Set-1

1. Which protocol ensures encrypted communication between the client and the
server?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. Telnet
Answer: C
2. Which protocol would be the best choice to transfer large files between
servers while ensuring data integrity?
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. SFTP
D. SMTP
Answer: C
3. Which application-layer protocol should be used for a remote employee to
securely access their company's internal network?
A. Telnet
B. RDP
C. SSH
D. SNMP
Answer: C
4. Which protocol operates at the application layer to monitor and manage
network devices remotely?
A. SNMP
B. ICMP
C. HTTP
D. SMTP
Answer: A
5. Which protocol is commonly used for accessing cloud storage services
supporting file sharing and collaboration?
A. SMB
B. NFS
C. WebDAV
D. SNMP
Answer: C
6. Which protocol is responsible for sending outgoing emails?
 A. IMAP
B. POP3
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Answer: D
7. Which application-layer service is used to distribute requests efficiently
among multiple servers?
A. Load balancing
B. VPN
C. NAT
D. Proxy server
Answer: A
8. Which application-layer protocol performs the function of resolving a
domain name to an IP address?
A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. FTP
D. HTTP
Answer: A
9. Which OSI layer is responsible for translating multiple file formats such as
JPEG, MP4, and PNG?
A. Network Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Presentation Layer
D. Application Layer
Answer: C
10.Which OSI layer is responsible for data encryption for security purposes?
A. Network Layer
B. Transport Layer
C. Presentation Layer
D. Application Layer
Answer: C
11.Which OSI layer is involved in handling different file formats when a file is
not supported on a different computer?
A. Transport Layer
B. Session Layer
C. Presentation Layer
 D. Application Layer
Answer: C
12.Which port should be allowed in the firewall to securely transfer files
between two remote servers using an encrypted protocol?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Answer: C
13.Which port should be opened for HTTPS traffic to accept only encrypted
connections?
A. 443
B. 80
C. 23
D. 8080
Answer: A
14.Which port should be checked to ensure DNS queries are functioning?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 53
D. Not provided in the document (incomplete options)
Answer: C (standard DNS port)
15.Which port should be enabled for SNMP communication?
A. 69
B. 161
C. 3389
D. 123
Answer: B
16.Which port should be opened for RDP traffic?
A. 23
B. 3389
C. 69
D. 53
Answer: B
17.Which OSI layer is responsible for managing source and destination logical
addressing?
A. Physical Layer
 B. Application Layer
C. Data Link Layer
D. Network Layer
Answer: D
18.What port do you need to allow to run FTP services properly from the
network?
A. TCP Port No. 19 and 20
B. TCP Port No. 20 and 21
C. UDP Port No. 20 and 21
D. TCP Port No. 20 and 110
Answer: B
19.Which port access should you define to allow HTTP and HTTPS access
from your firewall device?
A. 20, 21, 443
B. 80, 8080, 443
C. 80, 110, 68
D. 80, 23, 22
Answer: B (80 and 443 are standard; 8080 is a common alternative)
20.Which protocol is commonly used for sending and receiving emails?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. HTTP
Answer: B
21.Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of
the TCP/IP model?
A. Transport, Session
B. Physical, Data Link
C. Network, Physical
D. Data Link, Network
Answer: B
22.Which of the following is an example of an application layer protocol?
A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
B. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
C. Internet Protocol (IP)
D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Answer: D
23.What type of network must a home user access in order to do online
shopping?
A. A local area network
B. The Internet
C. An extranet
D. An intranet
Answer: B
24.What command will allow the technician to view the current configuration
before saving changes on a router?
A. router# show running-config
B. router# show startup-config
C. router# show flash
D. router# show version
Answer: A
25.What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
A. To transmit wireless traffic between hosts
B. To analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet
C. To forward traffic within the same broadcast domain
D. To pass traffic between different networks
Answer: D
26.What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
A. Integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks
B. Serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network
C. Connect wireless devices to a wired network
D. Support secure user logins to devices on the network
Answer: C
27.Which statement represents the characteristic of a full mesh WAN topology?
A. Data transmission relies on a central device for routing data
B. Allows for faster data transmission compared to other topologies
C. Each node is directly connected to every other node
D. Has no redundancy in case of cable failure
Answer: C
28.Which protocol is being used by PC-A, and which PC particularly does the
encapsulation process when PC-A sends an email to PC-D?
A. PC-D, SMPS
B. SMTP, PC-A
C. IMAP, PC-A
 D. IMAN/POP, PC-A
Answer: B
29.Which one allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site
and pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. Telnet
D. TCP
Answer: C
30.Application layer protocol defines:
A. Types of messages exchanged
B. Message format, syntax, and semantics
C. Rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
D. All of the mentioned
Answer: D
31.Which one of the following is not correct?
A. Application layer protocols are used by both source and destination
devices during a communication session
B. HTTP is a session layer protocol
C. TCP is an application layer protocol
D. All of the mentioned
Answer: B (HTTP is an application layer protocol, not session layer)
32.The File Transfer Protocol is built on:
A. Data-centric architecture
B. Service-oriented architecture
C. Client-server architecture
D. Connection-oriented architecture
Answer: C
 Set-2
1. The data link layer is responsible for:
A. Flow control
B. Error control
C. Access control
D. All of the above
Answer: D
2. What is the main function of the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer?
A. Error detection
B. Flow control
C. Addressing
D. Data encapsulation
Answer: C
3. Which layer detects and retransmits damaged or lost frames?
A. Physical Layer
B. Network Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. Data Link Layer
Answer: D
4. In which format does the data link layer encapsulate packets from the
network layer?
A. Segments
B. Datagrams
C. Messages
D. Frames
Answer: D
5. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer is responsible for:
A. Addressing frames
B. Managing physical media access
C. Handling error messages and acknowledgments
D. Segmenting data
Answer: C
6. Which protocol is not typically associated with the data link layer?
A. Ethernet
B. PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)
C. HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control)
D. IP (Internet Protocol)
Answer: D
7. What does the data link layer use to ensure frames are transmitted without
errors?
A. Sequence numbers
B. Acknowledgements
C. Timers
D. All of the above
Answer: D
8. What is added to each frame to identify its sender and receiver?
A. Port address
B. Logical address
C. Physical address
D. Application address
Answer: C
9. Which device connects two LANs operating on the same protocol?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Repeater
D. Bridge
Answer: D
10.What does error control in the data link layer usually involve?
A. Detecting and retransmitting damaged frames
B. Retransmitting only lost frames
C. Both detecting and correcting errors
D. Checking for errors only
Answer: A
11.A network switch is misconfigured, causing devices to receive frames meant
for other devices. This issue occurs at which OSI layer?
A. Data Link Layer
B. Physical Layer
C. Network Layer
Answer: A
12.A user is sending a large file, but it’s broken into smaller frames. Which
sublayer of the Data Link Layer is responsible for framing?
