JEE Advanced 2024

Sample Paper - 5

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 180

General Instructions:
This question paper has THREE main sections and four sub-sections as below.
MRQ
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) the correct answer(s).
You will get +4 marks for the correct response and -2 for the incorrect response.
You will also get 1-3 marks for a partially correct response.
MCQ
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
the correct answer.
You will get +3 marks for the correct response and -1 for the incorrect response.
NUM
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
You will get +4 marks for the correct response and 0 marks for the incorrect response.
MATCH
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and
ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice
Question.
You will get +3 marks for the correct response and -1 for the incorrect response.
Mathematics (MRQ)
1. The equations of the common tangents to the parabola y = x2 and y = -(x - 2)2 is/are [4]

a) y = 0 b) y = - 4 (x -1)

c) y = 4(x - 1) d) y = - 30x - 50

2. The function f(x) = 1 + | sin x | is [4]

a) continuous nowhere b) continuous everywhere

c) not differentiable at x = 0 d) not differentiable at infinite

number of points.

3. Let f(x) = 7 tan 8

x + 7 tan
6
x − 3 tan
4
x − 3 tan
2
x for all x ∈ (− π

2
,
π

2
) . Then the correct [4]
expression(s) is(are)

a) π/4 b) π/4

∫ f (x)dx = 1 ∫ f (x)dx = 0

0 0

c) π/4 d) π/4
1 1
∫ xf (x)dx = ∫ xf (x)dx =
12 6
0 0
 Mathematics (MCQ)
m
10 20 p [3]
4. The sum ∑( )( ) , where ( ) = 0 if p > q, is maximum when m is equal to
i=0 i m − i q

a) 15 b) 10

c) 5 d) 20

5. If f(x) = x2 + 2bx + 2c2 and g(x) = - x2 - 2cx + b2, such that min f(x) > max g(x), then the [3]
relation between b and and c, is

a) |c| < |b|√2 b) |c| > |b|√2

– –

c) 0 < c < b√2 d) No real value of b and c

–

6. Let P = (-1, 0), Q = (0, 0) and R = (3, 3√3 ) be three points. Then the equation of the [3]
–

bisector of the angle PQR is:

a) x + √3 y = 0 b)
–
x+y=0
√3

c) √3 x + y = 0 d) x +
–
=0
√3
y
2

7. Suppose f (x) = (x + 1)2 for x ≥ -1. If g (x) is the function whose graph is reflection of the [3]
graph of f (x) with respect to the line y = x, then g (x) equals

a) √−
x − 1, x ≥ 0
−
b) 1
2
, x > -1
(x+1)

c) −√x d) √x + 1 , x ≥ -1
−
− −−−−
− 1, x ≥ 0

Mathematics (NUM)
8. Let X be the set consisting of the first 2018 terms of the arithmetic progression 1, 6, 11, ..., [4]
and Y be the set consisting of the first 2018 terms of the arithmetic progression 9, 16, 23,
... . Then, the number of elements in the set X ∪ Y is ________.

9. Consider a circle C1 : x2 + y2 - 4x - 2y = α - 5. Let its mirror image in the line y = 2x + 1 be [4]

another circle C2 : 5x2 + 5y2 - 10fx - 10gy + 36 = 0. Let r be the radius of C2. Then α + r is
equal to ________.

10. In a triangle ABC, let A B = √23 , BC = 3 and CA = 4. Then the value of

−− cot A+cot C
is [4]
cot B

11. Let a,⃗ b ⃗ and c ⃗ be three non-coplanar unit vectors such that the angle between every pair [4]
of them is π

3
. If a⃗ × b ⃗ + b ⃗ × c ⃗ = pa⃗ + qb ⃗ + rc,⃗ where p, q and r are scalars, then the value of
is:
2 2 2
p +2q +r

2
q

x
[4]
12. Let f 1
: (0, ∞) → R and f 2
: (0, ∞) → R be defined by f 1
(x) = ∫ ∏
21

j=1
j
(t − j) dt, x > 0 and
0

f2(x) = 98 (x - 1)50 - 600(x - 1)49 + 2450, x > 0, where for any positive integer n and real
 numbers a1, a2,... an, Π n
i=1
ai denotes the product of a1, a2,... an, Let mi and ni,
respectively, denote the number of points of local minima and the number of points of
local maxima of function fi, i = 1, 2, in the interval (0, ∞)
The value of 2m1 + 3n1 + m1n1 is ________.

13. Let ABC and ABC' be two non-congruent triangles with sides AB = 4, AC = AC' = 2√2 and [4]
–

angle B = 30°. The absolute value of the difference between the areas of these triangles is

Mathematics (MATCH)
14. Let zk = cos( 2kπ

10
) + i sin(
2kπ

10
) ; k = 1, 2, ..., 9. [3]

List-I List-II
(1)
(P) For each zk there exists as zj such that zk.zj = 1
True
(Q) There exists a k ∈ {1, 2, ..., 9} such that z1.z = zk has no solution z in the set (2)
of complex numbers False

(R) equal (3) 1

|1−z1 ||1−z2 |…||1−z9 ∣

10

(S) 1 − ∑ cos(
2kπ

10
) equal (4) 2
k=1

a) (P) - (1), (Q) - (2), (R) - (3), (S) - (4) b) (P) - (2), (Q) - (1), (R) - (3), (S) - (4)

c) (P) - (2), (Q) - (1), (R) - (4), (S) - (3) d) (P) - (1), (Q) - (2), (R) - (4), (S) - (3)

15. Consider the ellipse x

2

+
y
2

= 1. [3]
4 3

Let H(α, 0), 0 < α < 2, be a point. A straight line drawn through H parallel to the y-axis
crosses the ellipse and its auxiliary circle at points E and F respectively, in the first
quadrant. The tangent to the ellipse at the point E intersects the positive x-axis at a point
G Suppose the straight line joining F and the origin makes an angle with the positive x-
axis.
List - I List - II

