SPECIAL TOPICS

TRANSMISSION LINES: c. standing waves

d. a magnetic field
1. The most commonly used transmission line is a
a. two-wire balanced line 8. A 50 Ω coax is connected to a 73 Ω antenna. The SWR is
b. single wire a. 0.685
c. three-wire line b. 1
d. coax c. 1.46
d. 2.92
2. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does
not depend upon its 9. The most desirable reflection coefficient is
a. length a. 0
b. conductor diameter b. 0.5
c. conductor spacing c. 1
d. none of the above d. infinity

3. Which of the following is not a common transmission line 10. A ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage
impedance? reflected on a transmission line is know as the
a. 50 Ω a. velocity factor
b. 75 Ω b. standing wave ratio
c. 120 Ω c. reflection coefficient
d. 300 Ω d. line efficiency

4. For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the 11. The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V,
relationship between the characteristic impedance of the line while the maximum voltage is 390 V. The SWR is
ZO and the load impedance Zl should be a. 0.67
a. ZO = Zl b. 1.0
b. ZO > Zl c. 1.2
c. ZO < Zl d. 1.5
d. ZO = 0
12. Three feet is one wavelength at a frequency of
5. The mismatch between antenna and transmission line a. 100 MHz
impedances cannot be corrected for by b. 164 MHz
a. using an LC matching network c. 300 MHz
b. adjusting antenna length d. 328 MHz
c. using a balun
d. adjusting the length of transmission line 13. At very high frequencies, transmission lines are used as
a. tuned circuits
6. A pattern of voltage and current variations along a b. antennas
transmission line not terminated in its characteristic c. insulators
impedance is called d. resistors
a. an electric field
b. radio waves
b. parallel resonant circuit
7. The desirable SWR on a transmission line is c. capacitor
a. 0 d. inductor
b. 1
c. 2 15. A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts
d. infinity like a(n)
a. capacitor
b. inductor
c. series resonant circuit
d. parallel resonant circuit

16.​ In practice, the transmission lines are almost

connected to antennas that have a _________.

a.​ resistive load whose resistance is greater than the

characteristic impedance of the line
b.​ resistive load whose resistance is less than the
characteristic impedance of the line
c.​ *resistive load at the resonant frequency
d.​ capacitive load

14. A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency 17.​ When the transmission line is matched to the load, it
acts like a(n)
a. series resonant circuit a.​ transfers maximum current to the load
b.​ transfers maximum voltage to the load 26.​ The value of the total opposition of the transmission
c.​ *transfers maximum power to the load media to the flow of electromagnetic field energy is
d.​ reduces the load current called

18.​ Conventional transmission media include a.​ *characteristic impedance

b.​ velocity factor
a.​ twisted cable pair​ ​ c.​ standing waves​
b.​ waveguide d.​ reflected waves
c.​ fiber optic cable
d.​ *all of these 27.​ When mismatch is great, this power actually cause
damage to the transmitter or the line itself.
19.​ To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, it is
best to use a _____ a.​ the incident power
b.​ *the reflected power
a.​ slotted line c.​ the power dissipation
b.​ directional coupler d.​ the carrier power
c.​ *balun
d.​ quarter wavelength transformer 28.​ What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50
or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable such as RG 8, 11, 58
20.​ Impedance inversion may be obtained with and 59?

a.​ an open circuited stub e.​ 270

b.​ a short circuited stub f.​ 0.10
c.​ *a quarterwave line g.​ *0.66
d.​ a half-wave line​ h.​ 0.30

21.​ To be properly matched, the ratio of maximum to 29.​ The measure of the superiority of a material over
minimum voltage along a transmission line should be vacuum as a path for magnetic lines of force is
equal to
a.​ permitivity
a.​ 50 b.​ *permeability​
b.​ 10 c.​ conductivity
c.​ 2 d.​ resistivity​
d.​ 1*
30.​ The number of standing waves on the wire is equal to
22.​ When ZL ≠ Zo, the power sent down the line toward the length of the wire divided by a half wavelength.
the load is called the The principle which allows antennas to operate at
different frequencies which are integral multiples of
a.​ *the incident power the fundamental frequency is called __________.
b.​ the reflected power
c.​ the power dissipation a.​ *harmonic operation
d.​ the carrier power b.​ decimonic operation
c.​ electromagnetic reverberation
23.​ For transmission line load matching over a range of d.​ asynchronous operation
frequencies, it is best to use a

a.​ balun 31.​ A coax line has an attenuation of 2.4 dB per 100 ft.
b.​ broadband directional coupler The attenuation for 2.75 ft. is ____ dB.
c.​ *double stub
d.​ single adjustable stub a.​ 2.4
b.​ 4.8
24.​ A short section of a transmission line, open or c.​ 3.3
shorted that is used to match the impedance of the d.​ *6.6
line to that of an antenna or transmitter.
32.​ When a quarter wave stub is used to match a 600
a.​ slotted line ohm antenna to a line of 52 ohms, the impedance of
b.​ *stub the matching stub must be ________ ohms.
c.​ wavetrap
d.​ lecher wire a.​ *176
b.​ 200
25.​ The property of a material that determines how much c.​ 150
electrostatic energy can be stored per unit volume d.​ 300
when voltage is applied.
33.​ The characteristic impedance of a transmission line
a.​ permeability is determined by
b.​ magnetic effect
c.​ capacitance a.​ *its length
d.​ *permittivity b.​ its height above ground
c.​ its physical construction
d.​ the operating frequency​
 a.​ multimeter
34.​ When the diameter of two conductors of a two-wire b.​ *reflectometer
transmission line is held constant, the effect of c.​ spectrum analyzer
decreasing the distance between the conductors is to d.​ oscilloscope​