A. LLC (Logical Link Control)
B. MAC (Media Access Control)
C. Physical Layer
D. Network Layer
Answer: B
13.A hacker captures network traffic using a packet sniffer. Which OSI layer is
being exploited?
 A. Data Link Layer
B. Physical Layer
C. Network Layer
D. None
Answer: A
14.A network administrator enables ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) for
resolving IP addresses to MAC addresses. Which OSI layer does ARP
operate on?
A. Physical Layer
B. Network Layer
C. Presentation
D. None
Answer: A
15.Which statement about Layer 2 Ethernet switches is true?
A. Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts
B. Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination IP address
C. Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks
D. Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains
E. Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address
Answer: E
16.What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. Provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B. Allows remote management of the switch
C. Allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. Ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other
Answer: B
17.Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame?
A. Logical addresses only
B. IP addresses only
C. MAC addresses only
D. Broadcast addresses only
Answer: C
18.Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
A. Ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP
addresses
B. Allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet
C. Solves the issue of not enough public IP addresses and are used within the
LAN
D. Allows for WAN connectivity
Answer: C
19.Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
A. Application
B. Physical
C. Internet
D. Network Layer
E. Presentation
Answer: A, C, D (Note: The TCP/IP model includes Application, Transport,
Internet, and Network Access layers; "Physical" and "Presentation" are OSI-
specific)
20.Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its
destination?
A. Source IP address
B. Destination IP address
C. Source data link address
D. Destination data-link address
Answer: B
21.Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of
the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
A. Application
B. Physical
C. Internet
D. Data Link
Answer: B, D (Physical and Data Link layers combine into the Network
Access layer in TCP/IP)
22.Sequence and acknowledgement numbers are used for?
A. Layer transitioning
B. Flow control
C. Port number addressing
D. Reliability
Answer: D

Set-3
1. Which media communication type does not require media arbitration in the
data link layer?
A. Deterministic
B. Half-duplex
C. Full-duplex
D. Controlled access
 Answer: C (Full-duplex communication does not require media arbitration
as both devices can send and receive simultaneously.)
2. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer for a PC
connected to an Ethernet network?
A. An IP address is added
B. The logical address is added
C. The physical address is added
D. The process port number is added
Answer: C (The data link layer adds physical (MAC) addresses to the
frame.)
3. Which command can be used in a Cisco switch or router to display all
interfaces, the IPv4 address assigned, and the status?
A. Show ip route
B. Show interface fa0/1
C. Ping
D. Show ip interface-brief
Answer: D (The show ip interface-brief command provides a summary of
all interfaces, their IP addresses, and status.)
4. What OSI physical layer term describes the capacity at which a medium can
carry data?
A. Bandwidth
B. IEEE
C. EIA/TIA
D. Air
Answer: A (Bandwidth refers to the data-carrying capacity of a medium.)
5. A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access
devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?
A. The cable is not connected properly to the NIC
B. The computer has an invalid IP address
C. The computer has an incorrect subnet mask
D. The computer has an invalid default gateway address
Answer: D (An invalid default gateway prevents access to external
networks.)
6. Which configuration mode allows a user to configure a Cisco device so that
the configuration impacts the entire device rather than a particular port,
interface, or mode?
A. Global Configuration mode
B. Interface configuration mode
C. User EXEC mode
 D. Privileged EXEC mode
Answer: A (Global Configuration mode affects the entire device.)
7. How many subnets can you create if you borrowed 3 bits from the Class C
address space?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 8
D. 4
Answer: C (Borrowing 3 bits results in 2³ = 8 subnets.)
8. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?
A. Connectionless
B. Media dependent
C. User data segmentation
D. Reliable end-to-end delivery
Answer: A (IP is connectionless; reliability is handled by higher layers like
TCP.)
9. Your ISP requested you to permit HTTP and HTTPS access from your
firewall device. For this, which port access should you define to allow?
A. 20, 21, 443
B. 80, 8080, 443
C. 80, 110, 68
D. 80, 23, 22
Answer: B (HTTP uses 80, HTTPS uses 443, and 8080 is a common
alternative for HTTP.)
10.Which protocol or service uses UDP for client-to-server communication and
TCP for server-to-server communication?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. DNS
D. SMTP
Answer: C (DNS uses UDP for client queries and TCP for zone transfers
between servers.)
11.Which attack involves a compromise of data that occurs between two
endpoints?
A. Denial-of-service
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Extraction of security parameters
D. Username enumeration
Answer: B (A man-in-the-middle attack intercepts data between endpoints.)
12.A network administrator is upgrading a small business network to give high
priority to real-time applications traffic. What two types of network services
is the network administrator trying to accommodate?
A. Voice, video
B. Instant messaging
C. FTP
D. SNMP
Answer: A (Voice and video are real-time applications requiring high
priority.)
13.Which type of address is first resolved by the source device while it is trying
to communicate with a web server?
A. IP address and MAC after that
B. MAC address and IP after that
C. MAC address and port address after that
D. APIPA address and MAC address after that
Answer: A (The IP address is resolved first via DNS, then the MAC address
via ARP.)
14.What would be the subnet mask if you wish to use a Class B (classful) IP
address?
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.128
Answer: B (Class B default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0.)
15.A network technician issues the C:\> tracert -6 www.cisco.com command on
a Windows PC. What is the purpose of the -6 command option?
A. It forces the trace to use IPv6
B. It limits the trace to only 6 hops
C. It sets a 6 milliseconds timeout for each reply
D. It sends 6 probes within each TTL time period
Answer: A (The -6 option forces the use of IPv6.)
16.Which network service automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on the
network?
A. DHCP
B. Telnet
C. DNS
D. Traceroute
Answer: A (DHCP assigns IP addresses dynamically.)
17.An administrator decides to use "WhatAreyouwaiting4" as the password on a
newly installed router. Which statement applies to the password choice?
 A. It is strong because it uses a passphrase
B. It is weak because it is often the default password on new devices
C. It is weak since it uses easily found personal information
D. It is weak since it is a word that is easily found in the dictionary
Answer: A (It’s a strong passphrase due to length and complexity.)
18.A user wants to know the IP address of the PC. What is the best command to
use to accomplish the task?
A. ipconfig
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. show interfaces
D. show ip nat translations
Answer: A (The ipconfig command displays the PC’s IP address on
Windows.)
19.Which of the following is a private network accessible only to an
organization’s staff?
A. Internet
B. Intranet
C. Extranet
D. Ethernet
Answer: B (An intranet is private and internal to an organization.)
20.Which network is used to connect a company’s internal network with its
suppliers and customers?
A. Internet
B. Intranet
C. Extranet
D. VPN
Answer: C (An extranet connects an organization with external partners.)
21.Which network type would be most appropriate for connecting devices in a
single home?
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. PAN
Answer: A (A LAN is suitable for a single home.)
22.Which of the following networks often utilizes fiber optic cables for high-
speed connections?
