PHYSICS

1. In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1µF and resistance R
is 100 Ω. The frequency at which resonance occurs is :-
A) 15.9 kHz
B) 1.59 rad/s
C) 1. 59 kHz
D) 15.9 rad/s
Answer: (C )

2. If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R
is given by:

A) 50 Ω B) 1000

C) 400 Ω D) 200 Ω

Answer: (B)

3. The magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit is:-

A) 0.5 A from A to B through E

B) 5/9 A from A to B through E 9
C) 1.5 A from B to A through E
D) 0.2 A from B to A through E

Answer: (A)

4. The temperature of a gas is - 50 C ° To what temperature the gas should be heated so

that the rms speed is increased by 3 times?
A) 3295 C°
B) 3097 K
C) 223 K
D) 669 C°
Answer: (A)
5. The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass M and radius R about its own
axis to the radius of gyration of the thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius about its
axis is :-
A) 5:3
B) 2:5
C) 5:2
D) 3:5
Answer: (D)

6. A Carnot engine has an efficiency of 50% when its source is at a temperature 327C °
The temperature of the sink is
A) 15 C °
B) 100 C °
C) 200 C °
D) 27 C °
Answer: (D)

7. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Photovoltaic devices can convert optical radiation into electricity.

Statement II: Zener diode is designed to operate under reverse bias in breakdown region. In
the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate Answer from the options
given below:
A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Answer: (D)

8. A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of 280ms - 1 in the direction 30 deg above the
horizontal. The maximum height attained by the bullet is (g = 9.8ms - 2, sin 30 ° = 0.5) - 7.
A) 2000 m B) 3000 m
C) 1000 D) 2800 m

Answer: (C)

9. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30 deg with an electric field of intensity 2 x

105 NC- 1 It experiences a torque equal to 4 Nm. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the
dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
A) 6 mC B) 4 mC
C) 2 mC D) 8 mC

Answer (C)
10. The errors in the measurement which arise due to unpredictable fluctuations in
temperature and voltage supply are :
A) Personal errors
B) Least count errors
C) Random errors
D) Instrumental errors
Answer: (C)

11. The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe to that of
closed pipe having the same length is:
A) 2:1
B) 1:3
C) 3:1
D) 1:2
Answer: (A)

12. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface is :

A) Positive
B) Infinity
C) Negative
D) Zero
Answer: (D)

13. A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the secondary of a step down transformer, whose

primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V. Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is
the current in the primary winding?
A) 2.7 A
B) 3.7 A
C) 0.37 A
D) 0.27 A
Answer: (D)

14. The work functions of Caesium (Cs), potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30
eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an incident energy
of 2.20 eV, which of these photosensitive surfaces may emit photoelectrons ?
A) Both Na and K
B) K only
C) Na only
D) Cs only
Answer: (D)
15. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by an electron accelerated through a
potential difference of V volts is proportional to:
A) 1/V
B) 1/√V
C) V2
D) √V
Answer: (A)

16. A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length (5 ± 0.02)
cm. The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be:
A) 1.3%
B) 1.6%
C) 1.4%
D) 1.2%
Answer: (B)

17. For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are given below :
Statement I: If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the
fringes remains constant.

Statement II: If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of

larger wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct Answer from the options given
below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Answer: (B)

18. The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the following circuit is:

A) 3µF B) 6µF
C) 9µF D) 2µF

Answer: (D)
19. Resistance of a carbon resistor determined from colour codes is ((22000 ± 5)%) Ω. The
colour of third band must be:
A) Green B) Orange C) Yellow D) Red
Answer: (B)

20. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes.

In how much time, the activity of substance drops to (1 /16) th of its initial value?

A) 40 minutes
B) 60 minutes
C) 80 minutes
D) 20 minutes
Answer: (C)

21. An ac source is connected to a capacitor C. Due to decrease in its operating frequency:

A) displacement current increases.
B) displacement current decreases.
C) capacitive reactance remains constant.
D) capacitive reactance decreases.
Answer: (B)

22. A vehicle travels half the distance with speed v and the remaining distance with speed
2v. Its average speed is :
A) 2v /3
B) 3v /4
C) 4v /3
D) v/3
Answer: (C)

23. The amount of energy required to form a soap bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap
solution is nearly: (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03N m - 1 )
A) 5.06 x 10- 4J
B) 3.01 x 10- 4J
C) 50.1 x 10- 4J
D) 30.16 x 10- 4J

