Molecular Basis of Inheritance

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(The DNA, The Search for Genetic Material, RNA World)
1. Haploid content of human DNA contains
(1) 4.6 × 106 bp (2) 3.3 × 108 bp (3) 6.6 × 109 bp (4) 3.3 × 109 bp

2. Which of the following nitrogenous bases are common for both RNA and DNA?
(1) C, G, A (2) G, A, U (3) T, A, C (4) U, A, C

3. Adjacent nucleotides in a polynucleotide chain are joined by

(1) N-glycosidic bond (2) Phosphodiester bond (3) O-glycosidic bond (4) Hydrogen bond

4. Sugars are attached to the pyrimidines by the formation of

(1) Hydrogen bond (2) N-glycosidic bond (3) Phosphoester bond (4) O-glycosidic bond

5. Cytidine is a
(1) Nucleoside (2) Nitrogen base
(3) Nucleotide (4) Common dinucleotide in DNA and RNA
6. Which of the following process is related to reverse transcription?
(1) DNA dependent DNA synthesis (2) RNA dependent DNA synthesis
(3) DNA dependent RNA synthesis (4) RNA dependent polypeptide synthesis

7. Which of the following structures are present in core particle of nucleosome?

(1) Octamer of histone proteins (2) 200 bp of DNA
(3) Non-histone proteins (4) Linker DNA

8. Packaging of DNA helix

(1) Involves polyamines in eukaryotes
(2) Occurs with the help of NHC proteins only
(3) Requires acidic proteins that help in coiling of DNA in prokaryotes
(4) Is more complex in eukaryotes than prokaryotes

9. Length of DNA in E. coli is

(1) 2.2 m (2) 1.36 mm (3) 1.36 m (4) 3.4 m

10. Which of the following radioactive isotopes were utilised for labelling protein and DNA in transduction experiment
respectively?
(1) 32P, 35P (2) 35S, 35P (3) 35S, 32P (4) 32S, 35P

11. Dominance of RNA world is proved by

(1) Capping (2) Splicing (3) Polyadenylation (4) All of these

12. Which plant was used by Taylor to prove semiconservative replication at chromosomal level?

(1) Haematoxylon (2) Vicia faba (3) Trillium (4) Ophioglossum

13. Unwinding of DNA creates tension which is released by enzyme
(1) Helicase (2) Topoisomerase (3) Primase (4) Ligase

14. During polymerisation of deoxyribonucleosides triphosphates in bacteria which of the following enzyme is mainly
required?
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase (4) DNA gyrase

15. DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation of / in

(1) Ribonucleotides (2) 5  3 direction
(3) 3  5 direction (4) Deoxyribonucleosides

16. During DNA replication which of the following does not act as substrates?
(1) dATP (2) dCTP (3) dUTP (4) dGTP

17. Out of the two strands of DNA one is carrying genetic information for transcription and it is called
(1) Coding strand (2) Non template strand (3) Sense strand (4) Template strand

18. When a mature mRNA was hybridised to its gene certain loops were observed. These loops represent
(1) Introns in DNA (2) Introns in rRNA (3) Exons in tRNA (4) Exons in DNA

19. Poly A tail is present in

(1) mRNA of bacteria (2) tRNA of eukaryotes (3) Promotor of bacteria (4) mRNA of eukaryotes

20. Find out the incorrect match.

(1) UUU – Phenylalanine (2) UAG – Sense codon
(3) GUG – Valine (4) UGG – Tryptophan
21. One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence the code is
(1) Ambiguous and non-specific (2) Unambiguous and specific
(3) Ambiguous and specific (4) Unambiguous and non-specific

22. What is incorrect for UTR?

(1) Present in between the translational unit in mRNA (2) Not recognised by any tRNA
(3) Required for efficient translation process (4) Provide stability to mRNA

23. In bacteria, catalytic RNA is found in

(1) 60S subunit of ribosome (2) 50S subunit of ribosome
(3) 30S subunit of ribosome (4) 40S subunit of ribosome

24. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III catalyses the synthesis of

(1) 5 S rRNA, tRNA & SnRNA (2) mRNA, HnRNA & SnRNA
(3) 28 S rRNA, 18 S rRNA & 5 S rRNA (4) All types of rRNA & tRNA

25. In lac operon, the regulator gene codes for

(1) Aporepressor (2) Corepressor (3) Inactive repressor (4) Active repressor

26. Mark the incorrect option w.r.t. lac operon

(1) Is under positive as well as negative control (2) Controls catabolic pathway
(3) Shows feed back repression (4) Discovered by Jacob and Monod

