to the Challe

ise nge
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D
AP BIO MOCK
set

MAKERS ACADEMY
SetD Contents

Set D mock test —————————— p3

Extra Important FRQ (U 7,8) —————p65

Extra U7,8 Questions ———————p70

 AP® BIOLOGY EQUATIONS AND FORMULAS

Statistical Analysis and Probability

x = sample mean
Mean Standard Deviation
n = size of the sample
 ( xi - x )
n 2
x = Â xi
1
s =
n i =1 n -1 s = sample standard deviation (i.e., the sample-based
estimate of the standard deviation of the
Standard Error of the Mean Chi-Square population)
( o - e )2
Â
s
SEx = c2 = o = observed results
n e
e = expected results
Chi-Square Table
p Degrees of Freedom Degrees of freedom are equal to the number of
value 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 distinct possible outcomes minus one.
0.05 3.84 5.99 7.82 9.49 11.07 12.59 14.07 15.51
0.01 6.64 9.21 11.34 13.28 15.09 16.81 18.48 20.09

Laws of Probability Metric Prefixes

If A and B are mutually exclusive, then:
Factor Prefix Symbol
P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)
10 9 giga G
If A and B are independent, then: 10 6 mega M
P(A and B) = P(A) ¥ P(B) 10 3 kilo k
10 – 2 centi c
Hardy-Weinberg Equations
p = frequency of the dominant allele 10 – 3 milli m
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 10 – 6 micro μ
in a population
p+q=1 q = frequency of the recessive allele 10 – 9 nano n
in a population 10 – 12 pico p

Mode = value that occurs most frequently in a data set

Median = middle value that separates the greater and lesser halves of a data set

Mean = sum of all data points divided by number of data points

Range = value obtained by subtracting the smallest observation (sample minimum) from the greatest (sample maximum)

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 Rate and Growth dY = amount of change Water Potential ( Y )
Rate
dY dt = change in time Y = YP + YS
dt
B = birth rate YP = pressure potential
Population Growth
D = death rate
dN YS = solute potential
= B- D
dt N = population size
Exponential Growth The water potential will be equal to
K = carrying capacity
dN the solute potential of a solution in an
= rmax N rmax = maximum per capita open container because the pressure
dt
potential of the solution in an open
growth rate of population
Logistic Growth container is zero.
dN
dt
= rmax N (
K-N
K ) The Solute Potential of a Solution
T2 = higher temperature
Temperature Coefficient Q10 YS = -iCRT
10 T1 = lower temperature
k T T
  2  2 1
i = ionization constant (this is 1.0 for
Q10
 k1  k2 = reaction rate at T2
sucrose because sucrose does not
ionize in water)
Primary Productivity Calculation
mg O2 0.698 mL mL O2 k1 = reaction rate at T1 C = molar concentration
× =
L mg L R = pressure constant
Q10 = the factor by which the (R = 0.0831 liter bars/mole K)
mL O 2 0.536 mg C fixed mg C fixed
× = reaction rate increases when
L mL O 2 L T = temperature in Kelvin (ºC + 273)
the temperature is raised by
(at standard temperature and pressure)
ten degrees

Surface Area and Volume Dilution (used to create a dilute solution from a
r = radius concentrated stock solution)
Volume of a Sphere
CiVi = CfVf
4
V = pr3  = length
3
i = initial (starting) C = concentration of solute
Volume of a Rectangular Solid h = height
f = final (desired) V = volume of solution
V = w h
w = width
Volume of a Right Cylinder Gibbs Free Energy
V = pr h 2 s = length of one ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
side of a cube
Surface Area of a Sphere ΔG = change in Gibbs free energy
A = 4 pr 2 A = surface area ΔS = change in entropy
Surface Area of a Cube
V = volume ΔH = change in enthalpy
A = 6s2
T = absolute temperature (in Kelvin)
Surface Area of a Rectangular Solid  = sum of all
pH = – log10 [H+]
A  S surface area of each side

4
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 BIOLOGY
Section I
64 Multiple-Choice Questions
7 Grid-In Questions
Time—90 Minutes

_
Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by four suggested
answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle
on the answer sheet.

1. The food web represented above does not include bacteria and fungi. Which of the following best describes a
consequence of having no bacteria and fungi in the food web?
(A) Grasses will have no direct access to chemical components recycled from dead organisms.
(B) Rabbits will have no direct access to energy absorbed from secondary consumers.
(C) Shrews will have no direct access to matter transferred from tertiary consumers.
(D) Hawks will have no direct access to nitrogen acquired from the atmosphere.

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Questions 2-6

Researchers investigated the habitat preferences of two species of garter snakes, Thamnophis sirtalis and
Thamnophis atratus. To create a choice chamber, the researchers built a meshed enclosure and positioned one end
of the enclosure at the edge of a small pond. Zone I of the enclosure was located in the water, whereas zone IV of
the enclosure was located 2–3 meters away from the water, as represented in the figure below. Snakes inside the
enclosure were able to move freely between zones.

In a series of experiments, the researchers introduced a single snake into zone IV of the enclosure at 7:00 A.M.
The researchers recorded the location of the snake at six time points throughout the day. In a related experiment, the
researchers introduced two snakes, one of each species, into the enclosure at the same time and observed the location
of each of the two snakes at the same six time points as before. The researchers repeated both the one-snake and
two-snake experiments using different individual snakes of each species. The results are presented in the table.

ZONES MOST FREQUENTLY OCCUPIED BY GARTER SNAKES IN A MESHED ENCLOSURE

Species Introduced Inside the Meshed Enclosure

T. atratus Only T. sirtalis Only T. atratus and T. sirtalis
Zone Most Zone Most Zone Most Zone Most
Frequently Frequently Frequently Frequently
Time of Day
Occupied by Occupied by Occupied by Occupied by
T. atratus T. sirtalis T. atratus T. sirtalis
8:00 A.M. I II III II
10:00 A.M. II I II II
12:00 P.M. I I III I
2:00 P.M. I I IV I
4:00 P.M. II I IV I
6:00 P.M. II II IV I

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2. Based on the data in the table, which of the 5. The researchers discovered that both species
following best describes the habitat preference of garter snakes feed almost exclusively on
of T. atratus when introduced alone inside the amphibians found in or near the pond. Based
meshed enclosure? on the results of the investigation, which of the
following is most likely to occur if the amphibians
(A) T. atratus exhibited equal preferences for
become a limited source of food?
all four zones.
(B) T. atratus exhibited a preference for the (A) Individuals of T. atratus will no longer prefer
zones in or near water. to be near the water.
(C) T. atratus exhibited a preference for the (B) T. sirtalis will shift its food preference to
zones most distant from the water. herbivory.
(D) T. atratus exhibited a preference to remain (C) The reproduction rate of T. sirtalis will
within the zone in which it was initially increase.
introduced. (D) The population size of T. atratus will
decrease.
3. Based on the data in the table, which of the
following best predicts the results of a study 6 Both species of garter snakes prey on the
10.
in which natural populations of T. atratus and California newt, Taricha torosa, a small
T. sirtalis are observed together in an environment amphibian that produces a potent neurotoxin
that includes a freshwater pond? (TTX) in its skin. However, neither species of
garter snake is affected by TTX. The resistance to
(A) Neither T. atratus nor T. sirtalis will be
TTX is associated with mutations in the SCN4A
observed near the water.
gene. Which of the following best supports a
(B) T. atratus will be observed near the water
claim that TTX resistance arose independently in
whether or not T. sirtalis is present.
T. atratus and T. sirtalis ?
(C) T. sirtalis will be observed near the water
whether or not T. atratus is present. (A) The stomach contents in fossils of both
(D) T. atratus and T. sirtalis will be observed species include the remains of food items
together near the water. that contained TTX.
(B) Both species of snakes possess the
4. Which of the following additions to the SCN4A gene.
experimental design will best help test whether (C) The two species of snakes have different
the observed habitat preferences were the result genetic mutations in the SCN4A gene.
of competition between species? (D) T. atratus and T. sirtalis are sister species
that share many of the same morphological
(A) Placing two individuals from the same
features.
population together inside the enclosure
(B) Introducing different types of plants into the
enclosure together with the snakes
(C) Doubling the number of repetitions for the
experimental treatment with T. atratus alone
(D) Repeating the investigation with an enclosure
that is twice as long as the original

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Questions 7-10

Stickleback fish are found in both marine and freshwater habitats. The marine fish have no scales but have
hardened, armorlike plates along their sides. The plates are thought to protect sticklebacks from certain predators.