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. PAN
 Answer: C (WANs often use fiber optics for high-speed, long-distance
connections.)
23.Which protocol is used to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses?
A. DNS
B. ARP
C. DHCP
D. TCP
Answer: B (ARP resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses.)
24.Which organization is responsible for managing IP address allocation
globally?
A. IETF
B. IEEE
C. ICANN
D. W3C
Answer: C (ICANN manages global IP address allocation.)
25.Which of the following represents a private IPv4 address?
A. 8.8.8.8
B. 192.168.0.1
C. 172.16.254.1
D. 10.0.0.1
Answer: B, C, D (All three are private: 192.168.x.x, 172.16.x.x–172.31.x.x,
and 10.x.x.x; question likely expects one, with B being a common example.)
26.What is a key disadvantage of fiber optic cables compared to copper cables?
A. Higher data rate
B. Immunity to electromagnetic interference
C. Higher cost and complexity of installation
D. Larger physical size
Answer: C (Fiber optics are more expensive and complex to install.)
27.What type of light source is commonly used in fiber optic communication
for high data rates?
A. LED
B. Incandescent bulb
C. Laser
D. Fluorescent light
Answer: C (Lasers are used for high-speed fiber optic communication.)
28.Which of the following is an advantage of fiber optic cables?
A. Higher bandwidth
B. More susceptibility to electromagnetic interference
C. Lower cost
 D. Shorter distance capability
Answer: A (Fiber optics offer higher bandwidth.)
29.What is the primary material used in the core of a fiber optic cable?
A. Copper
B. Plastic
C. Glass
D. Aluminium
Answer: C (Glass is used in the core of fiber optic cables.)
30.Which connector type is typically used with UTP cables in Ethernet
networks?
A. BNC
B. RJ45
C. Serial Cable
D. RJ23
Answer: B (RJ45 is the standard connector for UTP in Ethernet.)
31.What is the maximum cable length for a Cat 6 UTP cable to maintain
optimal performance?
A. 50 meters
B. 150 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 200 meters
Answer: C (Cat 6 has a maximum length of 100 meters for optimal
performance.)
32.Which category of UTP cable is recommended for networks operating at 10
Gbps over short distances?
A. Cat 5
B. Cat 5e
C. Cat 6a
D. Cat 3
Answer: C (Cat 6a supports 10 Gbps over longer distances than Cat 6, but is
recommended for short distances too.)
 Set-4
1. What type of communication will send a message to a group on a local area
network?
A. Broadcast
B. Multicast
C. Unicast
D. Anycast
Answer: B (Multicast sends a message to a specific group of devices, unlike
broadcast which sends to all devices on the LAN.)
Note: The answer key lists "A," but multicast is more appropriate for a
specific group.
2. You are assigned to plan a network address and thus you have said to create
address spaces of 100 devices using the address 192.168.10.1/24. What will
be the subnet mask for the said new address space?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.192
C. 255.255.255.155
D. 255.255.255.128
Answer: D (100 devices require at least 7 bits for hosts (2⁷ = 128, minus 2
for network and broadcast = 126 usable). /25 = 255.255.255.128 provides
126 usable addresses.)
Calculation: /24 (256 addresses) → borrow 1 bit → /25 (128 addresses, 126
usable).
3. What is the decimal equivalent to binary 11110000?
A. 192
B. 248
C. 224
D. 240
Answer: D (11110000 = 128 + 64 + 32 + 16 = 240.)
4. Which of the following is not a valid private IP address range?
A. 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255
B. 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255
C. 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255
D. 169.254.0.0 - 169.254.255.255
Answer: D
5. Which three types of nodes should be assigned static IP addresses on a
network? (Choose three.)
A. Desktop PCs
B. Printers
C. Mobile laptops
D. Gateways
E. Tablets
 F. Servers
Answer: B, D, F (Printers, gateways, and servers typically require static IPs
for consistent access and management.)
Note: The answer key lists "D," implying only one, but the question asks for
three.
6. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts
on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
A. 14
B. 15
C. 18
D. 30
Answer: D (255.255.255.224 = /27, 2⁵ = 32 addresses, 32 - 2 = 30 usable for
hosts.)
7. Which three configuration components are required to allow a host to
communicate with other hosts on remote networks? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. Domain name
C. Default gateway
D. DNS server
E. Subnet mask
F. DHCP server address
Answer: A, C, E (IP address, default gateway, and subnet mask are essential
for remote network communication.)
Note: The answer key lists "D," implying only one, but three are required;
DNS is optional for basic connectivity.
8. What subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong to if a subnet mask of
255.255.0.0 is used?
A. 10.0.0.0
B. 10.1.0.0
C. 10.1.100.0
D. 10.1.100.32
Answer: B
9. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address which is
represented as the binary string 00001010.01100100.00010101.00000001?
A. 100.10.11.1
B. 10.100.21.1
C. 10.10.20.1
D. 100.21.10.1
Answer: B (00001010 = 10, 01100100 = 100, 00010101 = 21, 00000001 = 1
→ 10.100.21.1.)
10.IP version 4 is composed of four octets, which are four parts of a string of
bits. In each octet, how many bits are there?
A. 10
 B. 12
C. 8
D. 4
Answer: C (Each IPv4 octet consists of 8 bits.)
11.A hex text of the IPv6 address consists of four hexadecimal characters
consisting of:
A. 24 bytes
B. 16 bytes
C. 8 bytes
D. 32 bytes
Answer: B (IPv6 is 128 bits = 16 bytes; each hex character = 4 bits, so 4
characters = 16 bits = 2 bytes per segment, but total IPv6 address is 16
bytes.)
12.What subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong to if a subnet mask of
255.255.255.0 is used?
A. 10.0.0.0
B. 10.1.0.0
C. 10.1.100.0
D. 10.1.100.32
Answer: C (255.255.255.0 = /24, subnet is 10.1.100.0 - 10.1.100.255.)
13.If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an IP address of
172.16.112.1/25, what would be the valid subnet address of this host?
A. 172.16.112.0
B. 172.16.0.0
C. 172.16.112.1
D. 172.16.1.0
Answer: A (/25 = 255.255.255.128, subnet range is 172.16.112.0 -
172.16.112.127; subnet address is 172.16.112.0.)
14.What is the subnet mask number of a host with an IP address of
172.16.66.0/21?
A. 172.16.36.0
B. 172.16.48.0
C. 172.16.64.0
D. 172.16.0.0
Answer: C (/21 = 255.255.248.0, increment of 8 in the third octet; 66 falls in
172.16.64.0 - 172.16.71.255.)
15.Subnet the address 150.20.0.0 into networks supporting 500 hosts each.
What is the new subnet mask and the IP address range of the first network?
