Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I

Exam Date 10/09/2024

Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Six letters S, T, M, P, R and C are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figures
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to M.

Ans 1. R

2. P

3. C

4. S
Q.2 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 ‘Blossom’ is related to ‘Wither’ in the same way as ‘Stagnate’ is related to ‘________’.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ans 1. Stand

2. Rest

3. Languish

4. Flow

Q.4 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
18 − 23 × 455 ÷ 7 + 28 = 377
Ans 1. + and ×

2. − and ×

3. − and +

4. ÷ and −
Q.5 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘–’ are
interchanged?

4 − 12 + 3 ÷ 12 × 6 = ?
Ans 1. 13

2. 46

3. 11

4. 22

Q.6 The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ‘PRANKED’ is arranged in the
English alphabetical order?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. None

4. Two

Q.7 10 is related to 15 following certain logic. Following the same logic, 42 is related to 63. To which of the following numbers is
22 related, following the same logic? (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can
be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 28

2. 30

3. 33

4. 31

Q.8 How many squares are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 14

2. 12

3. 15

4. 13

Q.9 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Temerity : Shyness :: Pique : ?
Ans 1. Resentment

2. Anger

3. Delight

4. Offence

Q.10 Select the option that represents the letters that when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the given
letter series.
LMBA_HOLMBAC_OLM_ACHOL_BACHOL_
Ans 1. CHMBM

2. CMHBM

3. CHBMM

4. CHMMB
Q.11 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(7, 9, 48)
(6, 8, 42)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (8, 10, 47)

2. (9, 11, 56)

3. (11, 13, 72)

4. (10, 12, 54)

Q.12 Three of the following four options are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the option that does NOT
belong to that group?
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed).
Ans 1. 2 – 4 – 8

2. 2 – 2 – 4

3. 3 – 2 – 5

4. 1 – 3 – 3

Q.13 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements: Some boxes are cartons. All cartons are papers. Some cartons are utensils.
Conclusion (I): No box is a utensil.
Conclusion (II): Some papers are utensils.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.14 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(79, 58, 62)
(54, 33, 37)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (59, 33, 43)

2. (47, 36, 41)

3. (66, 45, 49)

4. (43, 25, 30)

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘sit on chair’ is coded as 'sk mi cn' and ‘the chair broke’ is coded as ‘gm fr mi’. How is ‘chair’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. sk

2. cn

3. mi

4. gm
Q.16 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.18 In a certain code language, 'BELL' is written as 'MKFA' and 'BOND' is written as 'EMPA'. How will 'BLEW’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. XMDA

2. XMAD

3. XDAM

4. XDMA
Q.19 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is
different. The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster
Ans 1. LQV

2. DIN

3. PTX

4. AFK

Q.21 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) to complete the given series?
ZVRN, VSPM, RPNL, ?, JJJJ
Ans 1. RMLN

2. RNLL

3. RNLK

4. NMLK

Q.22 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
23, 27, 43, 79, 143, ?
Ans 1. 240

2. 243

3. 250

4. 200
 Q.23 In a certain code language,
A # B means A is the sister of B.
A @ B means A is the son of B.
A & B means A is the wife of B.
A % B means A is the father of B.
How is Q related to R if P & Q % L # R & K?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Wife

3. Father

4. Mother

Q.24 Select the option that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
FM61, EK58, DI55, CG52, ?
Ans 1. BE49

2. CE46

3. CD44

4. BF48

Q.25 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 In which of the following cities of Manipur is the Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy located?
Ans 1. Imphal

2. Ukhrul

3. Chandel

4. Thoubal

Q.2 By which of the following state governments is the Tansen Music Festival organised?
Ans 1. Maharashtra Government

2. Madhya Pradesh Government

3. Rajasthan Government

4. Uttar Pradesh Government

Q.3 Which of the following places is related to Gandhi’s Satyagraha of the year 1917?
Ans 1. Kheda

2. Ahmedabad

3. Champaran

4. Bardoli
Q.4 Hubbardia heptaneuron, which has become endangered, is a species of which of the following?
Ans 1. Grass

2. Bamboo

3. Tiger

4. Crane

Q.5 Which of the following is in geographical proximity to Sri Lanka?

Ans 1. Only Karaikal

2. Karaikal and Yanam

3. Mahe

4. Only Yanam

Q.6 Which Five-Year Plan primarily focused on the 'Garibi Hatao' initiative?
Ans 1. Sixth Five-Year Plan

2. Fourth Five-Year Plan

3. Fifth Five-Year Plan

4. Third Five-Year Plan

Q.7 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Ans 1. They promote welfare of individuals. Hence, they are personal and individualistic.

2. These have moral and political sanctions.

3. They aim at establishing social and economic democracy in the country.

4. They are positive, as they require the State to do certain things.

Q.8 After the death of Humayun, the 13 year-old Akbar was coronated in 1556 at Kalanaur in ________.
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Gujarat

3. Bengal

4. Punjab

Q.9 The climate of a place is NOT affected by which of the following?

Ans 1. Relief

2. Type of soil

3. Location

4. Distance from the sea

Q.10 In which musical note did Newland put the metals Co and Ni with halogens?
Ans 1. Fa

2. Do

3. Re

4. Mi

Q.11 Which of the following is NOT correct with regards to the history of calculating National Income (NI) in India?
Ans 1. First attempt to compute NI was made by Dadabhai Naoroji.

2. First official attempt to compute NI was made by PC Mahalanobis.

3. Dadabhai Naoroji divided the Indian economy into two parts: primary sector and secondary sector.

4. First scientific method to compute NI was used by Dr VKRV Rao.

Q.12 According to the Indian Railways (2019-2020), which state has the largest railway track in India?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Haryana

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.13 Which government honoured a distinguished percussionist named Pandit Anindo Chatterjee with the Banga Vibhushan
Award in 2022?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Tripura

3. West Bengal

4. Jharkhand

Q.14 Which of the following festivals is celebrated as the birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev?
Ans 1. Hola Mohalla

2. Baisakhi

3. Gurpurab

4. Chappar Mela

Q.15 Who was appointed as India’s 28th Controller General of Accounts (CGA) in March 2023?
Ans 1. Arun Goel

2. Praveen Sharma

3. Vikram Devdutt

4. SS Dubey

Q.16 The Parliament passed the Marine Aids to Navigation Bill, 2021 to repeal and replace which of the following Acts?
Ans 1. The Dangerous Machines (Regulation) Act, 1983

2. The Personal Injuries (Emergency Provisions) Act, 1962

3. The Lighthouse Act, 1927

4. The Dourine Act, 1910

Q.17 Which of the following is a non-perishable food?

Ans 1. Pulses

2. Meat

3. Curds

4. Milk

Q.18 How many awards were presented at the National Sports and Adventure Awards-2022 ceremony held at Rashtrapati Bhavan
on 30 November 2022?
Ans 1. 32

2. 44

3. 52

4. 28

Q.19 Which Governor-General of British India helped Raja Ram Mohan Roy legally abolish the sati practice?
Ans 1. Lord Ripon

2. Lord Curzon

3. Lord Cornwallis

4. Lord William Bentinck

 Q.20 When was the 1st Asian Kabaddi Championship held?
Ans 1. 1970

2. 1985

3. 1980

4. 1975

Q.21 The decomposition of gaseous Ammonia on a hot platinum surface is a _______________ order reaction at high pressure.
Ans 1. two

2. zero

3. three

4. one

Q.22 Which of the following was the mascot of the FIH men’s Hockey World Cup – 2023?
Ans 1. Jitu

2. Bheema

3. Olly

4. Asha

Q.23 The Indian Constitution has established _________.

Ans 1. partial Judicial system

2. dual judicial system

3. independent judicial system

4. plural judicial system

Q.24 Which organisms are classified as Aves?

Ans 1. Fishes

2. Frogs

3. Snakes

4. Birds

Q.25 Mahabalipuram emerged as an important centre of temple architecture under which of the following kingdoms of south
India?
Ans 1. Pallava

2. Chola

3. Chera

4. Chalukya

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 The ages of two friends, Ram and Ravi, differ by 7 years. Ram’s mother Mayadevi is three times as old as Ram, and Ravi is
four times as old as his brother Soham. The ages of Mayadevi and Soham differ by 65 years. Find the age of Mayadevi (in
years).
Ans 1. 69

2. 36

3. 85

4. 45
Q.2

Ans 1. 14 : 9

2. 7 : 6

3. 6 : 7

4. 9 : 14

Q.3

Ans 1. 56

2. 48

3. 45

4. 42

Q.4 By applying which of the following criteria can two triangles NOT be proved congruent?
Ans 1. angle-side-angle

2. angle-angle-angle

3. side-side-side

4. side-angle-side

Q.5 Two circles of radii 18 cm and 12 cm touch each other externally. Find the length (in cm) of their direct common tangent.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.6

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 Kiran lent ₹4,000 to two persons such that one part of it at the rate of 8% per annum and the remaining part at the rate of
10% per annum. He got an annual simple interest of ₹352. Then the sum lent at 10% is:
Ans 1. ₹1,800

2. ₹2,200

3. ₹2,400

4. ₹1,600

Q.8 X, Y, and Z are three points on a plane with XY = 11 cm, YZ = 13 cm, and XZ = 24 cm. The number of circles that travel
through points X, Y, and Z is:
Ans 1. 0

2. 2

3. 1

4. 3

Q.9
Ans 1. 8

2. 5

3.

4.

Q.10 If, on a marked price, the difference between selling prices with a discount of 65% and with two successive discounts of
30% and 40% is ₹105, then the marked price (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 1,650

2. 1,050

3. 1,500

4. 1,320

Q.11 A pole 10 m long rests slantly against a vertical wall AB making an angle 30° with the horizontal (ground). Find how far the
foot of the pole is from the wall (in metres).
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.12 The bar graph given below shows the sales of books from six schools during two consecutive years, 2013 and 2014.

What percentage of the average sales of the schools A, B, and C in 2014 is the average sales of schools A, C, and F in 2013?
Ans 1. 81.08%

2. 81%

3. 80%

4. 80.08%

Q.13 A money bag contains one rupee, 5 rupee and 10 rupee coins in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively. If the total amount in the
bag is ₹980,then find the number of coins of ₹10.
Ans 1. 69

2. 70

3. 71

4. 68

Q.14 Which of the following is the largest 5-digit number divisible by 47?
Ans 1. 99999

2. 98888

3. 99969

4. 10000

Q.15

Ans 1. 806 cm2

2. 704 cm2

3. 904 cm2

4. 608 cm2

Q.16 Let 0° < t < 90°. Then which of the followings is true?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
 Q.17 Ramesh purchased some items from a dealer on 19 November 2019. The bill generated was for ₹5,480. He had also
purchased some items on 10 November 2019 having the bill value of ₹9,800. He cleared both the bills this time and paid the
total amount in cash. If the dealer gives a scheme of 2% discount on the payments done within 10 days and 5% for the
payments made in cash at the time of purchase, then find the amount paid by Ramesh on 19 November 2019.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.1
8

An 1. 30%
s
2. 20%

3. 15%

4. 40%

Q.19

Ans 1. 144

2. 146

3. 142

4. 140

Q.20 The side of an equilateral triangle is 28 cm. Taking each vertex as the centre, a circle is described with a radius equal to half
the length of the side of the triangle. Find the area of that part of the triangle which is not included in the circles (use =

and ).

Ans 1. 30.89 cm2

2. 38.08 cm2

3. 31.08 cm2

4. 39.08 cm2

Q.21

Ans 1. 238.5

2. 271.25

3. 314.75

4. 284.55
 Q.22 In a circular race of 750 m, X and Y start from the same point and at the same time with speeds of 9 km/h and 13.5 km/h,
respectively. If they are running in the same direction then, when will they meet again for the first time on the track?
Ans 1. 750 seconds

2. 900 seconds

3. 500 seconds

4. 600 seconds

Q.23
A bus travels of the distance initially at a speed of 40 km/h, the next of the distance 50 km/h, and the final of the
distance at 60 km/h. Find the average speed of the bus for the entire journey.

(Rounded off to two decimal places)

Ans 1. 48.65 km/h

2. 51.43 km/h

3. 54.13 km/h

4. 46.85 km/h

Q.24 Three pipes P, Q and R can fill a cistern in 40 minutes, 80 minutes and 120 minutes, respectively. Initially, all the pipes are
opened. After how much time (in minutes) should the pipes Q and R be turned off so that the cistern will be completely filled
in just half an hour?
Ans 1. 14

2. 10

3. 16

4. 12

Q.25 If the sum of three numbers is 18 and the sum of their squares is 36, then find the difference between the sum of their cubes
and three times of their product.
Ans 1. 1449

2. −1944

3. −1494

4. 4149

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Identify the most appropriate antonym of the given word.

Timid
Ans 1. Meek

2. Anxious

3. Daring

4. Spooky

Q.2 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

On the ball
Ans 1. Unaware of any changes or developments and lazy to react to them

2. Aware of any changes or developments but slow to react to them

3. Aware of any changes or developments and quick to react to them

4. Aware of any changes or developments but doing nothing

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
I have been living in Hyderabad since I am born .
Ans 1. since I have born

2. since I will be born

3. since I born

4. since I was born

Q.4 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who sells and arranges cut flowers.

Ans 1. Horticulturist

2. Botanist

3. Gardener

4. Florist

Q.5 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
After the concert was over, / they go to a restaurant, / had dinner together / and talked until midnight.
Ans 1. had dinner together

2. they go to a restaurant,

3. After the concert was over,

4. and talked until midnight

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A small group of people who spend their time together and do not welcome other people into that group
Ans 1. Squad

2. Clique

3. Employees

4. Lobby

Q.7 The following sentence contains a word with a spelling error. Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling of the
identified word from the given options.

He has to be conscious of his public manners as he is a decendent of a reputed family in this region.
Ans 1. Dicsendent

2. Descendant

3. Discendent

4. Decendant

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
The Morbi bridge mishap has left Gujarat in a deplorable state.
Ans 1. Jubilation

2. Despicable

3. Complaining

4. Rejoicing

Q.9 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

He was trembling with fear.