Answer: (B)

24. . The venturi-meter works on:

A) Bernoulli's principle
B) The principle of parallel axes
C) The principle of perpendicular axes
D) Huygen's principle
Answer: (A)
25. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series is λ. The shortest
wavelength in the Bracket series is :
A) 4 λ
B) 9 λ
C) 16 λ
D) 2λ
Answer: (A)
 CHEMESTRY

1. In the following reaction, ʽ B ʼ is.

A) B) C) D)
Answer: (C)
Sol :

2. The group of chemicals used as pesticide is

A) Aldrin, Sodium Chlorate , Sodium arsinite
B) DDT, Aldrin
C) Sodium chlorate , DDT , PAN
D) Dieldrin , Sodium arsinite , Tetrachloroethene
Answer: (B)
Sol : DDT , Aldrin and Dialdrin is pesticide.

3. The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr required to neutralize10.0n ml of 0.01M aqueous

Ba(OH)2 is (Assume complete neutralization)
A) 2.5 mL B) 5.0 mL
C) 10.0 mL D) 7.5 mL
Answer: (C)
Sol : Meq of Ba(OH)2 = Meq of HBr
0.1 × 2 = 0.02 × V
V = 0.2/0.02 = 10 mL
4. Consider the following pair of solution which will Be isotonic at the same
temperature. The number of pairs of solutions is / are
A) 1 M aq. NaCl and 2 M aq. Urea
B) 1 M aq. CaCl2 and 1.5 M aq . KCL
C) 1.5 M aq. AlCl3 and 2 M aq. Na2SO4
D) 2.5 M aq. KCL and 1M aq Al2(SO4)3
Answer: (D)
Sol:
A) isotonic ( product of I × C is same)
B) isotonics
C) isotonics
D) isotonics
So, number of isotonics pairs = 4
5. Among the following the number of compounds Which will give positive iodoform
reaction is _____________.
A) 1- Phenylbutan -2-one
B) 2 - Methylbutan - 2- ol
C) 3 - Methylbutan - 2- ol
D) 1 - Phenylethanol
E) 3, 3 - dimethylbutan - 2- one
F) 1 - Phenylpropan - 2-ol
Answer: (D)
Sol:

(C) , (D), (E) & (F) give iodoform reaction.

6. The water gas on reaction with cobalt as a catalyst forms
A) Methanal B) Methanoic acid
C) Ethanol D) Methanol
Answer: (D)
Sol:

7. Which of the following complex is octahedral, diamagnetic and the most stable ?
A. Na3[CoCl6] B. [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
C.K3[Co(CN)6] D. [Co(H2O)6]Cl2
Answer (C)
Sol:
A. Na3[CoCl6] - Paramagnetic
B. [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 - Paramagnetic
C. K3[Co(CN)6] - Diamagnetic
D. [Co(H2O)6]Cl2 - Paramagnetic

8. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Butan - 1 - ol has higher boiling point than ethoxyethane .
Reason R : Extensive hydrogen bonding leads to stronger association of molecules .
In the light of the above statement, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
A) A is true but R is false
B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
C) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
D) A is false but R is true
Answer: (B)
Sol : Owing to intermolecular hydrogen bonding in
butanol, it has higher boiling point than
ethoxyethane.
9. What is the purpose of adding gypsum to cement?
A) To facilitate the hydration of cement
B) To slow down the process of setting
C) To give a hard mass
D) To speed up the process of setting
Answer: (B)
Sol: When mixed with water the setting of cement takes place to give a hard mass. The is
due to hydration of molecules of the constituents and their rearrangements. The purpose of
adding gypsum is only to slow down the process of setting of cement so that it gets
sufficiently hardened.