27. In lac operon, the lac mRNA

(1) Has several initiation and termination codons (2) Forms four different enzymes
(3) Is not transcribed in the presence of lactose (4) Is involved in an anabolic reaction

28. How many locations have been identified in human genome where single base differences occur?
(1) 1.4 million (2) 14 million (3) 1.4 billion (4) 14 billion
29. What is incorrect for human chromosome 1?
(1) It is one of the largest chromosome (2) Its sequence was completed in May 2007
(3) It has maximum number of genes (4) It was the last chromosome to be sequenced

30. The non-human model organisms sequenced in Human Genome project were
(1) A nematode and fruit fly (2) Wheat and rice
(3) Fish and birds (4) Garden pea and fruit fly

31. Mark the correct one (w.r.t. application of DNA fingerprinting)

(1) Forensic science (2) Determining the population diversity
(3) Determining the genetic diversity (4) More than one option is correct

32. In the technique of DNA fingerprinting digestion of DNA is followed by

(1) Electrophoresis (2) Hybridisation (3) Denaturation (4) Southern blotting

33. Read the following statements:

A. Variation at genetic level arises due to mutations.
B. Technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys
(1) Only (B) is correct (2) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(3) Only (A) is correct (4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect

34. In DNA fingerprinting, detection of hybridised DNA fragments is possible by

(1) Electrophoresis (2) Blotting (3) Autoradiography (4) Centrifugation

35. Mark the correct match.

(1) Catalytic RNA – 16 S rRNA and 23 S
in bacteria rRNA- as ribozyme.
(2) Val operon – Found in eukaryotes
(3) Sanger method – Determination of amino acid sequences in proteins only
(4) VNTR – Intron
 SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(The DNA, The Search for Genetic Material, RNA World)

1. If the sequence of one strand of DNA is 5 A T G C A T C G 3, find the sequence of complementary strand
in 5 3 direction
(1) T A C G T A G C (2) C G A T G C A T (3) A T G C A T C G (4) A T C G T A C G

2. NHC structural proteins are

(1) Basic proteins rich in lysine, arginine
(2) Regulatory proteins
(3) Catalytic proteins rich in tryptophan and arginine
(4) Required for packaging of chromatin at higher levels

3. Which of the following bond is not present in DNA?

(1) – 1– 9–N–glycosidic bond (2) 3– 5 phosphodiester bond
(3) – 1–1–N–glycosidic bond (4) – 1– 2–N–glycosidic bond

(Replication, Transcription, Genetic Code, Translation)

4. How many types of DNA polymerases are present in bacteria?
(1) Five (2) Three (3) Two (4) One

5. Synthesis of leading and lagging strand require

(1) Single primer (2) Single and many primers respectively
(3) Many and single primers respectively (4) Many primers
6. For the strand separation and stabilisation during DNA replication which of the following set of enzymes and
proteins are required?
(1) SSBP, gyrase, primase (2) Topoisomerase, helicase, ligase
(3) Gyrase, ligase, primase (4) Topoisomerase, helicase, SSBP

7. In eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase that synthesises tRNA is RNA polymerase ______ and is also responsible
for formation of ______ rRNA.
(1) II, 5.8 S (2) I, 5 S (3) III, 5 S (4) II, 18 S

8. What is correct for bacterial transcription?

(1) mRNA requires processing to become active
(2) Translation can begin when mRNA is fully transcribed
(3) Transcription and translation takes place in the same compartment
(4) Rho factor initiates the process

9. Which of the following is not required during post transcriptional processing in eukaryotes?
(1) Methyl guanosine triphosphate (2) Ligase
(3) ScRNA (4) SnRNA

10. Which of the following feature is correct for bacteria?

(1) Presence of intervening sequences in DNA
(2) DNA does not show coiling
(3) Linear ss-DNA representing single chromosome
(4) DNA can be chromosomal as well as extrachromosomal

11. In-vitro template independent RNA synthesis is a feature of

(1) RNA polymerase (2) Reverse transcriptase
(3) Ochoa enzyme (4) DNA polymerase

12. In protein synthesis, which of the following are required for the synthesis of charged tRNA?
(1) Amino acid, GTP, initiation codon, ribosome
(2) Amino acid, ATP, Mg++, enzyme, tRNA
(3) Amino acid, ATP, K+, enzyme, mRNA
(4) Aminoacyl tRNA, ribosome, initiation codon, release factor
13. Termination of polypeptide synthesis in bacteria differs from eukaryotes in
(1) Having different termination codons (2) Being GTP dependent
(3) Involving more than one type of release factors (4) All of these