In the late 1980s, sticklebacks from a marine population colonized Loberg Lake, a freshwater lake in Alaska.
Starting in 1990, researchers sampled fish from the lake every four years and recorded the armor-plate phenotypes of
the male sticklebacks in each sample. The armor-plate phenotypes were categorized as either complete (plates
extending from head to tail), partial (plates extending from head to abdomen), or low (a few plates near the head
only). The results are shown in the table below.
ARMOR-PLATE VARIATION IN THE STICKLEBACK
POPULATION OF LOBERG LAKE

Percent of Males in the Sample with

Each Armor-Plate Phenotype
Year Low Partial Complete
1990 1% 2% 97%
1994 45% 14% 41%
1998 58% 16% 26%
2002 76% 15% 9%
2006 90% 6% 4%

7. Which of the following is an independent variable 8. To evaluate the reliability of the results, it would
in the investigation? be best to know which of the following?
(A) Year in which the sample was collected (A) The surface area of Loberg Lake
(B) Salinity of the water in Loberg Lake (B) The number of males in each sample
(C) Size of the stickleback population (C) The average daily temperature of
(D) Percent of males with each armor-plate Loberg Lake
phenotype (D) The age of the sticklebacks in each sample

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9. Which of the following graphs best represents the 10. Which of the following best explains the changes
type of selection most likely operating in the in the phenotype frequencies of the stickleback
stickleback population of Loberg Lake? population in Loberg Lake?
(A) Predation in the marine environment is
different from predation in Loberg Lake.
(B) Marine predators and sticklebacks both
colonized Loberg Lake.
(C) Sticklebacks with the partial armor-plate
(A) phenotype have the highest rate of
reproduction and survival.
(D) The population of sticklebacks in Loberg
Lake is subject to genetic drift.

(B)

(C)

(D)

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11. The California grunion (Leuresthes tenuis) is a small marine fish that lives in shallow waters near the ocean
shore. Grunions swim as far onto the beach as possible to mate and lay their eggs (spawn).
A researcher proposes that the spawning behavior takes place when the nighttime tides are highest during
the month. Which of the following pieces of evidence would best support the researcher’s claim?
(A) Grunion spawning occurs every two weeks during the spawning season.
(B) Grunion spawning occurs when nighttime illumination levels are the lowest.
(C) High tide occurs one time per lunar cycle.
(D) The light intensity of the moon varies within the lunar cycle.

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Questions 12-16

To investigate the influence of predation risk on ray behavior, a student observed and counted the large marine
animals swimming in a shallow, nearshore section of a coral reef ecosystem. The time of each observation was
recorded relative to the time of high tide. The student noted that at low tide, when the water level is low, many of the
large animals are forced out of the study area and into the deeper waters of the outer reef. During high tides, when
the water level is high, the large animals are able to reenter the study area.
Over a three-day period, the student observed a total of 604 individual rays belonging to three species: cowtail
rays, giant shovelnose rays, and black stingrays. For each ray that was sighted, its body length was estimated and its
status as either alone (ungrouped) or found with other rays (grouped) was noted. Occasionally, rays were observed
sifting through the sandy substrate of the study area to capture food items such as molluscs and crustaceans. In one
instance, an injured ray with bite marks that were likely sustained in a shark attack was sighted. In addition to the
rays, the student observed lemon sharks (n = 46) and blacktip reef sharks (n = 39). The results of the study are
presented in the figures below.

Figure 1. Comparison of mean body lengths of the grouped and ungrouped rays
that were observed in a nearshore section of a coral reef ecosystem. Error
bars represent 2SE X .

Figure 2. Mean numbers of rays per group in the study area at different stages of
the tide cycle. High tide occurs at T = 0 hours.

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 Figure 3. Relative proportions of rays in groups at different stages of the tide cycle
for each of the three different populations. High tide occurs at T = 0 hours.

Figure 4. Mean numbers of lemon sharks and blacktip reef sharks in the study area
at different stages of the tide cycle. High tide occurs at T = 0 hours.

12. Which of the following scientific claims about the 13. Based on the data presented in Figure 2, which
survival strategies used by organisms in a coral of the following behavioral patterns do rays in a
reef ecosystem is best supported by the data coral reef ecosystem typically exhibit three hours
presented in Figure 1 ? before high tide?
(A) Smaller members of a vulnerable population (A) Group learning
are more likely to act collectively. (B) Mate selection
(B) Smaller members of a vulnerable population (C) Solitary foraging
are more likely to rely on defensive (D) Social interaction
coloration.
(C) Larger members of a vulnerable population
are more likely to exhibit aggression.
(D) Larger members of a vulnerable population
are more likely to behave altruistically.

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14. Which of the following scientific claims about 16. Based on the results of the study, which of the
interacting populations of giant shovelnose rays following is the most likely connection between
and blacktip reef sharks is best supported by the behavior and evolutionary fitness in a nearshore
results shown in Figures 3 and 4 ? coral reef environment?
(A) Some parasitic species cause significant (A) Rays that search for food alone at low tide
changes in the behavior of their hosts. typically grow to larger sizes than do rays
(B) Some invasive species outcompete native that search for food in groups.
species for limited resources. (B) Rays that join groups during rising tides are
(C) Some migratory species transmit infectious reproductively more successful than are
diseases to resident populations. rays that do not join groups.
(D) Some prey species form protective groups (C) Rays that swim far from shore at high tide
in the presence of predators. often encounter a greater variety of species
than do rays that remain near the shore.
15. Which of the following best justifies the use (D) Rays that roam across large distances during
of the study area to investigate how one species falling tides become stronger swimmers
influences the behavior of another? than do rays that spend more time at rest.
(A) Black stingrays were present in the study area
in the presence and absence of blacktip reef
sharks.
(B) Giant shovelnose rays and cowtail rays spent
long periods of time at rest while inside the
study area.
(C) Natural barriers in the study area prevented
lemon sharks from competing with blacktip
reef sharks for limited resources.
(D) Cowtail rays in the study area formed groups
at some stages of the tide cycle but
remained alone at other stages.

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 Derived Characters (+ indicates the character is present)
Organisms
Hair Jaws Feathers Amniotic Eggs Two Pairs of Limbs b-Keratin Scales
Mammals + + + +
Crocodilians + + + +
Fish +
Amphibians + +
Birds + + + + +

17. The table above shows derived characters for selected organisms. Based on the information in the table, which of
the following cladograms best represents the evolutionary relationships among the organisms?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Questions 18-22

In an investigation of interspecies competition, researchers grew the unicellular protozoan Paramecium aurelia in
a 5 mL culture and Paramecium caudatum in a separate 5 mL culture. P. aurelia and P. caudatum were grown
together in a third 5 mL culture. Each day a small sample of each culture was removed so the total number of
individuals could be estimated, and the remainder of the population was transferred to fresh growth medium.
The experimental results are represented in the graphs below.

Figure 1. Population of P. aurelia cultured alone

Figure 2. Population of P. caudatum cultured alone

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 Figure 3. Populations of P. aurelia and P. caudatum cultured together

18. Which of the following conclusions is best 20. Which of the following statements best justifies
supported by the results of the experiment? the use of the experimental results in an
investigation of interspecies competition?
(A) Neither population grows as large when
_
_
cultured together as each does when (A) When two populations use different sources
cultured separately. of energy, one of the populations will thrive
(B) P. caudatum prefers different food when in a shared environment and the other will
cultured with P. aurelia than when cultured become extinct.
separately. (B) When two populations use the same sources
(C) Competition for mates increases when the of energy, resource availability in a shared
species are cultured together compared with environment limits the growth of both
when they are cultured separately. populations.
(D) Individuals of the species P. caudatum are (C) Because the change in entropy of a system
smaller when cultured together with containing two different species is always
P. aurelia than when cultured separately. positive, populations typically grow faster
in shared environments.
19. The difference in carrying capacity between the (D) Because the free energy of a system
two species when cultured separately is closest to containing two different species is always
which of the following values? negative, populations that utilize similar
resources cannot coexist in nature.
(A) 0 individuals per 5.0 mL
(B) 60 individuals per 5.0 mL
(C) 150 individuals per 5.0 mL
(D) 350 individuals per 5.0 mL

Questions 12-13 are on the next page.