10. The major product formed in the following reaction is:

A. B.

C. D.
Answer: (B)
Sol : Selective reduction of ester group.

11. Which of the following metals can be extracted through alkali leaching technique?
A. Sn B. Pb
C. Au D. Cu
Answer: (A)
Sol : SnO2 + NaOH → Na2[ Sn(OH)6]
12. The correct order of electronegativity for given element is
A. P > Br > C > At B. Br > P > At >C
C.Br > C > At > P D. C > P > At > Br
Answer: (C)
SOL : Element Electronegativity
P 2.1
C 2.5
Br 3.0
At 2.2
Hence, the correct order is Br > C > At > P.
13. When a 60 W electric heater is immersed in a gas for 100s in a constant volume
container with adiabatic Walls, the temperature of the gas rises by 5°C. The heat
capacity of the given gas is J K-1 (Nearest integer).
A) 800 B) 1200 C) 1000 D) 1100
Answer: (B)
𝐇𝐞𝐚𝐭 𝐚𝐛𝐬𝐨𝐫𝐛𝐞𝐝
Sol : 𝐇𝐞𝐚𝐭 𝐜𝐚𝐩𝐚𝐜𝐢𝐭𝐲 = 𝐂𝐡𝐚𝐧𝐠𝐞 𝐢𝐧 𝐭𝐞𝐦𝐩𝐞𝐫𝐚𝐭𝐮𝐫𝐞
𝟔𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝑱
=
𝟓

= 1200 JK-1
14. 0.5 g of an organic compound (x) with 60% carbon will produce _______ × 10-1 g of CO2
on complete combustion.
A) 1.3 B) 1.6 C) 2.1 D) 1.1
Answer: (D)
𝟏𝟐 𝐖𝐭.𝐨𝐟 𝐂𝐎𝟐
Sol : 𝐂% = 𝟒𝟒 × 𝐖𝐭.𝐨𝐟 𝐨𝐫𝐠𝐚𝐧𝐢𝐜 𝐜𝐨𝐦𝐩𝐨𝐮𝐧𝐝 × 𝟏00
𝟏𝟐 𝑾𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝑪𝑶𝟐
𝟔𝟎 = × × �00
𝟒𝟒 𝟎.𝟓

Wt. of CO2 = 1.1

15. The number of following factors which affect the percent covalents character of the
ionics bond is _________ .
A) Polarising power of cation
B) Extent of distortion of anion
C) Polarisability of the anion
D) Polarising power of anion
Answer: (C)
Sol: Percentage covalent character of an ionics bond depends upon
 Polarising power of cation
 Extent of distortion of anion
 Polarisability of the anion

16. The number of given statements which is/are correct is____________.

A) The stronger the temperature dependence of the rate constant, the higher is the
activation energy.
B) If a reaction has zero activation energy, its rate is independent of temperature .
C) The stronger the temperature dependence of the rate constant, the smaller is the
activation energy.
D) If there is no correlation between the temperature and the rate constant then it means
that the reaction has negative activation energy.
Answer: (B)
Sol: Rate constant is given by Arrhenius equation k = Ae -Ea/ RT
Using the above equation, we can clearly see that only option (A) and (B) are correct.

17. Which is the following is the correct structure of L - Glucose

A) B)

C) D)
Answer: (A)
Sol: Structure based

18. How many structural isomer are there in C7H16.

A) 5 B) 6 C) 8 D) 9
Answer: (D)
Sol: 9 structural isomers are possible of C7H16.
19. Which of the following has the maximum dipole moment.
A) NH3 B) NF3 C) PCl5 D) CH4
Answer: (A)
Sol: NH3 has maximum dipole moment.

20. Which of the following show only one oxidation state except it’s elemental state
A) Ti B) Sc C) Co D) Ni
Answer: (B)
Sol: Sc show only + 3 oxidation state.

21. Pressure v/s temperature graph of an ideal gas of equal number of moles of different
density is given below :

A) P1 = P2 = P3 B) P1 > P2 > P3 C) P1 < P2 < P3 D) P1 > P2 < P3

Answer: (B)
�ρ
Sol: P = M T
�ρ
Slope = ∝ρ
M

P1 > P2 > P 3

22. If emf of hydrogen electrode at 25°C is zero pure water then pressure of H 2 in bar
A) 10-14 B) 10-7 C) 1 D) 0.5
Answer: (A)
Sol: H+ + e- →½ H2
Ɛ = 0 - 0.059/1 log (PH2)1/2/10-7
(PH2)1/2/10-7 = 1
PH2 = 10 -14
23. Which gas is produced when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Hydrogen
D) Carbon dioxide
Answer: (C)

24. What is the primary component of natural gas?

A) Ethane
B) Butane
C) Propane
D) Methan
Answer: (D)

25. Which of the following is a strong acid?

A) Acetic acid (CH₃COOH)

B) Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
C) Ammonia (NH₃)
D) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
Answer: (B)
 MATHEMATICS
1. At a Christmas party, everyone shook hands with everyone else. There were a total of
66 handshakes that happened during the party. How many people were present?
A) 9
B) 12
C) 16
D) 20
Answer: (B)
2. You are given a 3-digit number. The second digit of this number is four times bigger
than the third digit. The first digit of the number is 3 less than the second digit. What is
the number?