(I) If ϕ = , then the area of the triangle FGH is

4

(P)
π (√3−1)
4
8

(II) If ϕ = π

3
, then the area of the triangle FGH is (Q) 1
(III) If ϕ = π

6
, then the area of the triangle FGH is (R) 3

(IV) If ϕ = π

12
, then the area of the triangle FGH is (S) 2√ 3
1

(T)
3√ 3

a) (I) → (R); (II) → (S); (III) → (Q); (IV) b) (I) → (R); (II) → (T); (III) → (S); (IV)
→ (P) → (P)

c) (I) → (Q); (II) → (T); (III) → (S); (IV) d) (I) → (Q); (II) → (S); (III) → (Q); (IV)
→ (P) → (P)
16. Let p, q, r be nonzero real numbers that are, respectively, the 10th, 100th and 1000th [3]
terms of a harmonic progression. Consider the system of linear equations
x+y+z=1
10x + 100y + 1000z = 0
qr x + pr y + pq z = 0.
List-I List-II
(P) x = 0, y = 10
,z=− 1
as a
(I) If = 10, then the system of linear equations has
q
9 9

solution
r

(II) If 100, then the system of linear equations

p
≠
r
(Q) x = 10
, y = − , z = 0 solution
1

has 9 9

(III) If 10, then the system of linear equations

p
≠
(R) infinitely many solutions
q

has
(IV) If = 10, then the system of linear equations
p

q
(S) no solution
has
(T) at least one solution

a) (I) → (Q); (II) → (S); (III) → (S); (IV) b) (I) → (Q); (II) → (R); (III) → (P); (IV)
→ (R) → (R)

c) (I) → (T); (II) → (R); (III) → (S); (IV) → d) (I) → (T); (II) → (S); (III) → (P); (IV)
(T) → (T)

17. Consider the lines L 1 :

x−1
=
y
=
z+3
, L2
x−4
=
y+3
=
z+3
and the planes P1 : 7x + y + [3]
2 −1 1 1 1 2

2z = 3, P2 = 3x + 5y - 6 z = 4. Let ax + by + cz = d be the equation of the plane passing

through the point of intersection of lines L1 and L2, and perpendicular to planes P1 and
P2.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
P. a = 1. 13
Q. b = 2. -3
R. c = 3. 1
S. d = 4. -2

a) (P) → (3), (Q) → (2), (R) → (1), (S) → b) (P) → (2), (Q) → (4), (R) → (1), (S)
(4) → (3)

c) (P) → (1), (Q) → (3), (R) → (4), (S) → d) (P) → (3), (Q) → (2), (R) → (4), (S)
(2) → (1)

Physics (MRQ)
18. A thin and uniform rod of mass M and length L is held vertical on a floor with large [4]
friction. The rod is released from rest so that it falls by rotating about its contact point with
the floor without slipping. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct, when the rod
 makes an angle 60o with vertical?
[g is the acceleration due to gravity]

a) The angular acceleration of the rod b) The radical acceleration of the rod’s
will be center of mass will be
2g 3g

L 4

c) The angular speed of the rod will d) The normal reaction force from the
−
−−
be √
3g
floor on the rod Mg

16
2L

19. A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude a, wavelength λ and frequency f is travelling on [4]
a stretched string. The maximum speed of any point on the string is , where v is the
v

10

speed of propagation of the wave. If a = 10-3m and v = 10 ms-1, then λ and f are given by

a) f = 104Hz b) f =
3
10 H z

2π

c) λ = 2π × 10 −2
m d) λ = 10-3m

20. H+, He+ and O++ all having the same kinetic energy pass through a region in which there [4]
is a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to their velocity. The masses of H+, He+ and
O2+ are 1 au, 4 amu and 16 amu respectively. Then

a) H+ will be deflected most b) O2+ will be deflected most

c) He+ and O2+ will be deflected d) all will be deflected equally

equally

Physics (MCQ)
21. Dimensions of electrical resistance is: [3]

a) [ML-1t3A2] b) [ML3T-3A-2]

c) [ML2T-3 A-1] d) [ML2 T-3 A-2]

22. Two bodies A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and [3]
25 m respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them to reach the ground is:

a) 5

4
b) 12

c) 5

12
d) 4

23. If the orbital velocity of the moon is increased by 41.4% of its present value, then the: [3]

a) moon will become a stationary b) moon will leave its orbit and
satellite escape into space

c) moon will orbit around the earth d) radius of moon’s orbit will become
with double velocity double
24. An electron initially at rest falls a distance of 1.5 cm in a uniform electric field of [3]
magnitude 2 × 104 N/C. The time taken by the electron to fall this distance is:

a) 1.3 × 102 s b) 2.1 × 10-12 s

c) 1.6 × 10-10 s d) 2.9 × 10-9 s

Physics (NUM)
25. An object is placed on the principal axis of convex lens of focal length 10 cm as shown. A [4]
plane mirror is placed on the other side of lens at a distance of 20 cm. The image
produced by the plane mirror is 5 cm inside the mirror. The distance of the object from the
lens is ________ cm.

26. Two spherical stars A and B emit blackbody radiation. The radius of A is 400 times that of B [4]
and A emits 104 times the power emitted from B. The ratio ( )of their wavelengths λ
λA
A
λB

and λ at which the peaks occur in their respective radiation curves is:
B

27. A particle of mass 1 kg is subjected to a force which depends on the position as [4]
F = −k(x i + y j ) kg ms
⃗ ^ ^ -2 with k = 1 kg s-2. At time t = 0, the particle’s position

and its velocity v ⃗ = (−√2 ^i + √2 ^j + . Let vx and vy denote

– – –
1
^ 2 ^
i + √2 ^
−1
r⃗ = ( j) m k ) ms
π
√2

the x and y components of the particle's velocity, respectively. Ignore gravity. When z =
0.5 m, the value of (xvy - yvx) is ________ m2x-1.

28. A soft plastic bottle, filled with water of density 1 gm/cc, carries an inverted glass test-tube [4]
with some air (ideal gas) trapped as shown in the figure. The test-tube has a mass of 5 gm,
and it is made of a thick glass of density 2.5 gm/cc. Initially the bottle is sealed at
atmospheric pressure p0 = 105 Pa so that the volume of the trapped air is v0 = 3.3 cc.
When the bottle is squeezed from outside at constant temperature, the pressure inside
rises and the volume of the trapped air reduces. It is found that the test tube begins to
sink at pressure P0 + Δp without changing its orientation. At this pressure, the volume of
the trapped air is v0 - Δv.
Let Δv = X cc and Δp = Y × 103 Pa.

The value of Y is ________.

29. For hydrogen atom, λ1 and λ are the wavelengths corresponding to the transitions 1 and [4]
2

2 respectively as shown in figure. The ratio of λ and λ is 1 2

32
x
. The value of x is ________.
30. In the following circuit C1 = 12 μ F, C2 = C3 = 4 μ F and C4 = C5 = 2 μ F. The charge stored [4]
in C3 is ________ μ C.