Ans 1. Shivering

2. Weeping

3. Running

4. Intrepid
Q.10 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
A. More children go to school than at any time in the past. But more children today are out of school than any time in the
past.
B. But it is not enough to blame the high birth rate for this state of affairs.
C. Indeed, it can be reasonably argued that continued mass illiteracy is not the result but the cause of the high birth rate.
D. There are more literate people in India today than ever before. But there are also more illiterates than ever before.
Ans 1. ABCD

2. CBAD

3. DABC

4. BADC

Q.11 Select the most appropriate synonym of the bold word in the following sentence.
He tried to alleviate the sufferings of his neighbours.
Ans 1. Swell

2. Add

3. Intensify

4. Relieve

Q.12 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Renewable energy / sources like solar and wind power / will replaced traditional fossil fuels / and help reduce carbon
emissions.
Ans 1. and help reduce carbon emissions

2. Renewable energy

3. will replaced traditional fossil fuels

4. sources like solar and wind power

Q.13 Identify from the given options the word which is similar in meaning to the following word.
Equivocal
Ans 1. Clear

2. Ambiguous

3. Representative

4. Balanced

Q.14 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

She was elated about her promotion, but her colleague felt quite disheartened.
Ans 1. cheerful

2. proud

3. discouraged

4. delighted

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The contract was grabbed by the biggest telecom company in India.
Ans 1. The biggest telecom company in India grabbed the contract.

2. The biggest telecom company in India grabs the contract.

3. The biggest telecom company in India will grab the contract.

4. The biggest telecom company in India has grabbed the contract.

Q.16 Select the most appropriate idiom to fill in the blank.

I'm _______________ about whether to accept the job offer or continue freelancing. Both options have their advantages.
Ans 1. on the fence

2. cutting corners

3. left out in cold

4. up in arms
Q.17 Select the correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Conscensus

2. Entrepreneurship

3. Collaegue

4. Bizzaire

Q.18 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
By whom was grammar taught to you?
Ans 1. Did he teach you grammar?

2. Who had taught you grammar?

3. You were taught grammar by whom?

4. Who taught you grammar?

Q.19 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A place where fruit trees are grown

Ans 1. Orchard

2. Garden

3. Quay

4. Museum

Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A government by the officials
Ans 1. Autocracy

2. Bureaucracy

3. Monarchy

4. Plutocracy

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. at

2. for

3. in

4. to
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. to

2. and

3. in

4. for

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. group

2. human

3. species

4. breed

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. conflict

2. diversity

3. focus

4. rejection
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
The third National Wildlife Action Plan for 2017- 2031, underlying India’s plan for wildlife conservation, was unveiled (1)______ the
Global Wildlife Programme conference. The plan recognises (2)________ addresses concerns pertaining to climate changes and its
impact on wildlife .
The plan details the importance of ecosystems for food production, health and other aspects of (3)______ survival and sustainable
development. It also emphasises preservation of genetic (4)_______ and sustainable utilisation of species and ecosystems which has
direct bearing on our scientific advancements and support to millions of rural communities.
The plan underscores rehabilitation of threatened wildlife species (5)_______ inland aquatic, coastal and marine ecosystems while
conserving their habitats.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. including

2. gathering

3. counting

4. mixing
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 10/09/2024
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 1:30 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’.
A − B means ‘A is the father of B’.
A × B means ‘A is the mother of B’.
A ÷ B means ‘A is the wife of B’.
Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P × Q + R ÷ S − T’?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Wife

3. Mother

4. Mother’s mother

Q.2 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
543, 518, 495, 474, 455, ?
Ans 1. 444

2. 442

3. 440

4. 438

Q.3 104 is related to 13 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 136 is related to 17. To which of the following is 232
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 29

2. 31

3. 33

4. 27

Q.4 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some bags are purses.
All purses are wallets.
All wallets are sacks.
Conclusions:
(I) All purses are sacks.
(II) Some wallets are bags.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) are follow

2. Only conclusion (II) is follow

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is follow

4. Only conclusion (I) is follow

Q.5 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No bench is chair.
All sofas are benches.
All tables are sofas.

Conclusions:
I. No table is a chair.
II. Some sofas are chairs.
III. All tables are benches.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows

2. Only conclusions I and II follow

3. Only conclusion II follows

4. Only conclusions I and III follow

Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘COWS’ is coded as ‘7935’ and ‘OILY’ is coded as ‘2568’. What is the code for ‘O’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 2

4. 9

Q.7 Three of the following number-pairs are alike in some manner and hence form a group. Which number-pair does not belong
to that group?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 21 – 420

2. 22 – 462

3. 18 – 306

4. 15 – 240

Q.8 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong to that
group? The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster
Ans 1. DHK

2. EIM

3. BFJ

4. IMQ

Q.9 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
BACK : CCBI : : TEST : UGRR : : WORK : ?
Ans 1. YQQJ

2. XQSI

3. YQPI

4. XQQI

Q.10 Select the pair in which the numbers are related to each other in the same way as are the numbers in the given pairs.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
12 : 25
11 : 23
Ans 1. 15 : 29

2. 25 : 49

3. 21 : 43

4. 18 : 35
Q.11 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.13 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(25, 300, 6)
(19, 342, 9)
Ans 1. (17, 476, 7)

2. (24, 600, 5)

3. (18, 288, 8)

4. (14, 364, 7)

Q.14 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 Six letters A, T, M, P, S and R are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure below.
Find the letter on the face opposite to the one having R.

Ans 1. S

2. T

3. A

4. M

Q.16 In a certain code language, ‘TIZZ’ is written as ‘VKBB’ and ‘QOPH’ is written as ‘SQRJ’. How will ‘CKAU’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. EMCW

2. DNBV

3. ENCV

4. DMBW
Q.17 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 16

2. 17

3. 14

4. 15

Q.18 Each vowel in the word ‘SIMILAR’ is changed to the following letter in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is
changed to the preceding letter in the English alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical
order between the letter which is the second from the left end and the third from the left end in the group of letters thus
formed?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. Four

Q.19 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?
ICT, FES, CGR, ZIQ, ?
Ans 1. XLO

2. WKP

3. XKP

4. WJP
Q.20 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
DOY:PAK ::BQM:NCY :: ILU:?
Ans 1. TYG

2. UYG

3. TXG

4. UXG

Q.22 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
116 - 92 ÷ 4 + 25 × 2 - 20 = 150
Ans 1. 116 and 92

2. 25 and 20

3. 2 and 4

4. 20 and 92
 Q.23 Six letters U, V, W, X, Y and Z are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to Z.

Ans 1. W

2. Y

3. X

4. U

Q.24 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
72 – 6 + (18 ÷ 4) + 17 – (22 × 2) = 44
Ans 1. 2 and 4

2. 22 and 18

3. 6 and 22

4. 6 and 4

Q.25 Select the option that represents the letters that when placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete the given
letter series.
DF_IJOD_HIJO_FHIJODF_IJOD_
Ans 1. HFFDH

2. FHDHF

3. HFHDF

4. HFDHF

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 As of March 2023, how many High Courts are there in India?
Ans 1. 25

2. 35

3. 30

4. 20

Q.2 Harela is a festival of greenery, peace, prosperity, and environmental conservation, primarily celebrated in which of the
following states?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Haryana

3. Assam

4. Uttarakhand

Q.3 Which species is known as black lipped pearl oyster found in the Indo-Pacific, within tropical coral reefs?
Ans 1. Aplysia dactylomela

2. Dentalium neohexagonum

3. Chaetopleura apiculata

4. Pinctada margaritifera
Q.4 The CSO adopted the concept of Gross Value Added in ______.
Ans 1. January 2012

2. January 2015

3. January 2017

4. January 2013

Q.5 Which of the following social reformers of 19th century India was the author of ‘Stree Purush Tulana’?
Ans 1. Tarabai Shinde

2. Swarnakumari Devi

3. Pandita Ramabai

4. Usha Mehta

Q.6 How many medals did India win in International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) World Cup 2022, which was held in Cairo,
Egypt?
Ans 1. 9

2. 6

3. 7

4. 8

Q.7 Ustad Vilayat Ali Khan is a maestro in ________.

Ans 1. Tabla

2. Mridangam

3. Sitar

4. Flute

Q.8 Which physical feature of India prevents the cold winds from central Asia from entering the Indian subcontinents?
Ans 1. Indian plains

2. Indian desert

3. Coastal area

4. Himalayas

Q.9 Which state initiated the implementation of the Mid-day Meal scheme in elementary schools?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Karnataka

Q.10 In the 7th Century AD, a new religion called Islam was born in _________.
Ans 1. Malaysia

2. South Africa

3. Arabia

4. Indonesia

Q.11 Who among the following freedom fighters of India is the author of the book, ‘The Indian Struggle’?
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi

2. Motilal Nehru

3. Vallabhbhai Patel

4. Subhas Chandra Bose

Q.12 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions about the organisation of ‘Village Panchayats’?
Ans 1. Article 31

2. Article 38

3. Article 36

4. Article 40

Q.13 Sitar maestro, Pandit Ravi Shankar was awarded which of the following awards by the Government of India in 1999?
Ans 1. Padma Shri

2. Padma Bhushan

3. Bharat Ratna

4. Padma Vibhushan

Q.14 ‘Au’ is the symbol for which of the following elements?

Ans 1. Gold

2. Aluminium

3. Silver

4. Argon

Q.15 Which of the following options is associated with the class of cold-blooded animals?
Ans 1. Chameleon

2. Pavo

3. Macropus

4. Psittacula

Q.16 Which Article of the Constitution of India grants power to the President to appoint Judges of the Supreme Court?
Ans 1. Article 124(2)

2. Article 123(1)

3. Article 127(3)

4. Article 128(4)

Q.17 In which year was the International Olympic Committee formed?

Ans 1. 1896

2. 1892

3. 1898

4. 1894

Q.18 To which group do the alkaline earth metals such as radium, barium and strontium belong?
Ans 1. Group 5A

2. Group 2A

3. Group 1A

4. Group 3A

Q.19 In which of the following games is one player known as the Wicketkeeper?
Ans 1. Football

2. Basketball

3. Cricket

4. Hockey
 Q.20 Which of the following is the transboundary river between India and Pakistan?
Ans 1. Indus

2. Ravi

3. Beas

4. Jhelum

Q.21 According to the Agricultural and Processed food products Export Development Authority (APEDA) 2020-2021, which state
of India has the first rank in grapes production?
Ans 1. Maharashtra

2. Karnataka

3. Bihar

4. Uttar Pradesh

Q.22 Gautamiputra Satakarni titled Rajaraja and Maharaja is related to which of the following dynasties?
Ans 1. Shunga

2. Pandya

3. Satavahana

4. Shaka

Q.23 Which of the following has the highest salinity?

Ans 1. Great salt lake

2. Lake Van

3. Red sea

4. Dead sea

Q.24 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Duties?
Ans 1. 32A

2. 45A

3. 62B

4. 51A

Q.25 Mohiniyattam is associated with which of the following traditional dance styles?
Ans 1. Samapadam

2. Tribhanga

3. Chowk

4. Lasya style

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Find the values of x, y and z, so as to satisfy the equations given below:
x + y + z = 12; x + y – z = 6; x – y + z = 4
Ans 1. x = 5, y = 4, z = – 3

2. x = 5, y = – 4, z = 3

3. x = 5, y = 4, z = 3

4. x = 5, y = – 4, z = – 3
Q.2 A policeman noticed a thief at a distance of 500 metres. The policeman started running and the thief also started running at
the same time. The thief is running at a speed of 15 km/h. It took 15 minutes for the policeman to catch the thief. Find the
speed of the policeman (in km/h).
Ans 1. 11

2. 17

3. 12

4. 10

Q.3 The given table shows the number of books on different subjects.

What is the ratio of the number of books for subject B1 to the average number of books per subject?
Ans 1. 3 : 5

2. 10 : 11

3. 4 : 5

4. 2 : 5

Q.4 If A:B = 6 : 8 and B:C = 5 : 12, then A:B:C is:

Ans 1. 11:32:44

2. 10:23:14

3. 14:31:28

4. 15:20:48

Q.5

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.6

Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 1

4. 3
Q.7 ΔEFG and ΔHIJ are similar. Also, ∠ E = ∠ H and ∠ F = ∠ I. If 3EF = HI and FG = 9 cm, then IJ is equal to ____.
Ans 1. 9 cm

2. 27 cm

3. 3 cm

4. 18 cm

Q.8 Study the given bar-graph and answer the question that follows.
The bar-graph shows the sales of books (in thousands) from six branches (B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6) of a publishing
company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

The total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percentage of the total sales of branch B3 for both the years (correct
up to two decimal places)?
Ans 1. 70.69%

2. 73.17%

3. 69.25%

4. 82.26%

Q.9 Places A and B are 20 km apart on the highway. A car starts from A and another from B at the same time. If the cars travel in
the same direction at different speeds, they meet in one hour. If they travelled towards each other, they met in 12 minutes.
What are the speeds (in km/h) of two cars?
Ans 1. 60, 40

2. 52, 48

3. 51, 49

4. 55, 45

Q.10 If 45° and 65° are the angles of a triangle, then find the exterior angle of the third angle (remaining angle).
Ans 1. 110°

2. 120°

3. 70°

4. 100°

Q.11 A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated about the sides of 3 cm to form a cone. The volume of the cone so
formed is:
Ans 1. 20π cm3

2. 16π cm3

3. 25π cm3

4. 28π cm3
Q.12 Pipe L can fill a pool in 30 hours and pipe M in 45 hours. If both the pipes are opened in an empty pool,
how much time will they take to fill it?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13

Ans 1. 47

2. 49

3. 51

4. 45

Q.14 A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at a 10% profit and the rest at a 40% profit. He gains 20% on the
whole. The quantity sold at 40% profit is:
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15

Ans 1. 4

2. 6

3. 5

4. 7

Q.16 The concentrations of three acids, A, B, and C, are specified as 20%, 30%, and 40%, respectively. They are blended in a ratio
of 3 : 5 : a, yielding a solution with a concentration of 30%. What is the value of 'a'?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 2

4. 4

Q.17

Ans 1. 0.48

2. 0.28

3. 0.37

4. 0.42
Q.18 Ravi's salary was increased by 50%. After some time, his new salary was also increased by 50%. Find his gain percentage of
salary.
Ans 1. 125%

2. 100%

3. 200%

4. 150%

Q.19 The given bar graph shows the production of bikes by a company (in thousands) over the years.

