, needle, saw, and the Bronze statue of the bull

7) Consider the followings:

1. Amazonite
2. Gold
3. Teak
4. Lapis Lazuli
Which of the above item/s was/were imported by Harappan people?
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) All of these

Solution: c)

Import Items by Harappan People: Jade (from Central Asia); Turquoise (from Khorasan); Lapis Lazuli, Gold, Silver,
Tin (from Afghanistan) (Gold was also obtained from Iran and Kolar mines in Karnataka); Steatite (Iran).

8) Consider the following statements regarding the ruler Harshvardhana.

1. Hiuen Tsang converted him to Hinayana Buddhism.
2. He abolished the dowry system in his kingdom.
3. He organized a religious assembly at Kanauj.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1, 2
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 3

Solution: a)

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• In his early life, Harsha was a devout Saiva but later he became an ardent Hinayana Buddhist.
• Hiuen Tsang converted him to Mahayana Buddhism. Harsha prohibited the use of animal food in his
kingdom and punished those who kill any living being.
• Dowry system was prevalent in Harsha’s empire.
• Harsha organized a religious assembly at Kanauj to honour the Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang towards the close
of his reign. He invited representatives of all religious sects.

9) As the rulers of the mahajanapadas of the Common Era were building huge forts maintaining big armies, they
needed more resources for which they collected taxes. Consider the following about it.
1. Taxes on crop were fixed at a certain share of the total produce.
2. Craft persons were made to pay taxes.
3. Hunter gatherers and herders were exempt from taxes as it was not possible to enumerate them as a
part of any specific empire.
4. Trade was tax-free but a surcharge was levied on special category of goods.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: b)

Statement 1 and 2 is correct.

Statement 1: Taxes on crops were the most important. This was because most people were farmers. Usually, the
tax was fixed at 1/6th of what was produced. This was known as bhaga or a share.

Statement 2: These could have been in the form of labour. For example, a weaver or a smith may have had to
work for a day every month for the king.

Statement 3: Herders were also expected to pay taxes in the form of animals and animal produce. And hunters
and gatherers also had to provide forest produce to the raja. So, 3 is incorrect.

Statement 4: There were also taxes on goods that were bought and sold, through trade. So, 4 is also incorrect.

10) Consider the following statements

1. Mughals were descendants of Genghis Khan.
2. The Mughals did not like to be called Mughal or Mongol.
3. They celebrated their genealogy pictorially, each ruler getting a picture made of Timur and himself.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: c)

Who were the Mughals?

The Mughals were descendants of two great lineages of rulers. From their mother’s side they were descendants
of Genghis Khan (died 1227), the Mongol ruler who ruled over parts of China and Central Asia. From their father’s
side they were the successors of Timur (died 1404), the ruler of Iran, Iraq and modern -day Turkey.

However, the Mughals did not like to be called Mughal or Mongol. This was because Genghis Khan’s memory
was associated with the massacre of innumerable people. It was also linked with the Uzbegs, their Mongol
competitors. On the other hand, the Mughals were proud of their Timurid ancestry, not least of all because the ir
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great ancestor had captured Delhi in 1398.
They celebrated their genealogy pictorially, each ruler getting a picture made of Timur and himself.

11) The Indian League was started by

a) Surendranath Banerjee
b) Ananda Mohan Bose
c) Sisir Kumar Ghosh
d) G. Subramania Iyer

Solution: c)

Sisir Kumar Ghosh established the Indian League in 1875 to ignite nationalist sentiments among Indians living in
Britain. The League played a crucial role in advocating for Indian rights and self -governance.

12) Consider the following statements regarding British Indian Association.

1. It was formed by the amalgamation of the Landholders’ Society and the East India Association.
2. The object of the Association was to secure improvements in the local administration of the country
and in the system of government laid down by Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

British Indian Association was founded on October 29, 1851 at Calcutta with Raja Radhakanta Dev and
Debendranath Tagore as its President and Secretary respectively. Its membership was kept exclusive to Indians.

It was formed by the amalgamation of the Landholders’ Society and the Bengal British India Society.

The object of the Association was 'to secure improvements in the local administration of the country and in the
system of government laid down by Parliament'. The Association gave leadership to remove the existing defects
in the laws and civil administration of the country and to promote greater welfare of the Indians.

