14.

1 Turbine Engines LEVEL 1

14.1a

Q1. A helicopter would most likely be powered by a

1. turboshaft engine
2. turbofan engine
3. turboprop engine
Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q2. A compressor-diffuser discharges

1. low pressure air into the combustion chamber

2. high pressure air into the combustion chamber
3. high pressure air into the turbine section

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q3.From the front (intake) of the engine the following stages are in order

1. accessory, turbine, combustion

2. compressor, turbine, accessory
3. compressor, combustion, turbine

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q4. On a gas turbine engine what is the fan driven by?

1. HP turbine
2. LP turbine
3. IP turbine

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q5. What is an engine stage?

1. one rotor and one stator

2. one IGV and one rotor
3. one compressor rotor and one nozzle guide vane

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q6. A twin spool engine has

 1. one turbine on one shaft
2. two turbines on one shaft
3. two turbines on two shafts

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q7. A free turbine aircraft engine is most likely to be used on a

1. high bypass engine

2. a direct coupled engine
3. a helicopter engine

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q8. Gas turbines work on the

1. Otto cycle
2. Brayton cycle
3. Diesel cycle

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q9. Oil systems consists of

1. 2 systems
2. 3 systems
3. 4 systems

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q10. In a twin spool engine

1. the HP turbine drives both LP and HP compressors

2. theLP turbine drives the LP compressor and the HP turbine drives the HP compressor
3. the HP turbine drives the LP compressor and the LP turbine drives the HP compressor

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q11. The cycle of a gas turbine engine is

1. completed in one revolution of engine.

2. completed in two revolution of the engine.
3. continuous

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q12. Engines having two independent moving systems are

1. compound engines
2. twin spool engines
3. complex engines

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q13. The turbo-propeller engine derives its thrust from:

1. The torque of the propeller rotating the air in the slipstream.

2. The thrust from the jet.
3. The increased rearward momentum of the air in the slipstream.

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q14. A gearbox is used on turbo-prop/shaft engines to

1. reduce rpm and increase torque at the output shaft

2. increase rpm and torque at the output shaft
3. reduce rpm and torque at the output shaft

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q15. If the LP shaft shears.

1. turbine runaway occurs.
2. compressoroverspeed occurs.
3. compressorunderspeed occurs.
Explanation. The turbine drives the LP compressor or fan.

Q.16. The term Pt7 means.

A. pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
B. the total pressure at station No. 7.
C. the total inlet pressure.
Ans : the total pressure at station No. 7.

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q.17. What section provides proper mixing of the fuel and efficient burning of the
gases?.
A. Diffuser section and combustion section.
B. Combustion section and compressor section.
C. Combustion section only.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 3-21.
Q18. Of the following, which engine type would most likely have a noise
suppression unit installed?.
1. Turboprop.
2. Turbojet.
3. Turboshaft.

Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 3-57 refers.

Q.19. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle.

A. decreases.
B. increases.
C. is inversely proportional to the temperature.

Explanation. A&P Airframe Textbook Page 2-31 and 2-32.

Q.20. The symbol for designating the speed of a LP compressor in a twin spool
engine is.
1. N.
2. NG.
3. N1.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers to N1 for LP N2
for HP.

Q21. A turbojet engine is smoother running than a piston engine because.

A. the lubrication is better.

B. it runs at a lower temperature.
C. it has no reciprocating parts.
Ans : it has no reciprocating parts.

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Que.22. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?.

A. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.

B. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
C. Turbine, combustion, and stator.

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Que.23. When a volume of air is compressed.

1. heat is gained.
2. no heat is lost or gained.
 3. heat is lost.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas TurbinePowerplants Page 2-18 refers -assuming adiabatic.

Q.24. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.

A. increases.
B. remains constant.
C. decreases.
Ans : decreases.
Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q25. If a volume of a mass of air is 546 cubic feet at 273K, at 274K it will be.
1. 2 cubic feet greater.
2. 1/273 less by weight.
3. 2 cubic feet smaller.
Ans : 2 cubic feet greater.
Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q26. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle located?.

A. Exhaust.
B. Turbine.
C. Combustion.
Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q27. Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states:.
A. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
B. . Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration.
C. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless
acted upon by some outside force.

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q.28. A high bypass engine results in.

A. overall slower airflow and greater propulsive efficiency.
B. overall faster airflow.
C. greater propulsive efficiency.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 2-29 refers.

Q29. Bernoulli's Theorem states that at any point in a flow of gas.

A. the static pressure and dynamic pressure are equal.

B. the static pressure is less than the dynamic pressure.
C. the total energy remains constant.
Reference: EASA module 14.1a
 Q30. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant.
A. temperature cycle.
B. mass cycle.
C. pressure cycle.

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q.31. In a choked nozzle, velocity increases, and.

A. density decreases.
B. pressure decreases.
C. pressure increases.
Ans : pressure increases.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplant Page 2-23. As the nozzle goes sonic
the pressure starts to increase as a result of the shock wave.

Q.32. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature is.
A. 29°C.
B. 59°F.
C. 59°C.
Ans : 59°F.
Explanation. Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplant.

Q.33. Standard sea level pressure is.

A. 29.92 inches Hg.
B. 29.29 inches Hg.
C. 29.00 inches Hg.

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q.34. The highest pressure in a gas turbine is.

A. at the nozzle exit.
B. at the burner exit.
C. just after the last compressor stage but before the burner
Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 15 refers.

Q35. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.

A. remains constant.
B. increases.
C. decreases.
Ans : increases.

Explanation. Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q36. A turboprop engine derives its thrust by.
A. impingement of the prop-wash on the outside air.
B. reaction of the prop-wash.
C. reaction of the propulsion gases.
Explanation. Newtons Third Law.

Q37. Adiabatic compression is.

A. an isothermal process.
B. one where there is an increase in kinetic energy.
C. one where there is no loss or gain of heat.

Explanation. Sherwin and Horsley Thermodynamics Page 144 refers.

Q.38. In a ducted fan engine, the fan is driven by the.

A. turbine.
B. air passing over the compressor.
C. accessory gearbox.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Powerplant Page 2-9.

Q39. A modular constructed gas turbine engine means that.

A. all engines have a specific component layout.

B. the engine is constructed by the vertical assembly technique.
C. its major components can be removed and replaced without disturbing the rest
of the engine.
Explanation. The Dictionary of Aircraft Terms by Dale Crane has this definition.

Q.40. The accessory gearbox of a high bypass engine is.

A. on the HP Compressor housing.

B. in the forward bearing housing.
C. attached to the turbine casing.
Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Powerplant Page 3-9.

Q41. On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by?.

A. I P turbine.
B. LP turbine.
C. H P turbine.

Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 6 refers.

Q42. Which law relates to the kinetic, pressure, and potential energy in a fluid
flow?.
A. Bernoulli's theorem.
B. Newton's laws.
C. Charles's law.
.
Explanation. The sum of the energies in a system is constant. so if one decreases
another will increase.

Q.43. The density of gas may be expressed as.

A. volume/weight.
B. weight/volume.
C. pressure/volume.
Explanation. Basic Physics this one.

Q.44. E S HP is.
A. Horsepower/efficiency.
B. Shaft horse power + exhaust efflux.
C. Power available at the turbine less the power required to drive the
Explanation. Effective Shaft Horse Power is the measure of total power of a turbo
prop engine.

Q.45. A divergent duct will cause subsonic flow to decrease in.

A.velocity, increase pressure.
B. velocity, pressure remains constant.
C. pressure, increase velocity.

Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 13 fig 2-3 refers.

Q.46. The Brayton cycle is.

A. the name given to the intermittent cycling of an electrical de-icing
system.
B. the continuous combustion cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
C. the constant velocity cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine
Explanation. The Brayton Cycle is also known as the constant pressure cycle.

Q.47. The purpose of a diffuser is to.

A. increase the kinetic energy of the air.
B. induce a swirl to the air prior to combustion.
C. increase the static pressure of the air.
Explanation. Diffusers are always static divergent ducts.

Q.48. On a triple spool engine, the first stage of turbines drive.

A. the LP compressor.
B. the HP compressor.
C. the I P compressor.
 Explanation. Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Fig 2-5-2 refers.

Q.49. Ram effect is.