In how many of the given years was the production of bikes more than the average production of bikes over the years?.
Ans 1. 1 year

2. 2 years

3. 3 years

4. 4 years

Q.20

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 If (7777+77) is divided by 78, then the remainder will be:

Ans 1. 76

2. 77

3. 78

4. 1

Q.22 Two successive discounts of 40% and 30% are equal to a single discount of:
Ans 1. 70%

2. 35%

3. 58%

4. 60%

Q.23 In a circle of radius 5√13 cm, a chord is at a distance of 10 cm from the centre of the circle. Find the length (in cm) of the
chord.
Ans 1. 30

2. 28

3. 36

4. 15
 Q.24 What annual instalment will discharge a debt of ₹26,160 due in 4 years at 6% simple interest p.a.?
Ans 1. ₹4,500

2. ₹5,500

3. ₹6,000

4. ₹5,800

Q.25
Simplify
​21 −[6 + 7 − {3.22 − (1.1 × 0.2)}].
Ans 1. 13

2. 12

3. 11

4. 10

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

Their sporting achievements at the highest level are being utterly ignored.
Ans 1. Extremely

2. Correctly

3. Minimally

4. Totally

Q.2 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Stationary
Ans 1. Motile

2. Portable

3. Swindle

4. Still

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
Rare species of frogs were very quicker identified by Stella.
Ans 1. to frogs were very quickly

2. of frogs were very quickly

3. in frogs were very quicker

4. of frogs were very quicklier

Q.4 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.
Most of the flowers bloom in the spring season but they start to ________ during summer.
Ans 1. flush

2. wither

3. flourish

4. blossom

Q.5 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

O. delicious
R. she
Q. a
P. baked
S. chocolate cake
Ans 1. RPQOS

2. QOSRP

3. OPQRS

4. SRPQO
Q.6 Select the most appropriate meaning of the phrase in bold.
Your so-called friend has cooked your goose.
Ans 1. To complete a lot of work or a wide range of things

2. When something develops completely and reaches maturity; when a child becomes an adult

3. To spend a lot of time and energy but achieve nothing

4. To interfere with, disrupt or ruin something for someone

Q.7 Select the option that can be used as a one word substitute for the given group of words.
An often-imaginary place or state of utter perfection and happiness
Ans 1. Inferno

2. Dystopia

3. Euphoria

4. Utopia

Q.8 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Risible
Ans 1. Serious

2. Curious

3. Droll

4. Giddy

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined words in the given sentence.
He was an irresponsible person to the matter of taking up responsibilities.
Ans 1. at the matter of taking up

2. in the matter of taking up

3. by the matter of taking up

4. along the matter of taking up

Q.10 Select the correct spelling to fill in the blank.

Subir’s long absence is likely to have _____ for employees in the office.
Ans 1. repercusions

2. repercussions

3. reperrcussions

4. rapercussions

Q.11 Select the correctly spelt word.

Ans 1. Privelege

2. Priviledge

3. Privilege

4. Privilej

Q.12 Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

The shareholders will elect him a director.

Ans 1. He will be elected as director by the shareholders.

2. The shareholders have elected him a director.

3. The shareholders elected him a director.

4. He will be elected a director.

Q.13 What does the idiom ‘Bite the bullet’ mean?
Ans 1. Enjoy a delicious meal

2. Face a difficult situation with courage

3. Avoid confrontation

4. Give someone a piece of advice

Q.14 In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent
statement.
O: its first constitution
P: and soon got himself elected
Q: the administration of the country
R: general Ayub Khan took over
S: after Pakistan framed
Ans 1. SORQP

2. SPORQ

3. POSRQ

4. ROPQS

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Pugnacious
Ans 1. Ally

2. Belligerent

3. Sly

4. Dogmatic

Q.16 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
A. It is also called a nuclear family.
B. It is good to be in a small family because there is better management of resources.
C. A small family is one with parents and a maximum of two children.
D. The advantages of a small family are numerous.
Ans 1. CADB

2. BACD

3. CBDA

4. ACBD

Q.17 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
No other place in this country is so better as Gulmarg, Kashmir.
Ans 1. No other place

2. in this country is

3. so better as

4. Gulmarg, Kashmir

Q.18 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice.
The letter will be delivered by the postman tomorrow.
Ans 1. The postman delivered the letter tomorrow

2. The postman will have delivered the letter tomorrow.

3. The postman will deliver the letter tomorrow.

4. The postman will be delivering the letter tomorrow.

Q.19 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Our family is planning / a trip to Europe next summer / where we should visit several famous / landmarks and enjoy local
cuisine.
Ans 1. where we should visit several famous

2. Our family is planning

3. landmarks and enjoy local cuisine

4. a trip to Europe next summer

Q.20 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.
Most of the land near the town is barren, but the efforts of the farmers have turned it ________.
Ans 1. sterile

2. infertile

3. fertile

4. unfruitful

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among
parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or
inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly
more significant and lasting.
Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic
restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington,
New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person
therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 1
Ans 1. restrictions

2. intemperance

3. advantages

4. handicap

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among
parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or
inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly
more significant and lasting.
Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic
restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington,
New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person
therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 2
Ans 1. brandings

2. measures

3. models

4. sluggishness
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among
parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or
inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly
more significant and lasting.
Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic
restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington,
New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person
therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 3
Ans 1. marginalisation

2. foundations

3. disapproval

4. consequences

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among
parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or
inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly
more significant and lasting.
Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic
restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington,
New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person
therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 4.
Ans 1. clearest

2. vague

3. indistinct

4. nebulous

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

Americans have been arguing about pandemic (1) ________________ for two years, and the debate is particularly fraught among
parents of small children, for good reasons. While (2) ____________ such as masking and isolation mean temporary discomfort or
inconvenience for most people, their (3) _______________ for still-developing young children are more mysterious, and possibly
more significant and lasting.
Children with speech or language disorders offer perhaps the (4) _____________ example of these murky trade-offs. Pandemic
restrictions vary by state, county and school district, but I spoke with parents in California, New York, Massachusetts, Washington,
New Jersey, Iowa and Maryland, who said their children’s speech therapy has been (5) ______________: first by the loss of in-person
therapy and then by masking requirements, in places that have them.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no. 5.
Ans 1. disrupted

2. regulated

3. measured

4. normalised
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 11/09/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
14014 × 14 – 10 ÷ 8 + 14 = ?
Ans 1. 1062

2. 1063

3. 1067

4. 1064

Q.2 The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if all the letters in the word ‘MEADOW’ are arranged in English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. None

2. Two

3. One

4. Three

Q.3 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operations to the first
number. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(280, 140)
(186, 93)
Ans 1. (118, 59)

2. (92, 51)

3. (86, 48)

4. (166, 84)
Q.4 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.5 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.6 Which two numbers (not digits) should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
48 ÷ 3 + 12 × 4 – 6 × 7 + 21 = 27
Ans 1. 3 and 4

2. 3 and 6

3. 4 and 7

4. 12 and 21

Q.7 The question contains pairs of words that are related to each other in a certain way. Three of the following four word pairs
are alike as these have the same relationship and thus form a group. Which word pair is the one that DOES NOT belong to
that group?

(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters / number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ans 1. Bone – orthopaedic

2. Uterus – urologist

3. Stomach – gastroenterologist

4. Eye – ophthalmologist

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘CONFUSED’ is coded as ‘7’ and ‘CHAIN’ is coded as ‘4’. How will ‘ADULTHOOD’ be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. 9

2. 7

3. 8

4. 6

Q.9 The same operation(s) are followed in all the given number pairs except one. Find that odd number pair.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 151 : 19

2. 128 : 16

3. 135 : 17

4. 103 : 13
Q.10 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ? will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
qp_r_rq_p_rp_q_pr_p_q
Ans 1. r p q r r p r q

2. r p q r r q r r

3. r p q q r q r p

4. r p q r r q r p

Q.12 16 is related to 112 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 26 is related to 182. To which of the following is 44
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 308

2. 312

3. 310

4. 302

Q.13 ‘Summer’ is related to ‘Season’ in the same way as ‘Cotton’ is related to ‘________’.
Ans 1. Cloth

2. Grain

3. Dye

4. Tree
Q.14 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All bottles are jugs.
Some bottles are flasks.
All flasks are bins.

Conclusions:
I. Some bottles are bins.
II. Some jugs are bins.
III. Some flasks are jugs.
Ans 1. All conclusions I, II and III follow

2. Either conclusion I or II follows

3. Only conclusions II and III follow

4. Only conclusions I and II follow

Q.15 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A − B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the mother of B’.
Based on the above, if ‘P + Q ÷ R − T × M’, which of the following is true?
Ans 1. M is the sister of T.

2. P is the brother of R.

3. Q is the mother of M.

4. T is the brother of P.

Q.16 Figure X is followed by four figures numbered (1), (2), (3), (4). Identify the figure among the four in which figure X is
embedded (i.e. contains figure X in the same form).

Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 1

4. 3
Q.17 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.18 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.19 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 11

2. 8

3. 9

4. 10

Q.20 Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first
letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-cluster.
RATE : SCWI : : HIGH : IKJL : : OPEN : ?
Ans 1. PRIS

2. PQHR

3. PSIR

4. PRHR
 Q.21 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
GASM, CCOO, YEKQ, ? , QICU
Ans 1. UGGS

2. UCGS

3. UGGT

4. TGFS

Q.22 8 is related to 512 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 12 is related to 1728. To which of the following is 15
related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 2275

2. 2725

3. 3375

4. 3735

Q.23 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
17, 38, 84, ?, 376, 772
Ans 1. 190

2. 200

3. 180

4. 150

Q.24 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. (The words
must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Acrimony : Humanity :: Wield : ?
Ans 1. Exert

2. Forgo

3. Use

4. Apply

Q.25 In a certain code language, 'DEMAND' is written as ‘410132144' and 'SUPPLY' is written as '194216161225'.How will
'PRODUCT' be written in that language?
Ans 1. 161830442320

2. 323615821640

3. 161542320

4. 161815421320

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 What kind of radiation is absorbed by the ozone layer?

Ans 1. Green radiation

2. Infrared radiation

3. Visible radiation

4. Ultraviolet radiation

Q.2 Which of the following organisations, divided into two branches, was established by Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak and
Annie Besant?
Ans 1. Indian Association

2. Theosophical society

3. East Indian Association

4. Home Rule League

Q.3 In which of the following years did India NOT host the ICC Cricket World Cup Tournament?
Ans 1. 2011

2. 1996

3. 1983

4. 1987

Q.4 Match the following books with their respective authors.

Ans 1. a-iii; b-i; c-iv; d-ii

2. a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i

3. a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii

4. a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv

Q.5 Which of the following options is mostly caused by overpopulation?

Ans 1. Land and other renewable resources are under pressure

2. Adequate natural resource storage

3. Reduction in the scarcity of water

4. Increase in the area covered by forests

Q.6 Which of the following types of direct tax collection increased as of 10 February 2023 budget?
Ans 1. Personal income tax

2. Octroi duties

3. Corporate tax

4. Commercial tax

Q.7 Palladium on barium sulphate (Pd/BaSO4) is also known as:

Ans 1. a Hillman reaction catalyst

2. a Cannizzaro reaction catalyst

3. the Rosenmund catalyst

4. an aldol reaction catalyst

Q.8 Ebony and Mahogany trees are found in which type of forests?
Ans 1. Mangrove forests

2. Tropical deciduous forests

3. Tropical evergreen forests

4. Montane forests

Q.9 Which party formed the government in Britain in the year 1945?
Ans 1. Democratic Party

2. Labour Party

3. Socialist Party

4. Liberal Party
Q.10 When was the Duty-Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) Scheme for Least Developed Countries (LDCs) announced by India?
Ans 1. 2010

2. 2009

3. 2006

4. 2008

Q.11 Which Ghazal singer was conferred with the prestigious Deenanath Mangeshkar Award in April 2023?
Ans 1. Talat Aziz

2. Ghazal Srinivas

3. Pankaj Udhas

4. Bhupinder Singh

Q.12 In which year was the PM Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission launched?
Ans 1. 2020

2. 2022

3. 2021

4. 2023

Q.13 Which of the following categories does Gonyaulax belong to?

Ans 1. Euglenoids

2. Chrysophytes

3. Protozoans

4. Dinoflagellates

Q.14 Valabhi, a city of ancient India was the capital of the _________ dynasty from the 5th to 8th Century CE.
Ans 1. Maitraka

2. Chalukya

3. Pallava

4. Vakataka

Q.15 Bharatanatyam dance style is associated with which of the following states?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Tamil Nadu

3. Bihar

4. Manipur

Q.16 Which type of radiation has very short (<10–3 nm) wavelengths, produced by nuclear explosions, lightning and less
dramatic activity of radioactive decay?
Ans 1. Gamma

2. Infra-red

3. Microwave

4. Ultraviolet

Q.17 Which of the following pairs do NOT share any borders?