Physics (MATCH)
31. List I describes thermodynamic processes in four different systems. List II gives the [3]
magnitudes (either exactly or as a close approximation) of possible changes in the internal
energy of the system due to the process.
List-
List-I
II

(I) 10-3 kg of water at 100°C is converted to steam at the same temperature, at a

(P) 2
pressure of 105 Pa. The volume of the system changes from 10-6 m3 to 10-3 m3 kJ
in the process. Latent heat of water = 2250 kJ/kg.
(II) 0.2 moles of a rigid diatomic ideal gas with volume V at temperature 500 K (Q) 7
undergoes an isobaric expansion to volume 3 V. Assume R = 8.0 Jmol-1 K-1. kJ

(III) One mole of a monatomic ideal gas is compressed adiabatically from volume (R) 4
m and pressure 2 kPa to volume . kJ
1 3 V
V =
3 8

(IV) Three moles of a diatomic ideal gas whose molecules can vibrate, is given 9 kJ (S) 5
of heat and undergoes isobaric expansion. kJ
(T) 3
kJ
Which one of the following options is correct?

a) (I) → (P); (II) → (R); (III) → (T); (IV) b) (I) → (S); (II) → (P); (III) → (T); (IV)
→ (Q) → (P)

c) (I) → (T); (II) → (R); (III) → (S); (IV) → d) (I) → (Q); (II) → (R); (III) → (S); (IV)
(Q) → (T)

32. Four combinations of two thin lenses are given in List-I. The radius of curvature of all [3]
curved surfaces is r and the refractive index of all the lenses is 1.5. Match lens
combinations in List-I with their focal length in List-II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists.
List-I List-II
(P)

(1) 2r
 (Q)

(2) r

(R)

(3) -r

(S)

(4) r

a) P - 4, Q - 1, R - 2, S - 3 b) P - 2, Q - 4, R - 3, S - 1

c) P - 2, Q - 1, R - 3, S - 4 d) P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3, S - 4

33. List-I shows different radioactive decay processes and List-II provides possible emitted [3]
particles. Match each entry in List-I with an appropriate entry from List-II, and choose the
correct option.
List - I List - II
(P) 238
92
U →
234
91
Pa (1) one a particle and one β particle
+

(Q) 214
82
Pb →
210
82
Pb (2) three β particles and one a particle
−

(R) 210
81
Tl →
206
.82
Pb (3) two β particles and one a particle
−

(S) 228
91
Pa →
224
88
Ra (4) one a particle and one β particle
−

(5) one a particle and two β particles

+

a) P → 5, Q → 1, R → 3, S → 2 b) P → 5, Q → 3, R → 1, S → 4

c) P → 4, Q → 3, R → 2, S → 1 d) P → 4, Q → 1, R → 2, S → 5

34. A musical instrument is made using four different metal strings 1,2,3 and 4 with mass per [3]
unit length μ , 2μ , 3μ and 4μ respectively. The instrument is played by vibrating the strings
by varying the free length in between the range L0 and 2L0. It is found that in string-1 (μ )
at free length L0 and tension T0 the fundamental mode frequency is f0. List - I gives the
above four strings while list - II lists the magnitude of some quantity.
List-I List-II
(I) String - 1 (μ ) (P) 1
(II) String - 2 (2μ ) (Q) 1

2
 List-I List-II

(III) String - 3 (3μ ) (R) 1

√2

(IV) String - 4 (4μ ) (S) 1

√3

(T) 3

16

(U) 1

16

If the tension in each string is T0, the correct match for the highest fundamental frequency
in f0 units will be,

a) (I) → (P), (II)→ (Q), (III)→ (T), (IV)→ b) (I) → (Q), (II)→ (P), (III)→ (R), (IV)→
(S) (T)

c) (I) → (Q), (II)→ (S), (III)→ (R), (IV)→ d) (I) → (P), (II)→ (R), (III)→ (S), (IV)→
(P) (Q)

Chemistry (MRQ)
35. In the reaction scheme shown below, Q, R, and S are the major products. [4]

The correct structure of

a) b)

c) d)

36. In a bimolecular reaction, the steric factor P was experimentally determined to be 4.5. The [4]
correct option(s) among the following is(are)

a) Experimentally determined value of b) Since P = 4.5, the reaction will not

frequency factor is higher than that proceed unless an effective catalyst
predicted by Arrhenius equation is used
 c) The activation energy of the d) The value of frequency factor
reaction is unaffected by the value predicted by Arrhenius equation is
of the steric factor higher than that determined
experimentally

37. In thermodynamics, the P - V work done is given by w = − ∫ dV Pext . [4]

For a system undergoing a particular process, the work done is, w = − ∫ dV (
RT

V −b
−
a
2
)
V

This equation is applicable to a

a) Process that is reversible and b) Process that is reversible and

isothermal. adiabatic.

c) Process that is irreversible and at d) System that satisfies the van der
constant pressure. Waals equation of state.

Chemistry (MCQ)
38. The octet rule is not valid for the molecule [3]

a) H2O b) O2

c) CO d) CO2

39. When two reactants, A and B are mixed to give products, C and D, the reaction quotient, [3]
(Q) at the initial stages of the reaction:

a) is zero b) is independent of time

c) decreases with time d) increases with time

[3]

40.

Arrange in order of increasing acidic strength

a) X > Y > Z b) Z < X > Y

c) X > Z > Y d) Z > X > Y

41. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is [3]

a) 2-methyl propan-2-ol b) 2-methyl propan-1-ol

c) butan-1-ol d) butan-2-ol

Chemistry (NUM)
42. While estimating the nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the [4]
ammonia evolved from 0.25 g of the compound neutralized 2.5 mL of 2 M H2SO4. The
percentage of nitrogen present in organic compound is ________.
43. 0.5 g of fuming H2SO4 (Oleum) is diluted with water. This solution is completely [4]
neutralized by 26.7 mL of 0.4 N NaOH. Find the percentage of free SO3 in the sample of
oleum.

44. An athlete is given 100 g of glucose (C6H12O6) of energy equivalent to 1560 kJ. He [4]
utilizes 50 percent of this gained energy in the event. In order to avoid the storage of
energy in the body, calculate the weight of water he would need to perspire. The enthalpy
of evaporation of water is 44 kJ/mole.