14. The accessibility of promoter regions of bacterial DNA in many cases regulated by the interaction of proteins
with sequences termed
(1) Regulators (2) Structural genes (3) Inhibitor genes (4) Operators

15. Select the correct one (w.r.t. Wobble hypothesis)

(1) Third base of a codon lacks vibrating capacity
(2) Third base can establish H-bonds even with the non complementary anticodon
(3) Specificity of a anticodon is particularly determined by first two codon
(4) Major cause of degeneracy is the first two N-bases of codon

16. If there are 81 million bases in RNA of human cell, then calculate the total number of introns present in cDNA
(1) 27 millions (2) Zero
(3) Equal to ribonucleotides (4) Half the number of ribonucleotides

17. Splicing is necessary for preparing a mature transcript and its movement to cytoplasm. It requires
(1) scRNA and proteins (2) snRNA and proteins (3) scRNA and snRNA (4) scRNA only

18. Majority of unusual bases are found in tRNA, TC loop is

(1) First loop from 5-end of tRNA (2) AA - tRNA synthetase binding loop
(3) Ribosomal binding loop (4) Nodoc site

19. How many amino acids will be coded by the mRNA sequence – 5CCCUCAUAGUCAUAC3 if a adenosine
residue is inserted after 12th nucleotide?
(1) Five amino acids (2) Six amino acids (3) Two amino acids (4) Three amino acids

20. Identification and binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter sequence is a function of
(1) Rho factor (2) Sigma factor (3) Beta factor (4) Omega factor
21. The DNA strand showing replication using Okazaki fragments also shows
(1) Continuous growth in 5  3 direction
(2) Discontinuous growth on 5  3 parental strand
(3) Discontinuous growth on 3  5 parental strand
(4) Involvement of one primer only

22. Prokaryotic transcription mechanism requires involvement of only one polymerase type and
(a) It occurs in cytoplasm only
(b) It is often coupled with translation
(c) It does not require splicing but capping is essential
(1) All are correct (2) Both (b) & (c) are incorrect
(3) Both (a) & (c) are correct (4) Only (c) is incorrect

23. Pribnow box is a consensus of ________ bases, forming a binding site for E. coli RNA polymerase at promotor.
(1) TATAAT (2) AGGAGG
(3) CAAT (4) GC

24. In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3′ end

(1) With the help of gyanyl transferase (2) In a template independent manner
(3) With the help of methyl transferase (4) Of hn-RNA of E.coli

25. For every single amino acid incorporated in peptide chain _____ ATP and _____ GTP molecules are used.
(1) 1, 4 (2) 1, 6
(3) 1, 2 (4) 1, 3

26. In t-RNA
(1) CCA – OH is present at 5-end (2) TC loop for attaching the amino acid
(3) DHU loop for binding with AA - activating enzyme (4) There are three recognition sites

27. When the genomes of two people are cut using the same restriction enzyme, the length and number of fragments
obtained are different, this is called
(1) PCR (2) RFLP
(3) EST (4) Northern blotting
28. Which of the following does not code for any proteins?
(1) Micro-satellites (2) Exons
(3) Mini-satellites (4) More than one option is correct.

29. Which statement is correct for homeotic genes?

(1) Control is exerted through homeodomain proteins
(2) Mutation in these genes not results in conversion of one body part into another
(3) Such genes have been studied extensively in humans
(4) Control oncogenesis process

30. In which step of DNA profiling, nitrocellulose membrane is used?

(1) Denaturation (2) Autoradiography (3) Blotting (4) DNA amplification

31. Repressor of lac-operon

(1) Is a tetrameric protein (2) Having a molecular weight of 16,000
(3) Has only one side (4) Is made by operator gene

32. A set of genes or cDNA is immobilized on a glass slide and used in transcriptome studies is called
(1) Proteome (2) Microarray (3) DNA chip (4) Genome

33. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA with repeated bases many times in a genome, but
(a) These sequences are of no transcriptional function
(b) These are associated with euchromatin region
(c) These helps to identify a person on the basis of its DNA specificity
(1) All are correct (2) Only (b) is incorrect
(3) Both (a) & (b) are correct (4) Both (b) & (c) are incorrect

34. The microsatellites have simple sequences of repeated

(1) 11-60 bp (2) 1-6 bp (3) 10 bp (4) 50 bp

35. In tryptophan operon

(1) Non-proteinaceous aporepressor is synthesised by R-gene
(2) Normally chorismic acid is not converted into tryptophan
(3) Repression is mostly connected with a catabolic pathway
(4) Enzymes produced by structural genes normally present in the cell
 SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. All of the following are part of an operon except [NEET-2018]
(1) an operator (2) structural genes (3) a promoter (4) an enhancer

2. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence
of the transcribed mRNA? [NEET-2018]
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT (3) UCCAUAGCGUA (4) ACCUAUGCGAU

3. Select the correct match

(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(3) G. Mendel - Transformation
(4) T.H. Morgan - Transduction

4. Select the correct match

(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus pneumoniae
(2) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase - TMV
(3) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod - Lac operon
(4) Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl - Pisum sativum

5. The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a [NEET-2018]
(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium (3) Virus (4) Plant

6. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901
is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?[NEET-2017]
(1) 1 (2) 11 (3) 33 (4) 333
7. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of [NEET-2017]
(1) Griffith (2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty (4) Hargobind Khorana

8. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates [NEET-2017]

(1) Transcription is occurring (2) DNA replication is occurring
(3) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre (4) The DNA double helix is exposed

9. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of [NEET-2017]

(1) Plants (2) Fungi (3) Animals (4) Bacteria

10. DNA replication in bacteria occurs [NEET-2017]

(1) During S-phase (2) Within nucleolus
(3) Prior to fission (4) Just before transcription

11. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell? [NEET-2017]
(1) r-RNA (2) t-RNA (3) m-RNA (4) mi-RNA

12. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to enlongate [NEET-2017]
(1) The leading strand towards replication fork (2) The lagging strand towards replication fork
(3) The leading strand away from replication fork (4) The lagging strand away from the replication fork

13. Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Vinca rosea (2) Vicia faba
(3) Drosophila melanogaster (4) E. coli
14. The equivalent of a structural gene is [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Muton (2) Cistron (3) Operon (4) Recon

15. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) 5 S rRNA (2) 18 S rRNA (3) 23 S rRNA (4) 5.8 S rRNA

16. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Template strand (2) Coding strand (3) Alpha strand (4) Antistrand

17. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon? [NEET-2016]
(1) Lactose and Galactose (2) Glucose
(3) Galactose (4) Lactose

18. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
[NEET-2016]
(1) DNA-DNA hybridization (2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) Zinc finger analysis (4) Restriction enzymes

19. Which one of the following is the starter codon? [NEET-2016]

(1) UAG (2) AUG (3) UGA (4) UAA

20. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(3) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
21. Satellite DNA is important because it [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Code for enzymes needed for DNA replication

(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle

(3) Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an
individual, which is heritable from parents to children

(4) Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population

22. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Feedback inhibition because excess of -galactosidase can switch off transcription

(2) Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose

(3) Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription

(4) Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription

23. Which one of the followings is wrongly matched? [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Transcription- Writing information from DNA to t-RNA

(2) Translation-Using information in m-RNA to make protein

(3) Repressor protein-Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis

(4) Operon-Structural genes, operator and promoter

24. Select the correct option
[AIPMT-2014]
Direction of Direction of reading of the
RNA synthesis template DNA strand
(1) 5 – 3 3 – 5
(2) 3 – 5 5 – 3
(3) 5 – 3 5 – 3
(4) 3 – 5 3 – 5

25. Transformation was discovered by [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Meselson and Stahl (2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Griffith (4) Watson and Crick

26. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.

A
DNA mRNA B Protein Proposed by [NEET-2013]
C

(1) A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erevin Chargaff

(2) A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick
(3) A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin
(4) A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson

27. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
[NEET-2013]
(1) Lactose permease (2) Transacetylase
(3) Lactose permease and transacetylase (4)  -galactosidase

28. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) mRNA (2) rRNA (3) tRNA (4) hnRNA

29. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Slicing (2) Splicing (3) Looping (4) Inducing
30. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) A promoter (2) The structural gene (3) The inducer (4) A terminator

31. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA
strand sequence? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) AACTG (2) ATCGU (3) TTAGU (4) UAGAC

32. Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil
(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation
(C) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes
(D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease
How many of the above statements are right? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) One

33. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) DNA sequencing (2) Genetic fingerprinting
(3) Study of enzymes (4) Genetic transformation

34. What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
(2) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(3) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
(4) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints

35. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 23 S rRNA (2) 5 S rRNA
(3) sn RNA (4) hn RNA

36. What are those structures that appear as 'beads – on – string' in the chromosomes when viewed under electron
microscope? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Base pairs (2) Genes (3) Nucleotides (4) Nucleosomes
37. In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Bioinformatics (2) Biosystematics (3) Biotechnology (4) Biomonitoring

38. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Viroid (2) Bacterial virus (3) Bacterium (4) Fungus

39. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) HIV (2) Pea (3) Mucor (4) Chlamydomonas

40. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a–d) given below about lac operon.
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it.
(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operator region.
(c) The z-gene codes for permease.
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod.
The correct statements are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (b) and (d)

41. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Specific (2) Degenerate (3) Ambiguous (4) Universal

42. In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place inside the [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Ribosomes (2) Nucleus (3) Dictyosomes (4) ER

43. The lac operon consists of [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) Four regulatory genes only (2) One regulatory gene and three structural genes
(3) Two regulatory genes and two structural genes (4) Three regulatory genes and three structural genes

44. The 3 — 5 phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) One DNA strand with the other DNA strand (2) One nucleoside with another nucleoside
(3) One nucleotide with another nucleotide (4) One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
45. Satellite DNA is useful tool in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Genetic engineering (2) Organ transplantation
(3) Sex determination (4) Forensic science

46. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Tailing (2) Transformation (3) Capping (4) Splicing

47. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Escherichia coli (2) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Drosophila melanogaster

48. What is not true for genetic code? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) It is nearly universal
(2) It is degenerate
(3) It is unambiguous
(4) A codon in mRNA is read in a noncontiguous fashion

49. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a "triplet"?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Hershey and Chase (2) Morgan and Sturtevant
(3) Beadle and Tatum (4) Nirenberg and Mathaei

50. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category
mentioned against it? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Adenine, Thymine - Purines (2) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines
(3) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines (4) Guanine, Adenine - Purines

51. In the DNA molecules [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 53' direction and other in 35
(2) The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(3) There are two strands which run parallel in the 53' direction
(4) The proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism

52. Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the
particular amino acid? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) UUA, UCA - Leucine (2) GUU, GCU - Alanine
(3) UAG, UGA - Stop (4) AUG, ACG - Start / Methionine
53. One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Diploccus pneumoniae (2) Neurospora crassa
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Escherichia coli

54. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the:
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Ribosome (2) Transfer RNA (3) Messenger RNA (4) DNA sequence

55. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Polymerize in the 5  to  3 direction and explain 3  to  5 DNA replication

(2) Result in transcription
(3) Polymerize in the 3  to  5 direction and forms replication fork
(4) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication

56. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by:
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Anticodon (2) RNA polymerase (3) Ribosome (4) Transcription factor
Sol. Answer (4)
57. Telomere repetitive DNA sequence control the function of eukaryote chromosomes because they:
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Prevent chromosome loss (2) Act as replicons
(3) Are RNA transcription initiator (4) Help chromosome pairing

58. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle -like
structure. What is it's DNA-binding sequence? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) TATA (2) TTAA (3) AATT (4) CACC

59. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Semiconservative (2) Parallel (3) Discontinuous (4) Antiparallel
60. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this
DNA accommodated? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Through elimination of repetitive DNA (2) Deletion of non-essential genes.
(3) Super-coiling in nucleosomes (4) DNAse digestion

61. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) 20 nm (2) 0.34 nm (3) 3.4 nm (4) 2 nm

62. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) One strand turns anti-clockwise
(2) The phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position
(3) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole)
(4) One strand turns clockwise

63. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA (3) c-DNA (4) r-RNA

64. One gene – one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) R. Franklin (2) Hershey and Chase (3) A. Garrod (4) Beadle and Tatum

65. During transcription holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the DNA assumes a saddle
like structure at that point. What is that sequence called? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) CAAT box (2) GGTT box (3) AAAT box (4) TATA box

66. E. coli cells with a mutated Z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as the
source of energy because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do not utilize lactose
(2) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell
(3) The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells
(4) They cannot synthesize functional â-galactosidase

67. Nucleotide are building blocks of nucleic acids, nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by :
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) (Base-sugar-phosphate)n (2) Base-sugar-OH
(3) Base-sugar-phosphate (4) Sugar-phosphate
68. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Reverse transcriptase (2) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
(3) DNA polymerase (4) RNA polymerase

69. Uridine, present only in RNA is a

(1) Pyrimidine (2) Nucleoside (3) Nucleotide (4) Purine

70. Which of the following is not a property of the genetic code?

(1) Universal (2) Non-overlapping (3) Ambiguous (4) Degeneracy

Genetic code is ambiguous.