Ans 1. Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh

2. Bhutan and Meghalaya

3. Bhutan and West Bengal

4. Bhutan and Assam

Q.18 On which of the following dates does India celebrate its Constitution Day?
Ans 1. 26th January

2. 26th November

3. 15th August

4. 2th October

Q.19 The organisation that Comptroller and Auditor General heads is known as ___________.
Ans 1. Indian Civil Accounts Organisation

2. Controller General of Accounts

3. Indian Audit and Accounts Department

4. Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Q.20 Consider the following statements and choose the correct statement(s) from the following:

1. The UDAN scheme has completed five years since its implementation in 2017.
2. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Science and Technology.
3. The Airports Authority of India is the implementing agency of this scheme.
Ans 1. Only statement 3

2. Only statement 2

3. Only statements 2 and 3

4. Only statements 1 and 3

Q.21 Which Indian marathon event is considered the largest marathon in Asia?
Ans 1. Kaveri Trail Marathon

2. Pinkathon

3. Delhi Half Marathon

4. Mumbai Marathon

Q.22 Shab-e-Barat is celebrated by which religious group?

Ans 1. Muslim

2. Buddhist

3. Jain

4. Parsi

Q.23 Consider the following statements associated with the India Infrastructure Project Development Fund (IIPDF).
1. IIPDF was set up in 2017.
2. The funds for IIPDF are provided by the Central Government’?
3. This scheme is notified under the Department of Economic Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Ans 1. Only 2 and 3

2. Only 1

3. Only 1 and 2

4. Only 3

Q.24 Who among the following was one of the Navratnas of Akbar?
Ans 1. Purandar Das

2. Swami Haridas

3. Tansen

4. Amir Khusro
 Q.25 Who has written the book ‘Fearless Governance’, published in January 2021, describing her stint as Governor?
Ans 1. Draupadi Murmu

2. Baby Rani Maurya

3. Kiran Bedi

4. Anandi ben Patel

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Find the smallest number to be added to 999, so that 99 divides the sum exactly.
Ans 1. 99

2. 0

3. 90

4. 9

Q.2

Ans 1. 221

2. 234

3. 198

4. 216

Q.3 In an election between two candidates P and Q, P got 78% of the total valid votes. If the total votes of the electorate were
75,60,000, then what was the number of valid votes that Q got if 10% of the voters did not cast their vote and 15% of the
votes polled were declared invalid?
Ans 1. 1,41,372

2. 1,41,732

3. 12,72,348

4. 1,47,312

Q.4 In a circle, two chords MN and PQ intersect at O. If MO = 9 cm, ON = 5 cm and OQ = 6 cm, then the value of OP (in cm) is:
Ans 1. 7.5

2. 6.5

3. 6

4. 7

Q.5

Ans 1.

2. 1

3. 0

4. 2

Q.6 A rectangular courtyard is 4m 95cm long and 16m 65cm broad. It is to be paved with the square tiles of the same size. Find
the least number of such square tiles required to pave the rectangular courtyard.
Ans 1. 877

2. 944

3. 388

4. 407
Q.7

Ans 1. 15,421

2. 13,992

3. 11,229

4. 17,355

Q.8 There are two pipes to fill a tank. Together, they can fill the tank in 15 minutes. If one pipe can fill the tank in one and a half
times as fast as the other, the faster pipe alone can fill the tank in:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.10 If the perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 36 units, then its area is (in square units):
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 If asin3 X + bcos3 X = sinXcosX and asinX = bcosX, then find the value of a2 + b2, provided that x is neither 0° nor 90°.
Ans 1. 0

2. 1

3. a2 - b2

4. a2 + b2

Q.12 A dishonest merchant sells his grocery using weights that are 12% less than the true weights and makes a profit of 10%.
Find his total gain percentage.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.13 Atul gives Vishu a head-start of 20 seconds in a 900 m race and beats him by 135 m. While running the same race again Atul
gives a start of 189 m and beats him by 8 seconds. In how much time can Vishu complete the full race of 900 m?
Ans 1. 3 minutes 30 seconds

2. 2 minutes 50 seconds

3. 3 minutes 20 seconds

4. 3 minutes 10 seconds

Q.14 The following pie chart shows the distribution of the percentage of students in various courses at the university. The total
number of students (boys and girls only) in the university is 7000.

In B.Com, there are 60% girls and in B.Sc. C.Sci, there are 40% boys. The total number of girls who took admission in B.Sc
C.Sci and B.Com courses is what percentage of the total students admitted to the university?
Ans 1. 25%

2. 29%

3. 23%

4. 27%

Q.15 In a division problem, the divisor is 4 times the quotient and 2 times the remainder. If the remainder is 32, then find the
dividend.
Ans 1. 1056

2. 1650

3. 3240

4. 1065

Q.16 The interest accrued on a sum of ₹16,000 lent at a simple interest rate of 14% p.a. for the time in those many years, which
gives a simple interest of three-fifths of a certain sum at 10% p.a., is:
Ans 1. ₹13,440

2. ₹12,970

3. ₹15,360

4. ₹14,280

Q.17 A group of 30 students appeared in a test. The average score of 12 students is 62, and that of the rest is 62. What is the
average score of the group?
Ans 1. 62

2. 63

3. 60

4. 61
Q.18 In a rhombus ABCD, O is any interior point such that OA = OC. What is five-ninths of the degree measure of ∠ DOB?
Ans 1. 120°

2. 150°

3. 100°

4. 90°

Q.19 The bar graph below shows the production of coffee (in lakh tons) by four companies A, B, C and D over a period of four
years from 2010 to 2013. Study the graph and answer the question that
follows.

The combined average production for four years of companies A and C is what percentage (rounded off to 2 decimal places)
more/less than the combined average production for four years of companies B and D?
Ans 1. Less, 7.81%

2. More, 10.51%

3. More, 7.81%

4. Less, 10.51%

Q.20 Solve the given set of three equations to get the value of the unknowns:
x + 2z = 3
x + 2y + 3z = 5
3x - 5z = -13
Ans 1. x = 0,y = -1,z = 2

2. x = -1,y = 0,z = 2

3. x = -1,y = 2,z = 0

4. x = 2,y = 0,z = -1

Q.21 Mrudula starts her job with a certain monthly salary and earns a fixed increment every year. If her salary was ₹28,400 after
six years of service and ₹52,997 after fifteen years, find her annual increment.
Ans 1. ₹12,002

2. ₹1,200

3. ₹2,733

4. ₹1,824

Q.22 A sum of money is divided among P, Q, R and S in the proportion of 4 : 9 : 2 : 3. If Q gets ₹560 more than R, then the share of
S is:
Ans 1. ₹140

2. ₹340

3. ₹240

4. ₹440
 Q.23

Ans 1. 83

2. 80

3. 85

4. 84

Q.24

Ans 1. 360

2. 480

3. 640

4. 540

Q.25 A shopkeeper, on the eve of Diwali, allowed a series of discounts on television sets. Find the selling price of a television set,
if the marked price of television is ₹1,200 and successive discounts are 15% and 10%.
Ans 1. ₹945

2. ₹918

3. ₹975

4. ₹965

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words in the following sentence.
Despite recent superficial moves toward political reconciliation, Libya remains in the grip of a bloodstained corrupt military
exclusive circle of people with a common purpose.
Ans 1. oblique

2. pique

3. clique

4. antique

Q.2 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

An instrument for viewing distant objects in space.

Ans 1. Microscope

2. Spectrograph

3. Telescope

4. Binoculars

Q.3 The following sentence contains a word with a spelling error. Rectify the sentence by selecting the correct spelling of the
identified word from the given options.

I was upstaires when somebody rang the doorbell.

Ans 1. Upstares

2. Upstaire

3. upsatires

4. Upstairs

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Adversity
Ans 1. Success

2. Misfortune

3. Pleasure

4. Advantage

Q.5 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the following word.

Forbid
Ans 1. Prohibit

2. Allow

3. Call

4. Forsake

Q.6 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
(A) while the employees
(B) meeting on time
(C) the boss arrived at the
(D) despite the heavy traffic
(E) were late
Ans 1. DCBAE

2. DACEB

3. BACED

4. ACEDB
Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Charles Darwin is renowned for his book on evolution, ‘On the Origin of Species’, which laid down a treasure of
substantiation that evolution occurs, and projected a mechanism, that is, natural selection, for how it does so.
Ans 1. laid into a treasure of substantiation

2. laid about a treasure of substantiation

3. laid away a treasure of substantiation

4. laid out a treasure of substantiation

Q.8 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
It is he who work for the company for more than a decade.
Ans 1. for more than a decade

2. who work

3. for the company

4. It is he

Q.9 Select the option that correctly expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
The teachers of our school have already taken this training.
Ans 1. This training has already been taken by the teachers of our school.

2. This training has been taken by the teachers of our school.

3. This training has already been taken by the our school teachers.

4. This training was already taken by the teachers of our school.

Q.10 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word.

He was very cruel in dealing with the students.

Ans 1. Skittish

2. Kind

3. Malevolent

4. Kingly

Q.11 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.
(A) he had to take the bus
(B) his friend, who used to give
(C) to his office because he had
(D) him a lift, was on vacation
(E) never learned to drive and
Ans 1. DACEB

2. ACEBD

3. EBADC

4. BADEC

Q.12 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
Ravi will play the match.
Ans 1. The match is played by Ravi.

2. The match will have been played by Ravi.

3. The match will be playing by Ravi.

4. The match will be played by Ravi.

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
Our legal system must frame proper legal rules for juvenile criminals.
Ans 1. senile

2. dotage

3. old

4. young
Q.14 Substitute the underlined word-segment with most appropriate idiom.

The doctors tried very hard to save his mother but they were unsuccessful.
Ans 1. faced the music

2. drew the line

3. moved heaven and earth

4. ran like clockwork

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Hit the nail on the head

Ans 1. They are experiencing a headache.

2. They have accurately identified or explained something.

3. They're uncertain about a decision.

4. They hit a nail with a hammer.

Q.16 The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The windows / violent banged / during the / storm yesterday.
Ans 1. during the

2. The windows

3. storm yesterday.

4. violent banged

Q.17 Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the following sentence and select its correct spelling from the given options.
His acquiantance with the author led to many fruitful collaborations.
Ans 1. acuiantance

2. acquaintance

3. acquaintence

4. aquaintance

Q.18 Identify the correct synonym of the word given below.

FATIGUE
Ans 1. Mission

2. Tiredness

3. Vigour

4. Obese

Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

She was overstrung before her dance performance.
Ans 1. Cheerful

2. Calm

3. Placid

4. Nervous

Q.20 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
Awkward in movement or manner
Ans 1. Alert

2. Imbalanced

3. Clumsy

4. Clownish
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an (1) _________ by the Government of India to celebrate and remember 75 years of independence and
the beautiful history of its people, culture and achievements. This Mahotsav is (2) _________ to the people of India, who have not only
been instrumental in bringing India this far in its evolutionary journey but also (3) _________ the power and potential to realise Prime
Minister, Narendra Modi's (4) _________ of activating India 2.0, fuelled by the spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat. The formal journey of
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav began on 12 March 2021, beginning a (5)______ to our 75th anniversary of independence and will finish a
year later on 15 August 2023.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate answer for blank number 1.%
Ans 1. associate

2. initiative

3. obligation

4. occult

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an (1) _________ by the Government of India to celebrate and remember 75 years of independence and
the beautiful history of its people, culture and achievements. This Mahotsav is (2) _________ to the people of India, who have not only
been instrumental in bringing India this far in its evolutionary journey but also (3) _________ the power and potential to realise Prime
Minister, Narendra Modi's (4) _________ of activating India 2.0, fuelled by the spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat. The formal journey of
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav began on 12 March 2021, beginning a (5)______ to our 75th anniversary of independence and will finish a
year later on 15 August 2023.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate answer for blank number 2.%
Ans 1. dedicated

2. alienated

3. refused

4. withhold

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an (1) _________ by the Government of India to celebrate and remember 75 years of independence and
the beautiful history of its people, culture and achievements. This Mahotsav is (2) _________ to the people of India, who have not only
been instrumental in bringing India this far in its evolutionary journey but also (3) _________ the power and potential to realise Prime
Minister, Narendra Modi's (4) _________ of activating India 2.0, fuelled by the spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat. The formal journey of
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav began on 12 March 2021, beginning a (5)______ to our 75th anniversary of independence and will finish a
year later on 15 August 2023.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate answer for blank number 3.%
Ans 1. clarifies

2. possess

3. concludes

4. obtains
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an (1) _________ by the Government of India to celebrate and remember 75 years of independence and
the beautiful history of its people, culture and achievements. This Mahotsav is (2) _________ to the people of India, who have not only
been instrumental in bringing India this far in its evolutionary journey but also (3) _________ the power and potential to realise Prime
Minister, Narendra Modi's (4) _________ of activating India 2.0, fuelled by the spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat. The formal journey of
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav began on 12 March 2021, beginning a (5)______ to our 75th anniversary of independence and will finish a
year later on 15 August 2023.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate answer for blank number 4.%
Ans 1. graphics

2. vision

3. design

4. control

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an (1) _________ by the Government of India to celebrate and remember 75 years of independence and
the beautiful history of its people, culture and achievements. This Mahotsav is (2) _________ to the people of India, who have not only
been instrumental in bringing India this far in its evolutionary journey but also (3) _________ the power and potential to realise Prime
Minister, Narendra Modi's (4) _________ of activating India 2.0, fuelled by the spirit of Aatmanirbhar Bharat. The formal journey of
Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav began on 12 March 2021, beginning a (5)______ to our 75th anniversary of independence and will finish a
year later on 15 August 2023.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate answer for blank number 5.%
Ans 1. allocation

2. countdown

3. custom

4. breakdown
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 11/09/2024
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 1:30 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘–‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are interchanged?

8 + 6 ÷ 51 – 17 × 13 = ?
Ans 1. 32

2. 58

3. 63

4. 71

Q.2 Select the triad in which the numbers are related to each other in the same way as the numbers in the following triads.
8-17-35
23-47-95
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 9-20-41

2. 12-25-51

3. 13-29-55

4. 16-32-62

Q.3 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which conclusion/s logically follow/s from the given
statements.
Statements:
All apples are mangoes.
All mangoes are lemons.
All lemons are kiwis.
Conclusions:
(I) All apples are lemons.
(II) All mangoes are kiwis.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion I nor II follow.