45. Calculate the wave number for the shortest wavelength transition in the Balmer series of [4]
atomic hydrogen.

46. The total number of α and β particles emitted in the nuclear reaction 238
92
U →
214
82
Pb is [4]

47. Among the following, the number of aromatic compound(s) is [4]

Chemistry (MATCH)
48. Match List I with List II: [3]
List I List II
Test Functional group/Class of Compound
(A) Molisch’s Test (I) Peptide
(B) Biuret Test (II) Carbohydrate
(C) CarbylamineTest (III) Primary amine
(D) Schiff's Test (IV) Aldehyde

a) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) b) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

c) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) d) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

49. LIST-I contains metal species and LIST-II contains their properties. [3]
LIST - I LIST - II
(I) [Cr(CN) 6
4
] − (P) t2g orbitals contain 4 electrons

(II) [RuCl (Q) μ (spin- only) = 4.9 BM

2
6
] −

(III) [Cr(H (R) low spin complex ion

2+
2
O) ]
6

(IV) [Fe(H (S) metal ion in 4+ oxidation state

2+
2
O) ]
6

(T) d4 species
[Given: Atomic number of Cr = 24,Ru = 44, Fe = 26]
 a) I → R, S; II → P, T; III → P, Q; IV → b) I → R, T; II → P, S; III → Q, T; IV →
Q, T P, Q

c) I → P, R; II → R, S; III → R, T; IV → d) I → Q, T; II → S, T; III → P, T; IV →
P, T Q, R

50. The standard reduction potential data at 25oC is given below: [3]

Eo(Fe3+, Fe2+) = + 0.77 V; Eo(Fe2+, Fe) = - 0.44 V; Eo(Cu2+, Cu) = + 0.34 V; Eo(Cu+, Cu)
= + 0.52 V
Eo[O2(g) + 4H+ + 4e- → 2H2O] = +1.23 V; Eo[O2(g) + 2H2O + 4e- → 4OH-] = + 0.40 V
Eo(Cr3+, Cr) = -0.74 V; Eo(Cr2+, Cr) = -0.91 V
Match Eo of the redox pair in List I with the values given in List II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II

(P) Eo(Fe3+, Fe) (1) - 0.18 V

(Q) Eo(4H2O ⇌ 4H+ + 4OH-) (2) -0.8 V

(R) Eo(Cu2+ + Cu → 2Cu+) (3) -0.04 V

(S) Eo(Cr3+, Cr2+) (4) -0.83 V

a) (P) - (3), (Q) - (4), (R) - (1), (S) - (2) b) (P) - (2), (Q) - (3), (R) - (4), (S) - (1)

c) (P) - (1), (Q) - (2), (R) - (3), (S) - (4) d) (P) - (4), (Q) - (1), (R) - (2), (S) - (3)

51. Match the reactions (in the given stoichiometry of the reactants) in List-I with one of their [3]
products given in List-II and choose the correct option.
List- I List- II
(P) P2O3 + 3H2O → (1) P(O)(OCH3)Cl2

(Q) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → (2) H3PO3

(R) PCl5 + CH3COOH → (3) PH3

(S) H3PO2 + 2H2O + 4AgNO3 → (4) POCl3

(5) H3PO4

a) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 5 b) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 5

c) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 2 d) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3
 JEE Advanced 2024
Sample Paper - 5
Solution
Mathematics (MRQ)
1. (a) y = 0
(c) y = 4(x - 1)
Explanation: If y - mx + c is tangent to y = x2 then x2 - mx - c = 0 has equal roots
⇒ m
2 + 4c = 0 ⇒ c = − m
2

y = mx − is tangent to y = x2
2
m
∴
4

∴This is also tangent to y = - (x - 2)2

⇒ mx − = -x2 + 4x - 4
2
m

x2 + (m - 4)x + (4 − = 0 has equal roots

2
m
⇒ )
4

∴ m2 - 8m + 16 = -m2 + 16 ⇒ m = 0, 4
∴ y = 0 or y = 4x - 4 are the tangents.

2. (b) continuous everywhere

(c) not differentiable at x = 0
(d) not differentiable at infinite number of points.
Explanation: Graph of f(x) = 1 + | sin x | is as follows :

From graph it is clear that function is continuous everywhere but not differentiable at integral
multiples of π because at these points curve has sharp turnings.
π/4

3. (b) ∫ f (x)dx = 0
0

π/4

(c) ∫ xf (x)dx =
12
1

Explanation: f(x) = 7 tan 8

x + 7 tan
6
x − 3 tan
4
x − 3 tan
2
x

4 4 2
= (7 tan x − 3) (tan x + tan x)

6 2 2
= (7 tan x − 3 tan x) sec x

=1-1=0
π/4 π/4
7 3
∫ f (x)dx = [tan x − tan x]
0 0

π/4 π/4
7 3
∴ ∫ xf (x)dx = [x (tan x − tan x)]
0 0

π/4
7 3
−∫ (tan x − tan x) dx
0

π/4
3 2 2
= ∫ tan x (1 − tan x) sec xdx
0

π/4
4 6
tan x tan x 1
= [ − ] =
4 6 12
0

Mathematics (MCQ)
4. (a) 15

is the coefficient of xm in the expansion of (1 + x)10 (x +

m
10 20
Explanation: ∑( )( )
i=0 i m − i

1)20,
is the coefficient of xm in the expansion of (1 + x)30
m
10 20
⇒ ∑( )( )
i=0 i m − i

m
10 20 30
i.e. ∑( )( ) =
30
Cm = ( ) ...(i)
i=0 i m − i m

n
r = , if n ∈ even
n n
and we know that, ( is maximum, when (
2
) ) = {
n±1
r r max r = , if n ∈ odd
2

30
Hence, ( ) is maximum when m = 15
m

5.
(b) |c| > |b|√2
–

Explanation: Given f(x) = x2 + 2bx + 2c2 and g(x) = -x2 - 2cx + b2

Then, f(x) is minimum and g(x) is maximum at (x = −b

4a
and f (x) =
−D

4a
), respectively.
2 2
−(4b −8c )
2 2
∴ min f (x) = = (2c − b )
4

2 2
−(4c +4b )
2 2
∴ max g(x) = = (b + c )
4(−1)

and min f(x) > max g(x)

⇒ 2c
2 - b2 > b2 + c2

⇒ c2 > 2b2
–
⇒ |c| > √2 |b|

6.
(c) √3 x + y = 0
–

Explanation:
tan θ = √3 = 60o ⇒ ∠P QR = 120o
–
⇒ θ

∴ Slope of bisector of ∠P QR = tan 120o

Hence, equation of bisector is √3 x + y = 0
–

7. (a) √−x − 1, x ≥ 0
−

Explanation: It is only to find the inverse.

