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BPSC Tre 3 - Removed

The document is a question booklet for an examination covering Language, General Studies, and Computer Science, divided into three parts. It includes instructions for candidates regarding the examination process, answer marking, and compliance with rules. The booklet contains questions in English, Hindi, Urdu, and Bengali, with specific guidelines for selecting answers and handling the materials during the exam.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
98 views21 pages

BPSC Tre 3 - Removed

The document is a question booklet for an examination covering Language, General Studies, and Computer Science, divided into three parts. It includes instructions for candidates regarding the examination process, answer marking, and compliance with rules. The booklet contains questions in English, Hindi, Urdu, and Bengali, with specific guidelines for selecting answers and handling the materials during the exam.

Uploaded by

study material
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 21

13/HV/M-2024-26 Booklet Series

Serial No.
Candidate’s Roll Number

E
Question Booklet

LANGUAGE, GENERAL STUDIES AND COMPUTER SCIENCE


Time Allowed : 2:30 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. This Question Booklet is divided into three Parts–Part–I, Part–II and Part–III. Part–I contains questions of
Language (Qualifying), Part–II contains questions of General Studies and Part –III contains questions of
Computer Science.
2. Part–I, Language (Qualifying) consists of Question Nos. 1 to 30. In Part–I, English Language consists of
Question Nos. E-1 to E-8 (common for all), Hindi Language consists of Question Nos. H-9 to H-30, Urdu
Language consists of Question Nos. U-9 to U-30 and Bengali Language consists of Question Nos. B-9 to
B-30 (Students are required to choose the questions from any one language out of three languages). Part-II
consists of Question Nos. 31 to 70 and Part-III consists of Question Nos. 71 to 150. (the questions and their
responses are printed in English and Hindi versions both of Part-II and Part-III)
3. All questions carry equal marks.
4. An Answer Sheet has been supplied inside the Question Booklet to mark the answers. You must write your Roll
Number and other particulars in the space provided in the Answer Sheet, failing which your Answer Sheet will
not be evaluated.
5. Immediately after commencement of the examination, you should check up your Question Booklet and attached
answer sheet and ensure that the Question Booklet Series is printed on the top right-hand corner of the Booklet
and the series encoded in answer sheet are same. Also please check that the Booklet contains 48 printed pages
including two pages (Page Nos. 46 and 47) for Rough Work and no page or question is missing or
unprinted or torn or repeated or question booklet and answer sheet have different series. If you find any defect
in this Booklet, get it replaced immediately by a complete Booklet with OMR sheet of the same series.
6. You must write your Roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. Do not write anything else on
the Question Booklet.
7. Each question comprises of Five responses- (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You are to select ONLY ONE correct
response and mark it in your Answer Sheet. Your total marks will depend on the number of correct responses
marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
8. In the Answer Sheet, there are five circles - A , B , C , D and E against each question. To answer the
questions, you are to mark with Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen ONLY ONE circle of your choice for each
question. Select only one response for each question and mark it in your Answer Sheet. If you mark more than
one answer for one question, the answer will be treated as wrong. Use Black/Blue ink ballpoint pen only to
mark the answer in the Answer Sheet. Any erasure or change is not allowed.
9. If there is any sort of mistake either of Printing or of factual nature, then out of English and Hindi Versions of the
questions, the English Version will be treated as standard.
10. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from the Question Booklet. You are not allowed to take this
Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet out of the Examination Hall during the examination. After the
examination has concluded, you must hand over your Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Thereafter, you are
permitted to take away the Question Booklet with you.
11. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable to such action or penalty as the
Commission may decide at their discretion.
12. Candidates must assure before leaving the Examination Hall that their Answer Sheets will be kept in Self
Adhesive LDPE Bag and completely packed/sealed in their presence.