2. Only conclusion I follows.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. Both conclusions I and II follow.

Q.4 Three of the following numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 90 – 144

2. 75 – 120

3. 45 – 70

4. 65 – 104
Q.5 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(34, 15, 64)
(29, 17, 63)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (44, 32, 98)

2. (31, 23, 54)

3. (25, 14, 53)

4. (24, 28, 76)

Q.6 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.7 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
DBOI, FEQL, ?, JKUR, LNWU
Ans 1. HISP

2. IHSP

3. HHSO

4. HISO

Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘BUZZY’ is coded as ‘10’ and ‘KING’ is coded as ‘8’. How will ‘ABROAD’ be coded in that
language?
Ans 1. 10

2. 7

3. 9

4. 12
Q.9 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

186 : 103
156 : 73
Ans 1. 83 : 1

2. 208 : 127

3. 119 : 35

4. 95 : 12

Q.10 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
3, 20, 121, 604, 2417, ?
Ans 1. 7275

2. 7250

3. 7200

4. 7300

Q.11 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.12 Select the number that will come in the place of the question mark(?), if ‘+’ and ‘ – ‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged
41 – 54 × 6 ÷ 9 + 7 = ?
Ans 1. 108

2. 119

3. 104

4. 115
Q.13 Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to consider these statements to be true,
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s
from the given statements.

Statements:
All pens are pages.
Some pages are pins.
Some pins are boards.

Conclusions:
(I) Some pins are pens.
(II) Some boards are pages.
(III) Some pens are boards.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows.

2. None of the conclusions follow.

3. Only conclusion II follows.

4. Either conclusion I or conclusion III follows.

Q.14 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the wife of B’.
A − B means ‘A is the son of B’.
A × B means ‘A is the husband of B’.
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P − Q + R ÷ S × T’?
Ans 1. Son’s son

2. Father

3. Husband’s brother

4. Father-in-law

Q.15 ‘Lavish’ is related to ‘Austere’ in the same way as ‘Prejudiced’ is related to ‘________’.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Ans 1. Impartial

2. Compromised

3. Thoughtful

4. Careful
Q.16 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation is NOT allowed).

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17 The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of the letters in the word ‘JEALOUS’ is arranged in the
English alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Three

4. Four

Q.18 Select the option that represents the letters that when sequentially placed from left to right in the blanks below will complete
the letter series.

_C_W___C_W__
Ans 1. WCCWWWCC

2. WWCWWWCW

3. CWCWWCCW

4. CCWWCCWW
Q.19 Two different positions of the same dice are given below. Which is the number on the face opposite the face containing 1?

Ans 1. 6

2. 5

3. 4

4. 3

Q.20 Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and fourth
term is related to third term.
TRAINER : VTCIQHU :: RADIANT : TCFIDQW :: CUSHION : ?
Ans 1. EWUHLRQ

2. FWUHLRQ

3. FXUHLRQ

4. EXUHLRQ

Q.21 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 11

2. 9

3. 12

4. 10

Q.22 In a certain code language, 'VAIN' is written as 'OKBY’ and 'VAST' is written as 'UUBY'. How will 'VERB’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. CFTY

2. CTFY

3. CTYF

4. CFYT
Q.23 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.24 Four letter-clusters have been given out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is
different.
Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster
Ans 1. GDI

2. XUZ

3. LKP

4. SPU
 Q.25 A paper is folded and cut as shown below. How will it appear when unfolded?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Taxus wallichiana Zucc (Himalayan yew) is a medicinal plant found in which of the following states?
Ans 1. Goa

2. Jharkhand

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Bihar

Q.2 Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

Ans 1. Nucleus: Lipid metabolism

2. Lysosomes: Suicidal bags

3. Mitochondria: Power house of the cell

4. Ribosomes: Protein factory

Q.3 Which of the following battles is considered the formal beginning of the British Raj in India?
Ans 1. First Carnatic War

2. Battle of Plassey

3. Battle of Wandiwash

4. Battle of Buxar
Q.4 Which of the following Indian states has the least number of operational airports as of 2022?
Ans 1. Bihar

2. Maharashtra

3. Mizoram

4. Karnataka

Q.5 Who among the following, while praising the amending feature of the Indian Constitution said that ‘This variety in the
amending process is wise but is rarely found’?
Ans 1. Granville Austin

2. Ivor Jennings

3. K C Wheare

4. HM Seervai

Q.6 Tabla player, Ustad Zakir Hussain was awarded which of the following awards by the Government of India in 2023?
Ans 1. Bharat Ratna

2. Padma Shri

3. Padma Vibhushan

4. Padma Bhushan

Q.7 Gangu bai Hangal and Prabha Atre were exponents of the ___________ Gharana.
Ans 1. Rampur

2. Jaipur

3. Kirana

4. Mewati

Q.8 Which of the following famous Indian athletes won the Zurich Diamond League final 2022 in September 2022?
Ans 1. Bajrang Punia

2. Mirabai Chanu

3. Neeraj Chopra

4. PT Usha

Q.9 Which of the following Table Tennis World Championship events was held in India?
Ans 1. 19th World Championships, 1952

2. 17th World Championships, 1950

3. 20th World Championships, 1953

4. 18th World Championships, 1951

Q.10 Match the concepts in column A with their respective descriptions in column B.

Ans 1. a-5, b-1, c-2, d-3

2. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

3. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

4. a-5, b-3, c-2, d-1

Q.11 When haloalkanes and aryl and vinyl halides react with magnesium metal they yield which reagent?
Ans 1. Hinsberg reagent

2. Grignard reagent

3. Tollens’ reagent

4. Fehling reagent

Q.12 How many chambers are there in the heart of fishes?

Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 4

4. 3

Q.13 As per the report of the NITI Aayog in 2023, which among the following states in India has the lowest percentage of the total
population that is multidimensionally poor?
Ans 1. Goa

2. Kerala

3. Sikkim

4. Uttarakhand

Q.14 What is the unit of measurement for optical power of the lens?
Ans 1. Yotta

2. Katal

3. Radian

4. Diopter

Q.15 The Government of India allowed automatic approval of _____% of FDI by Reserve Bank of India in nine categories of
industries.
Ans 1. Up to 51

2. Up to 60

3. Up to 41

4. Up to 74

Q.16 Who among the following was the last sultan of Delhi sultanate?
Ans 1. Firoz Shah Tughlaq

2. Sikandar Lodi

3. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq

4. Ibrahim Lodi

Q.17 Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT related to the Indian domestic cricket?
Ans 1. Duleep Trophy

2. Durand Cup

3. Deodhar Trophy

4. Ranji Trophy

Q.18 In the context of water bodies, Neap Tides occur:

Ans 1. when the earth, moon and sun line up in a straight line

2. when the sun and moon are on the opposite sides

3. when there is so much interference by continents

4. when the sun and moon are at right angles to each other
 Q.19 Chittani Ramachandra Hegde was associated with which of the following dances?
Ans 1. Chhau dance

2. Chappeli dance

3. Yakshagana dance

4. Huttari dance

Q.20 The idols of which three Gods are installed in Jagannath Temple, Puri?
Ans 1. Brahma, Vishnu and Mahesh

2. Radha, Krishna and Balram

3. Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra

4. Ram, Lakshman and Janaki

Q.21 Anna Chandy, the first Indian woman to serve as a judge at a high court was oppointed in which High Court?
Ans 1. West Bengal

2. Kerala

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Andhra Pradesh

Q.22 As in July 2021,The NIPUN Bharat Scheme was launched by which of the following Ministries?
Ans 1. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

2. Ministry of Education

3. Ministry of Corporate Affairs

4. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers

Q.23 Which Article of the Constitution of India expressly provides that the President is eligible for re-election?
Ans 1. Article 58

2. Article 56

3. Article 59

4. Article 57

Q.24 In which of the following cities did Mahatma Gandhi lead the peasant movement against the imposed indigo cultivation by
the British planters?
Ans 1. Kheda

2. Gorakhpur

3. Bardoli

4. Champaran

Q.25 According to the Ashrama system of Vedic life, which of the following was the third stage of life?
Ans 1. Grihastha

2. Sanyasa

3. Brahmacharya

4. Vanaprastha

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 In ∆ PQR, M, N, and S are the mid-points of sides PQ, PR and QR, respectively. If the area of the ∆ PQR is 46 cm2, what is the
area (in cm2) of the quadrilateral MNRQ?
Ans 1. 39

2. 27.6

3. 23

4. 34.5
Q.2 The salary of a worker is first increased by 25%, then it is decreased by 12%. The percentage change in his salary is:
Ans 1. 10% increase

2. 13% increase

3. 10% decrease

4. 13% decrease

Q.3 Pipe A usually fills a tank in 6 hours. But due to a leak at the bottom of the tank, it takes extra 2 hours to fill the tank. If the
tank is full, then how much time will it take to get emptied due to the leak?
Ans 1. 16 hours

2. 20 hours

3. 12 hours

4. 24 hours

Q.4
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.5

Ans 1. 12000

2. 18000

3. 14000

4. 16000
Q.6

Ans 1. IT

2. English

3. Hindi

4. Mathematics

Q.7 How many years will it take for ₹8,400 to amount to ₹11,928 at a simple interest rate of 7% per annum?
Ans 1. 8

2. 5

3. 2

4. 6

Q.8 Find the area of a square, one of whose diagonals is 4.8 m long.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9 Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 2 and 5?

Ans 1. 63840

2. 20792

3. 37915

4. 37254

Q.10

Ans 1. 49

2. 42

3. 21

4. 36
Q.11

Ans 1. 3.2%

2. 2.4%

3. 2.9%

4. 3.8%

Q.12

Ans 1. 28

2. 36

3. 17

4. 31

Q.13 If the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is 25 : 144, the ratio of their corresponding sides is:
Ans 1. 5 : 12

2. 5 : 144

3. 25 : 12

4. 12 : 5
Q.14

Ans 1. 86,100

2. 96,100

3. 90,500

4. 80,500

Q.15 Find the average of the prime numbers lying between 50 and 76.
Ans 1. 66

2. 60

3. 62

4. 64

Q.16

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17

Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 1

4. 5
Q.18 If 0.4x + 0.16y = 1.7 and 0.3x + 0.12y = 3.4, then which of the following is correct?
Ans 1. The system has finitely many solutions but not unique.

2. The system has infinitely many solutions.

3. The system has no solution.

4. The system has unique solution.

Q.19 S borrowed some amount from R and promised to pay him 8% interest. Then S invested the borrowed amount in a scheme,
upon which he earned a profit of 5% after paying R, the principal amount with interest. How much percentage R would have
gained, if he would have invested in the scheme directly?
Ans 1. 13.4%

2. 13%

3. 14.4%

4. 14%

Q.20

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 The cost price of a bat is 75% of the marked price. Calculate the gain percentage after allowing a discount of 15%.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.23 △ ABC and △ RPQ are congruent, then the side of △ ABC that corresponds to PQ is:
Ans 1. AB

2. CA

3. AR

4. BC

Q.24 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief
and the policeman run at the rate of 10 km/h and 11 km/h, respectively. What is the distance (in metres) between them after 9
minutes?
Ans 1. 40

2. 50

3. 30

4. 60
 Q.25

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error
from the given options. If you don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
Neither my brother nor my brothers-in-law / attended the meeting / as his health is not more good.
Ans 1. Neither my brother nor my brothers-in-law

2. attended the meeting

3. No error

4. as his health is not more good

Q.2 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to
form a meaningful sentence.
(P) kindness and empathy
(Q) in a world that can be
(O) bring light and positivity
(R) harsh and challenging
Ans 1. PORQ

2. ROQP

3. QRPO

4. QROP

Q.3 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word from the given sentence .

She recieved an award for her outstanding performance.

Ans 1. recieved

2. award

3. performance

4. outstanding

Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

To read between the lines
Ans 1. To underline some words

2. To read differently

3. To read aloud to public

4. To understand more than what the words suggest

Q.5 Select the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word.

Deficient
Ans 1. Skimpy

2. Broken

3. Ample

4. Terrible
Q.6 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Meander
Ans 1. Ramble

2. Deputise

3. Confirm

4. Direct

Q.7 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the following sentence.
In Shakespeare's The Merchant of Venice, Shylock's connivance aimed to jeopardise Antonio's life.
Ans 1. Safeguard

2. Risk

3. Peril

4. Jape

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Two of the fugitives managed to remain free by adeptly avoiding the____________ of the police.
Ans 1. following

2. repression

3. pursuit

4. discovery

Q.9 Select the correctly spelt word.

Ans 1. Conscientous

2. Conscencious

3. Conscientious

4. Conscietious

Q.10 Select the option that can replace the underlined phrase and make the sentence grammatically correct.
The programme on TV was now shown the blurring faces of the inmates of the rehabilitation centre .
Ans 1. were now showing the blurred faces of the inmates of the rehabilitation centre.

2. was now showing the blurred faces of the inmates of the rehabilitation centre

3. were now showing the blurring faces of the inmates from the rehabilitation centre

4. was now showing the blurred faces of the inmates upon the rehabilitation centre

Q.11 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct logical sequence.

A. It contains high levels of Vitamin A and D.

B. Cod liver oil is thus used to treat arthritis.
C. This supplement is made from the liver of cod fish.
D. Cod liver oil is a nutritional supplement.
Ans 1. ABCD

2. CBAD

3. DCAB

4. BACD

Q.12 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

A person who is trained to travel in a spacecraft.

Ans 1. Astronaut

2. Anthropologist

3. Alchemist

4. Curator
Q.13 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Merit
Ans 1. Fatigue

2. Oblique

3. Virtue

4. Residue

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Jovial
Ans 1. Miserable

2. Solemnity

3. Cheerful

4. Profane

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
Each candidate was making tall promises.
Ans 1. Tall promises were being made by each candidate.