A. the increase of dynamic pressure at the face of the compressor.
B. conversion of static pressure to kinetic pressure at the face of the compressor.
C. conversion of kinetic energy to pressure energy at the face of the compressor.
Explanation. The greater the ram effect the greater the efficiency of the
propulsion system.

Q.50. Which of the following statements is true on a high bypass ratio turbofan?
A. Both the compressor and combustion system are larger than their turbojet
equivalent.
B. The compressor assembly is larger and combustion chamber smaller than their
turbojet equivalent.
C. Both the compressor and combustion chamber are smaller than the
turbojet equivalent.
Explanation. Smaller compressors and combustion chambers can be used on high
bypass fans as they are more efficient than turbo jets.

Q.51. In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system with a free power
turbine, Nf would be an indication of.
A. turbine thrust indication.
B. first stage compressor speed.
C. free power turbine speed.
Explanation. The free turbine drives the prop-shaft only.

Q.52. Awaisted drive shaft is primarily to.

A. achieve dynamic balance.
B. reduce weight.
C. provide a fuse if the driven component is overloaded.
Explanation. An example of this type of drive shaft is fitted between a gearbox and an
IDG .

Q.53. The 'core engine' or 'gas generator' is made up of the following components:.
A. Inlet, compressor, combustion chamber, turbine, exhaust.
B. Turbine, combustion chamber, compressor.
C. Compressor, turbine, exhaust, propelling nozzle.
Explanation. The core engine is that which the primary airflow passes(the air that
passes through the combustion chamber.The inlet is not included as the air is
normally split down the bypass duct at the entrance to the compressor system.

Q54. The principle of jet propulsion is.

A. the calorific value of fuel burnt is equal to aircraft.
B. the interaction of fluids and gases.
 C. every action has a equal and opposite reaction.
Explanation. This is Newtons Third Law.

Q55. Boyle's law states that, at constant temperature, if a gas is compressed.

A. its absolute pressure is proportional to its volume.
B. its absolute temperature is proportional to it's volume.
C. its absolute pressure is inversely proportional to its volume.
Explanation. If the volume is reduced the pressure goes up.

Q56. What part of a jet engine has the most potential energy?.

A. Immediately after the combustion chamber.

B. Just before the combustion chamber.
C. Immediately after the HP compressor.
Explanation. Where the fuel (unburned) is pumped in.

Q57. With a given throttle setting selected on a gas turbine engine, as the aircraft increases
altitude

A. engine rpm will increase and thrust will increase

B. engine rpm will remain constant and thrust will reduce
C. engine rpm will increase and thrust will reduce
D. Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q58. Which type of turbo-prop engine is practically free from surge and requires low power
for starting?

A. compounded twin spool

B. one using a centrifugal compressor
C. directly coupled

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q59. Thrust in a high bypass fan engine is indicated by

A. N1 RPM or EPR
B. N3 RPM or P1/P4 ratio
C. N1 RPM or N3 RPM

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q60. An aircraft flying at 800mph would typically use a _________ designed engine.

A. turbojet
 B. turbofan
C. turboprop

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q70. The optimum turbine speed is defined as t

A. the most efficient speed of the turbine

B. 100% rpm of the engine
C. 95 % rpm of the engine

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q71.The total power in a turboprop engine is the

A. SHP
B. ESHP
C. BHP

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q72. A gas turbine's propulsion force is produced by

A. reaction of the rearward moving gasses

B. impingement of the gasses on the surrounding air
C. induced airflow into the engine

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q73. On a modern twin-spool turbofan engine, the main handling parameter is

A. the temperature upstream the turbine or EGT

B. a rotational speed and a temperature
C. the rotational speed of the low-pressure compressor

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q74. On which type of turbo-propeller would you expect to find a parking brake?

A. direct coupled twin spool

B. free turbine
C. compounded twin spool

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q75. If one stage of a turbine is

A. NGV then one stage is turbine blade

B. turbine blade then one stage is NGV
C. IGV then one stage is turbine blade

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q76. Power is adjusted in a gas turbine engine by

A. increasing airflow to the combustion chamber

B. increasing air and fuel flow
C. increasing air and fuel flow

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q77. Power is adjusted in a variable pitch turboprop aircraft by

A. increasing RPM
B. increasing fuel flow
C. increasing pitch

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q78. In a gas turbine engine, if air is tapped from the HP bleed

A. EPR decreases and EGT increases

B. EPR stays constant and EGT decreases
C. EPR increases and EGT decreases

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q79.In a single spool gas turbine engine the compressor rev/min is

A. more than the turbine speed

B. less than the turbine speed
C. equal to the turbine speed

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q80. In a twin spool engine, what speed does the LP compressor run at?
 A. it depends on the compression ratio
B. at a higher rpm than the HP compressor
C. at a lower rpm than the HP compressor

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q81. In a ducted fan engine, the fan is driven by the

A. accessory gearbox
B. turbine
C. air passing over the compressor

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q82. An annular combustion chamber consists of

A. an air tube and a flame tube

B. an outer skin and an inner and outer flame skin
C. a series of flame tube in an air annulus

Reference: EASA module 14.1a.

Q83. Two main indications used to evaluate a turbojet thrust are

A. rotational speed of the fan (N1) or the total pressure at the outlet of the low-
pressure turbine
B. fan rotational speed (N1) or total pressure at the high-pressure compressor outlet
C. fan rotational speed (N1) or EPR

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q84. A compressor shaft rotates on

A. sintered bearings
B. ball and roller bearings
C. plain bearings

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q85. What is the pressure increase over one stage of a centrifugal compressor?
 A. 5:1
B. 1.2:1
C. 8:1

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q86. What percentage of air passing through the combustion section is burned?

A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 75%

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q87. The fan on a turbofan engine is rotated by induction of the air across the fan

A. into the compressor

B. the turbine section
C. the combustion chamber gases

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q88. The high bypass duct

A. drives a cabin air compressor

B. provides engine cooling
C. improves propulsive efficiency

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q89. The HP compressor is powered by

A. the first set of turbines

B. the last set of turbines
C. the intermediate compressor

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q90. The inlet of a turbo fan is

A. divergent
B. convergent
C. convergent-divergent

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q91. The majority of power in a free turbine engine is used to

A. drive the gas generator

B. drive the free turbine
C. expel gases through the exhaust

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q92. The most significant parameters and the most important that express the thrust of a
gas turbine engine are

A. EGT or N2
B. N2 and FF
C. N1 and EPR

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q93. The basic gas turbine engine cycle is

A. induction, compression, combustion, expansion, exhaust

B. induction, compression, expansion, combustion, exhaust
C. compression, combustion, induction, expansion, exhaust

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q94. The bleed valve on a engine at start up is

A. open
B. closed
C. modulating ‘

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q95. The compression ratio of the compressor of a gas turbine engine is

A. outlet pressure to inlet pressure

B. measured across all rotor stages of the compressor
C. mass of airflow to combustion

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q96. How are the combustion chambers cooled?

A. by LP compressor air
B. by HP compressor air
 C. by fan pressure air

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q.97. With an EICAS, how are the computers normally used to drive the displays?

A. the left computer drives the left display, and the right computer drives the right
display
B. the left computer drives both displays
C. the right computer drives both displays

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q.98 Which of the following will not terminate an EICAS BIT?

A. a successful test
B. applying the parking brake
C. an unsuccessful test

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q99.What does ECAM mean?

A. engine computer aided monitoring

B. electronic computerized aircraft monitoring
C. electronic centralized aircraft monitoring

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

Q100. The function of EICAS is to

A. show check lists on the upper display and systems diagrams on the lower display
B. show check lists on the left display and systems diagrams on the right display
C. show engine primary indications on the upper display and engine secondary
indications on the lower display

Reference: EASA module 14.1a

TOPIC: FUEL SYSTEM (FADEC)

Q1. A full authority electronic engine control system (EEC),

a) computes all the necessary data for engine operation and adjusts a standard hydro-
mechanical fuel control unit to obtain the most effective engine operation.
b) develops the commands to various actuators to control engine parameters.
c) controls engine operation according to the ambient temperature, pressure and
humidity.