13) Consider the following statements regarding Historical Background of Women’s Reservation.
1. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided reservation for women in the legislature.
2. The issue of women’s reservation was discussed in the Constituent Assembly debates.
3. The 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution mandated all State governments to reserve one-
third of the seats for women in local bodies.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women separate electorates but did not reserve seats for them in
the legislature. It marked a step toward political participation for women.
The issue of women’s reservation was discussed in the Constituent Assembly debates. However, it was
rejected on the grounds that a democracy should provide representation to all groups.

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The 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution mandated all State governments to reserve one-third of the
seats for women in local bodies.

14) Consider the following statements regarding Battle of Haifa.

1. The Battle of Haifa, fought during World War II led to the unification of the Ottoman Empire.
2. Indian soldiers from princely states like Jodhpur played a crucial role in the battle.
3. Haifa is a northern Israeli port city bordering Mediterranean Sea.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Battle of Haifa (1918), fought during WW I as part of the Sinai and Palestine campaign, was historically
overlooked until research by Brig. M S Jodha shed light on the contributions of Indian soldiers.
• The Battle of Haifa had significant long-term effects, leading to the partition of the Ottoman Empire and the
creation of several modern states. Indian soldiers from princely states like Jodhpur (Jodhpur Lancers) played
a crucial role, providing resources and troops to the British Indian Army.
• Haifa Day commemorations were initiated in 2010, acknowledging the Indian soldiers’ contributions. Teen
Murti Chowk in India was renamed Teen Murti Haifa Chowk in honour of the Battle of Haifa’s centenary.
• Haifa is a northern Israeli port city built in tiers extending from the Mediterranean up the north slope
of Mount Carmel.

15) Which of the following act introduced the concept of separate electorates for Muslims?
a) Government of India Act, 1935
b) Government of India Act, 1919
c) Indian Councils Act, 1909
d) Indian Councils Act, 1892

Solution: c)

The Government of India Act 1909 (also known as the Morley-Minto Reform) introduced the concept of
separate electorates for Muslims.
This system of communal representation for Muslims introduced a constituency where only Muslim voters could
vote for Muslim candidates.

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16) Consider the following about the philosophy of Shri Aurobindo Ghosh.
1. He gave the concept of the Integral Yoga system.
2. He propounded the doctrine of no-Brahman or no-God.
3. He refuted the theory of evolution.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 1: Integral Yoga is a system of Yoga that synthesizes six branches of classical Yoga philosophy and
practice: Hatha, Raja, Bhakti, Karma, Jnana, and Japa Yoga.
His main literary works are The Life Divine, which deals with theoretical aspects of Integral Yoga; Synthesis of
Yoga, which deals with practical guidance to Integral Yoga; and Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol, an epic poem.

Statement 2: Sri Aurobindo argues that divine Brahman manifests as empirical reality through leela, or divine
play.
Instead of positing that the world we experience is an illusion (maya), Sri Aurobindo argues that world can evolve
and become a new world with new species, far above the human species just as human species have evolved
after the animal species.

Statement 3: Sri Aurobindo believed that Darwinism merely describes a phenomenon of the evolution of matter
into life, but does not explain the reason behind it, while he finds life to be already present in matter, because all
of existence is a manifestation of Brahman.
He argues that nature (which he interpreted as divine) has evolved life out of matter and then mind out of life.
All of existence, he argues, is attempting to manifest to the level of the supermind – that evolution had a purpose.

17) With reference to Surendranath Banerjee, consider the following statements.

1. He was called the Indian Burke.
2. He founded the Indian Association to agitate for political reforms.
3. He had convened the Servants of India Society which merged with the Indian National Congress.
4. He was the first Indian to become a Member of the British House of Commons.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: b)

Statement 1 and 2 is correct.

• Surendranath Banerjee was called the Indian Burke. He firmly opposed the Partition of Bengal.
• He founded the Indian Association (1876) to agitate for political reforms. He had convened the Indian
National Conference (1883) which merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886.
• Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society to train Indians to dedicate their lives to the
cause of the country.
• Dadabhai Naoroji was known as the Grand Old Man of India. He is regarded as India’s unofficial Ambassador
in England. He was the first Indian to become a Member of the British House of Commons.