526 ܶmZ X| : AZwXoem| H$m {hÝXr ê$nmÝVa Bg nwpñVH$m Ho$ ApÝV‘ n¥ð> na N>nm h¡&
PART - I
(English Language)
Directions (Q. Nos. E-1 to E-5) Read the E-3. What is Kerala's cuisine known for ?
passage given below and answer the questions (A) For its bad taste
that follow : (B) For being bland
(C) For its spicy hot flavours
Kerala is just the place for you if you love
(D) More than one of the above
variety. There is something here to please everyone. (E) None of the above
You are sure to fall in love with the serene beauty of
Kerala's magical backwaters. When you have E-4. What gives sea food its pungency?
experienced that, you can sample the excitement of (A) Coconut and spices
(B) Coconut & spices enhanced by
Kerala's bustling cities or retreat into the villages to
tamarind
see at first-hand how time can stand still. Better still, (C) Addition of cocacola
take a trip to the spice gardens in the hills, to inhale (D) More than one of the above
the fragrance of fresh cardamoms if that makes your (E) None of the above
tastebuds tingle and fills you with dreams of food,
E-5. Why would foreign bargain-hunter visitors
you need not worry. Kerala's cuisine is known for
never face a problem in Kerala ?
its spicy hot flavours. The coconut and the spices (A) Many foreign languages are spoken
give the food - especially the seafood a pungency in Kerala
that is enhanced by tamarind. Your meal would be (B) Hindi is the language of
incomplete without appam, rasam, fish curry and communication in the cities of kerala.
some delicious payasam. To wash it down, sip the (C) English is spoken and understood
naturally refreshing water of a tender coconut. And everywhere in Kerala.
when you had your fill, move into the markets to (D) More than one of the above
shop for gold, handicrafts, spices, cashew nuts and (E) None of the above
coffee. Bargain-hunters will never have a problem Directions (Q. Nos. E-6 to E-7) : Fill in the blanks
since English is spoken and understood everywhere with suitable articles like 'a' , 'an', and 'the':
in Kerala. E-6. If you reach _____ Airport on time, you will
E-1. Why is Kerala just the place for you if you catch the flight.
(A) a
love variety ?
(B) an
(A) There is something here to please (C) the
everyone (D) More than one of the above
(B) Kerala has magical backwaters (E) None of the above
(C) Kerala is very boring E-7. You should go for ____ early morning walk.
(D) More than one of the above (A) the
(E) None of the above (B) a
(C) an
E-2. Why should you take a trip to the spice (D) More than one of the above
gardens in the hills ? (E) None of the above
(A) To count the spices that are grown E-8. If 30th April is Tuesday, what day of the
there week would be 10th May?
(B) To buy some spices (A) Monday
(C) To inhale the fragrance of fresh (B) Thursday
cardamoms (C) Saturday
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 2
(Hindi Language)

{ZåZ{b{IV An{R>V JÚm§e Ho$ AmYma na àíZ g§§. H-9 H-12. aVZ Am¡a AO¶ Amng ‘| ³¶m Wo ?
go H-14 VH$ Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ CÎma {X¶o Om¶| &
aVZ Am¡a AO¶ EH$ hr ñHy$b Ho$ N>mÌ Wo & aVZ Jar~ Wm Am¡a (A) XmoñV
AO¶ YZr & aVZ Jar~ hmoH$a ^r nT>Zo ‘| VoO Wm & g^r {ejH$
CgHo$ ì¶dhma go àgÞ ahVo Wo & BgHo$ {dnarV AO¶ ~hþV ZQ>IQ> (B) {Xbr XmoñV
Wm & nT>Zo Ho$ ~Xbo IobZo-Hy$XZo Am¡a ~X‘mer ‘| A{YH$ ‘Z
bJmVm Wm & aVZ Am¡a AO¶ {Xbr XmoñV Wo & Bg{bE aVZ AO¶ (C) ^mB©
H$mo AÀN>m N>mÌ ~ZZo Ho$ {bE gbmh XoVm Wm & AO¶ {ejH$m| H$s
~mV Zht ‘mZVm Wm & EH$ ~ma aVZ go ZmamO hmoH$a AO¶ ^mJ ahm (D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
Wm & aVZ Zo Xm¡‹S>H$a AO¶ H$mo amoH$Zm Mmhm & BVZo hr ‘| EH$ ‘moQ>a
Ho$ ZrMo dh {Ja J¶m & (E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht

H-9. aVZ Zo Xm¡‹S>H$a AO¶ H$mo ³¶m| amoH$Zm Mmhm ?