A. Subnet Mask 255.255.255.0, Range 150.20.0.0 - 150.20.0.255
B. Subnet Mask 255.255.255.0, Range 150.20.0.0 - 150.20.1.255
C. Subnet Mask 255.255.255.254, Range 150.20.0.0 - 150.20.255.255
D. Subnet Mask 255.255.254.0, Range 150.20.0.0 - 150.20.1.255
Answer: D (500 hosts need 9 bits + 2 = 11 bits total; /22 = 255.255.254.0,
 2¹⁰ = 1024 addresses, 1022 usable. First range: 150.20.0.0 - 150.20.1.255.)
Note: The answer key lists "D," which is correct.
16.Subnet the IP address 210.30.12.0 so there are 60 hosts in each network.
What are the broadcast addresses of each network?
A. 210.30.12.63, 127, 191 & 255
B. 210.30.12.64, 128, 192 & 255
C. 210.30.12.255
D. 210.30.12.0
Answer: A (60 hosts need 6 bits + 2 = 8 bits; /26 = 255.255.255.192, 64
addresses per subnet. Broadcasts: 210.30.12.63, 127, 191, 255.)
17.You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask.
What is your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
A. Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
B. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127
C. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255
D. Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255
Answer: B (172.16.x.x is Class B; /25 = 255.255.255.128, subnet
172.16.13.0 - 172.16.13.127, broadcast 172.16.13.127.)
18.Determine the number of subnets for the given IP 192.13.67.0/28 using the
CIDR value?
A. 16
B. 14
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A (/28 from /24 Class C = 4 bits borrowed, 2⁴ = 16 subnets.)
19.You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29.
Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the
LAN attached to the router interface?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 30
D. 32
Answer: B (/29 = 255.255.255.248, 2³ = 8 addresses, all 8 can be used
including the router interface as it’s part of the LAN.)
20.Select the wrong class.
A. CLASS A = 1 to 126
B. CLASS C = 192 to 220
C. CLASS B = 128 to 191
D. CLASS D = 224 to 239
Answer: B (Class C is 192 to 223, not 192 to 220.)
 Set-5
1. Which protocol is primarily used at the network layer of the OSI model?
A. TCP
B. FTP
C. IP
D. HTTP
Answer: C (IP operates at the Network Layer (Layer 3) of the OSI model,
handling logical addressing and routing.)
2. What is the purpose of the TTL (Time to Live) field in an IP packet?
A. To specify the priority of the packet
B. To indicate the length of the packet
C. To prevent packets from circulating indefinitely
D. To identify the type of protocol used
Answer: C (TTL limits the lifespan of a packet by decrementing at each
hop, preventing infinite loops.)
3. What is the primary function of a router in a network?
A. To connect different devices within the same network
B. To filter and forward packets between different networks
C. To manage network security
D. To control access to network resources
Answer: B (Routers forward packets between networks based on IP
addresses.)
4. Which of the following describes the function of ARP (Address Resolution
Protocol)?
A. To map IP addresses to MAC addresses
B. To map MAC addresses to IP addresses
C. To route packets between networks
D. To establish a connection-oriented session
Answer: A (ARP resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses for
communication within a LAN.)
5. What is the primary purpose of subnetting in IP networks?
A. To increase the total number of available IP addresses
B. To reduce the size of the broadcast domain
C. To allow for a larger range of MAC addresses
D. To improve DNS resolution
Answer: B (Subnetting divides a network into smaller segments, reducing
broadcast traffic.)
6. Which of the following is a dynamic routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. NAT
C. PPP
D. ARP
 Answer: A (OSPF is a dynamic routing protocol; NAT, PPP, and ARP serve
other purposes.)
7. Which protocol provides logical addressing that routers use for path
determination?
A. Ethernet
B. DNS
C. ARP
D. IP
Answer: D (IP provides logical addressing for routing and path
determination.)
8. What is the main function of the network layer?
A. Error detection and correction
B. Data formatting
C. Path determination and logical addressing
D. Session management
Answer: C (The Network Layer (Layer 3) handles routing and logical
addressing.)
9. In the context of IP addressing, what does CIDR stand for?
A. Classless Internet Domain Routing
B. Classless Internet Domain Routing
C. Classless Inter-Domain Routing
D. Classful Internet Domain Routing
Answer: C (CIDR stands for Classless Inter-Domain Routing, enabling
flexible subnetting.)
10.What is a key disadvantage of UTP cables compared to fiber optic cables?
A. Lower bandwidth
B. Higher cost
C. More difficult to install
D. Less flexible
Answer: A (UTP has lower bandwidth compared to fiber optic cables.)
11.What is the primary use of UTP cables?
A. Power distribution
B. High-frequency radio transmission
C. Data networking
D. Audio and video transmission
Answer: C (UTP cables are widely used for data networking, e.g., Ethernet.)
12.What is the maximum length for a standard UTP cable segment to maintain
proper signal integrity?
A. 50 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 200 meters
D. 500 meters
Answer: B (The maximum length for UTP in Ethernet is 100 meters.)
13.How many pairs of wires does a standard UTP cable have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B (Standard UTP cables, like Cat 5e or Cat 6, have 4 pairs.)
14.Which category of UTP cable is commonly used for Ethernet networks?
A. Cat 3
B. Cat 5e
C. Cat 7
D. Cat 2
Answer: B (Cat 5e is widely used for Ethernet due to its balance of
performance and cost.)
15.What does UTP stand for?
A. Unshielded Transmission Protocol
B. Unshielded Twisted Pair
C. Universal Transmission Pair
D. Universal Twisted Protocol
Answer: B (UTP stands for Unshielded Twisted Pair.)
16.Which component of a fiber optic cable protects it from environmental
damage?
A. Core
B. Cladding
C. Buffer coating
D. Jacket
Answer: D (The jacket is the outer layer that protects the cable from
environmental damage.)
17.What are the two main types of fiber optic cables?
A. Single-mode and Multi-mode
B. Twisted-pair and Coaxial
C. Single-strand and Multi-strand
D. Monochrome and Polychrome
Answer: A (Single-mode and multi-mode are the two primary types of fiber
optic cables.)
18.What is the core of a fiber optic cable made of?
A. Copper
B. Plastic
C. Glass or plastic
D. Aluminium
Answer: C (The core is typically made of glass or plastic to transmit light.)
19.What type of signal does a fiber optic cable carry?
A. Electrical signals
B. Radio waves
 C. Light signals
D. Sound waves
Answer: C (Fiber optic cables carry light signals.)
20.Which of the following is a common use for fiber optic cables?
A. Residential phone lines
B. High-speed data transmission
C. Electrical wiring in homes
D. Power cables
Answer: B (Fiber optics are used for high-speed data transmission.)
21.What is the primary advantage of using fiber optic cables over copper
cables?
A. Lower cost
B. Higher bandwidth
C. Easier installation
D. Greater flexibility
Answer: B (Fiber optics offer significantly higher bandwidth than copper.)
22.Which of the following protocols is used for email retrieval?
A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. Telnet
Answer: B (POP3 is used for retrieving email from a server.)