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q2.Primary power for the electronic engine control is

a) 115V ac essential bus

b) on side 115V ac bus bar supply
c) a permanent magnet alternator

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q3.Supervisory EEC sends its output to the

a) fuel valve
b) HMU / FFG
c) EGT thermocouple circuit

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q4. The EEC (electronic engine control) receives its primary power from

a) the 115V AC main bus

b) the 115V AC emergency bus
c) a separate permanent magnet alternator

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q5. The EEC changes power settings by

a) changing the throttle lever angle

b) changing the fuel flow input
c) changing the airflow input

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q6. The EEC is powered and able to operate via only a dedicated alternator

a) the aircraft electrical system

b) the EEC is capable of being powered by both independently
c) depending on conditions

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q7. The EEC uses ARINC 429 formatted data

a) ARINC 629 formatted data

b) uses neither ARINC 429 or 629
c) formatted data

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q8. The primary purpose of an EEC is

a) to change analogue inputs into digital format to provide glass cockpit information and
reduce flight crew workload
b) to change analogue inputs into digital format to reduce flight crew workload and
provide maintenance information
c) to save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q9. When the full authority fuel control unit is changed, the rating plug

a) stays with the engine

b) stays with the FAFC
c) is replaced every time

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q10.With the EEC in control, the throttle levers are always

a) in the fully forward position

b) in the fully aft position
c) between the fully forward and fully aft positions

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q11. The fuel metering unit has direct inputs via

a) only the EEC

b) the EEC and the fire control handle
c) the EEC, fire control handle and the engine master switch

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q12. A fuel flow transmitter requires a motor or a synchronous motor to have a

a) constant voltage within small tolerances

 b) constant frequency within small tolerances
c) low EMF as it is immersed in fuel

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q13. The purpose of a fuel metering system is to

a) monitor fuel remaining for display on a fuel quantity meter

b) monitor fuel flow for display of fuel used on EICAS or ECAM
c) provide sufficient fuel flow to the engine to produce the desired power

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q14. The valve on a vane-type fuel flow measuring device becomes stuck. What safety
backup is available for the engine fuel flow?

a) a fuel bleed valve

b) a bypass valve
c) a differential pressure bypass valve

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q15. When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter takes
into account the fuel

a) temperature
b) density
c) pressure

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q16. FADEC’s operate by

a) 2 controlling 1 operating
b) 1 controlling 1 operating
c) 2 units each capable of independent control
Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q17. When considering a centrifugal type engine speed governor, an increase in fuel S.G.
will cause.
A. no change in maximum RPM .
B. an increase in maximum RPM .
C. a reduction in maximum RPM .

Reference: EASA module 14.1b

Q18. On a FADEC engine.
A. A channel uses control alternator and B channel uses aircraft bus power.
B. A channel uses a separate winding of the control alternator to B channel.
C. A and B channel use the same phases of the motor.
Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplant Page 7-22 refers.

Q19. Normal fuel/air ratio for successful combustion is.

A. 15:1.
B. 25:1.
C. 10:1.
Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 3-32.

Q20. Which of the following influences the operation of an automatic fuel control
unit on a turbojet engine?.
A. Exhaust gas temperature.
B. Mixture control position.
C. Burner pressure.
Ans : Burner pressure.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 7-63.

Q21. What is the purpose of the L.P. pump?.

A. To ensure rapid acceleration when the throttle is opened.
B. To prevent cavitation of the H.P Fuel pump.
C. To ensure the engine will continue to run if the H.P. fuel pump fails.
ExplanationJeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 7-63.

Q22. The fuel pump plungers are lubricated by.

A. synthetic anti-freeze oil.
B. grease packed bearings.
C. the Fuel.
Ans : the Fuel.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 7-63.

Q23. Which forces control the maximum RPM governor in a non hydromechanical swash plate
type of pump?.
A. Rotor centrifugal pressure opposed to tension spring loading.
B. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring loading opposed to pump delivery
pressure.
C. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring loading opposed to pump inlet
pressure.
ExplanationJeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 7-63.

Q24. Why do the holes in the body of the duple burner provide air to the shroud around the
burner head?.
A. To reduce burner temperature.
B. To assist atomisation of the fuel at slow running.
C. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 7-63.

Q25. A fuel heater prevents.

A. Neither.
B. LP filter icing.
C. H.P filter icing.
Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 7-45 refers.

Q26. On a FADEC engine the E.E.C.

A. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control in some modes.
B. has mechanical control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control system.
C. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control unit in all modes.
Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 7-20 refers.

Q27. During normal running conditions, combustion is.

A. continuously supported by ignition.
B. self supporting.
C. intermittently supported by ignition.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 7-63.

Q28. On a FADEC engine, the channel reset.

A. always selects A channel.
B. selects B channel.
C. selects standby which becomes active on the next start.
Explanation: CF6-80 C2 FADEC Engine Course notes refer.

Q29. With a decrease in fuel SG, what is the result when the engine is fitted with an
uncompensated fuel governor?.
A. No effect.
B. Maximum RPM decrease.
C. Maximum RPM increase.
Explanation: Rolls Royce Para 103 Page 116 refers.

Q30. The maximum RPM of a turbine engine is limited by.

A. a temperature sensitive device which reduces the fuel pump speed.
B. diversion of some of the fuel pump outlet flow by a spill valve sensitive to burner fuel
pressure.
C. reduction of the fuel pump stroke by a spill valve sensitive to centrifugally generated
fuel pressure.
Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 103 Para 23 Refers.
Q 31. To what condition does the fuel flow respond during aircraft acceleration?.
A. Mass airflow rate through the engine.
B. The effect of 'ram-air' at altitude.
C. The change in pressure at the compressor intake.
Explanation: Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 7-6 Refers.

Q32. During acceleration, the fuel flow is increased at a controlled rate in order to.
A. prevent fuel pump damage.
B. increase s.f.c.
C. prevent surge and the risk of flame-out.
Explanation: Over fuelling during acceleration is a prime cause of surge.

Q33. The B.P.C controls the F.C.U by.

A. pressure sensing.
B. temperature sensing.
C. density sensing.
Ans : pressure sensing.
Explanation: BPC is the Barometric Pressure Control.

Q34. The fuel flow is increased at a controlled rate in order to during acceleration.
A. prevent fuel pump damage.
B. increase s.f.c.
C. prevent the risk of flame-out.
Explanation: Rolls Royce Jet Engine Page 98-99 refers.

Q35. The burner fuel flow is at maximum at.

A. altitude.
B. 10°Centigrade above I.S.A. sea level.
C. I.S.A. sea level.
Explanation: Cold dense air requires more fuel than hot warm air to maintain the air-fuel
ratio.

Q36. The type of fuel control unit most commonly used in modern jet engines is.
A. mechanical.
B. hydro-mechanical.
C. electrical.
Ans : hydro-mechanical.
Explanation: Rolls Royce Jet Engine Page 99 refers.

Q37. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel pump swash plate angle, obtained?.
A. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions.
B. From pump delivery pressure through fixed restrictions.
C. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 98-101 refers.

Q38. Why is the Barometric Pressure Control fitted in a turboshaft engine fuel system?.
A. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and main burner lines.
B. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
C. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with increased air intake pressure.
Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine figure 10-12 or 10-7.

Q39. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or half ball valve is.
A. always varying between fully closed and fully seated.
B. lightly seated.
C. open fully.
Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 98 refers.

Q40. The fuel control unit most commonly used in modern turbine engines is.
A. mechanical.
B. hydro-mechanical.
C. electrical.
Ans : hydro-mechanical.

Explanation: Rolls Royce Jet Engine Page 99 refers

Q41. Combustion is…..,During normal running conditions.

A. continuously supported by ignition.
B. self supporting.
C. intermittently supported by ignition.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 7-63.

Q 42. Why is it necessary to control fuel supply to the engine during rapid acceleration?.
A. To prevent compressor stall above cruise RPM .
B. To control maximum RPM .
C. To prevent excessively high EGT and possible compressor surge
Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 104 refers.

Q43. Which component corrects for air density effects on fuel/air mixture in a gas turbine
engine?.
A. The barometric pressure control unit.
B. The adjustable throttle valve.
C. The pressurising valve.
Explanation: Barometric pressure senses density changes.

Q44. Why is the high pressure fuel pump fitted in a gas turbine engine aircraft?.
A. To maintain a vapour free pressure from the aircraft fuel tanks to the LP fuel pump.
B. As an emergency in case of failure of the LP pump.
C. To provide the majority of the fuel pressure to the engine.
Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 112 refers.