71. One of the most frequently used techniques in DNA fingerprinting is
(1) AFLP (2) VNTR (3) SSCP (4) SCAR

72. In an inducible operon, the genes are

(1) Always expressed
(2) Usually not expressed unless a signal turns them "on"
(3) Usually expressed unless a signal turns them "off"
(4) Never expressed

73. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
(1) Plasmid (2) Probe (3) Vector (4) Selectable marker

74. The reaction, Amino acid + ATP  Aminoacyl-AMP + P–P depicts

(1) Amino acid assimilation (2) Amino acid transformation
(3) Amino acid activation (4) Amino acid translocation

75. The transcription of any gene is the indication of its

(1) Induction (2) Activity (3) Stimulation (4) Hypersensitivity

76. mRNA directs the building of proteins through a sequence of

(1) Introns (2) Codons (3) Exons (4) Anticodons

77. Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied lacked a specific enzyme. Their
experiments demonstrated that
(1) Cells need specific enzymes in order to function
(2) Genes are made of DNA
(3) Genes carry information for making proteins
(4) Enzymes are required to repair damaged DNA information
78. Which of the following necleotide sequences contain 4 pyrimidine bases?
(1) GATCAATGC (2) GCUAGACAA (3) UAGCGGUAA (4) Both (2) & (3)

79. The 1992 Nobel Prize for medicine was awarded to Edmond H. Fischer and Edwin J. Krebs for their work
concerning
(1) Reversible protein phosphorylation as a biological regulation mechanism
(2) Isolation of the gene for a human disease
(3) Human genome project
(4) Drug designing involving inhibition of DNA synthesis of the pathogen

80. Initiation codon in eukaryotes is

(1) GAU (2) AGU (3) AUG (4) UAG

81. ‘Lac operon’ in E. coli, is induced by

(1) “I” gene (2) Promoter gene (3) -galactosidase (4) Lactose

82. There are special proteins that help to open up DNA double helix in front of the replication fork. These proteins
are
(1) DNA ligase (2) DNA topoisomerase I (3) DNA gyrase (4) DNA polymerase I

83. In protein synthesis, the polymerization of amino acids involves three steps. Which one of the following is not
involved in the polymerization of protein?
(1) Termination (2) Initiation (3) Elongation (4) Transcription

84. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an exposed position of

(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA (3) r-RNA (4) Both (2) & (3)

85. An environmental agent, which triggers transcription from an operon, is a

(1) Depressor (2) Controlling element (3) Regulator (4) Inducer
86. In split genes, the coding sequences are called
(1) Exons (2) Cistrons (3) Introns (4) Operons

87. The lac operon is an example of

(1) Repressible operon (2) Overlapping genes (3) Arabinose operon (4) Inducible operon

88. If the DNA codons are ATG ATG ATG and a cytosine base is inserted at the beginning, then which of the
following will result?
(1) CAT GAT GATG (2) A non-sense mutation (3) C ATG ATG ATG (4) CA TGA TGA TG

89. The wild type E.coli cells are growing in normal medium with glucose. They are transferred to a medium
containing only lactose as sugar. Which of the following changes take place?
(1) The lac operon is induced (2) E.coli cells stop dividing
(3) The lac operon is repressed (4) All operons are induced

90. If the sequence of bases in DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases in its transcript will be
(1) GUAGCUUA (2) AUUCGAUG (3) CAUCGAAU (4) UAAGCUAC

91. Which of the following serves as an stop codon?

(1) UAG (2) AGA (3) AUG (4) GCG

92. The codons causing chain termination are

(1) AGT, TAG, UGA (2) UAG, UGA, UAA (3) TAG, TAA, TGA (4) GAT, AAT, AGT

93. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by estimating the incorporation of radio-labelled
(1) Thymidine (2) Deoxyribose sugar (3) Uracil (4) Adenine

94. Which of the following step of translation does not consume a high energy phosphate bond?
(1) Peptidyl transferase reaction (2) Aminoacyl t-RNA binding to A-site
(3) Translocation (4) Amino acid activation
95. DNA elements, which can switch their position, are called
(1) Cistrons (2) Transposons (3) Exons (4) Introns

96. Sequence of which of the following is used to know the phylogeny?

(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA (3) t-RNA (4) DNA

97. Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes are called
(1) Redundant genes (2) Regulatory genes (3) Polymorphic genes (4) Operator genes

98. In operon concept, regulator gene functions as

(1) Inhibitor (2) Repressor (3) Regulator (4) All of these

99. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association as per which of the following pair?
(1) AT-GC (2) AG-CT (3) AC-GT (4) All of these

100. Irregularity is found in Drosophila during the organ differentiation. For example, in place of wing Iong legs are
formed. Which gene is responsible?
(1) Double dominant gene (2) Homeotic gene (3) Complimentary gene (4) Plastid gene

101. Method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separate and synthesise new strands, is
(1) Dispersive (2) Conservative (3) Semi conservative (4) Non conservative

102. In negative operon

(1) Co-repressor binds with repressor (2) Co-repressor does not bind with repressor
(3) Co-repressor binds with inducer (4) cAMP have negative effect on lac operon

103. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously because
(1) One cistron contains many genes (2) One gene contains many cistrons
(3) One gene contains one cistron (4) One gene contains no cistron
104. m-RNA is synthesised on DNA template in which direction?