A) 140
B) 142
C) 141
D) 146
Answer: (C)

3. Question 5: A box is made with a square base and an open top. The area of the material
used is 192 sq. cms. If the volume of the box is maximum, the dimensions of the box are
A)4, 4, 8

B) 2, 2, 4

C) 8, 8, 4

D) 2, 2, 2
Answer: (C)

4. Suppose f(x) is a polynomial of degree four, having critical points at -1, 0, 1. If T = {x∈R|
f(x) = f(0)}, then the sum of squares of all the elements of T is:

A) 6

B) 2

C) 8

D) 4
Answer: (D)
5. Let P = x3-1/x3, Q= x-1/x and a is the minimum value of P/Q2. Then the value of [a] is
where [x] = greatest integer less than or equal to x.

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Answer: (C)

6. If ab = 2a + 3b, a > 0, b > 0 then the minimum value of ab is

A) 12
B) 24
C) 1/4
D) 2/3

Answer: (B)

7. If A + B + C = 1800 then the value of tan A + tan B + tan C is

A) ≥3√3

B) ≥2√3

C) > 3√3

D) > 2√3

Answer: (A)

8. If 5(tan2 x – cos2 x) = 2cos 2x + 9, then the value of cos 4x is :

A) 1/3

B) 2/9

C) -7/9

D) -3/5

Answer: (C)
9. Let the function f: (0, π) → R be defined by f(θ) = (sin θ + cos θ) 2 + (sin θ – cos θ)4 .
Suppose, the function f has a local minimum at θ precisely when θ ∈ {λ1 π, … , λr π}, where
0 < λ1< ⋯ < λr < 1.Then the value of λ1 + ⋯ + λr is

A) 1/4

B) -2

C) 1

D) ½
Answer: (D)

10. For what and only what values of α lying between 0 and π is the inequality
sin α cos3α > sin3α cos α valid?

A) α ∈ (0, π/4)

B) α ∈ (0, π/2)

C) α ∈ (π/4, π/2)

D) none of these
Answer: (A)

11. If sin θ = 3 sin (θ + 2α), then the value of tan (θ + α) + 2 tan α is

A) 3

B) 1

C) 2

D) 0
Answer: (A)

12. Let a, b, c be three non zero real numbers such that the equation √3a cos x + 2b sin x =
c, x belongs to [-π/2, π/2] has two distinct roots α and β with α + β = π/3. Then the value
of b/a is
A) 1

B) 4/3

C) 1/2

D) 0

Answer: (C)
13. If x2 + px – 444p = 0 has integral roots, where p is a prime number, then the value(s) of
p is (are)

A) 2

B) 3

C) 2, 3 and 37

D) 37

Answer: (D)

14. Let -π/6 < θ < -π/12. Suppose α1 and β1 are the roots of the equation x2 – 2x secθ + 1
= 0 and α2 and β2 are the roots of the equation x2 + 2x tanθ – 1 = 0. If α1 > β1 and α2 >
β2, then α1+ β2 equals.

A) 2(sec θ – tan θ)

B) 2 sec θ

C) -2 tan θ

D) 0

Answer: (C)

15. If 2+i√3 is a root of the equation x2 + px + q = 0, where p and q are real, then (p, q)
equals.

A) (-4, 7)

B) (4, -7)

C) (-7, 4)

D) (4, 7)

Answer: (A)

16. If the quadratic equations x2 + ax + b = 0 and x2 + bx + a = 0 (a ≠ b) have a common

root, then the value of (a+b) is

A) 1 B) -1 C) 2 D) 0
Answer: (B)
17. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 300 and tan 150,
respectively then the value of 2+q-p is

A) 2

B) 3

C) 0

D) 1
Answer: (B)

18. The number of values of θ in the interval (-π/2, π/2) such that θ ≠ nπ/5 for n = 0, ±1, ±2
and tan θ = cot 5θ as well as sin 2θ = cos 4θ

A) 3

B) 4

C) 7

D) 5

Answer: (A)