Q45. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the dump valve in a jet engine
fuel system when the engine is shut down?.
A. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.
B. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open.
C. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed.
Ans : Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.
Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 112 refers.

Q46. The density of air is very important when mixing fuel and air to obtain a correct fuel
to air ratio. Which of the following weighs the most?.

A. 75 parts of dry air and 25 parts of water vapor.

B. 100 parts of dry air.
C. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.
Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 112 refers.

Q47. A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to.

A. 1 part air to 11 parts fuel.
B. a stoichiometric mixture.
C. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.
Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 112 refers.

Q48. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control unit trimmed?.

A. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.

B. To properly position the power levers.
C. To adjust the idle RPM .
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-69.

Q49. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today's turbine engines?.

A. Hydromechanical or electronic.
B. Mechanical.
C. Electronic.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-60.

Q50. Under which of the following conditions will the trimming of a turbine engine be
most accurate?.
A. No wind and low moisture.
B. High moisture and low wind.
C. High wind and high moisture.
Ans : No wind and low moisture.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-60.

Q51. An H.M.U receives its signals from.

A. E.E.C.
B. ADC.
C. thrust lever resolvers.
Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Powerplant Page 7-20.

Q52. In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within the fuel control, manufacturers
generally recommend that all final turbine engine trim adjustments be made in the.
A. decrease direction.
B. increase direction.
C. decrease direction after over-adjustment.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-70.

Q53. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is adjusted to.

A. set idle RPM and maximum speed or E.P.R.

B. produce as much power as the engine is capable of producing.
C. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without regard to power output.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-69.

Q54. A supervisory electronic engine control (E.E.C) is a system that receives engine
operating information and.
A. controls engine operation according to ambient temperature, pressure, andhumidity.
B. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the most effective
engine operation.
C. develops the commands to various actuators to control engine parameters.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-64.

Q55. In a FADEC system, active control switchover occurs.

A. when channels A and B are healthy.
B. on shutdown.
C. on engine start up only.
Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Powerplant Page 7-20.

Q56. What causes the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?.
A. An electrically operated solenoid.
B. Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM .
C. Fuel pressure.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-66.
Q57. The valve on a vane type fuel flow measuring device becomes stuck. What safety
backup is available for the engine fuel flow?.
A. A differential pressure bypass valve.
B. A bypass valve.
C. A fuel bleed valve.
Explanation: Pallett Aircraft Instruments and integrated systems page 369 refers. Note
the valve opens against spring pressure.

Q58. What are the principal advantages of the duplex fuel nozzle used in many turbine
engines?
A. Allows a wider range of fuels and filters to be used.
B. Restricts the amount of fuel flow to a level where more efficient and complete
burning of the fuel is achieved.
C. Provides better atomization and uniform flow pattern.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-66.

Q59. What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?.
A. Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary flow clogs or is restricted.
B. Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the atomization of fuel.
C. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-66.

Q60. Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the greatest filtering action?.
A. Stacked charcoal.
B. Small wire mesh.
C. Micron.
Ans : Micron.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-66

Q61. Where is the engine fuel shutoff valve usually located?.

A. Aft of the firewall.

B. Adjacent to the fuel pump.
C. Downstream of the engine driven fuel pump.
Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 7-63.

Q62. Supervisory E.E.C sends its output to the.

A. fuel valve.
B. H.M.U/F.F.G.
C. EGT thermocouple circuit.
Explanation: RB211-535 has this system - the trim signal is passed to the F.F.G. a FADEC
engine would receive trim signals at the H.M.U.
Q63. If a FADEC loses its ADC input. In the short term it will.

A. go to limit protection mode.

B. go into hard reversion.
C. go into soft reversion.
Explanation: Sometimes known as the Alternate mode. CF-6 FADEC engine has this
facility.

Q64. The primary purpose of an E.E.C is.

A. to change analogue inputs into digital format to provide glass cockpit information
and reduce flight crew workload.
B. to save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs.
C. to change analogue inputs into digital format to reduce flight crew workload and
provide maintenance information.
Explanation: Inputs and outputs to the FADEC are both digital and analogue, hence a and b
are both wrong. Optimized performance is the reason FADEC was introduced

Q65. When both FADEC channels are healthy they will alternate.

A. as selected on the flight deck.

B. when one channel fails.
C. on each engine start.
Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q66. The purpose of the LP fuel pump is to.

A. ensure the H.P fuel pump does not cavitate.
B. pump fuel from the aircraft fuel tanks to the engine.
C. ensure the fuel flow governor gets enough fuel.
Explanation: Maintains about 40 psi to the inlet of the H.P Pump.

Q67. In a FADEC system, what is the result of Channel A failing to receive information
from a sensor?.
A. Channel A will take the information from the backup sensor.
B. Channel A will take the information from channel B.
C. Channel B will assume control.
Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q68. Primary power for the electronic engine control is

a) 115V ac essential bus

b) on side 28v dc bus bar supply
c) PMA

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q69. EEC sends its output to the

a) fuel valve
b) HMU / FFG
c) EGT thermocouple circuit

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q70. The EEC (electronic engine control) receives its primary power from

a) the 115V AC main bus

b) the 115V AC emergency bus
c) a separate permanent magnet alternator and electrical systems

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q71. The EEC changes power settings by

a) changing the throttle lever angle

b) changing the fuel flow input
c) changing the airflow input

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q72. The EEC is powered and able to operate via

a) only a dedicated alternator

b) the aircraft electrical system
c) the EEC is capable of being powered by both independently depending on conditions

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q73. The EEC uses

a) ARINC 429 formatted data

b) ARINC 629 formatted data
c) uses neither ARINC 429 or 629 formatted data
 Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q74. The main purpose of an EEC is

a) to change analogue inputs into digital format to provide glass cockpit information
b) to change analogue inputs into digital format to reduce flight crew workload and
provide maintenance information
c) to save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q75. With the EEC in control, the throttle levers are always

a) in the fully forward position

b) in the fully aft position
c) between the fully forward and fully aft positions

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q76. The fuel metering unit has direct inputs via

a) only the EEC

b) the EEC and the fire control handle
c) the EEC, fire control handle and the engine master switch

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q77. A fuel flow transmitter requires a motor or a synchronous motor to have a

a) constant voltage within small tolerances

b) constant frequency within small tolerances
c) low EMF as it is immersed in fuel

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q78. The purpose of a fuel metering system is to

a) monitor fuel remaining for display on a fuel quantity meter

b) monitor fuel flow for display of fuel used on EICAS or ECAM
c) provide sufficient fuel flow to the engine to produce the desired power
 Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q79. The valve on a vane-type fuel flow measuring device becomes stuck. What safety backup
is available for the engine fuel flow?

a) a fuel bleed valve

b) a bypass valve a differential pressure
c) bypass valve

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Q80. FADEC’s operate by

a) 2 controlling 1 operating
b) 1 controlling 1 operating
c) 2 units each capable of independent control

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Power plant Page 7-20.

Topic: Engine Indication Systems Question

Q1. The compensation device on an E.G.T system must be re-calibrated after.

A. each time a part of the system is replaced.

B. does not need calibration.

C. manufactures and overhaul.

Explanation: The compensation device is an automatic device Page 140 Rolls Royce book refers.

Q2. When testing an E.G.T system.

A. the O.A.T is always taken into consideration.

B. the O.A.T is neglected.

C. O.A.T is only taken into consideration when over20°C.

Explanation: This is clearly stated in the B 737 AMM.

Q3. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R.) used for?.

A. To limit the maximum exhaust gas temperature.

B. To indicate the thrust produced by the engine.

C. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust.

Ans : To indicate the thrust produced by the engine.

Explanation: Page 140 Rolls Royce book refers.

Q4. What happens when bulb type thermometer resistive element goes open circuit?.

A. Reads less than ambient.

B. No reading given.

C. Reads more than ambient.

Explanation: Page 141 Rolls Royce book refers

Q5. On an E.G.T thermocouple system, the hot junction.

A. is placed up stream of the combustion chamber.

B. is placed in cockpit.

C. is placed downstream of the combustion chamber.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers.

Q6. On an RPM system using a synchronous generator, the pointer is deflected by.