(A) aVZ AO¶ go ß¶ma H$aVm Wm
H-13. g^r [ejH$ aVZ go ³¶mo àgÞ ahVo Wo ?
(B) aVZ Am¡a AO¶ EH$ hr ñHy$b ‘| nT>Vo Wo
(C) EH$ ~ma aVZ go ZmamO hmoH$a AO¶ ^mJ ahm Wm (A) aVZ H$s {ZY©ZVm Ho$ H$maU
(D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(B) aVZ Ho$ n[al‘r hmoZo H$maU
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(C) aVZ Ho$ ì¶dhma Ho$ H$maU
H-10. aVZ AO¶ H$mo AÀN>m N>mÌ ~ZZo Ho$ {bE ³¶m| gbmh XoVm
Wm ? (D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(A) {Xbr XmoñV hmoZo Ho$ H$maU (E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(B) EH$ ñHy$b ‘| n‹T>Zo Ho$ H$maU
(C) ^mB© hmoZo Ho$ H$maU
(D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$ H-14. AO¶ {H$g H$m‘ ‘| A{YH$ ‘Z bJmVm Wm ?
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(A) PJS>Zo ‘|

H-11. aVZ H¡$gm N>mÌ Wm ? (B) nT>Zo ‘|


(A) Jar~
(C) Xm¡S>Zo ‘o
(B) nT>Zo ‘| VoO
(C) g‘PXma (D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 3 [P.T.O.
{ZåZ{b{IV An{R>V JÚm§e Ho$ AmYma na àíZ g§§. H-15 H-18. bmoJ {edmOr H$m AmXa ³¶m| H$aVo Wo ?
go H-20 VH$ Ho$ àíZm| Ho$ CÎma {X¶o Om¶| & (A) CZH$s draVm Ho$ H$maU
{edmOr ^maV Ho$ ‘hmZ² dram| _| go EH$ Wo & CZH$m CÔoí¶ ‘hmamUm (B) H$Å>a {hÝXÿ hmoZo Ho$ H$maU
àVmn Ho$ CÔoí¶ go ^r Cƒ Wm & do AnZo H$m¶m] ‘| g’$b aho & do (C) CZHo$ AÀN>o JwUm| Ho$ H$maU
Ho$db dra hr Zht, ~pëH$ EH$ AÀN>o amOZr{Vk ^r Wo & CÝhm|Zo bmoJm| (D) Cn`w©ŠV ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
‘| EH$ amï´> H$s ^mdZm ^a Xr Am¡a ‘amR>m amÁ¶ H$s ñWmnZm H$s & do
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
H$Å>a {hÝXþ Wo Vmo ^r Xygao Ho$ Y‘© Am¡a g§ñH¥${V H$m AmXa H$aVo Wo &
CZHo$ AÀN>o JwUm| Ho$ H$maU g^r bmoJ CZH$m AmXa H$aVo Wo & h‘
bmoJm| H$mo CZHo$ OrdZ go {ejm boZr Mm{hE & H-19. BZ‘| "amOZr{Vk' eãX H$m AW© h¡ -
(A) dh Zr{V {Oggo amÁ¶ H$m g§MmbZ hmoVm h¡
H-15. {edmOr dra hmoZo Ho$ gmW Am¡a ³¶m Wo ?
(B) dh Zr{V {Oggo emgZ H$m g§MmbZ hmoVm h¡
(A) EH$ AÀN>o amOZr{Vk (C) amOZr{V go gå~pÝYV Zr{V
(B) loð> {dMmaH$ (D) Cn`w©ŠV ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(C) Hw$eb g‘«mQ>
(D) Cn`w©ŠV ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$ H-20. BZ‘| An{R>V JÚm§e H$m erf©H$ h¡ -
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht (A) {edmOr H$s amï´>r¶ MoVZm
(B) {edmOr H$m OrdZ
(C) {edmOr H$m namH«$‘
H-16. {edmOr Zo bmoJm| ‘| H$m¡Z gr ^mdZm ^a Xr ? (D) Cn`w©ŠV ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(A) {hÝXþËd H$s (E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht

(B) EH$ amï´> H$s


H-21. BZ‘| ì¶{º$dmMH$ g§km h¡ -
(C) draVm H$s (A) ZXr
(D) Cn`w©ŠV ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$ (B) J§ Jm
(C) ~«åhnwÌ
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(D) Cn`w©ŠV ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
H-17. {edmOr H$m¡Z Wo ?
H-22. BZ‘| CÎm‘nwéf gd©Zm‘ h¡ -
(A) ^maV H$m namH«$‘r ¶§moÕm
(A) ‘¢
(B) ^maV Ho$ ‘hmZ² dram| ‘| go EH$ (B) Vy
(C) ^maV H$m ‘hmZ² g‘«mQ²> (C) dh
(D) Cn`w©ŠV ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn`w©ŠV ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 4
H-23. "XþH$mZ na H$moB© Zht Wm &' dm³¶ ‘| {H$g H$maH$ H$m {M• H-27. BZ‘| ewÕ dm³¶ h¡ -
à¶wº$ hþAm h¡ ?
(A) {H$gr ^r AmX‘r H$mo ^oO Xmo
(A) AnmXmZH$maH$
(B) h‘ Vmo Adí¶ Om¶|Jo
(B) gå~ÝYH$maH$
(C) ¶h H${dVm AZoH$ ^md àH$Q> H$aVr h¡
(C) A{YH$aU H$maH$ (D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$ (E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht

H-28. BZ‘| "Ob' eãX H$m n¶m©¶dmMr eãX h¡ -


H-24. BZ‘| VËg‘ eãX h¡ - (A) OrdZ
(A) ~ƒm (B) A‘¥V
(B) nwîn (C) nmZr
(C) Mm¡Xh (D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$ (E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
H-29. "Ohm± bmoJ m| H$m {‘bZ hmo' dm³¶IÊS> Ho$ {bE EH$
eãX h¡ -
H-25. BZ‘| ewÕ eãX h¡ -
(A) ‘obm
(A) {ZanamYr
(B) gå‘obZ
(B) à‘m{UH$
(C) ‘ob
(C) ‘hËd
(D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht

H-30. "IQ>mB© ‘| n‹S>Zm' ‘whmdao H$m AW© h¡ -


H-26. BZ‘| "CËH¥$ï>' eãX H$m {dnarVmW©H$ eãX h¡ -
(A) P‘obo ‘| n‹S>Zm
(A) {ZH¥$ï>
(B) M¡Z {‘bZm
(B) AY‘
(C) {d¿Z AmZm
(C) ZrM
(D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(D) Cn¶w©³V ‘| go EH$ go A{YH$
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht
(E) Cn`w©ŠV _| go H$moB© Zht

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 5 [P.T.O.
PART - II
(GENERAL STUDIES)
31. Which of the following is the value of 36. The height of a cylinder whose radius is 7 cm
(x+1/x)2 ? and the total surface area is 968 cm2 is :
(A) x2 + 1/x2 (A) 15 cm
(B) x2 – 1/x2 (B) 17 cm
(C) x2 + 1/x2 + 1 (C) 19 cm
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