2. Tall promises are made by each candidate.

3. Tall promises will be made by each candidate.

4. Tall promises are being made by each candidate.

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Jump the gun

Ans 1. To start all over again

2. Using a gun for sports

3. To stop a process

4. To do something too soon and too quickly

Q.17 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.
Layla is the Sultan’s consort.
Ans 1. Foe

2. Alcoholic

3. Enemy

4. Partner

Q.18 Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error.
Rahul thinks he is as smarter as his friends in the class.
Ans 1. his friends

2. he is as smarter as

3. Rahul thinks

4. in the class

Q.19 In the given question, a statement divided into different segments is given. Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent
statement.
O: population is expected to triple in
P: the next 50 years
Q: among the world’s poorest countries
R: population shrinkage in that period
S: whereas many rich countries will see
Ans 1. POSQR

2. RSOPQ

3. SPORQ

4. QOPSR
Q.20 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in active voice.
The car was repaired by the mechanic.
Ans 1. The mechanic repairs the car.

2. The mechanic has repaired the car.

3. The mechanic is repairing the car.

4. The mechanic repaired the car.

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Appearances may not reveal the man. So, you shouldn't make (1) _________ about a man's character based on how he (2)
_________ . People smile and smile, yet prove to be (3) _________ . On the other hand, people with rough exteriors prove to be the
(4) _________ and most considerate people on earth. They are the people who are beautiful from (5) _________ .

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.(
Ans 1. ascend

2. derivations

3. deficient

4. assumptions

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Appearances may not reveal the man. So, you shouldn't make (1) _________ about a man's character based on how he (2)
_________ . People smile and smile, yet prove to be (3) _________ . On the other hand, people with rough exteriors prove to be the
(4) _________ and most considerate people on earth. They are the people who are beautiful from (5) _________ .

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.(
Ans 1. admits

2. shows

3. glitters

4. looks

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Appearances may not reveal the man. So, you shouldn't make (1) _________ about a man's character based on how he (2)
_________ . People smile and smile, yet prove to be (3) _________ . On the other hand, people with rough exteriors prove to be the
(4) _________ and most considerate people on earth. They are the people who are beautiful from (5) _________ .

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.(
Ans 1. grumpy

2. ecstatic

3. joyful

4. sparkling
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Appearances may not reveal the man. So, you shouldn't make (1) _________ about a man's character based on how he (2)
_________ . People smile and smile, yet prove to be (3) _________ . On the other hand, people with rough exteriors prove to be the
(4) _________ and most considerate people on earth. They are the people who are beautiful from (5) _________ .

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.(
Ans 1. bitterest

2. strangest

3. gloomiest

4. kindest

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
Appearances may not reveal the man. So, you shouldn't make (1) _________ about a man's character based on how he (2)
_________ . People smile and smile, yet prove to be (3) _________ . On the other hand, people with rough exteriors prove to be the
(4) _________ and most considerate people on earth. They are the people who are beautiful from (5) _________ .

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.(
Ans 1. within

2. personality

3. style

4. exterior
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 12/09/2024
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All pages are diaries.
Some diaries are books.
All books are notebooks.

Conclusions:
I. No page is a notebook.
II. All pages are notebooks.
III. All diaries being notebooks is a possibility.
Ans 1. Both conclusion I and II follow

2. Only conclusions I and III follow

3. Only conclusion III follows

4. Only conclusion II follows

Q.2 The position of how many letters will remain unchanged if all the letters in the word BINDER are arranged in English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. None

2. One

3. Two

4. Three

Q.3 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’;

‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’;
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is 4 related to 2 if ‘4 + 3 ÷ 2 ÷ 1 − 5’?

Ans 1. Father’s father

2. Father’s mother

3. Mother’s father

4. Mother’s mother
Q.4 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.5 ‘WISK’ is related to ‘DRHP’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘LENT’ is related to
‘OVMG’. To which of the following is ‘BANG’ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. ZYLU

2. ZYNS

3. YZNU

4. YZMT

Q.6 Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number
result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third
number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

18 – 36 – 72 – 107; 15 – 30 – 60– 95
Ans 1. 22 – 44 – 88 – 123

2. 25 – 50 – 100 – 125

3. 11 – 22 – 66 – 101

4. 30 – 60 – 90 – 115

Q.7 Select the number from the given options to complete the series.
25, 30, 40, 55, 75, ___
Ans 1. 105

2. 85

3. 80

4. 100
Q.8 The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if all the letters in the word ‘ENTOMB’ are arranged in English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. None

2. Two

3. One

4. Three

Q.9 Six words Eat, Cry, Play, Sleep, Run and Bath are written on different faces of a dice. Three positions of this dice are shown
in the figure. Find the word on the face opposite to Eat.

Ans 1. Play

2. Cry

3. Sleep

4. Run

Q.10 Two different positions of the same dice with faces T, O, B, L, Y and V are shown below. Select the letter that will be on the
face opposite to the one having L.

Ans 1. Y

2. B

3. V

4. O

Q.11 Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number
of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Virus : Parasite
Ans 1. Fungus : Jasmine

2. Amaltas : Tree

3. Fenugreek : Micro organism

4. Algae : Flower

Q.12 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the given sets.
(213, 157), (185, 129)
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g., 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. (171, 123)

2. (189, 141)

3. (164, 108)

4. (192, 152)
Q.13 Three of the following four options are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does NOT belong
to that group?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into
1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 540 – 188 – 128

2. 72 – 284 – 266

3. 81– 101– 92

4. 90 – 22– 12

Q.14 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
IMHP, MPJQ, QSLR, UVNS, ?
Ans 1. YYPT

2. YYOT

3. YXPT

4. XYPT

Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘FACED’ is written as ‘GZDDE’ and ‘VACAY’ is written as ‘WZDZZ’. How will ‘LABOR’ be written in
that language?
Ans 1. MZCNS

2. MBCPS

3. MBDPS

4. MADMS

Q.16 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
247 ÷ 13 + 16 × 3 − 148 = 119
Ans 1. + and ×

2. − and +

3. − and ×

4. ÷ and ×

Q.17 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 18

2. 16

3. 21

4. 20
Q.18 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.19

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 In a certain code language, 'FIVE' is written as '12184410' and FOUR is written as '12304236'. How will 'THREE' be written in
that language?
Ans 1. 4016361110

2. 4016361310

3. 4016361212

4. 4016361010
Q.21 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 In the following series, only one letter-cluster is incorrect. Select the incorrect letter-cluster.

YCG IMQ SVZ CGK MQU

Ans 1. SVZ

2. MQU

3. CGK

4. IMQ

Q.23 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. KJE

2. JHD

3. FDZ

4. AYU

Q.24 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
342 × 18 + 79 − 45 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans 1. 65

2. 75

3. 85

4. 55

Q.25

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Who among the following is the world renowned exponent of the bamboo flute?
Ans 1. MS Subbulakshmi

2. Ravi Shankar

3. Hariprasad Chaurasia

4. Bismillah Khan

Q.2 What is net investment?

Ans 1. Sum of all the investments in a country

2. Gross investment + depreciation

3. Gross capital investment - indirect taxes

4. Gross investment - depreciation

Q.3 India won the ICC Men Cricket World Cup for the first time in which of the following years?
Ans 1. 1996

2. 1992

3. 1987

4. 1983

Q.4

Ans 1. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

2. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

3. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

4. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

Q.5 Kathakali, one of the classical dances of India, is predominantly performed in which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Manipur

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Kerala

Q.6 Identify the oldest iron and steel company of India from the following options.
Ans 1. Tata Iron & Steel Company(TISCO)

2. Visvesvaraiya Iron & Steel Works

3. Indian Iron & Steel Company (IISCO)

4. Mysore Iron & Steel Works

Q.7 The magnificent Kailasa temple at Ellora was built during the reign of which Rashtrakuta king?
Ans 1. Krishna I

2. Indra III

3. Govinda III

4. Amoghavarsha
Q.8 In which state/UT is the Hemis festival celebrated?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Sikkim

3. Lakshadweep

4. Ladakh

Q.9 Which of the following is the largest artificial lake of Asia?

Ans 1. Naini Lake

2. Bhopal Lake

3. Dal Lake

4. Chilika Lake

Q.10 In 2002, Zakir Hussain became the youngest percussionist to be honoured with which award?
Ans 1. Sangeet Natak Akademi Award

2. Grammy Award

3. Padma Bhushan

4. National Heritage Fellowship

Q.11 Microbes like Rhizobium, Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are used for:
Ans 1. nitrogen cycling

2. carbon cycling

3. water cycling

4. sulphur cycling

Q.12 With reference to Sepoy Mutiny of 1857, on which of the following dates did the soldiers at Meerut start their journey to
Delhi?
Ans 1. 10 May

2. 19 April

3. 2 June

4. 29 March

Q.13 Who among the following was selected as the Sherpa for India’s G20 hosted in 2022-23?
Ans 1. Piyush Goyal

2. Ashwini Vaishnav

3. Shaktikanta Das

4. Amitabh Kant

Q.14 Purvanchal Himalayas does NOT comprise of:

Ans 1. Naga hills

2. Pir Panjal range

3. Manipur hills

4. Mizo hills

Q.15 In which year did India make its Olympic debut in hockey?
Ans 1. 1936

2. 1932

3. 1924

4. 1928
Q.16 A student, on his school assignment, is taking a session on how to make compost at home for using it at a park. Which
fundamental duty is he performing?
Ans 1. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

2. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

3. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry

4. To protect and improve the natural environment

Q.17 In August 2022, the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the ________ scheme, with an aim to provide
comprehensive rehabilitation services to people engaged in begging in 75 municipalities.
Ans 1. TWINKLE-75

2. BEAM-75

3. SMILE-75

4. RISE-75

Q.18 Which is the National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, a basic savings and
deposits accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension in an affordable manner?
Ans 1. Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana

2. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana

3. Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana

4. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

Q.19 Which of the following plays was NOT written by Harshavardhana?

Ans 1. Vikramorvasiyam

2. Ratnavali

3. Nagananda

4. Priyadarshika

Q.20 The organisms that do not have a defined nucleus or organelles are classified in to _______ Kingdom.
Ans 1. Fungi

2. Protista

3. Monera

4. Plantae

Q.21 Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that ‘there shall be a Vice President of India’?
Ans 1. Article 61

2. Article 63

3. Article 65

4. Article 62

Q.22 A javelin thrown by an athlete is in ________ motion.

Ans 1. oscillatory

2. periodic

3. rectilinear

4. curvilinear

Q.23 The green revolution technology resulted in an increase in production of cereal production from 72.4 million tons in 1965-66
to ________ million tons in 1978-79.
Ans 1. 150.8

2. 165.9

3. 131.9

4. 141.2
 Q.24 Calculate the oxidation number of ‘S’ in H2S2O7 .
Ans 1. 3

2. 7

3. 6

4. 2

Q.25 Which of the following is NOT an amendment made to the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority (AERA) Amendment Act,
2021?
Ans 1. The government can call any airport a major airport just by notification.

2. The government will club together profit-making and loss-making airports.

3. The government can offer airports as a package in PPP mode to the prospective bidders.

4. A major airport is one which has an annual traffic of minimum 35 lakh passengers.

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1 Which digits should come in place * and $,respectively, if the number 72864*$ is divisible by both 8 and 5?
Ans 1. 4 and 0

2. 2 and 0

3. 2 and 5

4. 4 and 5

Q.2

Ans 1. 75%

2. 90%

3. 65%

4. 80%

Q.3 In a triangle PQR, S is a point on the side QR such that PS⊥ QR, then which of the following options is true?
Ans 1. PS2 + PR2 = PQ2 + QR2

2. PR2 + QS2 = PQ2 + SR2

3. PQ2 + PR2 = QS2 + SR2

4. PS2 + QS2 = PQ2 + PR2

Q.4 Simplify
15.5 − [3 − {7 − (5 − (14.5 − 13.5))}].
Ans 1. 15.5

2. 13.5

3. 12.5

4. 14.5

Q.5 The incomes of P, Q and R are in the ratio 10 : 12 : 9 and their expenditures are in the ratio 12 : 15 : 8. If Q saves 25% of his
income, then what is the ratio of the savings of P, Q and R?
Ans 1. 15 : 14 : 21

2. 14 : 15 : 21

3. 21 : 15 : 14

4. 21 : 14 : 15

Q.6 The classification of 100 students based on the marks obtained by them in English and Mathematics in an examination is
given in the table below. Study the table and answer the question that follows.
MARKS OUT OF 50
SUBJECT 40 and above 30 and above 20 and above 10 and above 0 and above
ENGLISH 10 31 80 92 100
MATHEMATICS 3 23 65 81 100
AGGREGATE 7 27 73 87 100

If at least 40% marks in Mathematics are required for pursuing higher studies in Mathematics, how many students will be
eligible to pursue higher studies in Mathematics?
Ans 1. 55

2. 65

3. 70

4. 50

Q.7 In triangles ABC and DEF, AB = FD and ∠ A = ∠ D. The two triangles are congruent by SAS criterion if:
Ans 1. BC = DE

2. AC = EF

3. BC = EF

4. AC = DE

Q.8 Two pipes, A and B, can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 20 minutes, respectively. The pipe C can empty the tank in 30 minutes.
All the three pipes are opened at a time in the beginning. However, pipe C is closed 2 minutes before the tank is filled. In
what time, will the tank be full (in minutes)?
Ans 1. 12

2. 10

3. 8

4. 6

Q.9 A payment of ₹120 is made with ₹10, ₹5 and ₹2 coins. A total of 25 coins are used. Which of the following is the number of
₹10 coins used in the payment?
Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 10

4. 8
Q.10 If 28.9 : x :: x : 36.1, and x > 0, then find the value of x.
Ans 1. 38.3

2. 32.3

3. 30.4

4. 35

Q.11

Ans 1. 698

2. 1048

3. 1074

4. 1047

Q.12 The height of a cylinder is 20 cm. The lateral surface area is 1760 cm2. Its volume is:
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 Raj divides ₹1,200 in the ratio 2 : 1 : 3 among three of his friends. The amount equal to the sum of three times the largest
share and two times the smallest share is:
Ans 1. ₹2,400

2. ₹1,800

3. ₹2,200

4. ₹2,000
Q.14 A shopkeeper marked an article at ₹5,000. The shopkeeper allows successive discounts of 20%,15% and 10%. The selling
price of the article is:
Ans 1. ₹2,750

2. ₹3,000

3. ₹2,800

4. ₹3,060

Q.15 The average of 12 numbers is 48. The average of the first 5 numbers is 45 and the average of next 4 numbers is 52. If the
10th number is 10 less than the 11th number and is 5 more than the 12th number, then the average of the 11th and 12th
numbers is:
Ans 1. 50.5

2. 46.5

3. 47.5

4. 48.5

Q.16 Find the value of the following expression.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17
The value of is:

Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 0

4. −1

Q.18

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.19 M and N walk along a circular track. They start at 5:00 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. M and N walk at a
speed of 5 rounds per hour and 2 rounds per hour, respectively. How many times will they cross each other before 6.30 a.m.
on the same day?
Ans 1. 10

2. 3

3. 5

4. 7
Q.20

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The given table shows the production of different types of refrigerators in a company.
Types of Refrigerators
Years
A B C
2011 2018 1800 1932
2012 2040 1890 1800
2013 2035 1910 1890
2014 2020 1940 1978
2015 1997 1960 1900
In which of the given year(s) was the production of B type refrigerator closest to its average production over the given
years?
Ans 1. Both 2012 and 2013

2. Both 2013 and 2015

3. 2014

4. Only 2012

Q.23 The measures of the three angles of a triangle are in the ratio 17 : 13 : 15. Find the positive difference between the greatest
and the smallest of these three angles.
Ans 1. 16°

2. 24°

3. 20°

4. 12°

Q.24
Ans 1. 45°

2. 90°

3. 30°

4. 75°
 Q.25 A certain sum of money becomes seven times itself when invested at a certain rate of simple interest, in 14 years. How
much time (in years, rounded off to 2 decimal places) will it take to become 18 times itself at the same rate?
Ans 1. 27.33

2. 39.67

3. 42.78

4. 35.5

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the option that can be used as a one-word-substitute for the given group of words.