A. a potentiometer.

B. a Wheatstone bridge.

C. an AC servomotor.
Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers.

Q7. Torque pressure is usually read from a.

A. torque meter.

B. direct reading pressure gauge.

C. tension gauge.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page12-21 refers.

Q8. The drag cup in a tacho-generator is balanced by.

A. calibrated hairspring.

B. adjustable counterbalance weights.

C. adjustment screw.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-14 refers.

Q9. Fuel flow indication is taken from.

A. after the H.P pump.

B. after either H.P Pump or LP Pump.

C. after the LP pump.

Explanation: Vane type flowmeters are usually in the LP Supply. Integrated flowmeters in the
H.P supply.

Q10. What power is required for E.G.T gauge indication?.

A. No power - it is self generating.

B. 115V AC.
C. 28V DC.

Explanation: Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-5 Refers.

Q11. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate.

A. position and quantity.

B. pressure and temperature.

C. pressure, temperature, position and quantity.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers

Q12. What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be monitored to minimize the possibility
of a 'hot' start?.

A. RPM indicator.

B. Turbine inlet temperature.

C. Torquemeter.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-5.

Q13. oil temperature thermocouples are usually constructed of.

A. iron constantan.

B. alumel constantan.

C. chromelalumel.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers

Q14. The RPM indication of a synchronous AC motor tachometer is governed by the generator.

A. current.
B. frequency.

C. voltage.

Ans : frequency.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers

Q15. Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are
usually what type?.

A. Bourdon tube.

B. Vane with calibrated spring.

C. Diaphragm or bellows.

Ans : Bourdon tube.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers.

Q16. Instruments that provide readings of low or negative pressure, such as manifold pressure
gauges, are usually what type?.

A. Diaphragm or bellows.

B. Vane with calibrated spring.

C. Bourdon tube.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers.

Q17. In what units are gas turbine engine tachometers calibrated?.

A. Percent of engine pressure ratio.

B. Percent of engine RPM.

C. Actual engine RPM.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-2.

Q18. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge pressure indicator sensor located?.

A. At a location in the exhaust cone that is determined to be subjected to the highest pressures.

B. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.

C. At the aft end of the compressor section.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers

Q19. The exhaust gas temperature (E.G.T ) indicator on a gas turbine engine provides a relative
indication of the.

A. turbine inlet temperature.

B. temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass the exhaust cone.

C. exhaust temperature.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-5.

Q20. Engine pressure ratio is determined by.

A. dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.

B. multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.

C. dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.

Ans : dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-13 refers

Q21. A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine instrument face or glass indicates.

A. the maximum limit for high transients such as starting.

B. a restricted operating range.

C. the maximum operating limit for all normal operations.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-5.

Q22. What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an axial compressor turbine engine?.

A. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions.

B. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed conditions.

C. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing thrust settings under all conditions.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q23. Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio between the.

A. front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the compressor.

B. front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine.

C. aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the turbine.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q24. On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant power, the application of engine
anti-icing will result in.

A. an increase in E.P.R.

B. noticeable shift in E.P.R.

C. a false E.P.R reading.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q25. The indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change in.

A. voltage.

B. frequency.
C. current flow.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q26. The fuel flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller and turbine, and motor less
type fuel flow transmitters is a measure of.

A. fuel mass flow.

B. fuel volume flow.

C. engine burner pressure drop.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q27. In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (C.F.S) with a totalizer indicator
provides indication of how many of the following?.

A. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel time remaining at current
power setting.

B. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel time remaining at current power
setting, Fuel temperature.

C. Fuel flow rate, Fuel used since reset or initial start up, Fuel temperature.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q28. The fuel flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor impeller and turbine indicating
system is driven by.

A. direct coupling to the motor shaft.

B. an electrical signal.

C. a mechanical gear train.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q29. Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data.

A. using aircraft electrical system power.

B. mechanically.

C. by fuel pressure.

Ans : using aircraft electrical system power.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q30. What unit in a tachometer system sends information to the indicator?.

A. The two phase AC generator.

B. The three phase AC generator.

C. The synchronous motor.

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants 12-13.

Q31. Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil.

A. entering the oil cooler.

B. entering the engine.

C. in the oil storage tank.

Explanation: Rolls Royce book fig 8-7.

Q32. Thermocouple leads.

A. may be repaired using solderless connectors.

B. are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered.

C. may be installed with either lead to either post of the indicator.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

.

Q33. Why do helicopters require a minimum of two synchronous tachometer systems?.

A. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.

B. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.

C. One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM.

Ans : One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q34. If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed at installation, what would the E.G.T
gauge pointer indicate?.

A. Moves off scale on the high side of the meter.

B. Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter.

C. Normal temperature for prevailing condition.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q35. A common type of electrically operated oil temperature gauge utilizes.

A. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.

B. a thermocouple type circuit.

C. vapour pressure and pressure switches.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q36. The indication on a thermocouple-type E.G.T indicator is produced by.

A. resistance changes in two dissimilar metals.

B. a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar metals.

C. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold
junctions.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q37. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R) used to indicate?.

A. The power produced by the engine.

B. The thrust produced by the engine.

C. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust.

Explanation: Normally used on High Bypass Engines.

Q38. Where is Turbine Outlet Temperature (T.O.T) measured?.

A. Upstream of the turbine.

B. Downstream of the turbine.

C. In the combustion chamber.

Explanation: It can be in the jet pipe or more normally today in between turbine stages or even
within NGV's.

Q39. A thermocouple indicator is basically a.

A. milliammeter.

B. millivoltmeter.

C. milliohmeter.

Explanation: A thermocouple generates an E.M.F between hot and cold junction, hence the
gauge is a millivoltmeter.

Q40. A thermocouple indicator is connected to the.

A. cold junction.

B. hot junction.

C. difference between the hot junction and the cold junction.

Explanation: Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 362 Refers.

Q41. Thrust in a high bypass fan engine is indicated by.

A. N3 RPM or P1/P4 ratio.

B. N1 RPM or N3 RPM.

C. N1 RPM or E.P.R.

Explanation: RR and P&W tend to use E.P.R. GE use N1.

Q42. How is the N1 and N2 measured on a triple spool engine?.

A. Tachometer connected to the internal gearbox.

B. Tachometer connected to the external gearbox.

C. Pulse type speed probes.

Explanation: Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-16 refer. Fig 12-10B shows the system.

Q43. Modern oil pressure servo transmitters sense.

A. absolute pressure.

B. H.P oil pressure.

C. differential pressure.

Explanation: Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-28 refer.

Q44. E.G.T thermocouples are usually made of.

A. nickel and platinum.

B. chromel and platinum.

C. chromel and alumel.

Explanation: Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 12-4 refer.

Q45. Thrust in a high bypass engine is indicated by measuring.

A. N3 RPM.

B. neither of the above, thrust is not indicated in flight.

C. fuel flow.

Explanation: The only indication of power in flight is E.P.R or, for a high bypass engine, N1 RPM.

Q46. What power supply is required for a thermocouple system to work?.

A. Alternating current.

B. Direct current.

C. Neither of the above.

Explanation: Rolls Royce the Jet engine Page 139 refers.

Q47. In a thermocouple temperature sensing system, what is the purpose of the compensating
resistor?.

A. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the hot junction.

B. To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the cold junction.

C. To standardise the reading for different engine types.

Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 140 refers.

Q48. In a tachometer generator.

A. the frequency output is inversely proportional to engine speed.

B. frequency output is proportional to engine speed.

C. the frequency output is constant.

Explanation: Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems P348 refers.

Q49. Vibration pick-ups are located.

A. on both fan and turbine cases.

B. on the fan/compressor case.

C. on the turbine case.

Explanation: Can be on one or both, depending upon the engine.

Q50. In a capacitive type fuel quantity indicating system the tank units are connected in.

A. series.

B. parallel.

C. series/parallel.

Explanation: EHJ Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems page 337 refers.

Q51. Torque measurement in a gas turbine engine is.

A. not always reliable.

B. highly reliable.

C. required only when the turbine drives a propeller.

Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 138 refers.

Q52. Vibration signals, when picked up,.