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21. If the mixed populations were cultured for an 22. Based on the experimental results, which
additional 25 days, which of the following of the following statements best describes the
predictions would be consistent with the data? relationship of the two populations that were
studied in the investigation?
(A) Both populations would stabilize at a small
size. (A) The populations have a parasitic relationship
(B) Both populations would stabilize at a large in which one species requires the presence
size. of the other to reproduce.
(C) Both populations would be eliminated from (B) The populations have a symbiotic
the culture. relationship in which both species require
(D) One population would stabilize at a large the presence of the other to reproduce.
size, and the other population would be (C) The populations have a competitive
eliminated from the culture. relationship in which each species limits the
ability of the other to reproduce.
(D) The populations have a predator/prey
relationship in which one species positively
influences the ability of the other to
reproduce.

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 PERCENT OF MOTHS RECAPTURED IN TWO DIFFERENT ENVIRONMENTS

Percent of Released Moths

Trial Moth Color and Environment
Recaptured

Light-colored moths were released in an

I 13%
unpolluted environment.

Light-colored moths were released in a

II 12%
polluted environment.

Dark-colored moths were released in an

III 7%
unpolluted environment.

Dark-colored moths were released in a

IV 28%
polluted environment.

23. A researcher released large numbers of moths into different environments in an attempt to better understand a
mechanism of evolution. The moths were released in four trials as described in the table above. Each of the
released moths had a small mark on the underside of a wing for identification. After an appropriate amount of
time, the researcher recaptured as many of the released moths as possible. Data from the experiment are included
in the table above. Which of the following claims is best supported by the data?
(A) Light-colored moths were more likely to be recaptured in the polluted environment than in the unpolluted
environment, suggesting an increased chance of reproductive success.
(B) Dark-colored moths were more likely to be recaptured in the polluted environment than in the unpolluted
environment, suggesting an increased chance of reproductive success.
(C) Light-colored moths were less likely to be recaptured in the polluted environment than in the unpolluted
environment, suggesting an increased chance of reproductive success.
(D) Dark-colored moths were less likely to be recaptured in the polluted environment than in the unpolluted
environment, suggesting an increased chance of reproductive success.

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24. Blackcap birds (Sylvia atricapilla) migrate out of Germany before wintertime. Prior to the 1960s, all members of
a particular blackcap population flew to Spain, which had an abundant natural food source. Now, some members
of the same blackcap population fly to the United Kingdom, where food placed in feeders by humans is
abundant. The blackcaps return to the same forests in Germany to nest during the breeding season.
Some blackcaps that migrate to the United Kingdom have become distinguishable by certain physical and
behavioral traits from blackcaps that migrate to Spain. Which of the following best predicts the effect on the
blackcap population if humans in the United Kingdom continue to place food in feeders during the winter?
(A) The blackcaps that migrate to Spain will selectively mate with the blackcaps that migrate to the
United Kingdom, resulting in increased genetic variation in the blackcap population.
(B) The blackcaps that migrate to the United Kingdom will become reproductively isolated from the blackcaps
that migrate to Spain, resulting in speciation in the blackcap population.
(C) The blackcaps in Spain and the United Kingdom will migrate to other geographical locations in search of
potential mating partners, resulting in a smaller blackcap population in Germany.
(D) The blackcaps will begin nesting at their wintering sites in Spain or the United Kingdom, resulting in a
larger blackcap population migrating back to Germany after the breeding season has ended.

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Questions 25-29

The TAS2R38 gene encodes a receptor protein that influences the ability to taste bitterness. The gene has
two alleles: a dominant, wild-type allele that enables an individual (taster) to taste bitterness and a recessive, mutant
allele that interferes with the ability of an individual (nontaster) to taste bitterness. Three single nucleotide mutations
in the coding region of the TAS2R38 gene are associated with the nontaster allele. The nucleotides present at the
three positions are shown in the table below.

NUCLEOTIDE VARIATION IN THE TAS2R38 GENE

Position in the Nucleotide Sequence
145 785 886
Human nontaster G T A
Human taster C C G
Bonobo C C G
Chimpanzee C C G
Gorilla C C G

A cladogram representing the evolutionary relatedness of selected primates is shown below.

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25. In a sample of 2,400 people, 1,482 were found to 28. The TAS2R38 receptor protein has been detected
have the dominant (taster) phenotype. Assuming on the surface of cells from individuals who are
that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg homozygous for the nontaster allele of the
equilibrium, approximately how many individuals TAS2R38 gene. Which of the following is the
in the sample are expected to be heterozygous for most likely effect of the mutations associated with
TAS2R38 ? the nontaster allele on TAS2R38 gene expression?
(A) 741 (A) The mutations change the primary structure
(B) 918 of the encoded receptor protein.
(C) 1,133 (B) The mutations increase the stability of
(D) 1,482 the TAS2R38 mRNA.
(C) The mutations prevent transcription of
26. Which of the following scientific questions the TAS2R38 gene.
will best help researchers determine when the (D) The mutations prevent translation of
nontaster allele arose in the evolutionary history the TAS2R38 mRNA.
of the selected primates?
29. Toxic substances often have a bitter taste that
(A) How does the nontaster allele contribute to
causes animals who try to eat such substances
individual fitness?
to spit them out rather than swallow them.
(B) Does the nontaster allele exist in any
Additional data suggest that gorilla populations
nonhuman primate populations?
have a very low frequency of nontasters. Which of
(C) What caused the mutations in the TAS2R38
the following best describes the likely evolution
gene?
of the TAS2R38 locus in the gorilla population?
(D) How do the mutations in the nontaster allele
affect the structure of the resulting protein? (A) Gorillas who could taste bitter toxins were
more likely to survive and reproduce than
27. Which of the following conclusions is supported nontasters.
by the data? (B) Gorillas who could taste bitter toxins became
resistant to the toxins, so the taster gene was
(A) Humans and bonobos belong to the same
no longer under selective pressure.
genus because the nucleotide sequence of
(C) Gorillas acquired the taster allele by
the TAS2R38 gene is the same.
horizontal gene transfer from chimpanzees.
(B) Chimpanzees are equally related to humans
(D) Gorillas who could taste bitter toxins could
and bonobos because all three groups
utilize food resources that nontasters
possess variants of the TAS2R38 gene.
could not.
(C) Humans are more closely related to bonobos
than to chimpanzees because the branch of
the tree with humans is closest to the branch
of the tree with bonobos.
(D) Bonobos are more closely related to humans
than to gorillas because bonobos and
humans share a more recent common
ancestor than bonobos and gorillas do.

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Questions 30-34

In the American Southwest, annually emerging cicadas are dependent upon the cottonwood trees in the
floodplain. Adult male cicadas perch in the cottonwood trees and chirp to attract females. Females lay their eggs in
the branches of the cottonwoods, and, upon hatching, the cicada nymphs drop to the ground, burrow into the soil,
feed on the tree roots, and later emerge as adults. Other organisms in the floodplain community prey on the cicadas,
as shown in the food web.

Figure 1. Food web in floodplain community

Human activity has caused a decrease in the amount of flooding and an increase in the incidence of wildfires in
the floodplain. In an investigation into the recent changes in the floodplain ecosystem, researchers monitored the
soil temperature, amount of cottonwood ground coverage (i.e., area of the ground that is shaded by leaves), and
cicada emergence for a period from mid-June until late July. The results of the investigation are represented in
Figure 2 and Figure 3.

Figure 2. Effect of cottonwood ground Figure 3. Relationship between soil

coverage on soil temperature temperature and cicada emergence date

To assess the impact of wildfires on soil temperature and cicada emergence, the researchers compared mean
emergence dates for two natural sites where portions had been affected by wildfire. In addition, cicada emergence
was monitored at an experimental site where the soil temperature was experimentally maintained. The data are
shown in the table.