Let y = f (x) = (x + 1)2, for x ≥ - 1
±√y = x + 1 , x ≥ -1
⇒ √y = x + 1 ⇒ y ≥ 0 ,x + 1 ≥ 0
⇒ x = √y - 1

⇒ f-1(y) = √y - 1
−1 −
−
⇒ f (x) = √x − 1 ⇒ x ≥ 0
 Mathematics (NUM)
8. 3748
Explanation:
The given sequences upto 2018 terms are 1, 6, 11, 16, ..., 10086 and 9, 16, 23, ..., 14128
The common terms are 16, 15, 86, ... upto n terms, where Tn ≤ 10086
⇒ 16 + (n - 1) 35 ≤ 10086
⇒ 35n - 19 ≤ 10086

⇒ n ≤ = 288.7 10105

35

∴ n = 288
∴ n(X ∪ Y) = n(X) + n(Y) - n(X ∩ Y)

= 2018 + 2018 - 288 = 3748

9. 2.0
Explanation:
x2 + y2 - 4x - 2y + 5 - α = 0
C1(2, 1) & r1 = √−
−
α

2x - y + 1 = 0
Image of (2, 1) in given line will be
x−2 y−1 −2(4−1+1)
= =
2 −1 5

x−2 y−1 −8
⇒ = =
2 −1 5

x=2− 16 −6 8 13
⇒ = ,y = 1 + =
5 5 5 5

So, x2 + y2 - 2fx - 2gy + 36

5
= 0, C2(f, g) &
−−−−−−−−−−
r2 = √f 2
+ g
2
−
36

5
[radius of both circle will be same]
36 169 36 6 13
α = + − [∵ f = − , g = ]
25 25 5 5 5

=1⇒r=1
36+169−180
= ⇒ α
25

∴ α +r+2
10. 2.0
Explanation:
Given that
c = √23 ; a = 3; b = 4
−−

We have cot A =
2 2 2
cos A b +c −a
=
sin A 2bc sin A
2 2 2
b +c −a 1
= {△ = bc sin A}
2.2△ 2

Cot A =
2 2 2
b +c −a
∴
4△

Similarly, cot B = & cot C =

2 2 2 2 2 2
a +c −b a +b −c

4△ 4△
 Now
2 2 2 2 2 2
cot A+cot C b +c −a +a +b −c
=
cot B 2 2 2
a +c −b

=2
2
2b 2(16)
32
= 2
= =
2 2 9+23−16 16
a +c −b

11. 4
Explanation:
⃗ ⃗
a⃗ ⋅ b = b ⋅ c ⃗ = c ⃗ ⋅ a⃗ = cos π

3
=
1

Given pa⃗ + qb + rc ⃗ = a⃗ × b + b ⃗ × c ⃗
⃗ ⃗

Taking its dot product with a,⃗ b,⃗ c ,⃗ we get

⃗
2 ⃗
[ a⃗ b c ⃗ ] = p|a|
⃗ + q(b ⋅ a)
⃗ + r ∣ c ⃗ − a)
⃗

= p + q + r ...(1) 1

2
1

Given that p + q + r = 0 ...(2) 1

2
1

and p + q + r = [ab⃗ c⃗ ]⃗ ...(3)

1

2
1

From (1) and (3),p = r Using (2) q = - p

=4
2 2 2 2 2 2
p +2q +r p +2p +p
∴ 2
= 2
q p

12. 57.0
Explanation:
x 21 j
f1 (x) = ∫ ∏ (t − j) dt
0 j=1

21 j 2 3 21
′
f (x) = ∏ i=1 (x − j) = (x − 1)(x − 2) (x − 3) … (x − 21)
1

Checking the sign scheme of f'1 (x) at x = 1, 2, 3,... 21

We get
f1(x) has local minima at x = 1, 5, 9, 13, 17, 21 and local maxima ​at 3, 7, 11, 15, 19.
⇒ m1 = 6, n = 5
So, 2m1 + 3n1 + m1n1
= 2 × 6 + 3 × 5 + 6 ×5
= 57
13. 4
Explanation:
In ΔABC, by sine rule, a 2√ 2 4
= ∘ =
sin A sin 30 sin C

⇒ C = 45o, C' = 135o

When, C' = 135° ⇒ A = 180°- (135° + 30°) = 15o

Area of ΔABC =
1

2
AB × AC sin A

1 – ∘
= × 4 × 2√2 sin(105 )
2

– √3+1
= 4√2 ×
2√ 2

sq. units
–
= 2(√3 + 1)

Area of ΔABC ′
=
1

2
AB × AC sin A

1 – ∘
= × 4 × 2√2 sin(15 )
2

sq. units
–
= 2(√3 − 1)
 Difference of areas of triangle
= |2(√3 + 1) − 2(√3 − 1)| = 4 sq. units
– –

Mathematics (MATCH)
14. (a) (P) - (1), (Q) - (2), (R) - (3), (S) - (4)
Explanation: (P) → (1) : z_k = cos + i sin , k = 1 to 9 2kπ

10
2kπ

10

2kπ
i
∴ zk = e 10

Now z
2kπ
1 −i ¯
¯¯¯¯
k
zj = 1 ⇒ zj = = e 10 = zk
zk

We know if zk is 10th root of unity so will be z̄ . k

∴ For every zk, there exist zi = z̄ k

Such that z ⋅ z = z ⋅ z̄ = 1
k j k k

Hence the statement is true.

(Q) → (2) z1= zk ⇒ z = for z zk

z1 1
≠ 0

∴ We can always find a solution of z1.z = zk

Hence the statement is false.
(R) → (3): We know z10 -1 = (z - 1)(z - z1)...(z - z9)
(z - z1) (z - z2)...(z - z9) =
10
z −1
⇒
z−1

= 1 + z + z2 + ...z9
For z = 1, we get (1 - z1) (1 - z2)...(1 - z9) = 10
=1
|1−z1 ||1−z2 |….|1−z9 |
∴
10

(S) → (4): 1, Z1, Z2, ..., Z9 are 10th roots of unity.

∴ Z -1=0
10

From equation 1 + Z1 + Z2 +...+ Z9 = 0,

Re(1) + Re(Z1) + Re(Z2) +...+ Re(Z9) = 0
⇒ Re(Z1) + Re(Z2) + ... Re(Z9) = -1
9 9

⇒ ∑ cos
2kπ

10
= −1 ⇒ 1 − ∑ cos
2kπ

10
=2
K =1 K =1

Hence ((P) - (1), (Q) - (2), (R) - (3), (S) - (4)) is the correct option.
15.
(c) (I) → (Q); (II) → (T); (III) → (S); (IV) → (P)
Explanation: Let F(2cosϕ , 2sinϕ ) and E(2cosϕ , √3 sin ϕ )
–

α≡ cosϕ
Tangent at E(2cosϕ , √3 sinϕ ) to ellipse
2
– x
2
y
+ = 1
4 3

i.e. x cos ϕ

2
+
y sin ϕ

√3
= 1 intersect x-axis at G(2secϕ , 0)
Area of triangle FGH = HG × FT 1

2
 = (2 secϕ - 2cosϕ ) 2sinϕ ; △ = 2sin2ϕ ⋅ tan ϕ
1

△ = (1 -cos2ϕ ) ⋅ tanϕ
I. If ϕ = π

4
, △ = 1 → (Q)