19. If √2 sin α/√(1 + cos 2α) = 1/7 and √((1 – cos 2β)/2) = 1/√10, α, β ∈ (0, π/2), then tan (α
+ 2β) is equal to
A) 1
B) -1

C) 0
D) ½

Answer: (A)

20. Let the function f: (0, π) → R be defined by f(θ) = (sin θ + cos θ)2 + (sin θ – cos θ)4 .
Suppose, the function f has a local minimum at θ precisely when θ ∈ {λ1 π, … , λr π},
where 0 < λ1< ⋯ < λr < 1.Then the value of λ1 + ⋯ + λr is
A) 1/4

B) -2
C) 1
D) ½
Answer: (D)
21. If λx2 – 5xy + 6y2 + x – 3y = 0 represents a pair of straight lines, then their point of
intersection is
A) (1, 3)
B) (-1, -3)
C) (3, 1)

D) (-3, -1)

Answer: (D)

22. If the acute angles between the pairs of lines 3x2 – 7xy + 4y2 = 0 and 6x2 – 5xy + y2 = 0
be θ1 and θ2 respectively, then
A) θ1 = θ2

B) θ1 = 2θ2
C) 2θ1 = θ2
D) none of these

Answer: (A)

23. The equation x2 – 3xy + λy2 + 3x – 5y + 2 = 0 when λ is a real number, represents a pair
of straight lines. If θ is the angle between the lines, then cosec2 θ is equal to

A) 3
B) 9
C) 10
D) 100

Answer: (C)

24. A straight line L through the point (3, -2) is inclined at an angle 600 to the line √3x + y =
1. If L also intersects the x-axis, then the equation of L is
A) y + √3x + 2 – 3√3 = 0
B) y – √3x + 2 + 3√3 = 0
C) √y – x + 3 + 2√3 = 0
D) √3y + x – 3 + 2√3 = 0
Answer: (B)
25. If the equation 12x2 + 7xy – py2 – 18x + qy + 6 = 0 represents a pair of perpendicular
straight lines, then
A) p = 12, q = 1
B) p = 1, q = 12
C) p = -1, q = 12

D) p = 1, q = -12
Answer: (A)
 AVIATION AFFAIRS
1. Who is the current Aviation Minister of India?
A) Jyotiraditya Scindia
B) Kinjarapu Naidu
C) Dr. Manmohan Singh
D) Murlidhar Mohol
Answer (A)

2. Which one of the following airlines is not operating since 2012?

A) GoFirst
B) Kingfisher
C) Indian Airlines
D) Jet Airways
Answer (B)

3. Black Box is coated in __________?

A) Vibrant Yello
B) Yellowish Orange
C) Vibrant Orange
D) Black
Answer (C)

4. Boeing 747 has fuel capacity of _______?

A) 48446 gallons
B) 48445 gallons
C) 38445 gallons
D) 87450 gallons
Answer (B)

5. DGCA stands for _

A) Directorate General of Civil Aviation
B) Director General of Civil Aircrafts
C) Directorate General of Civil Aero planes
D) Director General of Concert Aviation
Answer (A)
6. What does FAA stand for?
A) Federal Avionics Administration
B) Fedex Aircraft Administration
C) Flying Aviation Administration
D) Federal Aviation Administration
Answer (D)

7. What are the four forces of flight?

A) Air law, trust, drag, and heavy
B) Crew, aircraft, luggage, and passengers
C) Lift, thrust, drag, and weight
D) Lift, drag, heavy, and land
Answer (C)

8. Which of the following are PPL training aircraft?

A) C172, B737, DA-20
B) B757, B767, A330
C) B78G, 7UDA, DA-60
D) C172, C152, DA-20
Answer (D)

9. What is altitude in aviation in measured in?

A) Feets
B) Meters
C) Kilometers
D) Miles
Answer (A)

10. At what age can you receive your PPL?

A) 15
B) 20
C) 17
D) 30
Answer (C)
11. Select a Netherlands Antilles' aircraft registration:
A) PJ-WIM
B) N75689JB
C) F-GHW
D) None of these
Answer (A)

12. Who is the CEO of WinAir as of 2024?

A) Mark Anderson
B) Hans van de Velde
C) Alex Hodge
D) None of these
Answer (B)