23.In the TCP/IP model, what layer corresponds to the OSI model's Transport
layer?
A. Application
B. Internet
C. Network Interface
D. Transport
Answer: D (The Transport Layer in TCP/IP corresponds to OSI Layer 4.)
24.Which protocol is commonly used to transfer files over the Internet?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
Answer: A (FTP is designed for file transfers over the Internet.)
25.Which of the following devices typically has the capability to perform
Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Repeater
Answer: C (Routers commonly perform NAT to translate private to public
IP addresses.)
26.What type of device is used to prevent unauthorized access to a network?
A. Modem
B. Router
C. Switch
D. Firewall
Answer: D (A firewall is specifically designed to prevent unauthorized
access.)
27.What is the primary function of a modem in a network?
A. Routes data between networks
B. Converts digital signals to analog signals and vice versa
C. Connects multiple devices within a network
D. Manages IP address assignments
Answer: B (A modem modulates and demodulates signals for connectivity.)
28.Which device is used to connect different networks together?
A. Switch
B. Hub
C. Router
D. Modem
Answer: C (Routers connect different networks, e.g., LAN to WAN.)
29.Which of the following is an example of an end device in a network?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Computer
D. Hub
Answer: C (A computer is an end device that generates or consumes data.)
30.Which of the following best describes a Local Area Network (LAN)?
A. A network that spans a large geographic area, such as a city or country
B. A network that is confined to a small geographic area, like a single
building or campus
C. A network that connects multiple devices through the internet
D. A network that uses satellites for data transmission
Answer: B (A LAN is a small-scale network, typically within a building or
campus.)
31.Which of the following is a characteristic of a Wide Area Network (WAN)?
A. Limited to a single building
B. Uses high-speed connections like fiber optics or leased lines
C. Typically connects computers within a home or office
D. Operates only in a wireless environment
Answer: B (WANs use high-speed connections to span large distances.)
32.Which device is commonly used to connect LANs to WANs?
A. Switch
B. Hub
C. Router
 D. Access Point
Answer: C (Routers connect LANs to WANs by routing traffic.)
33.What protocol is often used to establish connections in a WAN?
A. FTP
B. SNMP
C. HTTP
D. PPP
Answer: D (PPP, Point-to-Point Protocol, is commonly used for WAN
connections.)
34.In a LAN, which device is used to reduce network traffic and improve
performance by filtering and forwarding data to specific devices?
A. Switch
B. Hub
C. Router
D. Repeater
Answer: A (Switches filter and forward traffic based on MAC addresses,
reducing congestion.)
35.Which of the following best describes a WAN?
A. A network that interconnects devices within a limited area such as a
residence, school, or office building
B. A network that provides connections between computers and other
devices over long distances
C. A network that operates entirely within a single building
D. A network that connects devices without using cables
Answer: B (A WAN spans large distances, connecting multiple locations.)

Set-6
1. Which technology is commonly used to extend a LAN over a long distance?
A. Wi-Fi
 B. Ethernet
C. MPLS
D. Fiber optic cables
Answer: D (Fiber optic cables are commonly used to extend LANs over
long distances due to their high bandwidth and low signal loss.)
Note: The answer key lists "A," but Wi-Fi is limited in range compared to
fiber optics.
2. What type of network would you use for a home network?
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. SAN
D. MAN
Answer: A (A Local Area Network (LAN) is ideal for a home network,
covering a small area like a residence.)
Note: The answer key lists "B," but MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) is too
large for a home.
3. Which device is used to segment a LAN into different broadcast domains?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Hub
D. Bridge
Answer: A (Routers segment a LAN into different broadcast domains by
routing traffic between subnets.)
Note: Switches and bridges segment collision domains, not broadcast
domains.
4. What is the main disadvantage of using a WAN compared to a LAN?
A. Limited to small geographic areas
B. Higher latency and lower data transfer speeds
C. Requires a simple setup
D. Low cost
Answer: B (WANs have higher latency and slower speeds over long
distances compared to LANs.)
Note: The answer key lists "B," which is correct.
5. Which protocol is commonly used for managing data transmission over a
WAN?
A. TCP/IP
B. Ethernet
C. Ethernet
D. Bluetooth
Answer: A (TCP/IP is the foundational protocol suite for managing data
 transmission over WANs.)
Note: Ethernet is LAN-specific; the key lists "A," which is correct. Options B
and C are identical (likely a typo).
6. What type of network would a company use to connect its offices in different
cities?
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. PAN
Answer: C (A Wide Area Network (WAN) connects geographically
dispersed locations like offices in different cities.)
Note: The answer key lists "B," but MAN is limited to a metropolitan area,
not multiple cities.
7. Which of the following describes a LAN?
A. Covers a large geographic area
B. Typically uses leased lines
C. Confined to a limited geographic area
D. Utilizes satellite communications
Answer: C (A LAN is confined to a small area, such as a building or
campus.)
8. Which of the following best describes an extranet?
A. A public network that anyone can access
B. A private network that only internal employees can access
C. A private network that allows controlled access to external users
D. A network used exclusively for wireless communications
Answer: C (An extranet extends a private network to authorized external
users, like partners or suppliers.)
Note: The answer key lists "B," but an extranet includes external access,
unlike an intranet.
9. Which technology is commonly used to secure intranet communications?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. VPN
D. SMTP
Answer: C (A Virtual Private Network (VPN) secures intranet
communications, especially over public networks.)
Note: The answer key lists "A," but HTTP is not inherently secure.
10.Which of the following is a key security measure for both intranets and
extranets?
A. Using a standard HTTP connection
 B. Implementing strong authentication mechanisms
C. Allowing unrestricted access
D. Disabling encryption
Answer: B (Strong authentication ensures only authorized users access
intranets and extranets.)
Note: The answer key lists "B," which is correct.
11.A file is downloaded from the Internet. After the user opens the downloaded
file, the hard drive crashes and all information on the computer is lost. What
type of attack occurred?
A. Virus
B. Trojan horse
C. Denial of service
D. Worm
Answer: B (A Trojan horse disguises itself as a legitimate file but causes
harm, like crashing a system, when executed.)
Note: The answer key lists "A," but a virus typically spreads, while this
scenario suggests a single malicious file.
12.Which of the following is not a characteristic of a star network topology?
A. Centralized control
B. Requires more cabling than a bus network
C. Failure of one device does not affect others
D. Easy to troubleshoot
Answer: None (All listed are characteristics of a star topology. However, if
forced to choose, B is the least unique since cabling depends on context;
still, star typically uses more than bus.)
Note: The answer key lists "B," which may reflect a specific comparison, but
all are generally true.
13.When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which
property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for
an IPv4 address?
A. DNS server address
B. Subnet mask
C. Default gateway
D. DHCP server address
Answer: B (The subnet mask defines the network and host portions of an IP
address.)
Note: The answer key lists "B," which is correct.