32. An article is at 10% more than the CP. If 37. If (–3)m+1 × (–3)5 = (–3)7, then the value of m
discount of 10% is allowed then which of the is :
following is right ? (A) 5
(A) 1% gain (B) 7
(B) 1% loss (C) 1
(C) no gain no loss (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
38. If x and y are inversely proportional, then:
(A) y/x = constant
33. By what number should 81 be divided to get
(B) xy = constant
a perfect cube ?
(C) x/y = constant
(A) 3
(D) More than one of the above
(B) 6 (E) None of the above
(C) 7
(D) More than one of the above 39. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into 5
(E) None of the above equal parts. These parts are then connected
in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of the
34. The difference between two whole numbers combination is R', then the ratio R/R' is ___
is 66. The ratio of the two numbers is 2:5. (A) 1/25
The two numbers are : (B) 1/5
(A) 60 and 6 (C) 25
(B) 100 and 33 (D) More than one of the above
(C) 110 and 44 (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 40. An electric heater of resistance 8  draws
15A current from a service mains for 2 Hrs.
35. In a parallelogram ABCD, angle A and angle What will be the rate at which heat is
B are in the ratio 1:2. Find the angle A. developed in the heater ?
(A) 30° (A) 220 watt
(B) 45° (B) 120 watt
(C) 60° (C) 210 watt
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 14
41. Which of the following lenses would you 46. Which one of the following types of medicines
prefer to use while reading small letters found used for treating indigestion ?
in the dictionary ? (A) Antibiotic
(A) A convex lens of 50 cm (B) Antacid
(B) A concave lens of 50 cm (C) Analgesic
(C) A concave lens of 5 cm (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
47. The task of processing citizenship applications
42. The human eye forms the image of an object under the CAA will be undertaken by
at its ________ (A) Postal Department
(A) Cornea (B) Census Department
(B) Iris (C) Central Security IB
(C) Retina (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
48. In which of the following country India
43. Which of the following is not a part of the launched its UPI ?
female reproductive system in human beings ? (A) Thailand
(A) Ovary (B) Myanmar
(B) Uterus (C) Mauritius
(C) Vas deferens (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
49. What is the name of space craft to be
44. The anther contains _________ launched by ISRO in 2024 to carry
(A) Sepals astronauts ?
(B) Ovules (A) Akashyan
(C) Pollen grains (B) Gaganyan
(D) More than one of the above (C) Bhramyan
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
45. Asexual reproduction takes place through
budding in ______ 50. Which country is not a member of G 7 ?
(A) Amoeba (A) Russia
(B) Yeast (B) Canada
(C) Plasmodium (C) USA
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 16
51. The process involved in achieving Green 57. In India dry point settlement is found in
hydrogen is (A) Flood prone area
(A) Electrolysis (B) Bikaner
(B) Dehydrogenesis (C) Aravali region
(C) Dehydration (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
58. In which district of Bihar Paddy crop
52. Which technology can be used to revise production is maximum ?
deceased individuals ? (A) Bhojpur
(A) Deepfake (B) Rohtas
(B) AI (C) Nalanda
(C) Chatbot (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
59. On which mountain is Tehran situated ?
53. In cost of living index parameter 2024 which (A) Alburz
country is better than India ? (B) Zagros
(A) Nigeria (C) Makran
(B) Pakistan (D) More than one of the above
(C) Bangladesh (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 60. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats of India
is :
54. Who supported Gandhiji in Champaran (A) Anai Mudi
Satyagraha in 1917 in support of farmers ? (B) Kanchenjunga
(A) Birsa Munda (C) Mahendragiri
(B) Rajendra Prasad (D) More than one of the above
(C) Satya Narayan Sinha (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 61. Which of these statements is not a valid reason
for the depletion of flora and fauna ?
55. Which is the moon-like planet ? (A) Agricultural expansion
(A) Mercury (B) Large scale development projects
(B) Mars (C) Grazzing and fuel wood collection
(C) Earth (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
62. In which district of Bihar silk textile production
56. On the basis of fossils which is the origin place is maximum ?
of man ? (A) Madhubani
(A) Rift valley of Africa (B) Bhagalpur
(B) Central Asia (C) Aurangabad
(C) Jerusalem (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 18
63. Who was the viceroy of India during the 67. Who was the leader of the Bardoli
Jallianwala Bagh massacre ? Satyagraha ?
(A) Lord Curzon (A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(B) Lord Chelmsford (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(C) Lord Irwin (C) Jawaharlal Nehru


(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

68. Who among the following is not associated


64. The first President of the Indian National with Home rule movement ?
Congress was:
(A) Annie Besant
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) W. C. Bonnerjee (C) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Badruddin Tyabji (D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
69. Who founded the Bihar provincial congress
committee in 1920 ?
65. Who among the following is also known as
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
the Grand old man of India ?
(B) Anugrah Narayan Sinha
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Jai Prakash Narayan
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 70. The All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) was
founded in 1936 in Bihar under the leadership
of :
66. Which of the following movements was (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
started by M. K. Gandhi ?
(B) Jai Prakash Narayan
(A) Quit India Movement
(C) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
(B) Non cooperation movement
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Swadesi movement (E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 20
PART - III
(Computer Science)
71. Digital circuit can be made by the repeated 74. An OR gate has 4 inputs. The number of
use of the _________. words in truth table will be _______.