A. go straight to indicator.

B. go through half wave rectifier to indicator.

C. the frequencies are filtered to exclude unwanted frequencies.

Explanation: The filters in the Vibro-meter use rotor speed to identify vibration frequencies.

Q53. E.G.T is displayed in.

A. Kelvin.

B. degrees centigrade.

C. degrees Fahrenheit.

Explanation: E.G.T is always measured in centigrade.

Q54. N2 is taken from.

A. a speed transducer on the fan rear frame.

B. a tachometer attached on the N1 gearbox.

C. a tachometer on the accessory gearbox.

Explanation: The N2 gearbox is driven by the N2 compressor. A single winding of an alternator

can be used for the speed signal as an alternative to a.

Q55. Engine vibration is monitored using.

A. electromechanical devices.

B. Fenwall type sensors.

C. piezoelectric accelerometer.

Explanation: Piezoelectric devices convert force(from the vibration) to a millivolt output.

Q56. Integrating fuel flow gives.

A. average fuel flow.

B. total fuel consumed.

C. fuel flow and acceleration.

Explanation: An Integrator is incorporated in a fuel flow-meter to give a total fuel used figure.

Q57. The gauge on a bulb type temperature indicator shows zero. This could be caused by.

A. open circuit in the wiring.

B. temperature bulb going open circuit.

C. two cables shorting together by the sensor.

Explanation: Pallett Instruments and Integrated systems Page 318 refers. A short will remove all
power from both windings and the pointer will go to minimum scale.

Q58. In a thermocouple system, the size of the E.M.F that is produced is a result of.

A. the difference between the hot and cold junction.

B. the cold junction only.

C. the hot junction only.

Explanation: The E.M.F is a result of the difference between the 2 junctions.

Q59. What power supply is required for a thermocouple system to work?

a) direct current
b) alternating current
c) neither of the above

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a.

Q60. In a thermocouple temperature sensing system, what is the purpose of the compensating
resistor?

a) to standardize the reading for different engine types

b) to correct for varying ambient temperatures at the cold junction
c) to correct for varying ambient temperatures at the hot junction

Reference: Jeppesen A&P Powerplant Textbook 4-4.

Q61. Pure jet engines use

a) stagnation thermocouples
b) rapid response
c) variable resistance thermocouples

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a.

Q62. A torque-meter is a primary thrust setting instrument for:

a) turbo jet engines

b) turbo fan engines
c) turbo prop engines

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a.

Q63. Thermocouples in gas turbine engines are normally used for

a) temperatures above 500oF

b) temperatures less than 500oF
c) all temperature ranges

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a.

Q64. Turbine gas temperature (TGT) is measured by a

a) thermocouple mounted at the turbine outlet

b) thermocouple mounted at the turbine inlet mercury
c) thermometer mounted at the turbine outlet

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q65. A torque-meter indicates

 a) resistance to rotation
b) percentage RPM
c) torsion deflection of the compressor shaft

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q66. Typically a torque pressure indication system is

a) differential pressure type

b) remote synchronous type
c) direct oil pressure sensing type

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q67. Thermocouples are constructed from two

a) insulators with a different coefficient of expansion

b) conductors of the same material
c) conductors of different material
Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q68. Exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is monitored by measuring

a) the voltage generated by a thermocouple

b) the expansion of a liquid in a capillary tube
c) the tension in a helical, bi-metallic spring

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q69. Remote reading thermometers operate by measuring the change of electrical _______
with changes in temperature.

a) capacitance
b) current
c) resistance
d) Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q70. What power is required for EGT (exhaust gas temperature) gauge indication?

a) 115V AC
b) 28V DC
 c) None
Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q71. . How is power indicated on a fixed pitch propeller?

a) RPM gauge
b) torque gauge
c) horsepower gauge
Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q72. Gas turbine thermocouples are installed in

A) the exhaust system at the propelling nozzle

B) the nozzle guide vane inlet
C) parallel
Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q73. The cold junction of a thermocouple is the

a) reference junction and is located on the flight deck

b) measuring junction and is sometimes known as the hot junction
c) reference junction and is located aft of the turbine blades
Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q74. Instrument systems that measure temperature by the gas expansion method contain

a) a temperature sensing bulb, a tube and a temperature measuring gauge.

b) pressure sensing bulb, a connecting wiring harness and a temperature measuring gauge.
c) temperature sensing bulb, a capillary tube and a bourdon tube pressure measuring
gauge.
Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q75. Thermocouple temperature measuring systems are used to measure temperatures in the
range of:

a) 200 to 1,000 Deg C

b) -50 to +100 Deg C
c) 0 to 150 Deg C
Reference: Easa Module 14.2a
Q78. Thermocouples used in EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) probes are most likely to use a
combination of

a) iron and constantan

b) chromel and alumel
c) copper and constantan
Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q79. On a turbine engine EGT (Exhaust Gas Turbine) harness you would expect to find:

a) 6-8 EGT probes connected in series

b) a single EGT probe located in the turbine inlet.
c) 6 - 8 EGT probes connected in parallel.
Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q80. EGT is measured

a) in front of turbines
b) in the middle of turbines
c) after the last turbine stage

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q81. Turboprop thermocouple probes are

a) rapid response
b) stagnation
c) surface mounted

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q82. A tachometer used to measure RPM’s in turbine engines

a) develops it’s own power for the system

b) 28V dc is required
c) 115V ac is required

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q83. What is the supply voltage to a tachogenerator?

a) 28vdc
b) 115vac
c) no supply
 Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q84. EPR is measured between inlet and

a) jet pipe
b) cold and hot exhaust
c) front of turbine

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Q85. Manifold pressure is measured in

a) direct absolute pressure in Bars

b) differential pressure in millibars
c) direct absolute pressure in inches of Hg

Reference: Easa Module 14.2a

Engine Starting and Ignition Systems Question

Q1. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors.

A. allows the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.

B. allows sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.

C. protects the unit from excessive voltages.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 '.

Q2. In the H.E.I.U. the choke.

A. prolongs the life of the plug.

B. protects the unit from excessive high voltages.

C. prolongs the discharge.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 '

Q3. In an electrical starting system, the slow start resistor is short circuited by the.
A. centrifugal Switch.

B. time switch.

C. overspeed switch.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 .

Q4. The advantage of an air starter system is.

A. it provides a more rapid start.

B. it is light, simple and economical.

C. there is no risk of engine fire during starting.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49

Q5. An advantage of a gas turbine starter is.

A. it provide high power for low weight.

B. it does not require external connections.

C. it uses a low volatile fuel.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 '

Q6. If the engine fails to light-up, the starter cycle is canceled by.

A. a centrifugal switch.

B. a low pressure relay.

C. a time switch.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 '

Q7. For starting the engine, the H.P cock should be initially.
A. in a position which depends on the fuel system.

B. open.

C. closed.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 '

Q8. On light up, the gas temperature will.

A. rise slowly.

B. rise rapidly, then fall as RPM increases to idle.

C. rise rapidly.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 '

Q9. Self sustaining RPM means that.

A. The engine can accelerate to full power in under 5 seconds.

B. There is sufficient power for ground maneuvering.

C. The engine will run independently of external help.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49

Q10. A 'hot start' with excessive temperatures may be caused by.

A. wrong grade of fuel.

B. throttle partly open.

C. high electrical power supply.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 .

Q11. A dry motoring cycle would be required to.

A. clear the engine after a wet start.

B. check engine run down time.

C. check the operation of the igniters.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 '.

Q12. What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in air starter motors?.

A. Reaction.

B. Impulse.

C. Impulse-reaction.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Powerplant Book Page 8-49 'Air.

Q13. Ignitor plugs are cleaned by.

A. compressed air and brushing lightly with soft brush.

B. light sand blasting.

C. steel wool.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 11-11 refers.

Q14. An H.E.I.U works by.

A. a discharging capacitor.

B. ac busbar.

C. a contact breaker.

Explanation: Jepperson Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 11-5 refers.

Q15. When is ignition used?.

A. For relight and start up.

B. For continuous relight.

C. At high altitudes.

Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 127 Refers.

Q16. An ignitor plug for a large gas turbine takes the form of a.

A. glow' plug.

B. sparking plug.

C. surface discharge plug.

Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 131 Refers

Q17. The spark in the High Energy igniter is supplied by.