14.Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of
the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
A. Transport
 B. Physical
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Session
Answer: B, D (The TCP/IP Network Interface Layer combines the OSI
Physical and Data Link Layers.)
Note: The answer key lists "B," implying only one, but the question requires
two.
15.Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used
as the default gateway setting of host H1?
A. R1: G0/0
B. R2: S0/0/1
C. R1: S0/0/0
D. R2: S0/0/0
Answer: Not determinable (No exhibit is provided, but typically, the
default gateway for H1 would be the router interface on its local subnet,
likely R1’s LAN interface, e.g., G0/0.)
Assumption: A is likely correct based on standard topology; the key lists "B,"
but context is missing.
16.Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity
between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it.
Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator begin
troubleshooting?

A. SW1
B. R1
C. SW2
D. PC2
E. R2
Output:
 Answer: B (The trace reaches 192.168.1.254 (likely R1), then times out,
indicating R1 as the starting point for troubleshooting.)
Note: The key lists "B," which is correct.
17.Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access
to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in
the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host

B. The host subnet mask is incorrect
C. The default gateway is a network address
D. The default gateway is a broadcast address
Answer: A (Subnet /27: 192.133.219.32 - 192.133.219.63; gateway
192.133.219.30 is on a different subnet (0-31).)
Note: The key lists "B," but A is correct based on subnet calculation.

18.What feature makes TCP a reliable delivery protocol over UDP?

A. Permanent session establishment
B. Same order delivery
C. Guaranteed delivery and flow control
D. 3-way handshake
Answer: C (TCP ensures reliability through guaranteed delivery
 (acknowledgments) and flow control.)
Note: The key lists "B," but C is more comprehensive.
19.Which service or feature do you need to configure internally if you are
hosting an internal application and its domain name requires to resolve
locally?
A. DHCP Service
B. SMTP and Email
C. DNS Services
D. DNSSEC
Answer: C (DNS services resolve domain names to IP addresses locally.)
Note: The key lists "B," but DNS is required for name resolution.
20.Which protocol is used for securely accessing a remote server over the
internet?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. SSH
D. SNMP
Answer: C (SSH provides secure remote access with encryption.)
Note: The key lists "B," but SSH is the secure choice.
 Set-7
1. You are setting up a network in an office building that spans multiple floors.
You need a cabling solution that minimizes electromagnetic interference
(EMI) and supports high data transfer rates over long distances. Which type
of cabling should you choose?
A) Cat5e UTP
B) Cat6 UTP
C) Multimode fiber optic
D) Single-mode fiber optic
Answer: D (Single-mode fiber optic is immune to EMI and supports high
data rates over long distances, unlike UTP cables.)
2. A network technician is troubleshooting a slow network connection between
two buildings on a campus. The existing cable is Cat5e UTP. The buildings
are 500 meters apart. What is the best solution to improve the connection
speed and reliability?
A) Replace Cat5e with Cat6 UTP
B) Replace Cat5e with Cat7 UTP
C) Replace Cat5e with multimode fiber optic
D) Replace Cat5e with single-mode fiber optic
Answer: D (500 meters exceeds UTP’s 100m limit and multimode’s typical
550m limit for high speeds; single-mode fiber supports longer distances up
to 100 km.)
3. You need to install a network in an environment with a high amount of
electrical interference. Which type of cabling would be the most appropriate
to ensure the best performance?
A) Cat5e UTP
B) Cat6a UTP
C) Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
D) Fiber optic
Answer: D (Fiber optic is immune to electrical interference, unlike UTP or
STP, which can still be affected despite shielding.)
4. Your company is upgrading its network to support 10 Gbps speeds between
switches located in the same room. What type of cabling would be most
suitable for this purpose?
A) Cat5e UTP
B) Cat6 UTP
C) Cat6a UTP
D) Cat7 UTP
 Answer: C (Cat6a UTP supports 10 Gbps up to 100m, sufficient for a room,
and is more cost-effective than Cat7.)
5. You are tasked with connecting two buildings within a campus network. The
distance between the buildings is approximately 300 meters, and you need a
solution that can handle high bandwidth with low latency. Which type of
fiber optic cable should you use?
A) Multimode fiber optic
B) Single-mode fiber optic
C) Cat6 UTP
D) Cat6a UTP
Answer: B (300 meters is within single-mode’s range with higher bandwidth
and lower latency; multimode is limited to ~550m at lower speeds, and UTP
maxes at 100m.)
6. A network administrator needs to connect two network switches that are 150
meters apart in a data center. Which of the following cabling options would
be the most cost-effective and efficient solution?
A) Cat5e UTP
B) Cat6 UTP
C) Multimode fiber optic
D) Single-mode fiber optic
Answer: C (150 meters exceeds UTP’s 100m limit; multimode fiber is cost-
effective for shorter distances like this compared to single-mode.)
7. Your team is installing a new network in a large warehouse. The
environment has a lot of heavy machinery, which can cause electromagnetic
interference. What type of cabling would best avoid interference issues?
A) Cat5e UTP
B) Cat6 UTP
C) Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
D) Fiber optic
Answer: D (Fiber optic is immune to EMI, making it ideal for environments
with heavy machinery.)
8. A business requires a network that can handle high data transmission over a
1000-meter distance with minimal signal loss. Which cabling type should be
selected?
A) Cat5e UTP
B) Cat6 UTP
C) Multimode fiber optic
D) Single-mode fiber optic
Answer: D (Single-mode fiber supports up to 100 km with minimal signal
loss, unlike multimode’s ~550m limit or UTP’s 100m.)
9. In a scenario where future network scalability and very high data transfer
rates are required, which of the following would be the best choice?
A) Cat5e UTP
B) Cat6 UTP
C) Multimode fiber optic
D) Single-mode fiber optic
Answer: D (Single-mode fiber offers the highest scalability and data rates
for future-proofing.)
10.For a short-distance (up to 100 meters) high-speed network connection in a
corporate office, which cabling should be chosen for best performance?
A) Cat5e UTP
B) Cat6 UTP
C) Cat6a UTP
D) Cat7 UTP
Answer: C (Cat6a supports 10 Gbps up to 100m, offering better
performance than Cat5e or Cat6, and is more practical than Cat7 for typical
office use.)
11.What is the primary purpose of a demilitarized zone (DMZ) in a network
architecture?
A) To increase network performance
B) To provide a secure zone for publicly accessible services
C) To isolate wireless devices from wired devices
D) To enhance internal network segmentation
Answer: B (A DMZ isolates public-facing services, like web servers, from
the internal network for security.)
12.A small office home office (SOHO) environment needs a simple and cost-
effective way to connect devices and share an internet connection. Which
device would be most appropriate?
A) Managed Switch
B) Router
C) Firewall
D) Unmanaged Switch
Answer: B (A router connects devices, shares internet, and is cost-effective
for SOHO setups.)