(1) 5  3 (2) 3  5 (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Any of these

105. At the time of organogenesis, genes regulate the process at different levels and at different time due to
(1) Promoter (2) Regulator (3) Intron (4) Exon

106. A mutant strain of T 4 - bacteriophage, R-II, fails to lyse the E. coli but when two strains R-IIX and
R-IIY are mixed then they lyse the E. coli. What may be the possible reason?
(1) Bacteriophage transforms in wild (2) It is not mutated
(3) Both strains have similar cistrons (4) Both strains have different cistrons

107. In E. coli, during lactose metabolism repressor binds to

(1) Regulator gene (2) Operator gene (3) Structural gene (4) Promoter gene

108. In a DNA, percentage of thymine is 20% then what will be percentage of guanine?
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 30% (4) 60%

109. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid. It is called
(1) Degeneracy of genetic code (2) Overlapping of genes
(3) Wobbling of codons (4) Universality of codons

110. Jacob and Monad studied lactose metabolism in E. coli and proposed operon concept. Operon concept is
applicable for
(1) All prokaryotes (2) All prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
(3) All prokaryotes and all eukaryotes (4) All prokaryotes and some protozoans

111. Exon part of hn-RNA have code for

(1) Protein (2) Lipid (3) Carbohydrate (4) Phospholipid

112. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling with clover leaf?
(1) rRNA (2) hn-RNA (3) mRNA (4) tRNA
113. Which of the following reunites the exon segments after RNA splicing?
(1) RNA polymerase (2) RNA primase (3) RNA ligase (4) RNA proteoses

114. During initiation of translation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in

(1) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(2) Binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
(3) Association of 30 S mRNA with formyl-met-tRNA
(4) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex

115. In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino acids?
(1) 20 (2) 64 (3) 61 (4) 60

116. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes consist of short sequences of

(1) Thymine rich repeats (2) Cytosine rich repeats
(3) Adenine rich repeats (4) Guanine rich repeats

117. What does “lac” refer to in what we call the lac operon?
(1) Lactose (2) Lactase
(3) Lac insect (4) The number 1,00,000

118. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the

(1) First member of a codon (2) Second member of codon
(3) Entire codon (4) Third member of a codon

119. During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called
(1) Promoter (2) Regulator
(3) Receptor (4) Enhancer
120. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to
UAA ?
(1) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
(2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
(3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed
(4) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed
Sol. Answer (1)

121. Which one of the following triplet codon, is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein
synthesis or as ‘start’ or ‘stop’ codon ?
(1) UCG - start (2) UUU - stop (3) UGU – leucine (4) UAC - tyrosine

122. DNA fingerprinting refer to

(1) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
(2) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
(3) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
(4) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of individuals

123. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is ATACG then the
nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be
(1) TATGC (2) TCTGG (3) UAUGC (4) UATGC

124. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character of an organism changes due to change in
(1) Protein structure (2) DNA replication
(3) Protein synthesis pattern (4) RNA transcription pattern

125. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and
(1) RNA primers are involved (2) Is facilitated by telomerase
(3) Moves in one direction of the site (4) Moves in bi-directional way
126. The following ratio is generally constant for a given species
(1) A + G / C + T (2) T + C / G + A (3) G + C / A + T (4) A + C / T + G

127. What is true for E. coli with inhibited lac-z gene?

(1) They cannot synthesize permease
(2) They cannot synthesize functional beta galactosidase
(3) They cannot synthesize transacetylase
(4) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cell

128. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis?
(1) Tetracycline (2) Erythromycin (3) Neomycin (4) Streptomycin

129. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle - like
structure. What is its DNA-binding sequence?
(1) AATT (2) CACC (3) TATA (4) TTAA

130. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with

(1) Differential expression of genes (2) Lethal mutations
(3) Deletion of genes (4) Developmental mutations

131. The nuclease enzyme, which begins its attack from free end of a polynucleotide, is
(1) Polymerase (2) Endonuclease (3) Exonuclease (4) Kinase

132. Radio-tracer technique shows that DNA is in

(1) Multi-helix stage (2) Single-helix stage (3) Double-helix stage (4) None of these