13. Who was the Managing Director of PJIAE as of March 2022?

A) Edwin Hodge
B) Keith Franca
C) Alvin Riley
D) None of these
Answer (B)

14. What does ICAO stand for?

A) International Civil Aviation Organization
B) Intense Civil Aviation Operations
C) Interstate Civil Aviation Organization
D) None of these
Answer (A)

15. What type of aircraft does WinAir fly?

A) Twin Otters
B) Islanders
C) Both above
D) None of the above
Answer (C)
16. What is the theme for the Green Airports Recognition 2024?
A) Single- Use Plastic Elimination
B) Biodiversity and Nature-Based Solutions
C) Carbon Management
D) Air Quality Management
Answer (B)

17. According to Airports Council International (ACI), which airport has been named
among the world’s top 10 busiest airports for 2023?
A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport, Gujarat
B) Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi
C) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport, Mumbai
D) Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru
Answer (B)

18. Which of the following achievements was recognized by the Airports Council
International (ACI) with a Platinum rating in the Green Airports Recognition (GAR)
programme 2023 for the Mangaluru International Airport (MIA)?
A) Implementing the most advanced air traffic control system
B) Achieving the highest number of international flights in a year
C) Excellence in green sustainability initiatives
D) Introducing the fastest baggage handling system
Answer (C)

19. Which airport in Karnataka was ranked second among global airports for on-
time departures in 2022?
A) Mangalore International Airport
B) Hubli Airport
C) Belagavi Airport
D) Kempegowda International Airport
Answer (D)

20. Recently, which two airports were awarded the ‘Best Airport of the Year’ at the
Wings India Awards 2024?
A) Lucknow & Chennai
B) Bengaluru & Delhi
C) Mumbai & Hyderabad
D) Delhi & Lucknow
Answer (B)
21. As per a recent security pact, Papua Guinea allowed which country to station
troops and vessels at six key ports and airports?
A) China
B) Russia
C) USA
D) Germany
Answer (C)

22. Which country released the “Sustainable Green Airports Mission”?

A) India
B) Sri Lanka
C) Bangladesh
D) New Zealand
Answer (A)

23. Consider the following statements:

1. 4th Heli-India Summit 2022 was held at Jammu & Kashmir with the theme
‘Helicopters for Last Mile Connectivity’.
2. Under the UDAN scheme government aims to develop 75 airports by 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (A)

24. Which airport of India won the second rank in the Cirium list of top-performing
global airports of 2022?
A) New Delhi
B) Bengaluru
C) Mumbai
D) Chennai
Answer (C)

25. Which place did India’s Kempegowda International Airport in Bangalore hold on
the list of the world’s best-performing airports for 2022, compiled by Cirium
Aviation Analytics?
A) 1st B) 2nd C) 5th D) 7th
Answer (B)
 APTITUDE

1. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What

is the length of the train?
A) 120 metres
B) 180 metres
C) 324 metres
D) 150 metres
Answer: (D)

2. In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer. If

Abhay doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than Sameer.
Abhay's speed is:
A) 5 kmph
B) 6 kmph
C) 6.25 kmph
D) 7.5 kmph
Answer: (A)

3. Reena took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the
rate of interest. If she paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period,
what was the rate of interest?
A) 3.6
B) 6
C) 18
D) Cannot be determined
E) None of these
Answer: (B)

4. A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days.
A, B and C together can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in :
A) 4 days
B) 6 days
C) 8 days
D) 12 days
Answer: (C)
5. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs. 25,000 after 3 years at
the rate of 12 p.c.p.a.?
A) Rs. 9000.30
B) Rs. 9720
C) Rs. 10123.20
D) Rs. 10483.20
E) None of these
Answer: (C)

6. The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs.
525. The simple interest on the same sum for double the time at half the rate
percent per annum is:
A) Rs. 400
B) Rs. 500
C) Rs. 600
D) Rs. 800
Answer: (B)

7. A began a business with Rs. 85,000. He was joined afterwards by B with Rs.
42,500. For how much period does B join, if the profits at the end of the year
are divided in the ratio of 3 : 1?
A) 4 months
B) 5 months
C) 6 months
D) 8 months
Answer: (D)

8. Sachin is younger than Rahul by 7 years. If their ages are in the respective
ratio of 7 : 9, how old is Sachin?
A) 16 years
B) 18 years
C) 28 years
D) 24.5 years
E) None of these
Answer: (D)