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 MEAN CICADA EMERGENCE DATES AT SITES AFFECTED BY WILDFIRES OR WITH
EXPERIMENTALLY CONTROLLED SOIL TEMPERATURE

Natural Site 1 Natural Site 2 Experimental Site

Unburned Burned Unburned Burned 24°C 27°C

Mean Emergence Date July 8 June 18 July 15 July 3 July 14 July 5

30. Which of the following statements best predicts 32. Based on the data, which of the following
the effect of increased cottonwood growth on the describes the most likely relationship between
food web? wildfires, soil temperature, and the timing of
cicada emergence in the same year?
(A) Increased cottonwood growth will lead to an
increase in the number of primary (A) Wildfires caused a reduction in ground cover,
consumers, resulting in more competition which in turn caused increased soil
between kestrels and sparrows for food. temperatures leading to earlier emergence
(B) Increased cottonwood growth will decrease of cicadas.
the habitat available for lizards, resulting in (B) Wildfires caused an increase in ground cover,
a decline in the number of kestrels. which in turn caused increased soil
(C) Increased cottonwood growth will provide temperatures delaying the emergence of
more resources for cicadas, resulting in an cicadas.
increase in the kestrel population. (C) Wildfires caused an increase in growth of
(D) Increased cottonwood growth will lead to a new plants, which in turn caused a decrease
large accumulation of dead wood that serves in soil temperatures which led to earlier
as fuel for wildfires, resulting in the emergence of cicadas.
collapse of the food web. (D) Wildfires caused a decrease in ground cover,
which in turn caused a decrease in soil
31. Based upon the data, which of the following best temperatures leading to later emergence of
describes the effect on the timing of cicada cicadas.
emergence if the cottonwood ground cover
decreases from 50 percent to 25 percent? 33. Yellow-billed cuckoos typically hatch in mid-
July. Emerging cicadas are a primary food source
(A) Cicadas will emerge approximately 10 days
for nesting cuckoos. Which of the following best
earlier.
predicts the effect of wildfires on yellow-billed
(B) Cicadas will emerge approximately 2 days
cuckoo populations?
earlier.
(C) Cicadas will emerge approximately 10 days (A) The yellow-billed cuckoo population will
later. decline because the decreased ground cover
(D) Cicadas will emerge approximately 2 days will allow lizards to prey on cuckoo nests.
later. (B) The yellow-billed cuckoo population will
decline because the cicadas will emerge
before the hatching season begins.
(C) The yellow-billed cuckoo population will
grow because the adults will more easily see
and eat the cicada nymphs.
(D) The yellow-billed cuckoo population will
remain unchanged because cuckoos do not
nest in areas affected by wildfires.

Question 48 is on the next page.

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34. The data from the temperature-controlled
experimental plots can best be used to support
which of the following conclusions about cicada
development?
(A) Adult cicadas lay more eggs when the soil is
warmer than when the soil is cooler.
(B) Adult cicadas mate more frequently when the
soil is warmer than when the soil is cooler.
(C) Cicada nymphs grow larger in warmer soil
than in cooler soil.
(D) Cicada nymphs mature to adults faster in
warmer soil than in cooler soil.

Primary Nitrogenous Waste

Representative Product
Vertebrate
Ammonia Urea Uric Acid

Fish X

Tadpole X

Frog X

Reptile X

Bird X

Mammal X

Property of Nitrogenous Waste Product

Solubility in Water High High Low

Toxicity High Medium Low

35. The table above shows the types and properties of nitrogen-
containing wastes produced by several vertebrates. Which of
the following is the best evolutionary explanation of the data?
(A) The data support convergent evolution for nitrogen
excretion in organisms occupying dramatically different
environmental niches.
(B) The nitrogenous waste excreted by each vertebrate is the
result of evolutionary adaptations that have decreased
vulnerability to predators.
(C) Nitrogen homeostasis in terrestrial vertebrates reflects
an adaptation for more frequent and higher-volume
urination than that occurring in aquatic vertebrates.
(D) Ammonia secretion requires a large volume of water and
was therefore selected against in terrestrial vertebrates.

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Questions 36-39

Figure 1. Mean nitrogen influx ±2SE X as a function of

species present. N = neither salmon nor bears present,
B = only bears present, S = only salmon present, and
SB = both salmon and bears present.

Pacific salmon and black bears have often been cited as examples of keystone species. Pacific salmon spawn
in freshwater streams but spend most of their lives at sea. When mature salmon return to the freshwater streams
to spawn, they are preyed upon by bears and other predators. When salmon migrate from their marine habitat to
the freshwater streams, they bring nitrogen and other marine-derived nutrients that subsequently remain in the areas
surrounding the streams—a process called nitrogen influx.

In an investigation, the relationship between black bears, salmon, and influx of marine nitrogen into the area
around a southwestern Alaskan stream was studied. The investigators established several test plots of the same size
along the stream with the following species composition: no salmon or black bears (N), bears but not salmon (B),
salmon but not bears (S), and a plot where salmon and bears interact (SB). Nitrogen influx in the different sampling
areas was measured as a means of assessing the impact of the different species on the health of the ecosystem. The
data are plotted in Figure 1.

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36. Which of the following statements is best 38. Which of the following pieces of additional data
supported by the data? would help further investigate the relationship
between bears, salmon, and influx of nitrogen into
(A) Black bears are a keystone species.
the local environment?
(B) Salmon are a keystone species.
(C) Black bear urine is a significant source of (A) The experimenters should remove the
nitrogen in the environment. remains of salmon carcasses immediately
(D) The presence of black bears and salmon after the salmon are eaten by the bears and
correlates with a significant increase in determine the nitrogen content of the
nitrogen influx. carcasses.
(B) The experimenters should increase the
37. Which of the following most likely describes number of bears in the area and measure the
how the interaction between bears and salmon amount of nitrogen available for uptake by
influences nitrogen dynamics in the environment? plants.
(C) The experimenters should set up a net to
(A) When bears consume salmon, they leave
catch salmon before they enter the area and
parts of the carcasses on the ground, which
then measure nitrogen influx.
decompose, releasing nitrogen into the
(D) The experimenters should clear-cut the trees
environment.
from the area and determine how much
(B) When salmon swim upstream to spawn, bears
nitrogen remains in the streams.
migrate to the rivers and deposit nitrogen
from the forest with their excrement.
39. If a dam is built downstream and prevents salmon
(C) Bears are a reservoir for nitrogen because
migration to the test sites, which of the following
they are the top consumer in the
most accurately predicts the impact on nitrogen
environment.
influx?
(D) Bears urinate in rivers and streams, which
provides nitrogen for the salmon. (A) Nitrogen influx will increase because the
bears will no longer store nitrogen from
the salmon.
(B) Nitrogen influx will decrease because there
will be less bear-salmon interaction.
(C) Nitrogen influx will remain stable because
organisms other than bears and salmon will
mobilize nitrogen in the environment.
(D) Nitrogen influx will increase because bears
will no longer lose nitrogen to the salmon.

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Questions 40-43

Over many generations, two populations of the same species can diverge into separate species through
reproductive isolation. The figures below represent a model of speciation and show the results of matings between
individuals from two diverging populations at four different stages of speciation. The males represented in the model
are heterogametic, which means they have two different sex-determining chromosomes, (e.g., XY). The females are
homogametic, which means they have two similar sex-determining chromosomes, (e.g., XX). The offspring from
each mating are labeled interpopulation hybrids.
Figure 1 shows the results of a mating between a male and a female from the two populations. In each subsequent
figure, the males are from one of the diverging populations and the females are from the other population. The
fertility and viability of the offspring from each mating are indicated in the figures.