A. a capacitor.

B. a contact circuit breaker.

C. the AC busbar.

Explanation: Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplant Page11-4 refers.

Q18. Self sustaining speed is.

A. V1 speed.

B. the RPM at which the engine continues without external assistance.

C. take off velocity.

Explanation: After the starter has cut out and the RPM and TGT have stabilised.

Q19. During normal running conditions.

A. combustion is intermittently supported by ignition.

B. combustion is self supporting

C. combustion is continuously supported by ignition.

Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 37 refers.

Q20. High energy ignition is required because of the.

A. high flash point of the fuel.

B. absorbed moisture content.

C. low flash point of the fuel.

Explanation: Jeppesen Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 7-1 refers

Q21. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors.

A. allow sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.

B. allow the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.

C. protect the unit from excessive voltages.

Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 129 refers

Q22. The rate of discharge of a H.E.I.U. is.

A. 4 discharges per revolution.

B. 60 - 100 per second.

C. 60 - 100 per minute.

Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 129 refers

Q23. Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high energy?.

A. Because the applied voltage is much greater.

B. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and high temperatures.

C. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low temperatures.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-102.

Q24. The type of ignition system used on most turbine aircraft engines is.

A. low tension.

B. capacitor discharge.

C. high resistance.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-102.

Q25. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used to prevent the starter
from reaching burst speed if inlet air does not terminate on schedule is the.

A. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed.

B. drive shaft shear point.

C. spring coupling release.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-49.

Q26. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used if the clutch does not
release from the engine drive at the proper time during start is the.

A. spring coupling release.

B. drive shaft shear point.

C. flyweight cutout switch.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-49.

Q27. Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a ground unit is normally prevented from causing
starter overspeed during engine start by.

A. a preset timed cutoff of the airflow at the source.

B. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed speed.

C. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-49.

Q28. Air turbine starters are generally designed so that reduction gear distress or damage may
be detected by.

A. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.

B. characteristic sounds from the starter assembly during engine start.

C. breakage of a shear section on the starter drive shaft.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-51.

Q29. Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance technicians usually includes checking

the.

A. stator and rotor blades for FOD.

B. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.

C. rotor alignment.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-51.

Q30. Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what types of airflow impingement
systems?.

A. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.

B. Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow compressor.

C. Double entry centrifugal outward flow and axial-flow turbines.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-49.

Q31. On a low energy dual ignition system (<3 joules), if a relight is necessary.

A. it occurs automatically.

B. the pilot selects both ignitors.

C. the pilot selects one of the two ignitors.

Explanation: Normal low/high systems have a choice of low or high energy ignition with high
being used for relight. In these systems the pilot can choose 1, 2 or both.

Q32. The primary advantage of pneumatic (air turbine) starters over comparable electric
starters for turbine engines is.

A. high power-to-weight ratio.

B. reduction gearing not required.

C. a decreased fire hazard.

Explanation: : Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-46.

Q33. The purpose of an under current relay in a starter-generator system is to.

A. keep current flow to the starter-generator under the circuit capacity maximum.

B. disconnect power from the starter-generator and ignition when sufficient engine speed is
reached.

C. provide a backup for the starter relay.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-46.

Q34. How does the ignition system of a gas turbine engine differ from that of a reciprocating
engine?.

A. Magneto to engine timing is not critical.

B. One igniter plug is used in each combustion chamber.

C. A high energy spark is required for ignition.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-102.

Q35. What is the purpose of the current limiting resistor in a starter circuit?.

A. To prevent the starter from over speeding in the final phase of starting.

B. To provide overall control of the the speed of the starter.

C. To prevent an initial current surge.

Explanation: RR the jet engine page 123.

Q36. Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to high intensity spark discharges and
yet they have a long service life because they.

A. operate at much lower temperatures.

B. are not placed directly into the combustion chamber.

C. do not require continuous operation.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-105.

Q37. A D.C starter motor disconnects due to.

A. current decreasing switching off an overspeed relay.

B. current increasing switching off an overspeed relay.

C. a centrifugal switch that acts like an overspeed relay.

Explanation: Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 8-106.

Q38. Generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, in order to

eliminate the possibility of the technician receiving a lethal shock, the

ignition switch is turned off and.

A. disconnected from the power supply circuit.

B. the transformer exciter input lead is disconnected and the center

electrode grounded to the engine after disconnecting the igniter lead from

the plug and waiting the prescribed time.

C. the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and the center electrode

grounded to the engine after disconnecting the transformer-exciter input

lead and waiting the prescribed time.

Ans : the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and the center electrode

grounded to the engine after disconnecting the transformer-exciter input

lead and waiting the prescribed time.

Explanation: NIL.

Q39. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a

turbine engine?.

A. A rise in the engine fuel flow.

B. A rise in oil pressure.

C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.

Ans : A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.

Explanation: NIL.

Q40. H.E.I.U ignitor plugs receive their electrical supply from.

A. discharge inductor.

B. starter system electrical circuit.

C. discharge capacitor.
Ans : discharge capacitor.

Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine Page 129.

Q41. An H.E.I.U is rated in.

A. Joules.

B. Watts.

C. Amps.

Ans : Joules.

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbines Powerplant Page 11-5 to 11-7

refers.

Q42. A glow plug operates.

A. manually.

B. by heat action.

C. electrically.

Ans : by heat action.

Explanation: The extreme heat of the plug ignites the fuel. It is powered by

electricity. See Jeppesen

Aircraft Gas Turbines page 11-9.

Q43. The resistor in a D.C. starter motor.

A. prevents over speed.

B. prevents current surge when motor is at low rpm.

C. used when D.C. motor fails.

Ans : prevents current surge when motor is at low rpm.

Explanation: Rolls Royce The Jet Engine page 122 refers.

Q44. Where does the high voltage type turbine ignition receive its voltage
pulse from?.

A. Primary windings.

B. Rectifier.

C. Trigger transformer.

Ans : Primary windings.

Explanation: Rolls Royce the jet engine Fig 11-12 shows an AC system. this

uses a transformer to generate the high voltage at the discharge gap.

Q45. On a gas turbine engine DC starting circuit, if there is an open circuit on

the contact of the over speed relay.

A. starter motor will stop only when starter switch selected off.

B. starter motor will continue to run for 30 sec and then stop.

C. no power supply is connected to the starter motor.

Ans : no power supply is connected to the starter motor.

Explanation: Refer Fig 11-3 Rolls Royce The Jet engine. The main relay cannot

close if the overspeed relay is open.

Q46. The field of the D.C. starter motor used on gas turbine engine is.

A. series only.

B. shunt or compound.

C. series or compound.

Ans : series or compound.

Explanation: Aircraft electrical systems E.H.J Pallett 3rd edition page 154

refers.

Q47. When 'blow out' is selected on the Gas Turbine Engine starting circuit.

A. the starter motor is stopped when starter switch selected off or when the
timer switch cuts out.

B. the over-speed relay will de-energise the starter circuit.

C. ignition is continuously on.

Ans : the starter motor is stopped when starter switch selected off or when

the timer switch cuts out.

Explanation: Refer Fig 11-3 Rolls Royce The Jet Engine. The blow out circuit is

used to blow out any jet pipe fire. In this mode there is no ignition or fuel

hence the starter cannot overspeed.

Q48. After an unsuccessful start of an engine.

A. the engine has to be left for some time before another start.

B. unburnt fuel can be drained from fuel drainage lines.

C. unburnt fuel can be evacuated by motoring the engine with H.P cock

closed.

Ans : unburnt fuel can be evacuated by motoring the engine with H.P cock

closed.

Explanation: On normal shutdowns combustors and fuel manifolds are

drained through the drain manifold. After an unsuccessful start there will be

fuel throughout the hot section. Hence a dry run is needed to purge the

engine.

Q49. A glow plug may be used in place of a spark plug on.

A. low temperature engines.

B. large engines.

C. small engines.

Ans : small engines.

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 11-9 refers to

the PW PT6 as an example of a smaller engine.

Q50. When an engine being started by an air starter reaches self sustaining

speed.

A. the motor is disconnected by the flyweight cut out switch.

B. the starter valve is disconnected by the fly weight cut-out switch in the air

starter.

C. the motor is disconnected by the pilot.

Ans : the starter valve is disconnected by the fly weight cut-out switch in the

air starter.