II. If ϕ = π √3 – 3√ 3
, △ = 2⋅ ( ) ⋅ √3 = → (T )
3 2 2

III. If ϕ =
2
π 1 1 1
,△ = 2 ⋅ ( ) ⋅ = → (S )
6 2 √3 2√ 3

IV. If ϕ = π √3 – (2−√3)
, △ = (1 − )⋅(2 − √3 ) = → (P )
12 2 2

16. (a) (I) → (Q); (II) → (S); (III) → (S); (IV) → (R)
Explanation: We have system of linear equations
x + y + z = 1 ...(i)
10x + 100y + 1000z = 0
x + 10y + 100z = 0 ...(ii)
qrx + pry + pqz = 0 ...(iii)
= 0 (∵ p, q, r ≠ 0)
x y z
⇒ + +
p q r

Let p = a+9d
1
,q= 1

a+99d
,r= a+999d
1

Now, equation (iii) is

(a + 9d)x + (a + 99d)y + (a + 999d)z = 0
∣ 1 1 1 ∣

=∣ =0
∣ ∣
Δ 1 10 100
∣
∣ a + 9d a + 99d a + 999d ∣

∣1 1 1 ∣

= ∣0 = 900(d - a)
∣ ∣
Δx 10 100
∣
∣0 a + 99d a + 999d ∣

∣ 1 1 1 ∣

=∣ = 990(a - d)
∣ ∣
Δy 1 0 100
∣
∣ a + 9d 0 a + 999d ∣

∣ 1 1 1∣

=∣ = 90(d - a)
∣ ∣
Δz 1 10 0
∣
∣ a + 9d a + 99d 0∣

Let option I: If = 10 ⇒ a = d
q

Δ =Δ =Δ =Δ =0 x y z

Since eq. (i) and eq. (ii) represents non-parallel planes and eq. (ii) and eq. (iii) represents same
plane
⇒ Infinitely many solutions

So, option I → P, Q, R, T
Option II: ≠ 100 ⇒ a ≠ d
p

Δ = 0, Δ , Δ , Δ ≠ 0 x y z

No solution
So, option II → S
Option III: ≠ 10 ⇒ a ≠ d
p

No solution
So, option III → S
Option IV: If = 10 ⇒ a = d
p

q
 Infinitely many solution
Hence, IV → P, Q , R , T
17.
(d) (P) → (3), (Q) → (2), (R) → (4), (S) → (1)
Explanation: Let any point on L1 is (2λ + 1, -λ, λ - 3) and that on L2 is (μ + 4, μ - 3, 2μ - 3)
For point of intersection of L1 and L2
2λ + 1 = μ + 4, -λ = μ - 3, λ - 3 = 2μ - 3
⇒ λ = 2, μ = 1

∴ Intersection point of L1 and L

2 is (5, -2, -1)
Equation of plane passing through, (5, -2, -1) and perpendicular to P1 & P2 is given by
∣x − 5 y + 2 z + 1∣
∣ ∣
7 1 2 = 0
∣ ∣
∣ 3 5 −6 ∣

⇒ x - 3y - 2z = 13
∴ a = 1, b = -3, c = -2, d = 13

or (P) → (3), (Q) → (2), (R) → (4), (S) → (1)

Physics (MRQ)
18. (b) The radical acceleration of the rod’s center of mass will be
3g

4
−
−−
(c) The angular speed of the rod will be √
3g

2L

(d) The normal reaction force from the floor on the rod
Mg

16

Explanation: The rod is released from rest so that it falls by rotating about its contact point
with the floor without slipping.

Gain in kinetic energy = loss in potential energy

1

2
I ω = mg
2
( 1 - cos 60o) l

2
−−
−
= mg =√
2
ml 2 l 3 g
∴ ω ⇒ ω
3 2 2l

Now, τ = Iα
∴ mg × sin 60o = ml2α ⇒ α =
l

2
1

3
3√ 3 g

4 l

Further at = =
l 3√3g
α
2 8

Also ar = ω2 = =
l 3 g l 3 g
×
2 2l 2 4

For vertical motion of centre of mass

mg - N = m(arcos 60o + at cos 30o)
mg - N = m[
3g 1 3√3g √3
∴ × + × ]
4 2 8 2

M=
Mg
∴
16

19. (b) f =
3
10 H z

2π

(c) λ = 2π × 10 −2
m
 Explanation: For a transverse sinusoidal wave travelling on a string, the maximum velocity
vmax = aω.
Given maximum velocity = v

10
=
10

10
= 1 m/s

−3
∴ aω = 1 ⇒ 10 × 2πv = 1 [∵ ω = 2πv]
3
1 10
⇒ v = = Hz
−3
2π×10 2π

And, λ = v

v
=
10
3
= 2π × 10
−2
m
10 /2π

20. (a) H+ will be deflected most

(c) He+ and O2+ will be deflected equally
Explanation: When the charged particles enter a magnetic field then a force acts on the
particle which will act as a centripetal force.
qvB = r= or, r =
2
mv mv √2mk
⇒
r qB qB

r∝ [Kinetic energy, 'k' and 'B' are same]

√m
∴
q

√1 √4 √16
rH + ∝ ; rH e+ ∝ ; r ++ ∝
O
1 1 2

⇒ rH+ ∝ 1; rHe+ ∝ 2; rO++ ∝ 2

Hence He+ and O++ will be deflected equally.
H+ will be deflected the most since its radius is smallest.
Physics (MCQ)
21.
(d) [ML2 T-3 A-2]
Explanation: According to ohm’s law,
v = RA or R = V

2 −2

Dimensions of V =
[ML T ]
W
=
q [AT]

= [ML2T-3A-2]
2 −2

R=
[ML T /AT]
∴
[A]

22.
(d) 4

Explanation: Time taken by a body to fall a height h to reach the ground is,
−−
2h
t = √
g

−
−− −−
tA √2h A /g hA 16 4
∴ = = √ = √ =
tB hB 25 5
√2h B /g

23.
(b) moon will leave its orbit and escape into space
Explanation: New orbital velocity = vo + v
41.4

100
o

= 1.414vo = = ve
–
√2 v0

i.e., the moon will leave its orbit and escape into space.
24.
(d) 2.9 × 10-9 s
Explanation:
As the field is upward,
 so, the negatively charged electron experiences a downward force of magnitude eE, where E
is the magnitude of the electric field. The acceleration of the electron is,
ae = eE

me

where me is the mass of the electron.