Figure 1. Mating between individuals from the initial populations

Figure 2. Mating between individuals from diverging populations at an intermediate stage of speciation

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Figure 3. Mating between individuals from diverging populations at a late stage of speciation

Figure 4. Mating between individuals from divergent populations after speciation is complete

40. Based on the model of speciation presented, 42. In a separate investigation, individual mice from
which of the following describes the most likely two populations that in nature are geographically
consequence to the populations over time? isolated from each other are mated in the
laboratory. The hybrid offspring were then mated
(A) Hybrid individuals are less likely to pass
with individuals from either of the original
their genetic information on to subsequent
populations. Only the female hybrid offspring
generations.
were fertile. The experimental results are most
(B) Hybrid individuals living together are
consistent with which of the stages that are
physically unable to mate with each other.
depicted in the model?
(C) Geographically isolated populations
gradually acquire similar heritable traits. (A) Initial population (Figure 1)
(D) Differences between hybrid individuals of (B) Intermediate stage (Figure 2)
a species disappear over time. (C) Late stage (Figure 3)
(D) Terminal stage (Figure 4)
41. Which of the following best describes the reason
for excluding hybrid males when calculating 43. Using the model of speciation and applying it to
the allele frequencies of two interbreeding a different population, which of the following
populations at the intermediate stage of speciation outcomes is most consistent for a different species
(Figure 2) ? in which the males are homogametic and the
females are heterogametic?
(A) The process of mate selection in large groups
often favors females over males. (A) Sterility would appear in females before
(B) The frequency of sex-determining appearing in males.
chromosomes is usually equal to 0.5. (B) Speciation would occur more rapidly because
(C) Sterile individuals make no genetic females would produce more offspring.
contribution to the next generation. (C) Behavioral isolation would occur sooner in
(D) The chance of inheriting a recessive allele species exhibiting nonrandom mating.
from a male is too small to calculate. (D) The population would reach
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium at
an accelerated rate.

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44. Two groups of students attempted to re-create the primitive atmospheric conditions of early Earth using the
apparatus represented below. Each group ran the experiment with different gas mixtures in the apparatus.

Which of the following statements best justifies the claim that the conditions in at least one of the experiments
could generate the molecular building blocks essential for life?
(A) The carbon dioxide (CO2) gas and water (H2O) vapor in experiment 1 could react spontaneously to produce
the phospholipids required by the first life-forms.
(B) The nitrogen (N2) gas and ammonia (NH3) gas in experiment 1 could provide the elemental nitrogen
required for the formation of amino acids.
(C) The sulfur dioxide (SO2) gas in experiment 2 could donate the excited electrons required to drive the
process of photosynthesis.
(D) The methane (CH4) gas in experiment 2 could act as the electron acceptor required to complete the process
of cellular respiration.

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Questions 45-48

Diapause is the interruption of an organism’s life cycle in response to environmental cues. The soil nematode
Caenorhabditis elegans is capable of entering adult reproductive diapause (ARD) when food is scarce. In
C. elegans, individuals normally become reproductively mature 2 days after hatching and remain fertile for 18 days.
They reproduce either by self-fertilization or by mating with another individual.
In an investigation, researchers examined the survival and reproductive success of C. elegans following different
times in ARD. In the first experiment, groups of C. elegans were held in ARD without food for 0–30 days. Upon
reintroduction of food, average brood sizes (average number of offspring per adult) were determined following
either self-fertilization or mating with a well-fed male. The results are shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Mean brood sizes ±2SE X after different times in ARD.

Individual C. elegans were held in ARD and subsequently
allowed to reproduce either via self-fertilization (unshaded bars)
or by mating with well-fed males (shaded bars).

In a second experiment, individuals were held in ARD without food for 0–30 days and monitored for average
survival times following reintroduction of food (Figure 2).

Figure 2. Mean survival ±2SE X following different times in ARD.

Individual C. elegans were held in ARD and subsequently given
access to food, whereupon their survival times were determined.

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45. Which of the following best describes the 47. Which of the following conclusions is most
reproductive ability of C. elegans following consistent with the data shown in Figure 2 ?
the ARD induced in the first experiment?
(A) Animals that spend 3–5 days in ARD are
(A) Mating with a well-fed male consistently more likely to survive periods of food
produced more offspring than did scarcity than are animals that spend
reproduction via self-fertilization. 13–15 days in ARD.
(B) The numbers of progeny produced by (B) Animals that spend 30 days in ARD live
self-fertilization and by mating with significantly longer after reintroduction
well-fed males were not statistically of food than animals that spend only
different. 3 days in ARD.
(C) C. elegans stopped reproducing after (C) The number of days an animal spends in
20 days without food. ARD does not significantly affect its time
(D) There was no relationship between days of survival after reintroduction of food.
without food and average brood size. (D) The large standard errors of the means make
conclusions from the data impossible.
46. The average brood size per mated individual upon
reintroduction of food following 30 days of ARD 48. Based on the experimental results, which of the
is closest to which of the following? following is the best evolutionary explanation for
the occurrence of ARD in C. elegans ?
(A) 10
(B) 50 (A) The ability to enter ARD provides a strong
(C) 250 selective advantage because reproduction
(D) 400 can occur despite periods of food scarcity.
(B) Acquiring the genes for ARD gives
individuals a selective advantage because
they produce more offspring than do
individuals who cannot enter ARD.
(C) Individuals who can enter ARD are selected
for in the population because they live
longer than do individuals who cannot
enter ARD.
(D) Individuals who can enter ARD have high
fitness because they can reproduce even
when food is scarce.

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Questions 49-53

The food web above represents feeding relationships in a biological community near a deep-sea hydrothermal
vent. Hydrothermal vents are geysers on the seafloor that gush super-heated, mineral-rich water. The seawater
surrounding hydrothermal vents typically contains carbon dioxide (CO2), molecular hydrogen (H2), hydrogen sulfide
(H2S), and methane (CH4). Sunlight, however, fails to reach the seafloor where deep-sea hydrothermal vents are
located.

As part of an investigation, researchers collected living specimens from an area near a deep-sea hydrothermal
vent. Mussels in the collection were found to be dependent on molecular hydrogen in seawater. Also, the researchers
discovered multiple species of bacteria living in the gills of the mussels. Mussels use gills for filter-feeding and gas
exchange with the surrounding seawater. On the basis of their experimental results, the researchers hypothesized that
some bacteria living in the gills of the mussels are capable of chemosynthesis.

49. Which of the following best explains how 50. Based on an analysis of the food web, an
biological communities near deep-sea observation that deep-sea bacteria consume
hydrothermal vents can exist in a habitat
molecular hydrogen (H2) is most relevant to
lacking sunlight?
resolving which of the following apparent
(A) Environmental conditions on some distant contradictions?
planets resemble those experienced by
organisms living near hydrothermal vents. (A) Water gushing from deep-sea hydrothermal
(B) Heterotrophs metabolize carbon-containing vents can be as hot as 400∞C, which is a
compounds produced by the photosynthetic lethal temperature for most organisms.
organisms that live on the seafloor.
(B) Some deep-sea organisms appear to be
(C) Some organisms rely on energy captured
from inorganic compounds to drive basic primary consumers, but no plants live near
biological processes. the hydrothermal vents.
(D) Some organisms that can tolerate high (C) Zoarcid fish are thought to be aggressive
temperatures are single celled, whereas
predators, but they are frequently described
others are multicellular.
as being lazy swimmers.
(D) Some tissues of tubeworms contain
hemoglobin, which is an oxygen-carrying
molecule, but there is little free oxygen at
this depth.

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51. Researchers are investigating the evolutionary 53. To re ne their model of deep-sea biological
relationships among organisms found near deep- communities, the researchers investigated areas
sea hydrothermal vents and similar organisms of the sea oor that are distant from any active
found closer to the ocean surface. Which of the hydrothermal vents. Which of the following is the
following scienti c questions is most relevant to best interpretation of the observation that some
the investigation? octopus species are only found near active
hydrothermal vents?
(A) What are the nucleotide sequences of

fi
ribosomal RNA genes that are found (A) Octopuses depend indirectly on inorganic
in the genomes of the different species? compounds in the seawater surrounding

fl
(B) What large-scale geological events have hydrothermal vents.
occurred recently in the Mid-Atlantic (B) Organisms capable of moving across the
fi
Ocean? seafloor are more difficult to observe than
(C) Does water temperature at different ocean are organisms that are rooted in place.
depths affect the relative levels of dissolved (C) Genetic bottleneck events in isolated areas
oxygen? of the deep ocean adversely affect some
(D) Do species found near deep-sea hydrothermal octopus populations but not others.
vents all have the same haploid number of (D) Biomass in a typical marine food web is
chromosomes? expected to be greater in higher trophic
levels than in lower trophic levels.
52. On the basis of the food web, which of the
following members of a deep-sea biological
community is most likely to also have a symbiotic
relationship with chemosynthetic organisms?
(A) Octopuses
(B) Blind crabs
(C) Zoarcid fish
(D) Shrimp

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Questions 54-58

The three-spined stickleback (Gasterosteus aculeatus) is a small fish found in both marine and freshwater
environments. Marine stickleback populations consist mainly of individuals with armor-like plates covering most
of their body surface (completely plated). Approximately 10,000 years ago, some marine sticklebacks colonized
freshwater environments. After many generations in the freshwater environments, the freshwater stickleback
populations lacked the armor plating (low plated) typical of marine stickleback populations.