Explanation: Jeppesen Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants Page 10-9 refers.

Q51. When reconnecting a H.E.I.U , which cable must be reconnected first?.

A. It makes no difference.

B. L.T before H.T.

C. H.T before L.T.

Ans : H.T before L.T.

Explanation: This is the reverse of disconnecting, when L.T is isolated and

then disconnected first.

Q52. An aircraft flying through heavy rain may use, as a precaution.

A. airframe deicing.

B. engine intake deicing.

C. continuous ignition.

Ans : continuous ignition.

Explanation: Continuous ignition is used in case of flame out caused by the

inclement weather.

Q53. The starter light is on during a start cycle (low voltage electrical starter).

A. Indicates electrical power is flowing to the starter.

B. If the light stays on after 30 seconds action is required.

C. This is normal for 30 seconds, take no action.

Ans : If the light stays on after 30 seconds action is required.

Explanation: See the Rolls Royce Jet engine low voltage starter system on

page 123. The indicator light indicates power to the igniter. The Full current

time switch cuts out the circuit after a period of time.

Q57.The correct starting sequence for a gas turbine engine is ignition, starter, fuel starter,
ignition, fuel starter, fuel, ignition b

Q58. On starting a jet engine, failure to "light up" is indicated by low fuel pressure and no EGT
low rpm and no EGT low fuel pressure and low EGT b

Q59. Turbine engine ignition systems require high energy levels so that they can ignite the fuel
under conditions of low altitude and high temperature. high humidity high altitude and low
temperatures. c

Q60. Compared to an electrical starter, an air starter provides a more rapid start has a
better power-to-weight ratio is safer and more economical b

Q61. Relighting a gas turbine engine after a flame out is most likely to be successful at any
altitude at low speed heights above 25,000 ft heights below 25,000 ft c

Q62. The self-sustaining speed of a turbine engine is the speed at which it will sustain the
correct voltage on the bus-bar idle after starting run without any external assistance
c

Q63. The ignition system of a turbine engine is used only on ground start up for
start up and airborne re-light continuously b

Q64. An igniter plug for a large gas turbine takes the form of a surface discharge plug
sparking plug ‘glow’ plug a

Q65. An HEIU (high energy ignition unit) is rated in Watts Joules Amps b
Q66. A glow plug operates manually electrically by heat action c

Q67. Turbine engine igniters are less susceptible to fouling than reciprocating engine spark
plugs because the high intensity spark cleans the igniter. they use a lower frequency spark
they operate at cooler temperatures. a

Q68. To avoid electric shocks when removing turbine engine igniter plugs, the ignition switch is
turned off and; disconnected from the power supply circuit. the igniter lead is
disconnected from the plug and the center electrode grounded to the engine after
disconnecting the exciter input lead and waiting the prescribed time. the exciter input lead
is disconnected and the center electrode grounded to the engine after disconnecting the igniter
lead and waiting the prescribed time. b

Q69. Caution should be exercised in handling damaged, hermetically sealed, turbine engine
igniter exciter units because, compounds in the unit may become a fire or explosion hazard
when exposed to air. some contain radio active material. some contain toxic chemicals.
b

Q70. Turbine igniter plugs last longer than reciprocating engine spark plugs because they
operate at much lower temperatures. are not placed directly into the combustion
chamber. do not operate continuously c

Q71. A turbine engine with nine burner cans would normally have two igniters five igniters
nine igniters plus one spare a

Q72. Turbine engine igniter plugs operate continuously whilst the engine is running when
starting or relighting the engine whenever the engine throttle settings are changed b

Q73. A turbine engine starter disengages when the engine reaches self accelerating
speed idle speed the speed of combustion a

Q74. Large aircraft engines use pneumatic starters that rotate the LP compressor HP
compressor HP turbine b

Q75. The spark produced by a low-tension ignition system is low voltage, low current and
low heat high voltage, low current and high heat high voltage, high current and high
heat c

Q76. Major components of Gas Turbine Engine ignition system contains 11-1
A. High Voltage Exciter B. High voltage transmission lead C. Igniter plug
D. All are correct
Q77. The exciter of ignition system powered by the aircraft electrical system 11-1
A. DC B. AC C. PMA D. Any
of the above
Q78. Modern gas turbine engine ignition system are of the high intensity capacitor discharge
type with 11-1
A. Continuous duty cycle B. Intermittent duty cycle C. Extended duty D. Any
of the above
Q79. . MTCS 11-1
A. Intermittent duty types are sufficiently high current draw to cause overheat damage to their
units
B. Intermittent duty have long duty cycle
C. Extended duty cycle have restricted duty cycle
D. Continuous duty cycle have limited duty cycle.
Q80.Position of ignitor plugs are 11-1
A. 3 & 9 O’clock B. 4 & 8 O’clock C. 6 & 12 O’clock
D. Not specified
Q81. Secondary function of main ignition system is to provide a 11-1
A. initial ignition at ground starting B. Stand by protection against in-flight
flameout
C. As in A at bad weather condition D. As in B at anti ice bleed air mode
Q82. Ignition switch at ground start position 11-2
A. Engine ignition occur at both igniter plugs B. It also powers the engine starter
C. As in B and indicated by start valve light D. All are correct
Q83.. Fight position of ignition switch mainly used after 11-2
A. Flame out B. provide full ignition to both ignitor plugs
C. it does not power the engine starter D. All are correct
Q84.. High tension intermittent duty type system build up heat which can damage the exciter
unit , they use with some restrictions as 11-2
A. Typical time limit is 2 minutes ON 3 minutes OFF
B. As in A & If a second 2 min ON is needed, 10 min cooling required
C. As in A & If a second 2 min ON is needed, 20 min cooling required
Q85. The most common sensing systems to sense power loss of engine utilize
11-2
A. Torque oil pressure B. As in A & Compressor discharge pressure
C. As in A & EGT
Q86. The automatic ignition system activated by 11-3
A. Micro switch B. EEC C. Transistor
D. Capacitor
Q87. Residual charge of ignitor plug stored in capacitor discharged with help of
11-3
A. Ground resistor B. Bleed capacitor C. internal safety bleed resistor

Q88. If an ignitor plug is dropped 11-3

A. NDT is required B. NDI is required C. As in A or B if found satisfactory it can utilize
D. discard it
Q89. Turbine ignition systems carry 11-3
A. Voltage rating C. Watts rating C. Joule rating
Q90. In low tension system, the ignitor plug is referred to as a 11-5
A. self-ionizing type B. Shunted gap type C. Both are correct
D. None
Q91. MTCS 11-8
A. AC input system type ignitor plug have a better extreme climate reliability as compare to DC
input system
B. As in A & DC input system heat up rapidly
C. As in B & AC input system have long duty cycle
D. Only A is correct
Q92. MTCS 11-8
A. ignitor plug is less susceptible to fouling
B. Ignitor plug shell is made of high-quality material nickel chromium alloy
C. Threads of ignitor plug is commonly silver plated to prevent seizing
D. All are correct
Q93. Centre electrode of ignitor plug is made of 11-8
A. Nickel chromium alloy B. Tungsten or iridium C. Copper alloy
D. Radio active material
Q94. High voltage ignitor plug consists of a visual inspection and gap measurement check with
11-11
A. Special measuring tool B. Mechanics scale C. Depth micrometre D. Any
of the above
Q95. Interior components of exciter unit are secured with silicon cement or mechanically for
protection against 11-17
A. Heat B. Vibration C. Erosion D. Cooling
Q96. Glow plug operational check is performed by attaching the plug to its engine ignition lead
and observing 11-14
A. Bright yellow glow B. Bright red glow
C. As in A within prescribed time limit (20 to 30 seconds) D. As in B within prescribed
time limit (20 to 30 seconds)
Q97. Glow plug heater coils carbon should clean with help of
11-13
A. Soft nylon brush B. Fiber brush C As in B or Metal brush
D. Either A or B
Q98. The maximum remaining fusing of coil that is acceptable is very small, usually one coil
fused to another no more than A. 1/8th inch in length B. 1/4th inch in length
C. No fusing is permitted
Q99. The shell at the hot end of the igniter plug may be air cooled to keep it ______ cooler than
the surrounding gas temperature. 11-8
A. 100-200 F B. 300-400 F C. 500-600 F