133. Genes are packaged into a bacterial chromosome by

(1) Acidic protein (2) Actin (3) Histones (4) Basic protein
134. The hereditary material present in the bacterium E.coli is
(1) Single-stranded DNA (2) Double-stranded DNA
(3) DNA and RNA (4) RNA

135. The Pneumococcus experiment proves that

(1) Bacteria do not reproduce sexually
(2) RNA sometime controls the production of DNA and proteins
(3) DNA is the genetic material
(4) Bacteria undergo binary fission

136. E.coli about to replicate was placed in a medium containing radio active thymidine for five minutes. Then it
was made to replicate in a normal medium. Which of the following observation shall be correct?
(1) Both the strands of DNA will be radioactive (2) One strand radioactive
(3) Each strand half radioactive (4) None is radioactive

137. Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus of eukaryotes for RNA synthesis is/are
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

138. Transformation experiment was first performed on which bacteria?

(1) E. coli (2) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(3) Salmonella (4) Pasteurella pestis

139. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a

(1) Simple protein (2) RNA (3) Ribonucleoprotein (4) Repetitive DNA

140. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by

(1) Enhancer (2) Transgene (3) Promoter (4) Reporter
141. A nutritionally wild type organism, which does not require any additional growth supplement, is known as
(1) Osmotroph (2) Mixotroph (3) Auxotroph (4) Prototroph

142. What is not true for genetic code?

(1) It is unambiguous
(2) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion
(3) It is nearly universal
(4) It is degenerate

143. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in

(1) Salmonella typhimurium (2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Escherichia coli (4) Streptococcus pneumoniae

144. Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true?
(1) Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides
(2) DNA consists of a core of eight histones
(3) Centromere is found in animal cells, which produces aster during cell division
(4) The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : RNA polymerase is of three types in eukaryotes for the synthesis of all types of RNAs.
R : RNA polymerase consists of six types of polypeptides alongwith rho factor which is involved in termination of
RNA synthesis.

2. A : 5S rRNA and surrounding protein complex provides binding site of tRNA.

R : tRNA is soluble RNA with unusual bases.

3. A : Operator gene is functional when it is not blocked by repressor.

R : Regulator gene produces active protein only which acts on operon system in E.coli.

Regulator gene produce its product. It is inducer which will bind with repressor.
4. A : Peptidyl transfer site is contributed by larger sub-unit of ribosome.
R : The enzyme peptidyl transferase is contributed by both 23S and 16S ribosomal sub-units.
5. A : Teminism is unidirectional flow of information.
R : It requires DNA dependent RNA polymerase enzyme.

6. A : In bacterial translation mechanism, two tRNA are required by methionine.

R : AUG codes for methionine and it shows nonambiguity also.

7. A : Nutritional mutant strain of pink mould is auxotroph.

R : It is not able to prepare its own metabolites from the raw materials obtained from outside.

8. A : In DNA fingerprinting, hybridization is done with molecular probe.

R : Molecular probe is small DNA segment synthesized in laboratory with known sequence that recognise
complementary sequence in RNA.

9. A : c-DNA libraries are important to scientists in human genomics.

R : c-DNA is synthetic type of DNA generated from mRNA.

10. A : SNPs-pronounced "snips" are common in human genome.

R : It is minute variations that occurs at a frequency of one in every 300 bases.

11. A : Catalytic functions were assigned to RNA molecule during evolution.

R : The rate of mutation is quite fast in RNA.

12. A : Kornberg enzyme is associated with the removal of primers and thyminedimer.
R : DNA polymersase I does exonuclease activity in 5 3 and 3 5 directions.

13. A : Wobbling reduces the number of tRNAs required for polypeptide synthesis.
R : It increases the effect of code degeneracy.

14. A : Unknown DNA after hybridization with VNTR probe, the autoradiogram gives many bands of differing sizes
in DNA profiling.
R : These bands represents DNA fingerprint of organism.
15. A : Polypeptide sequences are dictated by DNA and represented by mRNA.
R : Sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide can be predicted by the exact sequence of nucleotides on the
mRNA and template DNA.

16. A : Triplet genetic code can be confirmed by frame shift mutations.

R : Frame shifting involves the change in protein product coded by triplet codons.

17. A : Lac operon exerts negative control only.

R : The operator is occupied by aporepressor during regulation.

18. A : Single DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in all except bacteria.
R : Structural genes in bacteria are monocistronic.

19. A : Sigma factor of RNA polymesase recognizes the start signal region in prokaryotes.
R : Promotor region lies at 5 of template strand.

20. A : HGP was completed in 2003 by sequencing all genes of all chromosomes.
R : All coding and noncoding genes were sequenced by ESTs.

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