Over the period between 1957 and 2005, one freshwater population, in Lake Washington, a lake in a coastal
region of the northwestern United States, changed from having a majority of individuals of the low-plated phenotype
to having more individuals of the completely-plated phenotype than of the low-plated phenotype. Figure 1 shows the
distribution of plated phenotypes in Lake Washington sticklebacks at four time points between 1957 and 2005.

A single gene, ectodysplasin (EDA), is thought to be responsible for the variation in the number of armor plates in
sticklebacks. Figure 2 shows a phylogenetic tree constructed by comparing DNA sequences of the EDA gene from a
number of stickleback populations with low-plated or completely plated phenotypes. Figure 3 shows a phylogenetic
tree constructed by comparing the sequences of 25 genes that were randomly selected from the same populations as
shown in Figure 2. In both figures, shaded populations display the completely plated phenotype.

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54. Which of the following best explains the 56. Prior to 1960, Lake Washington was highly
differences in the armor of the Lake Washington polluted and underwater visibility was limited to
stickleback population summarized in Figure 1 ? one or two meters. In the late 1960s, a large
cleanup effort reduced pollution, resulting in
(A) Analysis of somatic cells using chromosomal
visibility that increased to six to seven meters by
staining and light microscopy indicates that
1976. Which of the following best explains how
stickleback fish have a diploid number
the change in underwater visibility affected armor
of 42.
plating in Lake Washington sticklebacks between
(B) Stickleback males from natural freshwater
1957 and 1976 ?
populations are typically more aggressive
when competing for mates than are (A) Higher visibility allowed sticklebacks to
stickleback males from laboratory-bred increase their food consumption to make
populations. armor production easier.
(C) Fish exhibiting the low-plated phenotype (B) Higher visibility made the sticklebacks more
were selected against in the Lake susceptible to large-toothed predators in the
Washington stickleback population lakes, giving complete armor a selective
over the last 50 years. advantage.
(D) Migration of individuals from other (C) Clearer water allowed sunlight to penetrate to
freshwater environments to Lake deeper depths, so the sticklebacks had to
Washington led to gene flow between increase the amount of armor to protect
populations that were once geographically themselves from the resulting increase in
isolated. water temperature.
(D) Clearer water contained fewer of the
55. A completely-plated stickleback from a marine molecular building blocks needed for
population was mated to a low-plated stickleback armor production, so sticklebacks showed
a reduction in the amount of armor.
from a freshwater population. The resulting F1
hybrids all displayed a completely plated 57. Evolution of a new trait typically takes many
phenotype. When the F 1hybrids were allowed to generations. Yet a dramatic shift in the extent of
interbreed, the resulting F 2generation included armor plating in the Lake Washington stickleback
completely plated offspring and low-plated population occurred in the 50 years following the
cleanup of the lake. Which of the following best
offspring in an approximate 3:1 ratio. Which of describes the mechanism of the rapid evolution of
the following conclusions is best supported by the the armor phenotype in the Lake Washington
results of the breeding experiments? sticklebacks?
(A) Phenotypic variation in the F2 generation (A) Pollutants in Lake Washington forced the
suggests that armor morphology is sticklebacks to increase their mutation rate.
(B) The rapid change in the Lake Washington
controlled by many alleles of a single gene.
ecosystem required individual sticklebacks
(B) The completely-plated phenotype is to evolve complete armor quickly.
controlled by a dominant allele of a (C) The increase in visibility in Lake Washington
single gene. allowed sticklebacks to visually select
mates with low armor.
(C) Armor loss is an acquired characteristic that
(D) New selective pressures favored individuals
is affected by one or more environmental with the plated phenotype, causing the
factors. plated allele frequency in the population to
(D) Patterns of armor plating in stickleback quickly increase.
populations are regulated by sex-specific
signals.

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58. The phylogenetic trees in Figures 2 and 3 depict
two different phylogenies of the same populations
of sticklebacks. Which of the following questions
will best help determine which tree represents the
most accurate phylogeny?
(A) Is the EDA gene as representative of the
differences between the populations as the
25 random genes that were examined for
Figure 3 ?
(B) Are the low-plated populations found only in
freshwater and the high-plated populations
found only in saltwater environments?
(C) Is the common ancestor of the organisms
represented in Figure 2 different from the
common ancestor of the organisms
represented in Figure 3 ?
(D) Is the expression level of the EDA gene
analyzed in Figure 2 significantly greater
than the expression levels of the 25 genes
analyzed in Figure 3 ?

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Questions 59-62

Wolves, a top predator, were reintroduced to Yellowstone National Park in 1995 after a 50-year absence. In a
multiyear study, the numbers of wolves and elk were monitored. The data are shown in Figure 1. In two different
environments scientists monitored the percent of aspen trees browsed by herbivores (Figure 2) as well as the growth
of the trees (Figure 3). The upland environments consist mostly of flat forested areas. The riparian environments are
areas along streams with steep, wooded banks.

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59. Based on the data, which of the following is the 62. Which of the following models best predicts the
best explanation for the changes in the elk effect on the ecosystem if a deadly communicable
population size between 2000 and 2005 ? disease is introduced into the wolf population?
(A) The heights of aspen trees increased during (A)
that time period.
(B) Predation by wolves was higher than before
1995.
(C) The numbers of aspen trees increased during
that time period.
(D) Wolf populations increased more rapidly in
the upland areas.

60. Which of the following predictions about the

community is most likely true?
(B)
(A) A decrease in the elk population will cause
wolves to feed on aspen trees.
(B) An increase in the wolf population will lead
to a decrease in aspen growth.
(C) An increase in the growth of aspens will lead
to a decrease in the wolf population.
(D) A decrease in the wolf population will lead to
a decrease in the mean aspen height.

61. Based on the data, which of the following (C)

behaviors in elk could account for the differences
between the percent of aspens browsed by
herbivores and the height of aspen trees in
riparian and upland environments?
(A) Elk tend to avoid riparian areas where the
steep, wooded riverbanks make it difficult
to escape predators.
(B) Elk tend to prefer riparian areas where there
is easy access to water. (D)
(C) Elk tend to avoid upland areas where trees
are too tall to be easily eaten.
(D) Elk tend to prefer upland areas where there
are richer sources of mineral nutrients, such
as potassium and iodine.

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39
 GENETIC MAKEUP OF A MOUSE POPULATION
Number of Individuals Number of Individuals
Genotype Phenotype
in Original Population in New Population
BB Brown 841 841
Bb Tan 1,218 1,218
bb Gray 441 0
2,500 2,059

121. The genetic makeup of a mouse population is provided in the table above. At the start of an experiment,
researchers remove all the gray mice from the population, resulting in a population that is not in Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium. Calculate the frequency of the recessive allele in the remaining population of mice.
Give your answer as a decimal to two places.

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122. The cladogram above shows proposed phylogenetic relationships for several vertebrates. Selected derived
characters are indicated on the cladogram by numbered labels. Based on the information presented, which of the
derived characters is shared by alligators and manatees but not salamanders? Give your answer as the number
label of a character indicated on the cladogram.

12

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 Figure 1. The rate of amino acid sequence divergence of
proteins

123. Based on the data in Figure 1, calculate the rate of change

in the amino acid sequence of the most highly conserved
protein among the four proteins shown. Record your answer
as the number of amino acid changes per 10,000 amino acids
per 1 million years. Give your answer to the nearest
hundredth.

124

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43
 BIOLOGY
Section II
Total Time —1 hour and 30 minutes
8 Questions

Directions: Questions 1 and 2 are long free-response questions that require about 23 minutes each to answer and are
worth 10 points each. Questions 3 – 8 are short free-response questions that require about 8 minutes each to answer.

Read each question carefully and completely. You are advised to spend the 10-minute reading period planning your
answers. You may begin writing your responses before the reading period is over. Write your response in the space
provided for each question. Only material written in the space provided will be scored. Answers must be written out
in paragraph form. Outlines, bulleted lists, or diagrams alone are not acceptable.