13.Which of the following is a key advantage of using a VLAN within a LAN?
A) Increased physical security
B) Simplified network topology
C) Segmentation of network traffic for better performance and security
D) Reduced need for network devices
 Answer: C (VLANs segment traffic, improving performance and security
without additional hardware.)
14.A retail chain needs to connect its stores to the central office for real-time
inventory management. Which network technology is most suitable for this
purpose?
A) LAN
B) WAN
C) PAN
D) MAN
Answer: B (A WAN connects geographically dispersed locations, like stores
to a central office.)
15.An IT administrator needs to improve the network performance of a LAN
with many devices. Which device should they consider installing to reduce
network congestion?
A) Router
B) Hub
C) Switch
D) Modem
Answer: C (A switch reduces congestion by filtering traffic to specific
devices, unlike a hub.)
16.Which of the following is the most suitable medium for a high-speed LAN in
an office building?
A) UTP Cat5e
B) UTP Cat6a
C) Coaxial cable
D) Single-mode fiber optic
Answer: B (Cat6a UTP supports 10 Gbps up to 100m, ideal for a high-speed
LAN in an office.)
17.A company's headquarters and its branch office need to securely connect
over the internet. Which technology can be used to create a secure
connection over the public network?
A) VLAN
B) VPN
C) MPLS
D) DSL
Answer: B (A VPN provides secure, encrypted connections over the public
internet.)
18.A small business has a single office building where all employees are
located. They need to set up a network to share printers, files, and internet
access. Which type of network should they implement?
 A) LAN
B) WAN
C) PAN
D) MAN
Answer: A (A LAN is suitable for a single office building to share
resources.)
19.An organization has a central office and several branch offices in the same
metropolitan area. They want to connect these offices with high-speed
network links. Which type of network would be most suitable?
A) LAN
B) WAN
C) PAN
D) MAN
Answer: D (A MAN connects offices within a metropolitan area, offering
high-speed links.)
20.A company has multiple offices in different cities and needs to connect them
to share resources and data securely. Which type of network should they
implement?
A) LAN
B) WAN
C) PAN
D) MAN
Answer: B (A WAN connects offices across different cities securely.)
21.A home network setup involves devices connected through a central wireless
router. What is the logical topology?
A) Logical bus topology
B) Logical star topology
C) Logical ring topology
D) Logical mesh topology
Answer: B (Devices connect to a central router, forming a logical star
topology.)
22.For a point-to-point WAN link connecting two offices, which physical
topology is used?
A) Bus topology
B) Star topology
C) Ring topology
D) Point-to-point topology
Answer: D (A point-to-point link directly connects two locations, typical for
WANs.)
23.A school network is arranged in such a way that each classroom is connected
to a central router. What is the most likely physical topology?
A) Bus topology
B) Star topology
C) Ring topology
D) Mesh topology
Answer: B (A central router with connections to classrooms forms a star
topology.)
24.An enterprise network is designed where multiple paths exist between any
two devices. This setup ensures that even if one path fails, data can still be
transmitted. What is the physical topology?
A) Bus topology
B) Star topology
C) Ring topology
D) Mesh topology
Answer: D (A mesh topology provides multiple paths for redundancy and
fault tolerance.)
25.Which logical topology is used in Wi-Fi networks where devices
communicate directly with a central access point?
A) Logical bus topology
B) Logical star topology
C) Logical ring topology
D) Logical mesh topology
Answer: B (Wi-Fi uses a central access point, creating a logical star
topology.)
26.A small office network uses a single coaxial cable to connect all devices.
What is the physical topology?
A) Bus topology
B) Star topology
C) Ring topology
D) Mesh topology
Answer: A (A single coaxial cable shared by all devices is a bus topology.)
27.A network administrator needs to ensure high redundancy and fault
tolerance. Which physical topology should be considered?
A) Bus topology
B) Star topology
C) Ring topology
D) Mesh topology
Answer: D (Mesh topology offers high redundancy with multiple paths.)
28.A network uses a token to control access to the communication channel,
ensuring that only one device can transmit at a time. Which logical topology
does this describe?
A) Logical bus topology
B) Logical star topology
C) Logical ring topology
D) Logical mesh topology
Answer: C (Token passing is characteristic of a logical ring topology, e.g.,
Token Ring.)
29.In a switched Ethernet network, which logical topology is typically
implemented?
A) Logical bus topology
B) Logical star topology
C) Logical ring topology
D) Logical mesh topology
Answer: B (Switched Ethernet uses a logical star topology with a switch at
the center.)
30.Which logical topology describes a network where all devices share a single
communication channel and can directly communicate with every other
device?
A) Logical bus topology
B) Logical star topology
C) Logical ring topology
D) Logical mesh topology
Answer: A (A logical bus topology has a shared channel for all devices.)
31.A company has a network setup where the data passes through each device
in a single direction, forming a closed loop. Which physical topology is
being used?
A) Bus topology
B) Star topology
C) Ring topology
D) Mesh topology
Answer: C (A closed loop with unidirectional data flow is a ring topology.)
32.In a network where each device connects directly to every other device, what
is the physical topology called?
A) Bus topology
B) Star topology
C) Ring topology
D) Mesh topology
Answer: D (Full connectivity between all devices defines a mesh topology.)
33.In fiber optic communication systems, which mode is typically preferred to
maximize the efficiency of data transmission?
A) Simplex
B) Half duplex
C) Full duplex
D) Multiplex
Answer: C (Full duplex allows simultaneous send/receive, maximizing
efficiency.)
34.Which communication mode is most suitable for high-speed data transfer in
modern Ethernet networks?
A) Simplex
B) Half duplex
C) Full duplex
D) Multiplex
Answer: C (Full duplex is standard in modern Ethernet for high-speed,
collision-free transfer.)
35.In a network scenario, what is the primary disadvantage of half duplex
communication compared to full duplex?
A) Increased complexity
B) Lower transmission speed
C) Higher cost
D) Increased potential for collisions
Answer: D (Half duplex allows collisions, reducing efficiency compared to
full duplex.)
36.Which type of communication is used in a telephone conversation where
both parties can talk and listen at the same time?
A) Simplex
B) Half duplex
C) Full duplex
D) Multiplex
Answer: C (Full duplex enables simultaneous two-way communication, like
a phone call.)
37.When using full duplex communication, what benefit is achieved over half
duplex?
A) Lower latency
B) Higher bandwidth utilization
C) Simultaneous two-way communication
D) All of the above
Answer: D (Full duplex provides all these benefits over half duplex.)
38.Which communication mode is commonly used in radio broadcasting where
information is only sent from the transmitter to the receiver?
A) Simplex
B) Half duplex
C) Full duplex
D) Multiplex
Answer: A (Simplex is one-way communication, typical for radio
broadcasts.)
39.In which communication mode can a device either send or receive data at
any given time, but not both simultaneously?