A false idea or belief

Ans 1. Reticence

2. Atrophy

3. Fallacy

4. Entropy

Q.2 Identity the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Secure
Ans 1. Succeed

2. Save

3. Attack

4. Trundle

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Gourav was no good than a foolish person.
Ans 1. no better

2. not good

3. no best

4. not best

Q.4 Select the option that corrects the error in the given sentence.
He ran quick to catch the bus.
Ans 1. quiet

2. rapid

3. insipid

4. quickly

Q.5 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Acquiesce
Ans 1. Desist

2. Cease

3. Thwart

4. Concur

Q.6 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

That which cannot be conquered

Ans 1. Invisible

2. Indelible

3. Ineffable

4. Invincible
Q.7 Select the most appropriate synonym for the underlined word in the given sentence.
His ambition in life is to become a happy and satisfied man.
Ans 1. Apathy

2. Satisfaction

3. Eagerness

4. Amend

Q.8 Read the sentence carefully and select the most suitable idiom to fill in the blank.

The renowned publisher decided to withdraw a book from the market. No one was interested in the book as the arguments
presented were ____________.
Ans 1. high and mighty

2. out of the woods

3. beside the mark

4. under the rose

Q.9 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Receive
Ans 1. Admit

2. Exile

3. Reward

4. Fund

Q.10 Select the option that expresses the following sentence in passive voice.
Sonam does not like bananas.
Ans 1. Banana is not liked by Sonam.

2. Bananas have not been liked by Sonam.

3. Bananas are not liked by Sonam.

4. Bananas had not been liked by Sonam.

Q.11 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful
and coherent paragraph.
A. The genuine beliefs, though not unconsciously acquired by most children; and even if they depart from these beliefs in
later life
B. Something of them remains deeply implanted, ready to emerge in a time of stress of crisis
C. The importance of education in forming character and opinion is very great and well recognised by all
D. Education is, as a rule, the strongest force on the side of what exists and again fundamental change
Ans 1. DCAB

2. DABC

3. CBAD

4. CABD

Q.12 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the underlined group of words.

In Indian mythology, most of the Asuras wish to be never able to die.

Ans 1. Invincible

2. Impervious

3. Invisible

4. Immortal

Q.13 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice
Someone has taken my secret diary.
Ans 1. My secret diary had been taken by someone.

2. My secret diary has to be taken by someone.

3. My secret diary has been taken by someone.

4. My secret diary will have been taken by someone.

Q.14 Select the most appropriate synonym of the bracketed word in the following sentence to fill in the blank.

During Covid times, many organisations made ________(sentimental) appeals to raise funds for migrant workers.
Ans 1. mawkish

2. sincere

3. cynical

4. practical

Q.15 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word in the given sentence.
He is an atheist, although he respects everyone’s belief.
Ans 1. One who believes in God

2. One who believes in nature

3. One who is extremist

4. One who does not believe in God

Q.16 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the following sentence.
In my new office, all employees were different, so I felt like a fish out of water.
Ans 1. Uncomfortable

2. Homeless

3. Frustrated

4. Disappointed

Q.17 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Embarrass

2. Occurrence

3. Exhilerate

4. Accommodate

Q.18 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an error.
Mrs. Sreelakshmi’s / musical intelligence / is superior than / Mrs. Suma’s.
Ans 1. Mrs. Suma’s.

2. musical intelligence

3. is superior than

4. Mrs. Sreelakshmi’s

Q.19 Select the option that will improve the underlined part of the given sentence.
If I was the queen, I would give a handsome sum towards education.
Ans 1. will be the queen

2. were the queen

3. have been the queen

4. would be the queen

Q.20 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

Ans 1. Exceed

2. Proceed

3. Succeed

4. Preceed
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity.
The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by
the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment
of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. prone

2. delectable

3. quaint

4. habitual

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity.
The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by
the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment
of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. hardly

2. recently

3. initially

4. gradually

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity.
The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by
the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment
of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. supervision

2. condition

3. dimension

4. infection

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity.
The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by
the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment
of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. through

2. though

3. tough

4. enough
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.

The beginning of the story is (1)______ in its presentation but (2)______ the style eases out and becomes haunting in its simplicity.
The author brings out the human elements in his story. This common element of sympathy and sacrifice is given a new (3)_____ by
the old artist who shows by his last desperate act that one can be a hero for one day if only one cares (4)______. O Henry’s treatment
of his material is balanced and controlled, a fine (5)______ of humour and pathos.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. legend

2. ascend

3. blend

4. amend
 Combined Graduate Level Examination 2024 Tier I
Exam Date 12/09/2024
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 1:30 PM
Subject Combined Graduate Level Examination Tier I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 Three of the following numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 12 – 7 – 209

2. 19 – 11 – 330

3. 23 – 8 – 343

4. 15 – 9 – 264
Q.2 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the figure given below and complete the pattern.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘talk to me’ is coded as ‘aq yt bl’ and ‘do not talk’ is coded as ‘yt me wc’. What is the code for
‘talk’ in that language?
Ans 1. yt

2. wc

3. bl

4. aq

Q.4 ‘NGRP’ is related to ‘JCNL’ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘FKLT’ is related to
‘BGHP’. To which of the following is ‘SQUO’ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. ONQL

2. OMQK

3. PNRL

4. PMRK
Q.5 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.

E_GHEI_GELK_ _OME
Ans 1. IGFE

2. IFGE

3. FIFE

4. FGEI

Q.6 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A − B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
Based on the above, how is P related to R if ‘P × S ÷ M − T + R’?
Ans 1. Brother

2. Son’s son

3. Father’s mother

4. Daughter

Q.7 346 is related to 245 by certain logic. Following the same logic, 580 is related to 479. To which of the following is 613 related,
following the same logic? (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the
numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc., to 13 can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 720

2. 460

3. 512

4. 630

Q.8 How many squares are there in the given figure?

Ans 1. 8

2. 9

3. 10

4. 7

Q.9 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?
HPL, KLQ, NHV, QDA, TZF, ?
Ans 1. WVK

2. XVK

3. WDK

4. XWK
Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(11, 16.5, 22)
(14.5, 20, 25.5)
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. (14, 18.5, 23.5)

2. (21.5, 25, 31.5)

3. (18, 23.5, 29)

4. (24.5, 30, 36.5)

Q.12 Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to the one expressed in the pair of words given below.
(The words must be considered as meaningful English words and must NOT be related to each other based on the number
of letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word)
Duleep Trophy : Cricket
Ans 1. Burdwan Trophy : Polo

2. Agha Khan Cup : Hockey

3. Dhyan Chand Trophy : Badminton

4. Durand Cup : Cricket

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘BOOK’ is written as ‘ZNNI’ and ‘SHOP’ is written as ‘QFNN’. How will ‘NOTES’ be written in that
language?
Ans 1. LRDQN

2. LNRDQ

3. LDNQR

4. QDRNL

Q.14 Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number
result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third
number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

10 – 12 – 8 – 15; 12 – 14 – 10 – 19
Ans 1. 11 – 13 – 9 – 17

2. 8 – 6 – 10 – 18

3. 6 – 8 – 12 – 16

4. 15 – 13 – 9 – 19
Q.15 Six letters U, V, W, X, Y and Z are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure. Find
the letter on the face opposite to V.

Ans 1. X

2. Y

3. Z

4. W

Q.16 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?

16 ÷ 4 + 8 × 8 − 4 = ?
Ans 1. 11

2. 67

3. 42

4. 36

Q.17 Which of the following operations should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?
12 + 12 − 4 × 4 ÷ 2 = 22
Ans 1. + and ÷

2. ÷ and −

3. − and +

4. × and −

Q.18 Six letters J, K, L, M, N and O are written on different faces of a dice. Two positions of this dice are shown in the figure
below. Find the letter on the face opposite to J.

Ans 1. M

2. O

3. L

4. N
Q.19 Which figure should replace the question mark (?) if the following series were to be continued?

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 Which of the following numbers will replace the question marks (?) in the given series?
16, 36, 64, ?, ?, 196, 256, 324
Ans 1. 81, 121

2. 100, 121

3. 100, 144

4. 81, 100

Q.21 Three statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:

All cards are postcards.

Some postcards are books.
All books are novels.

Conclusions:

I. Some postcards are novels.

II. No card is a book.
III. All cards are novels.
Ans 1. Only II and III conclusion follow

2. Only conclusion III follows

3. Only I and II conclusion follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

Q.22 In a certain code language, ‘can we play’ is coded as ‘ae tc nx’ and ‘play in school’ is coded as ‘tc rm ef’. How is ‘play’ coded
in that language?
Ans 1. rm

2. ef

3. ae

4. tc

Q.23 Each vowel in the word ‘STAMINA’ is changed to the preceding letter in the English alphabetical order and each consonant
is changed to the following letter in the English alphabetical order. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical
order between the letter which is the third from the right and the fourth from the left in the group of letters thus formed?
Ans 1. Five

2. Seven

3. Four

4. Six

Q.24 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which is the letter-cluster that DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MPT

2. ACG

3. DGK

4. HKO
 Q.25 Identify the figure from the given options, which when put in place of the question mark (?), will logically complete the
series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which of the following is an example of public sector industry in India?

Ans 1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

2. Bajaj Auto

3. Dabur

4. Tata Iron Steel Company

Q.2 In which of the following years was Pro Kabaddi League established in India?
Ans 1. 2015

2. 2016

3. 2013

4. 2014

Q.3 The Vedangas are Hindu auxiliary disciplines that originated in ancient times and are linked to the study of the Vedas. These
are _________ in number.
Ans 1. five

2. seven

3. four

4. six
Q.4 What was the actual growth rate of the first five-year plan?
Ans 1. 4.2%

2. 2.6%

3. 3.6%

4. 2.1%

Q.5 What are the five Fs of indirect transmission?

Ans 1. Flies, fingers, fomites, food and fluid

2. Fruit, fingers, flu, food and fluid

3. Flies, fingers, friends, food and fruit

4. Flies, fingers, fomites, food and fruit

Q.6

Ans 1. i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

2. i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d

3. i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d

4. i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

Q.7 The Election Laws Amendment Bill passed in the Parliament recently seeks to implement certain electoral reforms. One of
them is the eligibility date. Till now, only one date – 1 January was considered for deciding eligibility with respect to age.
What reform does the Bill seek in this regard?
Ans 1. Introducing two dates – 1 January and 1 June

2. Eliminating the idea of eligibility date – enrolment throughout the year

3. Introducing four dates – 1 January, 1 April, 1 July, 1 October

4. Introducing three dates – 1 January, 1 May, 1 September

Q.8 In July 2020, which state initiated the 'Ashirwad Scheme' to extend financial support for a daughter's marriage who belongs
to a family earning a lower income?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Bihar

3. Punjab

4. Rajasthan

Q.9 In the state legislative assembly, the Money bill can be introduced with the prior permission of __________.
Ans 1. Governor

2. Auditor General

3. Finance Minister

4. CAG

Q.10 According to Census of India 2011, what is the gap between male and female literacy rate in India?
Ans 1. 21.59%

2. 18.30%

3. 24.84%

4. 16.68%
Q.11 In which year was the Digital India mission launched?
Ans 1. 2014

2. 2016

3. 2015

4. 2017

Q.12 Who among the following players is related to table tennis?

Ans 1. Manish Narwal

2. Manika Batra

3. K Srikanth

4. Pankaj Advani

Q.13 Which of the following gases emits red light when electricity is passed through it?
Ans 1. Neon

2. Hydrogen

3. Argon

4. Helium

Q.14 Chand Bardai’s famous literary work ________, mentions Prithviraj Chauhan‘s love story and heroic deeds.
Ans 1. Harakeli Nataka

2. Abhidhana Chintamani

3. Prithviraj Raso

4. Rajamartanda

Q.15 Who among the following freedom fighters is known as ‘Deshbandhu’?