Question 1 is on the following page.

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1. In an investigation of the effect of a particular insecticide on plant growth and development, researchers
established 20 test plots containing mature Haplopappus squarrosus shrubs. H. squarrosus is pollinated by
certain species of insects and is eaten by other species of insects. Ten test plots were sprayed with the water-
soluble insecticide, and ten test plots were sprayed with water only. The researchers recorded the numbers of
plants or plant parts at different life stages in each test plot. The results of the investigation are shown in the
table.

EFFECT OF INSECTICIDE TREATMENT ON PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

Treatment
Water Spray Insecticide Spray

Plant Life Stage Plant or Plant Part Mean Density 2SEX P-values*
(numbers/m2)

Flowering Flowers 8,220 ± 360 9,490 ± 1900 ≥0.05

Seed formation Immature seeds 2,440 ± 78 3,100 ± 480 ≥0.05

Seed maturation Mature seeds 60 ± 44 1,200 ± 1020 ≤0.001

Seedling development Seedlings 1.4 ± 0.4 33.1 ± 15 ≤0.01

*based on an analysis of variance (ANOVA) test

Figure 1. Student-constructed graph of data with a plotting error

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 (a) Identify the control treatment in the original experiment. Provide reasoning to support the researcher’s
decision to not use a set of unsprayed plants as a control.
(b) A student incorrectly plotted one value from the table on a graph (Figure 1). Identify the error in the
student-constructed graph. Provide reasoning to support the student’s choice of a logarithmic scale on the
Y axis.
(c) Using the template provided, calculate the percent of plants or plant parts remaining from one life stage to
the next life stage. Round your answer to one decimal place. Based on your calculations, identify the plant
life stage at which the insects have the greatest impact on the life cycle of the plant. Justify your answer.
Describe the most likely interaction between the insects and the plants.
(d) In a second experiment, researchers used a different insecticide that affects a different group of insects. In
this treatment, the number of seeds formed was greatly reduced compared to the control. Based on this
observation, describe the most likely interaction between the affected insects and the plants in this
experiment. Justify your response.

THIS PAGE MAY BE USED FOR TAKING NOTES AND PLANNING YOUR ANSWERS.
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WRITE ALL YOUR RESPONSES ON THE LINED PAGES.

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PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 1

Plant Life Stage Water Spray Percent Remaining Insecticide Spray Percent Remaining

Flowering 8220 9490

Seed Formation 2440 3100

Seed Maturation 60 1200

Seedling Development 1.4 33.1

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 Figure 1. Behavioral responses of male flycatchers on
Makira Island to different combinations of bird
models and songs. The conditions of each
treatment group are indicated below the graph.
Error bars represent ±2SE X .

2. In an investigation about the roles of visual and auditory cues in mate competition, researchers studied
two distinct populations of flycatchers (Monarcha castaneiventris), a species of bird that lives in the
Solomon Islands. The flycatchers on Makira Island have light brown bellies, whereas those on
Santa Ana Island are uniformly black. The songs produced by flycatchers of each population are also
different from each other. To investigate male flycatcher competition, researchers exposed male flycatchers
from Makira Island to different combinations of (1) bird models that resembled the males from each of the
two populations, (2) recordings of the distinct songs produced by the members of each population, and
(3) models and song recordings of a different bird species, golden whistlers (Pachycephala pectoralis).
On Makira Island, the researchers located territories defended by single mating pairs of flycatchers and
assigned each territory to one of five treatment groups as indicated in Figure 1.
For each trial, the researchers observed the behavioral response of the male flycatcher and assigned an
aggression score from 0 to 10. A higher aggression score indicated a more aggressive behavioral response.
The results of the study are represented in Figure 1.
(a) Based on the information in Figure 1, identify ONE independent variable, ONE dependent variable, and
ONE negative control treatment in the experimental design.
(b) Based on the data in Figure 1, make a claim about the behavioral responses of the male Makira flycatchers
to a model of a Makira flycatcher. Use the data to justify your claim. Make a claim about the behavioral
responses of the male Makira flycatchers to the song recordings of a Makira flycatcher. Use the data to
justify your claim.
(c) A researcher claims that the Makira Island and the Santa Ana Island flycatchers are diverging into different
species. Identify TWO potential prezygotic barriers that may be contributing to the divergence and
speciation of these two populations of birds. Identify ONE piece of evidence that would indicate that
speciation has already occurred within the flycatcher populations.
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 Figure 1. Effect of karrikins and strigolactones on seed germination in an
autotrophic host plant and its obligate parasitic weed

3. Strigolactones and karrikins are structurally similar compounds that can affect seed germination in certain
species of plants. However, plants with different life strategies (autotrophic plants or obligate parasitic weeds)
germinate in response to the presence of different compounds in the soil. After germination, many species of
autotrophic plant release strigolactones from their roots into the soil, which promotes uptake of nutrients.
The graphs above represent the results of a laboratory experiment to test the effect of different concentrations of
strigolactones or karrikins on the seed germination of an autotrophic host plant and of an obligate parasitic weed.
(a) Based on an analysis of the data, describe the effect of karrikins on seed germination in the autotrophic host
plants and the obligate parasitic weed plants.
(b) A researcher proposes that the obligate parasitic weed requires exposure to a signal from the host plant
before it can germinate. Using the data as evidence, provide support for the researcher’s claim and give
ONE reason the response would be an advantage for the weed plants.

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4. Bacteria and fungi are found in all ecosystems on Earth. A scientist claims that fungi are keystone species in a
particular terrestrial ecosystem. To test this hypothesis, the scientist divides an area within the ecosystem into
multiple small plots of similar size. Equal numbers of plots are then randomly assigned to one of three treatment
groups. Plots in the first group are sprayed with a water-soluble substance that selectively kills fungi. Plots in the
second group are sprayed with a water-soluble substance that selectively kills bacteria. Plots in the third group
are sprayed with the same volume of water only. After a certain period of time, the scientist then measures the
amount of accessible nutrients in the soil in each plot.
(a) Describe ONE common role of both bacteria and fungi in the movement of energy and matter in
ecosystems.
(b) Describe how analyzing the data from the treatment group sprayed with water only will increase the validity
of the experimental results.
(c) Based on the scientist’s claim, predict which treatment group will have the smallest amount of accessible
nutrients in the soil at the end of the experiment. Justify your prediction in terms of the relative impact of a
keystone species in the environment.

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5. Caenorhabditis elegans is a species of soil-dwelling nematode (roundworm) that feeds on soil bacteria,
including Bacillus thuringiensis. B. thuringiensis is a virulent bacterial pathogen that produces BT toxin, a
protein that can kill different invertebrate species, including C. elegans.
In a laboratory experiment, C. elegans and B. thuringiensis were cultured individually (control) or together
(experimental) for 150 days. Under optimal conditions, the generation time of C. elegans is approximately
3.5 days and the generation time of B. thuringiensis is approximately 25 minutes. At the end of the experiment,
the change in virulence of B. thuringiensis and the change in resistance of C. elegans to BT toxin were
determined.
(a) Calculate the maximum number of generations that is possible in individual cultures of C. elegans AND the
maximum number of generations that is possible in individual cultures of B. thuringiensis in 150 days.
(b) The researchers found that after 150 days, the magnitude of the change in both B. thuringiensis virulence
and C. elegans resistance was less when they were cultured individually (control) than when they were
cultured together (experimental). Provide ONE reason for the difference in results between the two
treatments.
(c) The researchers also found that after 150 days, the relative change in virulence of B. thuringiensis was
greater than the relative change in the resistance in C. elegans when the organisms were cultured together.
Provide ONE reason that the relative change in B. thuringiensis virulence was greater than the relative
change in C. elegans resistance.

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 AMINO ACID AT POSITION 104 OF β-HEMOGLOBIN
Species Amino Acid 104
Horse Arginine (Arg)
Gorilla Lysine (Lys)
Chimpanzee Arginine (Arg)
Human Arginine (Arg)

6. β-hemoglobin is a highly conserved protein among vertebrates. The identity of amino acid 104–one of the
variable amino acids in the polypeptide–in four vertebrate species is shown in the table above.
A student constructed the phylogenetic tree shown in Figure 1 by comparing the amino acid sequences of
β-hemoglobin in the four species. The student placed “Lys” at an incorrect position on the phylogenetic tree
in an attempt to show when the mutation affecting amino acid 104 occurred.