(A) NAND gate (A) 4


(B) NOR gate (B) 8
(C) AND gate
(C) 16
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

72. Which of the following is correct for Digital


Circuits? 75. When does a negative level triggered flip-flop
in Digital Electronics changes its state?
(A) They use analog signals for
communication (A) When the clock is Negative
(B) They process information using
continuous voltage levels (B) When the clock is Positive

(C) They are not suitable for high speed (C) When the inputs are all zero
operations
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

76. What is the result of the operation 1010 AND


73. Which of the following is an example of a
1100 in binary?
digital Electronic?

(A) Computers (A) 1000

(B) Mobile phones (B) 1110

(C) Digital cameras (C) 100

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 22
77. In a half-adder circuit, what are the outputs? 81. Convert the decimal number 1234 to binary,
octal, and hexadecimal. Which of the
(A) Sum and Carry following options correctly represents these
(B) Difference and Borrow conversions?

(C) Sum and Difference (A) Binary: 10011010010, Octal: 2322,


Hexadecimal: 4D2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (B) Binary: 11001110010, Octal: 1712,
Hexadecimal: 72A

78. Which of the following is the type of Read (C) Binary: 11100110010, Octal: 1642,
Only Memory (ROM)? Hexadecimal: 3CD

(A) PROM (D) More than one of the above


(B) EPROM (E) None of the above
(C) MROM
(D) More than one of the above
82. What is Booth’s algorithm used for?
(E) None of the above
(A) Binary to decimal conversion

79. What is a PLA? (B) Decimal to binary conversion


(A) Programmable Logic Application (C) Binary multiplication
(B) Programmable Logic Array
(D) More than one of the above
(C) Programmable Logic Architecture
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

83. Which of the following is error detection code


used in digital logic?
80. How many select lines are required for an
8-to-1 multiplexer?
(A) Hamming code
(A) 2
(B) Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
(B) 3
(C) Checksum
(C) 4
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 24
84. When performing BCD addition, what is the 87. What is the purpose of the “don’t care”
maximum value that can be represented in a condition in digital logic?
single BCD digit?
(A) To indicate that the value of a variable
(A) 2 does not affect the output

(B) 10 (B) To prioritize certain inputs over others

(C) 15 (C) To ensure that all possible input


combinations are covered in truth
(D) More than one of the above tables

(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

85. Convert the binary number 1011.1101 to its


decimal equivalent. Which of the following is
the correct decimal value? 88. Which of the following data structures stores
elements in a non-linear relationship?
(A) 11.75
(A) Stack
(B) 12.125
(B) Queue
(C) 13.5
(C) Array
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

86. What is De Morgan’s theorem used for in 89. Which data structure is used for efficient
digital logic? searching, insertion, and deletion of elements?
(A) Simplifying Boolean expressions (A) Stack

(B) Implementing NAND gates (B) Queue

(C) Performing binary addition (C) Hash Table

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 26
90. In a binary search tree, which subtree of a 94. A queue has configuration a, b, c, d. If you
node contains elements that are greater than want to get the configuration d, c, b, a, you
the node’s value? need a minimum of _______.
(A) Left subtree (A) 2 deletions and 3 additions
(B) Right subtree (B) 3 deletions and 3 additions
(C) Both subtrees (C) 4 deletions and 4 additions
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

95. The order of the binary search algorithm is


91. The result evaluating the postfix expression _______.
10 5 + 60 6/ * 8
(A) N
(A) 142
(B) N log n
(B) 213
(C) N2
(C) 284
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above
96. The preorder traversal of a binary search tree
92. In a balanced binary tree, the height of two is 15, 10, 12, 11,20, 18, 16, 19. Which one
sub-trees of every node can not differ by more of the following is the postorder traversal of
than the tree?
(A) 2 (A) 20, 19, 18, 16, 15, 12, 11,10
(B) 1 (B) 11, 12, 10, 16,19,18,20,15
(C) 0 (C) 19, 16, 18,20,11,12,10,15
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

93. Write the output of the following program: 97. How many distinct binary search trees can
int a[ ] = {1,2,3,} *p; be created out of 4 distinct keys?
(A) Junk value (A) 8
(B) 3 (B) 24
(C) Runtime error (C) 14
(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 28
98. #include <stdio.h> 101. Merge Sort is an example of which algorithm
int main() design paradigm?