A) Simplex
B) Half duplex
C) Full duplex
D) Multiplex
Answer: B (Half duplex allows two-way communication but not
simultaneously.)
40.A network administrator wants to set up a communication link where data
can be transmitted and received simultaneously without waiting. Which
mode should be configured?
A) Simplex
B) Half duplex
C) Full duplex
D) Multiplex
Answer: C (Full duplex enables simultaneous transmission and reception.)
41.A walkie-talkie system allows two-way communication but only one person
can speak at a time. This is an example of:
A) Simplex communication
B) Half duplex communication
C) Full duplex communication
D) Multiplex communication
Answer: B (Half duplex allows two-way communication but not
simultaneously, like walkie-talkies.)
42.In a network setup, devices can send and receive data but not at the same
time. Which type of communication is being used?
A) Simplex
B) Half duplex
C) Full duplex
D) Multiplex
Answer: B (Half duplex allows sending or receiving, but not both at once.)
 Set-8
1. The Company Sun System and Consultants has a private network which is
only accessed and utilized only by their company's employees, this network
is called:
A. The Broadband
B. The intranet
C. The WWW
D. The Extranet
Answer: B (An intranet is a private network accessible only to an
organization’s employees.)
2. The physical topology represents the following:
A. Local area Network
B. Physical interconnection of network devices
C. Deals with how data communication happens
D. Peer-to-Peer Network Connection
Answer: B (Physical topology describes the physical layout and
interconnection of network devices.)
3. A company that is really dependent on the internet for their daily business
activities should be careful to choose connection options and that is less
concern with the:
A. High availability of the link
B. Quality of Service
C. Service and Support
D. Cost
Answer: D (For internet-dependent businesses, availability, QoS, and
support are critical; cost is less of a concern.)
4. Every IP address has some network portion and host portion, and the first IP
of the subnet is called and the last IP of the subnet is called:
A. Network address, broadcast address
B. Host address, network address
C. Public IP address, Private IP address
D. IP v4 address, IPV6 address
Answer: A (The first IP is the network address, and the last is the broadcast
address in a subnet.)
5. Which of the following type of IP address is used to communicate 1 device
to some group of devices?
A. 192.168.10.11
B. 10.10.14.5
C. 224.23.55.46
 D. 202.32.27.41
Answer: C (224.0.0.0–239.255.255.255 is the multicast range in IPv4, used
for one-to-group communication.)
6. Which OSI layer is responsible for managing source and destination logical
addressing?
A. Physical Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Network Layer
D. Update the timer after discarding the frame
Answer: C (The Network Layer (Layer 3) manages logical addressing, e.g.,
IP addresses.)
Note: D is nonsensical and likely a typo.
7. Which address is used to flood traffic if the subnet address is
192.168.10.0/25?
A. 192.168.10.63
B. 192.168.10.1
C. 192.168.10.127
D. 192.168.10.64
Answer: C (For /25 (255.255.255.128), subnet range is 192.168.10.0–
192.168.10.127; 192.168.10.127 is the broadcast address.)
8. Which application layer protocol is utilized when a user browses a website
called www.cisco.com?
A. TCP/IP
B. SMTP
C. ICMP
D. HTTP
Answer: D (HTTP is the application layer protocol for browsing websites.)
Note: TCP/IP is a suite, not a single protocol.
9. How many usable IP addresses can we obtain by utilizing 5 bits?
A. 30
B. 32
C. 16
D. 31
Answer: A (5 bits = 2⁵ = 32 total addresses; subtract 2 for network and
broadcast = 30 usable.)
10.A network address "procman.globaltech.com" was not being accessed; when
the network administrator pings that server with its IP, it is successful, but
pinging to the FQDN “procman.globaltech.com” is not successful. What
might be the common problem there?
A. The ARP is not being resolved
 B. There is no IP Address assigned to the server
C. The DNS is not getting resolved
D. The routing to the server is not configured
Answer: C (Successful IP ping but failed FQDN ping indicates a DNS
resolution issue.)
11.What port do you need to allow to access in order to run the FTP services
properly from the network?
A. TCP Port No. 19 and 20
B. TCP Port No. 20 and 21
C. UDP Port No. 20 and 21
D. TCP Port No. 20 and 110
Answer: B (FTP uses TCP port 21 for control and 20 for data transfer.)
12.A company's Network Admin keeps two IP Addresses 192.168.10.12, subnet
mask 255.255.240.0 and 192.168.10.22 Subnet Mask 255.255.255.240.
Which device is needed between these devices for successful
communication?
A. Network Switch
B. Firewall Device
C. Network Router
D. NIC Card
Answer: C (Different subnets (192.168.0.0/20 and 192.168.10.0/24) require
a router for inter-subnet communication.)
13.In order to protect their network from network-based attacks, the Security
Administrator suggests using a combination of 2-factor authentication at
least. What might be that combination for "what you have" and "what you
are" type authentication?
A. Cards and Fingerprints
B. Password and PIN
C. Cash and Voice command
D. ID card and Dress
Answer: A ("What you have" = card; "what you are" = biometric, e.g.,
fingerprints.)
14.What routing protocol do you need to use if PC-A has IP address
172.16.12.10/25 and PC-B has IP Address 192.168.10.12/25 and both are
connected to the Router RTR0501?
A. We have to use a static routing
B. We need no routing protocol
C. We use RIP V2
D. We can use BGP Routing
 Answer: A (Different subnets (172.16.12.0/25 and 192.168.10.0/25) on one
router require static routing or a dynamic protocol; static is simplest here.)
15.What command would be appropriate to see all running settings on the IOS
Device?
A. Show interface brief
B. Show running-config
C. Service password-encryption
D. Show vlan
Answer: B (show running-config displays all current configuration settings
on a Cisco IOS device.)
16.What might be the common host-based command to test & troubleshoot
network communication-related issues?
A. Ipconfig /all
B. Ping, tracert
C. netstat -a -v
D. net use Z: Lpt1\192.168.10.11
Answer: B (ping tests connectivity; tracert traces the route, both are
common troubleshooting tools.)
17.It's a common type of malware that seems to be a legitimate and useful piece
of tool but performs harmful activities internally. This type of malware is
called:
A. A Ransomware
B. A Worm
C. A Spam
D. A Trojan
Answer: D (A Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software but performs
malicious actions.)
18.An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to
do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from
internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the
employee access?
A. An intranet
B. The Internet
C. An extranet
D. A local area network
Answer: A (An intranet provides internal access to confidential company
resources.)
19.Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?
A. The AUX interface
B. The console port interface
 C. The switch virtual interface
D. The first Ethernet port interface
Answer: C (The switch virtual interface (SVI), e.g., VLAN 1, allows remote
management via IP.)
20.Which type of communication method exists in IP version 4 but not in IP
version 6?
A. Unicast
B. Broadcast
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
Answer: B (IPv4 uses broadcasts; IPv6 replaces them with multicast and
anycast.)