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18) Consider the following statements regarding the INC’s session of Benaras (1905):
1. In Dec 1905, Benaras session was presided over by B G Tilak.
2. Extremists wanted to extend the boycott and swadeshi movement to regions outside Bengal but
moderates opposed it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2

Solution: b)

In Dec 1905, Benaras session was presided over by Gokhale.

Extremists wanted to extend the boycott and swadeshi movement to regions outside bengal but moderates
opposed it. Extremists wanted the people from all walks of life to participate in the movement eg. Lawyers,
government employees, students, etc.

19) Consider the following statements regarding the “Annulment of Partition of Bengal”:
1. Annulment of the partition was done in 1911.
2. It was done to curb the menace of the revolutionary terrorism.
3. As a result, Bengal remained undivided.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3

Solution: c)

Annulment of the partition was decided in 1911. Hence statement (1) is correct.
It was mainly done to curb the menace of the revolutionary terrorism. Hence statement (2) is correct.
Bihar and Orissa were taken out of Bengal and Assam was made a separate province. Hence statement (3) is
incorrect.

20) Consider the following statements regarding the Khudai Khidmatgars:

1. They worked under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.
2. They were pledged to non-violence and the freedom struggle.
3. They worked to support the Second Civil Disobedience Movement.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: c)

• The Second Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Gandhi on 12 March 1930 with his famous Dandi
March.
• Gandhi and his followers made salt in violation of the salt laws. This act was a symbol of the Indian people’s
refusal to live under British-made laws and therefore under British rule.
• The movement reached the extreme north-western corner of India and stirred the brave and hardy Pathans.
• Under the leadership of Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, popularly known as “the Frontier Gandhi”, the Pathans
organised the society of Khudai Khidmatgars (or Servants of God), known popularly as Red Shirts. They were
pledged to non-violence and the freedom struggle.
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6. Environment
1) Regarding Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs), consider the following statements:
1. ESZs are designated according to the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016) issued by the Ministry
of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
2. Only lands within a 10 km radius of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries are declared as ESZs.
3. These zones function as transition areas from regions needing higher protection to those requiring less
protection.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

• The National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016) provides guidelines for notifying Eco-Sensitive Zones by the
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
• While the general guideline is to declare ESZs within 10 km of protected areas, the government can also
notify areas beyond this limit if they include ecologically important regions or sensitive corridors.
• ESZs act as buffer zones, serving as transition areas from highly protected regions to those with lesser
protection levels.

2) Consider the following statements about National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries:
1. Wildlife Sanctuaries protect the entire ecosystem, including flora, fauna, and landscapes.
2. National Parks are areas reserved exclusively for wildlife, especially endangered and rare species.
3. National Parks receive a higher level of protection compared to Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

• National Parks protect the entire ecosystem, including flora, fauna, and landscapes. Wildlife Sanctuaries
primarily focus on the protection of wildlife species.
• Wildlife Sanctuaries are areas reserved for the protection of wildlife, especially endangered and rare species.
National Parks aim to conserve entire ecosystems. So, Statement 1 and 2 is incorrect.
• National Parks are given a higher degree of protection, with stricter regulations on human activities compared
to Wildlife Sanctuaries.

3) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Only state governments have the authority to declare Wildlife Sanctuaries.
Statement II: The Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 provides for the declaration of Wildlife Sanctuaries by
state governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both statements are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I.
b) Both statements are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

Solution: d)

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
Statement I is incorrect. While state governments can declare Wildlife Sanctuaries, the central government can
also declare them under certain conditions.
Statement II is correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 empowers state governments to establish Wildlife
Sanctuaries.

4) Consider the following statements

1. Sacred groves in India enjoys exclusive protection under Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
2. Himachal Pradesh leads in state-wise distribution of sacred groves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

• Sacred groves comprise of patches of forests or natural vegetation – from a few trees to forests of several
acres – that are usually dedicated to local folk deities (Example – Ayyanar and Amman) or tree spirits
(Vanadevatais).
• These spaces are protected by local communities because of their religious beliefs and traditional rituals that
run through several generations. Sacred groves are not exclusively protected under Wildlife Protection Act,
1972.
• Himachal Pradesh leads in state-wise distribution of sacred groves.