Figure 1. Student-constructed Phylogenetic

Tree of Vertebrate Species with
Incorrect Placement of “Lys”

Figure 2. Codon Table

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 (a) Refine the student’s model by placing “Lys” at the correct position on the phylogenetic tree to indicate
where the Arg-to-Lys mutation most likely occurred. Provide ONE piece of reasoning to support your
placement of “Lys” on the phylogenetic tree.
(b) Predict the most likely single mutation affecting amino acid 104 in the species and justify how
β-hemoglobin can function normally in all four species despite the mutation.

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7 . In a study of bacterial communities, researchers investigated interactions among naturally occurring strains of
Vibrio bacteria. The researchers found that some Vibrio bacteria secrete antimicrobial substances that inhibit the
growth and reproduction of other bacteria (antagonism). The researchers also found that some strains of Vibrio
bacteria produce no antimicrobial substances themselves but instead live in close proximity to other bacteria that
produce antimicrobial substances to which they are not susceptible (cooperation).
By testing approximately 35,000 pairs of naturally occurring strains of Vibrio bacteria, the researchers identified
830 antagonistic interactions among genetically related Vibrio strains. The graph represents the probability of
antagonism between any two given strains of Vibrio bacteria as a function of genetic relatedness (genetic
distance). The greater the genetic distance, the less related are any two bacterial strains.
(a) Describe ONE type of molecular evidence that can be used to determine the genetic relatedness of bacterial
strains isolated from naturally occurring populations.
(b) Using the information presented in the graph, describe the relationship between antagonism and genetic
relatedness in the communities of Vibrio bacteria sampled for the study.
(c) Provide reasoning to show how the results of the study support the claim that cooperation among Vibrio
bacteria can increase the fitness of some individual bacteria living in a natural environment.

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8. In the early nineteenth century, Alexander von Humboldt observed that the distribution of plants up a
mountainside mirrors the distribution of plants at increasing latitude. A number of modern studies have
reinforced the idea that as the global climate warms, plant species are becoming redistributed to higher
elevations or latitudes.
However, in a separate large-scale study comparing historical (1930–1935) plant distributions with
modern (2000–2005) distributions in the western United States, researchers observed that 72% of identified
plant species shifted to lower elevations despite an associated increase in average temperature.
Explain the observed shift of the plants to lower elevations by doing each of the following.
∑ Propose a hypothesis about an environmental factor other than temperature that could be
driving the shift to lower elevations.
∑ Describe ONE piece of evidence that a researcher could use to support your hypothesis.
∑ Provide reasoning to connect the evidence with the environmental factor you proposed.

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 Extra FRQ

1. Trichomes are hairlike outgrowths of the epidermis of plants that are thought to provide protection against being
eaten by herbivores (herbivory). In a certain plant species, stem trichome density is genetically determined.
To investigate variation in stem trichome density within the plant species, a student counted the number of
trichomes on the stems of six plants in each of three different populations. The student used the data to calculate
the mean trichome density (numbers of hairs per square centimeter) for each population. The results are provided
in the table below.

TRICHOME DENSITY IN THREE PLANT POPULATIONS (number of trichomes/cm2)

Standard
Error of
Population Plant 1 Plant 2 Plant 3 Plant 4 Plant 5 Plant 6 Mean
the Mean
(SEM)
I 8 11 9 10 8 6 9 1
II 12 6 15 9 13 8 11 1
III 13 17 9 14 12 16 14 1

(a) On the axes provided, create an appropriately labeled graph to illustrate the sample means of the
three populations to within 95% confidence (i.e., sample mean ± 2 SEM).
(b) Based on the sample means and standard errors of the means, identify the two populations that are most
likely to have statistically significant differences in the mean stem trichome densities. Justify your response.
(c) Describe the independent and dependent variables and a control treatment for an experiment to test the
hypothesis that higher trichome density in plants is selected for in the presence of herbivores. Identify an
appropriate duration of the experiment to ensure that natural selection is measured, and predict the
experimental results that would support the hypothesis.

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2014 AP® BIOLOGY FREE-RESPONSE QUESTIONS

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 2018 AP® BIOLOGY FREE-RESPONSE QUESTIONS

BIOLOGY
Section II
Total Time—1 hour and 30 minutes
Reading Period —10 minutes
Writing Period—1 hour and 20 minutes
8 Questions

Directions: Questions 1 and 2 are long free-response questions that require about 22 minutes each to answer and are
worth 10 points each. Questions 3 – 8 are short free-response questions that require about 6 minutes each to answer.
Questions 3 – 5 are worth 4 points each and questions 6 – 8 are worth 3 points each.
Read each question carefully and completely. You are advised to spend the 10-minute reading period planning your
answers. You may begin writing your responses before the reading period is over. Write your response in the space
provided for each question. Only material written in the space provided will be scored. Answers must be written out
in paragraph form. Outlines, bulleted lists, or diagrams alone are not acceptable.

Figure 1. Phylogenetic tree representing the evolutionary relatedness among bear

populations based on mitochondrial DNA sequence comparisons

1. Polar bears are highly adapted for life in cold climates around the North Pole. Brown bears, black bears, and
pandas are found in warmer environments. Researchers collected complete mitochondrial DNA sequences from
several populations of bears and constructed a phylogenetic tree to represent their evolutionary relatedness
(Figure 1).

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 2018 AP® BIOLOGY FREE-RESPONSE QUESTIONS

A researcher studying adaptation in bears sequenced the nuclear gene encoding a lysosomal trafficking protein
(LYST) in polar bears, brown bears, black bears, and panda bears. There are seven inferred amino acid
substitutions that are found only in polar bears. Mutations that cause similar substitutions in the human LYST
protein are associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome, an autosomal recessive condition in which pigment is
absent from the hair and eyes. The researcher used the inferred amino acid sequences to build the distance matrix
shown in Table 1.

TABLE 1. AMINO ACID DIFFERENCES IN THE

LYST PROTEIN AMONG BEAR SPECIES
Panda Black Brown Polar
Panda −
Black 33 −
Brown 34 1 −
Polar 40 7 8 −

(a) Use the phylogenetic tree in Figure 1 to estimate the age in hundreds of thousands of years of the most
recent common ancestor of all brown bears. Identify the population of brown bears to which polar bears are
most closely related based on the mitochondrial DNA sequence comparison. Identify two populations
whose positions could be switched without affecting the relationships illustrated in the cladogram.
(b) Construct a cladogram on the template to represent a model of the evolutionary relatedness among the bear
species based on the differences in LYST protein sequences (Table 1). Circle the position on the cladogram
that represents the out-group.
(c) A student claims that mitochondrial DNA sequence comparisons provide a more accurate phylogeny of bear
species than do LYST protein sequence comparisons. Provide ONE piece of reasoning to support the
student’s claim.
(d) A researcher genetically engineers a mouse strain by deleting the mouse lyst gene and replacing it with the
polar bear lyst gene. Predict the most likely difference in phenotype of the transgenic mouse strain
compared to the wild-type mouse strain. Justify your prediction.
(e) Describe how the mutation in the lyst gene became common in the polar bear population. If the lyst gene
were the only determinant of fur color, predict the percent of white offspring produced by a mating between
a polar bear and a brown bear

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 NUMBER OF DIFFERENCES IN THE FIRST 60 AMINO ACIDS OF THE
NEUROMODULIN PROTEIN ISOLATED FROM FIVE SPECIES
Finch Gecko Turtle Frog Zebra fish
Finch 0 2 2 6 10
Gecko 0 1 7 11
Turtle 0 7 11
Frog 0 13
Zebra fish 0

8. Neuromodulin is an essential protein that is highly conserved among vertebrates. Researchers compared the
first 60 amino acids of the neuromodulin protein from each of five different species. The results are shown in the
table above.
Based on the data in the table, construct a cladogram on the template provided to represent the evolutionary
relatedness of the five species. Using the data, justify the placement of the zebra fish on the cladogram. On the
cladogram, circle the position of the most recent common ancestor of the two most closely related species.

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Unit 7 Natural Selection
Extra Questions

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