Week 3 - 01
Week 3 - 01
The first two are essential to classic finance theory and the later two are important to
behavioral finance
Failure to account for item 1) is at the heart of the famous St. Petersburg Paradox.
But would anyone actually pay infinity for this gamble… no.
Why?
Define a “primitive” or “elementary” security as one that pays off only if one of the
possible outcomes to a gamble occurs (if the payoffs are all 1 unit it is called a “pure”
security too). So…
Because some states may represent a greater need for a payout than others.
U i [0,1] ei = U i en + (1 − U i )e1
Note: Here, U is from 0 to 1 but in reality this restriction is not necessary. The lower
and upper limit may be adjusted. One can think of Ui as a “scaled” utility…which can
be unscaled later. That will be explained shortly.
P ~ p1e1 + ... + pn en ~ pi ei = en piU i + e1 1 − piU i
i i i
P* ~ p1*e1 + ... + pn*en ~ pi*ei = en pi*U i + e1 1 − pi*U i
i i i
P ** ~ p1**e1 + ... + pn**en ~ pi**ei = en pi**U i + e1 1 − pi**U i
i i i
By the dominance axiom we can compare the gambles by looking only at the first summation
of the right hand side expressions. So, we can summarize by saying:
n n n n
P* = pi*ei P ** = pi**ei iff pi*U i pi**U i
i =1 i =1 i =1 i =1
Also, known as expected utility. This is the theoretically correct measure to compare things
given our utility axioms. vN-M utility is not ordinal it is cardinal. The vN-M utility
maintains ordering for linear transformations but not non-linear. It is not necessary that U
be between 0,1, because, rescaling the actual U to [0,1] is a linear transformation (you are
adding the most negative value to the U’s dividing by the range). So the original U gives an
equally valid utility.
This is half of what we need to solve the Saint Petersburg Paradox. The other half is Risk
Aversion. As we will see risk aversion is the assumption that U is a concave function of
wealth.
π is known as the Arrow-Pratt risk premium (i.e. w*-cew), so π is the value that sets
cew such that U(w*- π)=E[U(w)]
The larger R(w), the bigger the required risk premium. The larger Rr(w) is the higher the
risk premium as a percentage of wealth must be.
ALSO:
Hara Utility:
( )( )
U(w)= 1 − w +
1−
Hyperbolic absolute risk aversion (HARA) utility
with 1, 0, 1−w + 0, = 1if = −, 0 if 1
is very versatile.
( )
−1
U '( w) = w + Constant Absolute Risk Aversion (CARA) if
1−
γ=-∞ and β=1;
( )
−2
U "( w) = − w 2
+ CRRA if γ<1 and β=0;
1−
Quadratic if γ=2
( )
−1
R( w) = w +
1−
Let us pick a risk averse utility function and apply v-NM utility to the game:
Let’s pick U(w)=SQRT(w)
i
1 1
V ( p) = piU i ( wi ) = = 2 = 2 =
i −1 − i + i −21 − i2
1i
2 2 − 1 − 1.707
i =1 i =1 i =1 i =2 i =0 2 2
V 2 2.914
So a payment of 2.914 for sure yields the same utility as the gamble.
People have suggested making the payout structure such that the payout
overwhelms the risk aversion. The resolution there is nobody believes the payout
can actually occur. One can promise anything, but will the payout actually get
made. This lowers many of the probabilities to effectively zero. We will largely
ignore this last problem.
Maximization Problem: The objective function has the budget constraint folded
into it. This is because you are maximizing expected utility
MaxA E[U ( w)]
of wealth but that is a function of A. The budget constraint
is not separated with a Lagrange multiplier. That would
cause unnecessary complication.
First Order Condition: The first order condition is arrived at by the chain rule.
E[U'(w)(r-r f )] = 0 U ( w) w( A)
=0
w A
So, this is a truly interesting result. Any risk averse person will hold at least some of a
risky asset that has Expected return greater than the risk free rate. It doesn’t matter how
high the risk aversion or how little above risk free the risky asset is the person will hold
something of it.
Let’s say we want to know exactly how much the optimized utility will change if we
change a parameter.
Define: V (r , rf , w0 ) = U ( w( A*))
where A* is the optimized value of A
V ( P1 ,...) =
obj ( P1 ,...; c1 *...)
According to the envelope theorem: P1 P1
That is the derivative of the derived utility. So here the change in derived utility for a given
change in rf is: U ( w) w
rf = E U '( w)(W0 − A) rf
w rf
Why,
V V A * V R f The FOC ensures all the derivative with respect to
= + choice variables are zero, and only one parameter is
Rf A* Rf Rf Rf
0 1 changing so the result holds
More Generally:
Given V (c1 ,..., cn : p1 ,..., p m )
If we wish to find dci /dp j
V11 ... V1n dc1 / dp j Vc1 p j The desired value can be found with
Cramer’s rule analytically or by Gaussian
= −
Vn1 Vnn dcn / dp j Vc n p j
elimination numerically.
Intuitively, Should this be positive or negative? There are two competing effects,
which I call income and substitution. These are not exactly like the effects the
Economists mean when they use the terms:
The Income Effect says that raising current wealth should make you feel richer, and
therefore, you can risk more and still be well off.
The Substitution Effect says that raising current wealth makes you’re marginal utility
of extra wealth less so you substitute in more risk free investments.
Needless to say, which dominates depends on the nature of risk aversion of the
individual.
dARA dA *
0→ 0
dw dW0
dARA dA *
= 0→ =0
dw dW0
dARA dA *
0→ 0
dw dW0
If dRRA/dw<0
w h R( wh ) W0 (1 + rf ) R(W0 (1 + rf )) This is almost the exact argument from a
w U "( w )(r − rf ) −U '( w)(r − rf )W0 (1 + rf ) R(W0 (1 + rf ))
h h h h
couple slides earlier, except now we have
and, shown η-1>0 if dRRA/dw<0.
w lU "( wl )(r l − rf ) −U '( w)(r l − rf )W0 (1 + rf ) R(W0 (1 + rf )) →
E[wU "( w. )(r − rf )] − E[U '( w)(r − rf )]W0 (1 + rf ) R(W0 (1 + rf )) = 0
dRRA dA * A *
0→
dw dW0 W0
dRRA dA * A *
= 0→ =
dw dW0 W0
dRRA dA * A
0→
dw dW0 W0
Note: it is possible to have increasing ARA but decreasing RRA, and other such similarities.
Pratt, J.W. “Risk-Aversion in the Small and in the Large” (1964) Econometrica (32),
122-136