{ (A) Greedy
int i = 5, j = 10, k = 15;
printf(\"%d \", sizeof(k /=i+j)); (B) Divide and Conquer

printf(\"%d\", k);
(C) Dynamic Programming
return 0;
} (D) More than one of the above
Assume size of an integer as 4 bytes. What is
(E) None of the above
the output of above program?
(A) 2 1
(B) 41
(C) 4 15 102. How many edges does a spanning tree of a
graph with N vertices have?
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (A) N

(B) N-1
99. Which of the following statements is true about
Big-O notation?
(C) N(N-l)/2
(A) It represents the lower bound of an
algorithm’s runtime. (D) More than one of the above
(B) It represents the upper bound of an
algorithm’s runtime (E) None of the above
(C) It represents the average runtime of an
algorithm.
(D) More than one of the above
103. Which of the following is NOT a graph
(E) None of the above traversal algorithm?

(A) Greedy
100. Which of the following is NOT a step in the
Divide and Conquer algorithm?
(B) Divide and Conquer
(A) Combine
(B) Conquer (C) Dynamic Programming
(C) Divide
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 30
104. Which of the following is NOT an NP- 107. Which of the following is a type of operating
Complete problem? system?

(A) Traveling Salesman Problem (A) Real-time operating system

(B) Boolean Satisfiability Problem (B) Embedded operating system

(C) Shortest Path Problem (C) Network operating system

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

105. Which of the following is an advantage of using 108. Which of the following is NOT a memory
arrays? management technique used by operating
systems?
(A) Constant time insertion and deletion
(A) Paging
(B) Ability to store elements of different
data types
(B) Segmentation
(C) Random access to elements using an
index (C) Fragmentation

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

106. Which of the following is NOT a basic 109. Which of the following is a file system
operation performed on a data structure? commonly used in operating systems?

(A) Encryption (A) NTFS

(B) Deletion (B) FAT32

(C) Insertion (C) HFS+

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 32
110. Which of the following is NOT a type of 114. What causes thrashing to occur?
interrupt?
(A) Excessive paging activity
(A) Hardware interrupt
(B) Insufficient disk space
(B) Memory interrupt
(C) Hardware failures
(C) Software interrupt
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

115. Consider a system with a total physical


111. What is a page in paging? memory of 8 GB and total virtual memory of
(A) A fixed-size block of virtual memory 16 GB. If the system is using 6 GB of physical
memory and 10 GB of virtual memory, how
(B) A fixed-size block of physical memory much memory is being swapped out?
(C) A type of memory allocation
(A) 2 GB
(D) More than one of the above
(B) 4 GB
(E) None of the above
(C) 6 GB

112. In a system with a page size of 4 KB and a (D) More than one of the above
physical address space of 64 GB, what is the (E) None of the above
number of bits required for the page offset?
(A) 10 bits
116. How is the TLB typically organized?
(B) 12 bits
(A) As a direct-mapped cache
(C) 14 bits
(B) As an associative cache
(D) More than one of the above
(C) As a set-associative cache
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
113. What is a segment base in segmentation?
(A) The starting address of a segment in
physical memory 117. Which of the following is a common file
operation?
(B) The starting address of a segment in
virtual memory (A) Create
(C) The ending address of a segment in (B) Delete
physical memory
(C) Rename
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 34
118. Consider a disk queue with requests for I/O 121. In a relational database, what is a primary key?
to blocks on cylinders. 98 183 37 122 14
124 65 67 considering FCFS (First Come (A) A key used to uniquely identify each
First Served) scheduling, the total number of record in a table
head movements is, if the disk head is initially
at 53 is? (B) A key used to establish relationships
between tables
(A) 640
(C) A key used to sort records in a table
(B) 620
(D) More than one of the above
(C) 630
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above


122. Which normal form ensures that every
non-prime attribute in a table is fully
119. Thread shares with other threads belonging functionally dependent on the primary key?
to the same process its
(A) First Normal Form (1NF)
(A) thread ID
(B) Second Normal Form (2NF)
(B) program counter
(C) Third Normal Form (3NF)
(C) code section and data section
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

123. Which SQL command is used to add new


120. Which of the following is NOT a type of rows to a database table?
DBMS?
(A) ADD
(A) Relational DBMS
(B) CREATE
(B) Object-Oriented DBMS