9. It was Sunday on Jan 1, 2006. What was the day of the week Jan 1, 2010?
A) Sunday
B) Saturday
C) Friday
D) Wednesday
Answer: (C)
10. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday. What was the day of the week on 8th Feb,
2004?
A) Tuesday
B) Monday
C) Sunday
D) Wednesday
Answer: (C)

11. A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is
4 min. 48 sec fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct?
A) 2 p.m. on Tuesday
B) 2 p.m. on Wednesday
C) 3 p.m. on Thursday
D) 1 p.m. on Friday
Answer: (B)

12. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly
income of Q and R is Rs. 6250 and the average monthly income of P and R is
Rs. 5200. The monthly income of P is:
A) 3500
B) 4000
C) 4050
D) 5000
Answer: (B)
13. In Arun's opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His
brother does not agree with Arun and he thinks that Arun's weight is greater
than 60 kg but less than 70 kg. His mother's view is that his weight cannot be
greater than 68 kg. If all are them are correct in their estimation, what is the
average of different probable weights of Arun?
A) 67 kg.
B) 68 kg.
C) 69 kg.
D) Data inadequate
E) None of these
Answer: (A)
14. The length of a rectangle is halved, while its breadth is tripled. What is the
percentage change in area?
A) 25% increase
B) 50% increase
C) 50% decrease
D) 75% decrease
Answer: (B)
15. The slant height of a right circular cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find
the area of its curved surface.
A) 30 m2
B) 40 m2
C) 60 m2
D) 80 m2
Answer: (C)

16. What is the total surface area of a right circular cone of height 14 cm and
base radius 7 cm?
A) 344.35 cm2
B) 462 cm2
C) 498.35 cm2
D) None of these
Answer: (C)

17. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'CORPORATION' be
arranged so that the vowels always come together?
A) 810
B) 1440
C) 2880
D) 50400
E) 5760
Answer: (D)

18. A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many
ways can 3 balls be drawn from the box, if at least one black ball is to be
included in the draw?
A) 32
B) 48
C) 64
D) 96
E) None of these
Answer: (C)
19. How many 4-letter words with or without meaning, can be formed out of the
letters of the word, 'LOGARITHMS', if repetition of letters is not allowed?
A) 40
B) 400
C) 5040
D) 2520
Answer: (C)

20. 22 + 42 + 62 + ... + 202) = ?

A)770
B) 1155
C) 1540
D) 385 x 385
Answer: (C)

21. How many terms are there in the G.P. 3, 6, 12, 24, ... , 384 ?
A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 11
E.) 7
Answer: (A)

22. A, B and C start at the same time in the same direction to run around a
circular stadium. A completes a round in 252 seconds, B in 308 seconds and c
in 198 seconds, all starting at the same point. After what time will they again at
the starting point ?

A) 26 minutes and 18 seconds

B) 42 minutes and 36 seconds
C) 45 minutes
D) 46 minutes and 12 seconds

Answer: (D)
 23. The product of two numbers is 4107. If the H.C.F. of these numbers is 37,
then the greater number is:
A) 101
B) 107
C) 111
D) 185
Answer: (C)

24. 4.036 divided by 0.04 gives :

A) 1.009
B) 10.09
C) 100.9
D) None of these
Answer: (C)

25. The least perfect square, which is divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is:
A) 213444
B) 214344
C) 214434
D) 231444
Answer: (A)
 PHYSICS
1. In a series LCR circuit, the inductance L is 10 mH, capacitance C is 1µF and resistance R
is 100 Ω. The frequency at which resonance occurs is :-
A) 15.9 kHz
B) 1.59 rad/s
C) 1. 59 kHz
D) 15.9 rad/s
Answer: (C )

2. If the galvanometer G does not show any deflection in the circuit shown, the value of R
is given by:

A) 50 Ω B) 1000

C) 400 Ω D) 200 Ω

Answer: (B)

3. The magnitude and direction of the current in the following circuit is:-

A) 0.5 A from A to B through E

B) 5/9 A from A to B through E 9
C) 1.5 A from B to A through E
D) 0.2 A from B to A through E

Answer: (A)

4. The temperature of a gas is - 50 C ° To what temperature the gas should be heated so

that the rms speed is increased by 3 times?
A) 3295 C°
B) 3097 K
C) 223 K
D) 669 C°
Answer: (A)