Ans 1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

2. Bhagat Singh

3. Subhas Chandra Bose

4. Chittaranjan Das

Q.16 Buddhadev Dasgupta is famous for playing which of the following musical instruments?
Ans 1. Sarod

2. Sarangi

3. Bansuri

4. Mridangam

Q.17 Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty of the Indian citizens?
Ans 1. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

2. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

3. To cherish and follow the noble ideas that inspired our national struggle for freedom.

4. Mandatory national service of 5 years.

Q.18 What is the product formed when zinc and sulphuric acid react?
Ans 1. Zinc sulphate

2. Zinc hydroxide

3. Zinc sulphide

4. Zinc oxide
 Q.19 Hindustani singer Pandit Venkatesh Kumar was honoured with 'Kalidas Samman-2022' by which state government?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Maharashtra

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Gujarat

Q.20 In which form of exchange are goods used as medium of exchange?

Ans 1. Online exchange

2. Credit exchange

3. Currency exchange

4. Barter exchange

Q.21 Gangaur Festival, Pushkar Fair, Nagaur Fair and Urs Fair are the popular fairs and festivals of which state?
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Tripura

3. Punjab

4. Maharashtra

Q.22 ______ leaves are used to make bidis.

Ans 1. Neem

2. Champa

3. Betel

4. Tendu

Q.23 Which of the following hills is located in the Eastern Ghats?

Ans 1. Naga hills

2. Khasi hills

3. Shevaroy hills

4. Anamudi hills

Q.24 Who established Shantiniketan and when?

Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi, 1910

2. Ravindranath Tagore, 1901

3. Ravindranath Tagore, 1905

4. Devendranath Tagore, 1915

Q.25 Which of the following institutes was founded by Mrinalini Sarabhai who was a Bharatanatyam and Kathakali dancer?
Ans 1. Sri Thyagaraja College of Music and Dance

2. Nrityanjali Institute of Performing Arts

3. Darpana Academy of Performing Arts

4. Nalanda Nritya Kala Mahavidyalaya

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Q.1

Ans 1. 20% p.a.

2. 18% p.a.

3. 17% p.a.

4. 19% p.a.

Q.2 Every month, a man consumes 20 kg of rice and 8 kg of wheat. The price of rice is 20% of the price of wheat, resulting in a
total expenditure of ₹300 per month for rice and wheat combined. If the price of wheat is increased by 20%, what percentage
reduction in rice consumption is needed to maintain the same expenditure of ₹300? (Given that price of rice and
consumption of wheat is constant.)
Ans 1. 40%

2. 38%

3. 24%

4. 22%

Q.3 A thief pursued by a policeman was 150 m ahead at the start. If the ratio of the speed of the policeman to that of the thief
was 5 : 4, then how far (distance in metres) could the thief go before he is caught by the policeman?
Ans 1. 350

2. 200

3. 600

4. 400

Q.4

Ans 1. 9 : 5

2. 12 : 5

3. 1 : 2

4. 5 : 12

Q.5

Ans 1. 0

2. 81

3. 27.1

4. 63
Q.6 Find the area of a sector with an arc length of 44 cm, which subtends a central angle of 30°.
Ans 1. 1488 cm2

2. 1584 cm2

3. 1848 cm2

4. 1884 cm2

Q.7 The following pie chart shows the study time of different subjects of a student in a day. Study the pie chart and answer the
question.

If the student studied English for 3 hours, then he studied Mathematics for:
Ans 1. 2 hours

2. 1 hour

3. 7 hours

4. 5 hours

Q.8 Two cylinders have the radii of their bases in the ratio 4 : 5 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 7. Find the ratio of their
curved surface areas.
Ans 1. 5 : 4

2. 4 : 7

3. 1 : 2

4. 4 : 5

Q.9 Solve the following:

Ans 1. 2cosec2θ

2. 2sin2θ

3. 2sec2θ

4. 2tan2θ
Q.10 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 48 minutes and 66 minutes, respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously,
then after how many minutes should pipe B be closed so that the tank gets filled in 32 minutes?
Ans 1. 18

2. 16

3. 22

4. 20

Q.11

Ans 1. 7

2. 5

3. 8

4. 6

Q.12

Ans 1. 3,10,000

2. 4,50,000

3. 5,00,000

4. 4,10,000
Q.13 The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of 20,000 employees in a company.

Study
the given
chart and
answer
the
question
that
follows.
If 30% of the employees in department D are females, then how many male employees are there in that
department?
Ans 1. 4200

2. 4500

3. 5000

4. 4000

Q.14 In triangle ABC, the length of side BC is 2 cm less than twice the length of side AB. The length of side AC exceeds the length
of side AB by 10 cm. The perimeter of the triangle is 40 cm. Determine the length (in cm) of the smallest side of the triangle.
Ans 1. 12

2. 14

3. 10

4. 8

Q.15
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.16 The average of the squares of the first 46 natural numbers is

Ans 1. 729.5

2. 728.5

3. 727.5

4. 730.5
Q.
17

A 1. 20%
ns
2. 35%

3. 25%

4. 5%

Q.18 For the following equations, what are the values of a and b to have infinitely many solutions?
ax + by = 2
3x - (5 - 2a)y = 6
Ans 1. a = - 1,b = - 1

2. a = - 1,b = 1

3. a = 1,b = - 1

4. a = 1,b = 1

Q.19 Which of following numbers is NOT divisible by 11?

Ans 1. 109153

2. 5445

3. 128041

4. 80124

Q.20

Ans 1. 0

2. 40

3. 576

4. 320

Q.21 In ΔDEF, the bisector of ∠ D intersects side EF at point N. If DE = 36 cm, DF = 40 cm and EF = 38 cm, then the length (in cm)
of NF is ________.
Ans 1. 16

2. 20

3. 18

4. 12

Q.22 The ratio between male and female members in a club is 2 : 3. If the number of male members is increased by 200, the ratio
becomes 5 : 6. How many female members are there in the club?
Ans 1. 1200

2. 900

3. 1400

4. 1000

Q.23 The MP of an article was Rs.180 and it was sold at a discount of 15%, the discount in Rs. is:
Ans 1. 12

2. 15

3. 27

4. 18
 Q.24 In a garden, there are 6 daisy plants the first year. Each year, a gardener adds 3 new daisy plants. He has 26 jasmine plants
the first year and loses 2 each year. When will the number of daisy plants equal to the number of jasmine plants after the
first year?
Ans 1. 5 years

2. 4 years

3. 2 years

4. 6 years

Q.25 From a point T, the length of the tangent to a circle is 32 cm and the distance of T from the centre is 40 cm. The diameter (in
cm) of the circle is:
Ans 1. 36

2. 16

3. 32

4. 48

Section : English Comprehension

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

Many people love to visit enchanting hills.
Ans 1. alluring

2. cool

3. risky

4. echoing

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word in brackets to fill in the blank.
She has _______ (witty) remarks about everything.
Ans 1. sorry

2. whimsical

3. unamusing

4. woeful

Q.3 Select the sentence that does NOT have a spelling error.
Ans 1. The paintings are structured chronologically, starting from cubism to surealism.

2. The artist received recognition for her impressive etchings, buclic landscapes, and recreation of natural scenes around her.

3. The insouciance of the rock star considering the importance of the occasion, came as a shock to the audience who expected
stressful moments.
4. The focus of the exibition is to reinforce versatility and creative thinking.

Q.4 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Repulse
Ans 1. Repel

2. Substitute

3. Recover

4. Reprove

Q.5 The given sentence is divided into four segments. Select the option that has the segment with a grammatical error.
The employees were comfortable / with me and they talked about / their problems since / I has worked there as a manager.
Ans 1. I has worked there as a manager.

2. with me and they talked about

3. their problems since

4. The employees were comfortable

Q.6 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Select the option that arranges the parts in the correct sequence to
form a meaningful sentence.
(P) the sun
(Q) to our planet, Earth
(O) provides essential energy
(R) sustaining life and warmth
Ans 1. POQR

2. QROP

3. ROQP

4. ORPQ

Q.7

Ans 1. a, c, g, b, h, i, f, e, d, j

2. a, b, d, c, e, f, h, g, i, j

3. a, b, d, c, g, e, f, h, i, j

4. a, g, b, c, i, d, e, f, h, j

Q.8 Select the most appropriate synonym of the word in brackets to fill in the blank.
Listening to the same lecture everyday appeared very ___________ to him. (boring)
Ans 1. monotonous

2. furious

3. nervous

4. monolithic

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
My sisters wished me good luck before I went on the stage to sing.
Ans 1. Told me to sit on the fence

2. Told me to break a leg

3. Told me to break the ice

4. Told me to break an arm

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.
Five years later, I was eating this same dish at the same restaurant.
Ans 1. will have be eating

2. has been eating

3. am eating

4. had been eating

Q.11 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

O. went
P. yesterday
Q. we
R. to the
S. park
Ans 1. RQOSP

2. OPQRS

3. PSROQ

4. QORSP
Q.12 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence.

One must be confident of winning and gaining one’s goals and must face situations, disasters, trials and setbecks of life
with confidence.
Ans 1. Trials

2. Disasters

3. Confident

4. Setbecks

Q.13 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Paralysed
Ans 1. Demure

2. Stifled

3. Sultry

4. Healthy

Q.14 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.

The list of subjects to be discussed at a meeting

Ans 1. Minutes

2. Objectives

3. Agenda

4. Menu

Q.15 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in active voice.
The drug pedlar was arrested by the narcotics team.
Ans 1. The narcotics team was arrested the drug pedlar.

2. The narcotics team arrest the drug pedlar.

3. The narcotics team arrested the drug pedlar.

4. The narcotics team has arrested the drug pedlar.

Q.16 The following sentence has been divided into four segments. Identify the segment that contains an adverbial usage error.
Mr. Arun / will pay dear / for his / financial mistake.
Ans 1. will pay dear

2. Mr. Arun

3. for his

4. financial mistake

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

We have postponed this movie outing too many times, so we are going tomorrow, come _____ or shine.
Ans 1. rain

2. mountain

3. hail

4. thunder
Q.18 Parts of a sentence are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.

A. needs to be
B. the shelf in
C. a piece of wood
D. the kitchen
E. need to buy
F. replaced, so I will
Ans 1. BEFCAD

2. ACDBFE

3. DEBACF

4. BDAFEC

Q.19 Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.

Scientists were conducting experiments on the newly discovered species.

Ans 1. Experiments on the newly discovered species had been conducted by the scientists.

2. The newly discovered species has been conducting experiments by scientists.

3. The newly discovered species has been experimented on by scientists.

4. Experiments were being conducted on the newly discovered species by scientists.

Q.20 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

He had ________ the ________ into smaller clips.

Ans 1. clipping, clips

2. clipping, clipped

3. clips, clipping

4. clipped, clipping

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
People often say that the stars govern their fate but they forget the fact that success or failure is the result of one’s own (1)________.
If we sow chaff, we can’t reap grain; and the result or consequence of an action depends on what one does and to the extent he
(2)________ it. If we work hard, we succeed only to the extent that we work. People who think that the law of karma is (3)________
may feel that if one is destined to get something he will always get it whether he strives for it or not. But experience tells us that reward
and punishments are the direct result of our action. Honesty and hard work never go unrewarded and (4)________ and evil deeds
never go (5)________. In fact even the law of karma, in its proper sense, means that the fruit we get is decided by whatever actions
we did in the past.

SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
Ans 1. power

2. incidents

3. case

4. actions
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
People often say that the stars govern their fate but they forget the fact that success or failure is the result of one’s own (1)________.
If we sow chaff, we can’t reap grain; and the result or consequence of an action depends on what one does and to the extent he
(2)________ it. If we work hard, we succeed only to the extent that we work. People who think that the law of karma is (3)________
may feel that if one is destined to get something he will always get it whether he strives for it or not. But experience tells us that reward
and punishments are the direct result of our action. Honesty and hard work never go unrewarded and (4)________ and evil deeds
never go (5)________. In fact even the law of karma, in its proper sense, means that the fruit we get is decided by whatever actions
we did in the past.

SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
Ans 1. does

2. have

3. create

4. put

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
People often say that the stars govern their fate but they forget the fact that success or failure is the result of one’s own (1)________.
If we sow chaff, we can’t reap grain; and the result or consequence of an action depends on what one does and to the extent he
(2)________ it. If we work hard, we succeed only to the extent that we work. People who think that the law of karma is (3)________
may feel that if one is destined to get something he will always get it whether he strives for it or not. But experience tells us that reward
and punishments are the direct result of our action. Honesty and hard work never go unrewarded and (4)________ and evil deeds
never go (5)________. In fact even the law of karma, in its proper sense, means that the fruit we get is decided by whatever actions
we did in the past.

SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
Ans 1. supreme

2. greatest

3. more

4. most

Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
People often say that the stars govern their fate but they forget the fact that success or failure is the result of one’s own (1)________.
If we sow chaff, we can’t reap grain; and the result or consequence of an action depends on what one does and to the extent he
(2)________ it. If we work hard, we succeed only to the extent that we work. People who think that the law of karma is (3)________
may feel that if one is destined to get something he will always get it whether he strives for it or not. But experience tells us that reward
and punishments are the direct result of our action. Honesty and hard work never go unrewarded and (4)________ and evil deeds
never go (5)________. In fact even the law of karma, in its proper sense, means that the fruit we get is decided by whatever actions
we did in the past.

SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.
Ans 1. horribly

2. badly

3. dishonesty

4. fairness
 Comprehension:
In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read the passage carefully and select the most appropriate option to fill in
each blank.
People often say that the stars govern their fate but they forget the fact that success or failure is the result of one’s own (1)________.
If we sow chaff, we can’t reap grain; and the result or consequence of an action depends on what one does and to the extent he
(2)________ it. If we work hard, we succeed only to the extent that we work. People who think that the law of karma is (3)________
may feel that if one is destined to get something he will always get it whether he strives for it or not. But experience tells us that reward
and punishments are the direct result of our action. Honesty and hard work never go unrewarded and (4)________ and evil deeds
never go (5)________. In fact even the law of karma, in its proper sense, means that the fruit we get is decided by whatever actions
we did in the past.

SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
Ans 1. unpunished

2. vile

3. punished

4. waste