(C) Sequential DBMS (C) INSERT

(D) More than one of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 36
124. Which of the following is a disadvantage of 127. Which device is used to connect multiple
using a distributed database system? devices within the same local area network
(LAN)?
(A) Improved data accessibility
(A) Router
(B) Increased data security
(B) Switch
(C) Data inconsistency
(C) Bridge
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

125. What is the primary function of a router in a


128. Which protocol is used to send email over
computer network?
the Internet?
(A) To connect devices within the same (A) FTP
network
(B) SMTP
(B) To connect multiple networks together
(C) HTTP
(C) To filter incoming traffic based on IP
addresses (D) More than one of the above

(D) More than one of the above (E) None of the above

(E) None of the above

129. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in


TCP/IP networking?
126. In the OSI model, which layer is responsible
for routing and forwarding data packets? (A) To identify the network portion of an
IP address
(A) Data Link Layer
(B) To identify the host portion of an IP
(B) Transport Layer address

(C) Physical Layer (C) To convert IP addresses into domain


names
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 38
130. What is the maximum data rate of Bluetooth 133. What is the main difference between
version 5.0? verification and validation in software testing?

(A) Verification ensures that the software


(A) 1 Mbps
is bug-free, while validation ensures
that it meets the requirements.
(B) 2 Mbps
(B) Verification is done before coding,
(C) 5 Mbps while validation is done after coding.

(C) Verification checks if the software is


(D) More than one of the above
built right, while validation checks if the
right software is built.
(E) None of the above
(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above


131. Which of the following is a software
development life cycle model?
134. What is the purpose of a software prototype?
(A) Waterfall model (A) To serve as the final version of the
software
(B) Agile model
(B) To replace detailed documentation
(C) Spiral model
(C) To speed up the software development
process
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

132. Which of the following is NOT a software 135. What is the primary goal of software
development requirement? engineering?

(A) Functional requirements (A) To write code efficiently

(B) To develop software that meets user


(B) System requirements requirements within budget and
schedule constraints
(C) Physical requirements
(C) To develop software with the latest
(D) More than one of the above technologies

(D) More than one of the above


(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 40
136. Which of the following is a pillar of OOP? 140. What is the purpose of HTML in a web
application?
(A) Inheritance
(A) To define the structure of web pages
(B) Encapsulation
(B) To style web pages
(C) Abstraction
(C) To add interactivity to web pages
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

137. Which keyword is used in Java to implement 141. Which of the following is an example of a
inheritance? server-side scripting language commonly used
(A) extends in web applications?

(B) inherits (A) HTML


(B) CSS
(C) implements
(C) C++
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

138. What is the access specifier used to make


members of a class accessible only within the 142. What is the computational complexity of the
same package? halting problem?
(A) O(1)
(A) private
(B) O(n)
(B) public
(C) Not computable
(C) package-private
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

143. Which of the following is NOT a component


139. Inheritance in OOP allows a class to: of a Turing machine?
(A) Inherit properties and behavior from (A) Input tape
another class
(B) Output tape
(B) Create instances of another class
(C) Control unit
(C) Override methods of another class
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
(E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 42
144. Which wireless communication technology is 148. Which of the following is NOT a common
commonly used in IoT devices for short-range type of E-Commerce model?
communication?
(A) Bluetooth (A) Business-to-Consumer (B2C)

(B) Wi-Fi (B) Consumer-to-Business (C2B)


(C) 4G LTE
(C) Consumer-to-Consumer (C2C)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above


145. Which of the following is an example of an
IoT protocol used for device communication?
(A) HTTP
149. Which of the following is an example of a B2C
(B) FTP E-Commerce website?
(C) MQTT
(A) Alibaba
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (B) Amazon

(C) Google
146. Which of the following is a subfield of AI?
(A) Machine Learning (D) More than one of the above

(B) Robotics (E) None of the above


(C) Natural Language Processing
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above 150. Which of the following is a multimedia
authoring tool?

147. Which of the following is a supervised learning (A) Microsoft Word


algorithm?
(A) Decision Tree (B) Adobe Photoshop

(B) K-means Clustering (C) Adobe Flash


(C) Reinforcement Learning
(D) More than one of the above
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above (E) None of the above

13/HV/M-2024-26/HS-526-E 44

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