Starting from rest, the time taken by the electron to fall through a distance h is given by:
−− −−−−
te = √ 2h 2hm e
= √
ae eE

−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
=√
−2 −31
2 × 1.5 × 10 × 9.1 ×10
−19 4
1.6 × 10 × 2 × 10

= 2.9 × 10-9 s
Physics (NUM)
25. 30.0
Explanation:
How I1 is image formed by lens and I2 is image formed by mirror.

f = 10 cm
1 1 1
− =
v u f

15
−
u
1
= 1

10

⇒
u
1
= 1

10
−
15
1
⇒ u = 30 cm
26. 2
Explanation:
From (i) Stefan-Boltzmann law, P = σAT4 and (ii) Wein's displacement law = λ m
× T = constant
4

=
4
PA AA T AA λ
A B
= 4
× 4
PB AB T AB λ
B A

1
1 1

=[ =[ =[
2
λA AA PB 4 R PB 4
400×400 4
A
∴ × ] × ] ]
λB PA 2 PA 4
AB RB 10

=2
λA
∴
λB

27. 3
Explanation:
Here, F⃗ = −Kr.⃗ So force passes through origin.
τ
origin= 0 ⇒ angular momentum about origin will be conserved
∣ ^ ^ ^ ∣
i j k ∣ ^ ^ ^ ∣
i j k
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣
–
So, ∣
1
√2 0 ∣ = ∣ x
√2
y 0.5 ∣
∣ ∣ ∣ 2
∣
– –
∣ vx vy
2
∣ −√2 √2 ∣ π
∣
π

^ 1 – – – ^
⇒ k[ × √2 − (−√2 ) × √2 ] = k (xv y − yv x )
√2

⇒ xvy - yvx = 3
28. 10.0
Explanation:
Isothermal process for air, temperature is constant.
∴ From P V
1 1 = P2V2
 105 × (3.3) = P2(3) ⇒ P2 = 1.1 × 105
Δ P = P2 - P1 = 1.1 × 105 - 105 = 0.1 ×105
or, ΔP = 10 ×103 Pascal = Y × 103 Pascal
∴ Y = 10

29. 27.0
Explanation:
We have,
1

λ
=R H (
1
2
−
1
2
)
n n
1 2

So, λ1
1
= RH ( 1
2
−
1
2
) = RH ( 8

9
) ⇒ λ1 = 9

8R H
1 3

λ2
=R H (
1
2
−
1
2
) = RH( 3

4
) ⇒ λ2 = 4

3R H
1 2

= =
λ1 8R
H 27
∴ 4
λ2 32
3R
H

30. 8.0
Explanation:
The circuit can be redrawn as

So, charge stored in C3 in given as

Q3 = C3 × 2V = 4μ F × 2V = 8μ C
Physics (MATCH)
31. (a) (I) → (P); (II) → (R); (III) → (T); (IV) → (Q)
Explanation:
I. By first law of thermodynamics.
ΔU = ΔQ − ΔW

= ML V − PΔV
−3 3 5 −3 −6
= 10 × 2250 × 10 − 10 × (10 − 10 )

= 2250 - 100 = 2150 J

= 2.15 kJ. So, (I) → (P)
II. P = nRT

V
=
0.2×8×500

V
=
800

V
Pa

ΔU =
f

2
PΔV =
5

2
×
800

V
× 2 V = 4000 J = 4 kJ
So (II) → (R)
III. PV = constγ
⇒ P1 V
γ

1
= P2 V
γ

= 64 kPa
γ
γ V γ 5/3
⇒ 2 V = P2 ( ) ⇒ P2 = 2 × 8 = 2 × 8
8

So, ΔU
f
= (P 2 V 2 − P 1 V 1 )
2

=
3

2
(64 ×
24
1
− 2 ×
1

3
) × 10
3
= 3 kJ
So, (III) → (T)
IV. Here f = 7
So, ΔU = nC V
ΔT =
t

2
nRΔT =
7

2
nRΔT

and, ΔQ = nC V ΔT = (
f

2
+ 1) nRΔT =
9

2
nRΔT =
9

2
×
2

7
ΔU =
9

7
ΔU

So, ΔU = 7

9
ΔQ =
7

9
× 9 = 7 kJ. So (IV) → (Q)
32.
(b) P - 2, Q - 4, R - 3, S - 1
Explanation: For double convex lens, (P) 1

f
= (μ − 1)[
1

R1
−
1

R2
]

⇒ (1.5 - 1)( 1

r
−
1

r
) = (1.5 - 1)[ 2

r
] = 1

r
⇒ f=r
1

Feq. .
= f
1
+
f
1
= 1

r
+
1

r
= 2

r
1 2

∴ Feq = r

For (Q) plano-convex lens 1

f
= (μ − 1) [ R1
1
−
1

R2
]

= (1.5 - 1)[ ∞
1
−
1

−r
] = 0.5

r
= 1

2r
∴ f = 2r

Feq.
1
= 1

f1
+
1

f2
= 2r
1
+
2r
1
= 2r
2
= 1

r
∴ Feq. = r
For (R) plano-concave lens
1

f
= (1.5 - 1)( − ) ⇒ f = -2r 1

−r ∞
1

Feq.
1
= 1

f
+
1

f
= 1

−2r
+
−2r
1
⇒ Feq. = -r
For (S) combination of one double convex and one planoconcave lens
Feq.
1
= + =
1

r
⇒ F
eq. = 2r
−2r
1 1

2r

33.
(c) P → 4, Q → 3, R → 2, S → 1
Explanation: In α-decay mass number (A) decreases by 4 units and atomic number (Z)
decreases by 2 units. In β decay A does not change but Z increases by 1 unit.
−

In β decay A does not change but Z decreases by 1 unit.

+

(P) U → Pa
92
238
91
234

238−234
N1 = = 1 → 1α
4

4 −
N2 − N3 = (92 − 91) − ( ) = −1 → 1β
2

∴ 1α and 1β emission. −

(Q) 82 Pb
214
→ 82 Pb
210

214−210
N1 = = 1 → 1α
4

4 −
N2 − N3 = (82 − 82) − ( ) = −2 → 2β
2

∴ 1α and 2β emission. −

(R) 81
Tℓ
210
→ 82 Pb
206

210−206
N1 = = 1 → 1α
4

4 −
N2 − N3 = (81 − 83) − = −3 → 3β
2

∴ 1α and 3β emission. −

228 224
(S) 91
Pa → 88 Ra

228−224
N1 = = 1α
4

4 +
N2 − N3 = (91 − 88) − = 1β
2

∴ 1α and 1β emission. +

34.
(d) (I) → (P), (II)→ (R), (III)→ (S), (IV)→ (Q)
−−
Explanation: Frequency, v = 1

2ℓ
√
T

m
for first mode of vibration
For 'v’ to be maximum, 'l' should be minimum.
−
−−
String - 1 f 0
=
1

2 L0
√
T0

−
−−
String - 2 f 1 T0 f0
2
= √ =
2 L0 2μ √2
 −−
String - 3 f
T0 f
1 0

3
= √ =
2L 0 4μ √3

−
−−
String - 4 f 4
=
1

2 L0
√
T0

4μ
=
f0

Chemistry (MRQ)

35. (a)

(d)

Explanation:

36. (a) Experimentally determined value of frequency factor is higher than that predicted by
Arrhenius equation
(c) The activation energy of the reaction is unaffected by the value of the steric factor
Explanation: According to Arrhenius equations
k = Ae-Ea/RT
where, A = Frequency factor
Taking into account orientation factor,
P = or A = PZ
A

k = PZe-Ea/RT
where, P = steric factor, Z = collision frequency
The value of steric factor lies between 0 and 1 predicted by Arrhenius equation. Thus, the
experimentally determined value of frequency factor is higher than that predicted by
Arrhenius equation.
37. (a) Process that is reversible and isothermal.
(b) Process that is reversible and adiabatic.
(d) System that satisfies the van der Waals equation of state.
Explanation: P-V work done is applicable for reversible isobaric as well as isothermal and
adiabatic process.
w = − ∫ Pext ⋅ dV

For van der Waals equation,

RT a
Pext = P = ( − 2
)
v−b v

w = − ∫ dv (
RT

v−b
−
a
2
v
) ...(i)
Equation (i) is not applicable to irreversible process. Therefore work done is calculated
assuming pressure is constant throughout the process.
Chemistry (MCQ)
38.
(c) CO
Explanation: ∵ after forming the bonds, C has only 6e- in its valence shell.
39.
(d) increases with time
Explanation: A + B ⇌ C + D, Q =
[C ][D]
]
[A][B]

As time passes, amount of products ‘C’ and 'D’ increases, hence Q increases.
40.
(c) X > Z > Y
Explanation: Carboxylic acid is stronger acid than ammonium ion, hence -COOH(X) is most
acidic. Z (NH3)is more acidic than Y (NH3) due to - I effect of -COOH on Z. Hence, overall acid
strength order is
X>Z>Y
41. (a) 2-methyl propan-2-ol
Explanation:
2-methyl propan-2-ol is a tertiary alcohol, will react fastest with Lucas reagent:

Chemistry (NUM)
42. 56.0
Explanation:
The formula used in Kjeldahl’s method
% of 'N' =
1.4(N1 V1 )

N1 = Normality of acid = 2 × 2 (N)

V1 = Volume of acid used = 2.5 mL
W = Mass of organic compound = 0.25 g
% of 'N' = = 56
1.4×2.5×2×2

0.25

43. 3.84
Explanation:
 N1 = 1, V1 = ?, N2 = 26.7, V2 = 0.4
N1V1 = N2V2; 1 × V1 = 26.7 × 0.4
V1 = = 10.68
26.7×0.4

49g (∵ eq wt of H2SO4 = 49) of H2SO4 will be neutralised by= 1N 1000 mL NaOH

∴ 0.5g of H2SO4 will be neutralised by
= 1000

49
× 0.5 = 10.20 mL 1N NaOH
Volume of 1 N NaOH used by dissolved
SO3 = 10.68 - 10.20 = 0.48 mL
SO3 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + H2O
∴ Eq wt of SO3 = = 40 Mol wt 80
=
2 2

Wt of SO3 in 0.48 mL of 1 M solution

= 40

1000
× 0.48 = 0.0192 g
% of SO3 = 0.0192

0.5
× 100 = 3.84%
44. 319.1
Explanation:
100 g of glucose = 1560 kJ
Energy utilised in body = 50

100
× 1560 = 780 kJ
Energy left unutilised in body = 1560 - 780 = 780kJ
Energy to be given out = 1560 - 780 = 780 kJ
Enthalpy of evaporation of water = 44 kJ/mole = 44 kJ/18 g of water [1 mole H2O = 18g
water]
Hence amount water to be perspired to avoid storage of energy = 18

44
× 780 = 319.1 g
45. 27419
Explanation:
The shortest wavelength transition in the Balmer series corresponds to the transition
n = 2 → n = ∞. Hence, n1 = 2, n2 = ∞
v̄ = RH (
1

n
2
−
1

n
2
) = (109677 cm-1) ( 1
2
−
1

∞
2
)
2
1 2

= 27419.25 cm-1
46. 8.0
Explanation:
−6α −2β
238 214 214
92 U ⟶ 80 X ⟶ 82 Pb

Hence, total number of particles emitted are 2 + 6 = 8.

47. 5
Explanation:
The aromatic systems are

Chemistry (MATCH)
48.
(d) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
Explanation: (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
49.
(b) I → R, T; II → P, S; III → Q, T; IV → P, Q
 Explanation:
I. [Cr(CN) ] ⇒ Cr (d ) ⇒ low spin Oh complex as CN- is strong field ligand.
4 2+ 4
6

Electronic configuration = t e ; Δ > P ; 4

2g
0
g 0

= = 2.82BM
− −−−−−−
μS.o. √ 2(2 + 2)

(P), (R), (T)

II. [RuCl 6
]
2−
⇒ Ru
4+
(d
4
) ⇒ Low spin Oh complex as Ru is of large size.
Electronic configuration = t 4
2g
0
e g ; Δ0 > P ;
= 2.82 BM
− −−−−−−
μS.o. = √ 2(2 + 2)

(P), (R), (S), (T)

III. [Cr(H 2
O) ]
6
2+
⇒ Cr
2+
(d
4
) ⇒ high spin Oh complex as H2O is weak field ligand.
Electronic configuration = t 3
2g
1
e g ; Δ0 < P ;
= 4.89 Bm
− −−−−−−
μS.O. = √ 4(4 + 2)

(Q), (T)
IV. [Fe(H 2
O) ]
6
2+
⇒ Fe
2+
(d
6
) ⇒ high spin Oh complex
Electronic configuration = t 4
2g
2
e g ; Δ0 < P ;
= 4.89 Bm
− −−−−−−
μS.o. = √ 4(4 + 2)

(P), (Q)
50. (a) (P) - (3), (Q) - (4), (R) - (1), (S) - (2)
Explanation:

p.

o o 0
ΔG 3+
= ΔG 3+ 2+
+ ΔG 2+
Fe /Fe Fe /Fe Fe /Fe

⇒ −3 × F E
o

(Fe
+3
/Fe)
= −1 × F E
o

(Fe
+3 +2
/Fe )
+ (−2 × F E o

Fe
+2
/Fe
)

⇒ 3 × x = 1 × 0.77 + 2 × (-0.44)
⇒ x = − V ≃ - 0.04 V.
0.11

q.

r.

s.

x × 1 + 2 × (-0.91) = 3 × (-0.74)
x - 1.82 = -2.22 ⇒ x = -0.4 V
51.
(b) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 5
Explanation: (P) P2O3 + 3H2O → 2H3PO3
(Q) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2PO2 + PH3
(R) PCl5 + CH3COOH → CH3COCl + POCl3 + HCl
(S) H3PO2 + 2H2O + 4AgNO3 → 4Ag + 4HNO3 + H3PO4