5) Consider the following statements regarding Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC)

1. It is a statutory body under the Biological Diversity Act 2002.
2. The Chairperson of the Biodiversity Management Committee is Minister of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

What are Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC)?

• As per the Biological Diversity Act 2002, BMCs are created for “promoting conservation, sustainable use
and documentation of biological diversity” by local bodies across the country.
Composition:
• It shall consist of a chair person and not more than six persons nominated by the local body, of whom not
less than one third should be women and not less than 18% should belong to the Scheduled Castes/
Scheduled Tribes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Chairperson of the Biodiversity Management Committee shall be elected from amongst the members
of the committee in a meeting to be chaired by the Chairperson of the local body.
• The chairperson of the local body shall have the casting votes in case of a tie.
Functions:
• The main function of the BMC is to prepare People’s Biodiversity Register in consultation with the local
people. The Register shall contain comprehensive information on availability and knowledge of local
biological resources, their medicinal or any other use or any other.

6) Arrange the following levels of ecological organization from the smallest to the largest:
a) Community < Ecosystem < Biome < Biosphere
b) Community < Biosphere < Ecosystem < Biome

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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
c) Ecosystem < Community < Biosphere < Biome
d) Community < Biosphere < Ecosystem < Biome

Solution: a)

Ecosystem is the groups of organisms from all biological domains in conjunction with the physical (abiotic)
environment.
Biome is the continental scale (climatically and geographically contiguous areas with similar climatic conditions)
grouping of ecosystems. Biosphere or Ecosphere is all life plus the physical (abiotic) environment.

7) Consider the following statements regarding Eutrophication.

1. It is the process by which an entire body of water, or parts of it, becomes progressively enriched with
minerals and nutrients, particularly nitrogen and phosphorus.
2. It has also been defined as "nutrient-induced increase in phytoplankton productivity".
3. Water bodies with very low nutrient levels are termed mesotrophic and those with moderate nutrient
levels are termed oligotrophic.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Eutrophication is the process by which an entire body of water, or parts of it, becomes progressively enriched
with minerals and nutrients, particularly nitrogen and phosphorus. It has also been defined as "nutrient-induced
increase in phytoplankton productivity". Water bodies with very low nutrient levels are termed oligotrophic and
those with moderate nutrient levels are termed mesotrophic.

8) Consider the following statements regarding Mangrove:

1. It is a shrub or small tree that grows in coastal saline or brackish water.
2. Mangroves are a variety of species of broad-leaved trees (10–40 feet high) lying in muddy creeks and
tidal estuaries.
3. They are located on the intermediate zone between the land and the sea and represent one of the best
examples of ecotone.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: c)

A mangrove is a shrub or small tree that grows in coastal saline or brackish water. The term is also used for
tropical coastal vegetation consisting of such species.
Mangroves are a variety of species of broad-leaved trees (10–40 feet high) lying in muddy creeks and tidal
estuaries.
They are located on the intermediate zone between the land and the sea and represent one of the best examples
of ecotone.

9) Consider the followings:

1. Hard Underwater Surface
2. Warm Oceanic Water
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
3. Sediment-Free Water
4. Nutrient Supply
How many of the above are the environmental conditions required for the formation of coral reefs?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None

Solution: c)

Environmental conditions required for the formation of coral reefs:

• A hard-underwater surface like continental shelf or mid-oceanic ridges, is required for the compaction
and solidification of coral polyps’ skeletons.
• Coral polyps thrive in warm water with temperatures around 20 degrees Celsius.
• Coral reefs prefer relatively sediment-free water, as excessive sediment can impede respiration and
cause early death of coral polyps.
• Adequate nutrient supply is essential for the healthy development of coral polyps.

10) Consider the following statements:

1. Wildlife Sanctuaries provide protection to the entire ecosystem, that is, flora, fauna and landscape.
2. National Parks are reserved exclusively for wildlife uses especially those in danger of extinction and the
rare ones.
3. National parks are given a greater degree of protection than Wildlife Sanctuaries.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Only statement 3 is correct.

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides for the establishment of Protected Areas in India. There are different
categories of protected areas which are managed with different objectives for the larger motive of conservation.
National Parks provide protection to the entire ecosystem, that is, flora, fauna, landscape, etc. of that region.
The national parks not only conserve wildlife but also provide a diversion of environmental and landscape
heritage in a manner that does not harm it, in order to provide enjoyment to future generations. National parks
are given a greater degree of protection, with human activity greatly restricted. Only certain areas can be visited
and only activities permitted by the chief wildlife warden of the state are allowed in the park.

Wildlife Sanctuaries:
Wildlife Sanctuary, as the name implies, is the place that is reserved exclusively for wildlife use, which includes
animals, reptiles, insects, birds, etc. wild animals, especially those in danger of extinction and the rare ones, so
that they can live in peace for a lifetime and keep their population viable. Restrictions are less and open to
general public. Wildlife sanctuaries refer to an area that provides protection and living conditions favourable to
wild animals.

11) The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding are
1. Sodium Chloride
2. Potassium iodide
3. Dry ice
4. Silver iodide
How many of the above options is/are correct?
a) Only one
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Solution: d)

The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding include silver iodide, potassium iodide and dry ice. After
promising research, the use of hygroscopic materials, such as table salt (Sodium Chloride), is becoming more
popular.

12) Which of the following regions of India is the natural habitat of the `Great Indian Hornbill’?
a) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
b) Great Himalayan Range
c) Sand deserts of northwest India
d) Western Ghats

Solution: d)

The great Indian hornbill is one of the larger members of the hornbill family. It is found in the Indian subcontinent
and Southeast Asia. It is naturally found in Western Ghats.

13) Consider the following statements regarding Permafrost.

1. Permafrost is any ground that remains completely frozen for at least two years.
2. There is approximately twice as much carbon in permafrost than is currently in the Earth’s atmosphere.
3. They are located only in high latitudes around the Arctic and Antarctic regions.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: a)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Permafrost is any ground that remains completely frozen—32°F (0°C) or colder—for at least two years straight.
These permanently frozen grounds are most common in regions with high mountains and in Earth’s higher
latitudes—near the North and South Poles.

Permafrost covers large regions of the Earth. Almost a quarter of the land area in the Northern Hemisphere has
permafrost underneath. Although the ground is frozen, permafrost regions are not always covered in snow.

Most permafrost is located in high latitudes (in and around the Arctic and Antarctic regions), but at lower
latitudes alpine permafrost occurs at higher elevations.

It can also be located in the Southern Hemisphere, just on mountain tops. Permafrost frequently occurs in ground
ice, but it also can be presented in non-porous bedrock. Permafrost is formed from ice holding all different sorts
of soil, sand, and rock combination together.

There is approximately twice as much carbon in permafrost than is currently in the Earth’s atmosphere.

14) Consider the following statements regarding Echolocation.

1. Echolocation is a process for locating distant or invisible objects.
2. The technique uses sound waves.
3. Only animals can adapt to Echolocation.
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 INSTA STATIC QUIZ
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Solution: b)

Statement 3 is incorrect.

A technique used by animals such as dolphins, whales and bats to navigate their surroundings can also be used by
blind people to get around better and have greater independence and well-being, researchers at Durham
University in the UK have shown.

Using the method, called ‘echolocation’, animals emit sounds that bounce off objects and come back to them,
providing information about what is around them. The same technique helps blind people locate still objects by
producing clicking sounds from their mouth and hands.

15) Consider the following statements regarding Sea Snot.

1. Sea snot is a slimy layer of grey or green sludge in the sea.
2. It is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients as a result of water pollution combined with the
effects of climate change.
3. If unchecked, it can collapse to the bottom and cover the sea floor, causing major damage to the
marine ecosystem.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: d)

‘Sea snot’, a slimy layer of grey or green sludge in the seas, which can cause considerable damage to the marine
ecosystem.

‘Sea snot’ is marine mucilage that is formed when algae are overloaded with nutrients as a result of water
pollution combined with the effects of climate change. The nutrient overload occurs when algae feast on warm
weather caused by global warming. Water pollution adds to the problem.

If unchecked, this can collapse to the bottom and cover the sea floor, causing major damage to the marine
ecosystem.

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