a.​ *decrease the impedance 43.​ A 75-j50 ohm load is connected to a coaxial
b.​ increase the surge impedance transmission line of Z0 = 75 ohms at 10GHz. The
c.​ increase radiation resistance best method of matching consists in connecting
d.​ decrease SWR
a.​ a short-circuited stub at the load
35.​ Considering a coaxial transmission line, maximum b.​ a capacitance at some specific distance from the
voltage on the line divided by the minimum voltage load
equals the c.​ an inductance at the load
d.​ *a short-circuited stub at some specific distance from
a.​ characteristic impedance​ the load
b.​ ISWR
c.​ *VSWR​ 44.​ For a two-wire line, Zo is higher when
d.​ inductive reactance​
a.​ *the wire size is small with respect to the spacing of
36.​ In a transmission line, if the SWR or maximum the conductors
current to a minimum current ratio of 2:1, the ratio of b.​ the spacing is varied in accordance with the
the maximum voltage to the minimum voltage is frequency
c.​ the D:d ratio is smaller
a.​ 1:4 d.​ the wire is large with respect to the spacing of the
b.​ 4:1 conductors.
c.​ 1:2
d.​ *2:1 45.​ A resultant wave due to the combination of incident
and reflected wave.
37.​ Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced
with respect to a.​ electromagnetic wave
b.​ sine wave
a.​ negative terminal​ c.​ *standing wave
b.​ input​ d.​ current
c.​ *ground​
d.​ positive terminal​ 46.​ For transmission line load matching over a range of
frequencies, it is best to use a
38.​ The load is properly matched with the transmission
line if the standing wave ratio is equal to a.​ balun
b.​ broadband directional coupler
a.​ 50 c.​ *double stub
b.​ 10 d.​ single stub
c.​ 5
d.​ *1 47.​ If the load impedance matches the characteristic
impedance of the line, there are __________
39.​ The radiation resistance of a quarterwave antenna is standing waves.

a.​ 49 ohms a.​ more

b.​ 288 ohms b.​ less
c.​ *72 ohms c.​ *no
d.​ 144 ohms d.​ ten (10)

40.​ A radio transmission line of 500 ohms impedance is 48.​ VSWR stands for
to be connected to an antenna having an impedance
of 200 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter a.​ Voltage sending wave ratio
wave matching line? b.​ Voltage Receiving Wave Ratio
c.​ Very Small Wave Radiation
a.​ 300 d.​ *Voltage Standing Wave Ratio
b.​ *316
c.​ 316.5 49.​ Reflections on a transmission line can occur when
d.​ 361
a.​ Impedance of the source and load are matched
41.​ The VSWR for a line terminated in its Zo is b.​ *impedance of the source and the load are
mismatched
a.​ 0 c.​ resonance conditions are obtained
b.​ *1 d.​ power transfer between source and load is maximum
c.​ 1.5
d.​ infinity 50.​ A transmission line with a characteristic impedance
(Zo) of 300 ohms is terminated in a resistance load
42.​ Which of the following is used to measure SWR? (Rl). If by measurement, the minimum and maximum
 voltages through the load are 12 and 20 microvolts, a.​ *an impedance mismatch
respectively, what is the SWR? b.​ use of non-resonant line
c.​ matching the load to the line
d.​ excessive transmitter output
a.​ *1.67
b.​ 0.6
59.​ If the input impedance of an antenna is 300 ohms
c.​ 6.7
and it is fed with a 600 ohm balanced transmission
d.​ 3.67
line, the SWR on the line is
51.​ A measure of the mismatch between line and load
a.​ 4​
impedance is called as
b.​ 3
c.​ *2
a.​ reflection coefficient d.​ 0.5
b.​ *standing wave ratio
c.​ loss 60.​ A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance is
d.​ standing waves to be connected to an antenna having an input
impedance of 150 ohms. The impedance of a quarter
52.​ Transmission lines when connected to antenna have wave matching line is _______ ohms.

a.​ capacitive load a.​ *212

b.​ resistive load whose resistance is less than b.​ 450
characteristic impedance c.​ 600
c.​ *resistive load at the resonant frequency d.​ 150
d.​ resistive load whose resistance is greater than the
characteristic impedance of the line 61.​ The ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident
voltage on the transmission line is termed as
53.​ At matched condition, SWR is equal to
a.​ *reflection coefficient
a.​ zero
b.​ standing wave ratio
b.​ *one
c.​ loss
c.​ 100
d.​ standing waves​
d.​ infinite
62.​ Indicate the three types of transmission line energy
54.​ An HF transmission line has a characteristic
losses
impedance of 600 ohms and is terminated by an
antenna. The SWR along the line when the antenna
a.​ *Radiation, I(squared) R and Dielectric Heating
impedance is 500 ohms is
b.​ Conductor Heating, dielectric heating and radiation
resistance
a.​ *1.2:1 c.​ I(squared)R, RL and Temperature
b.​ 1:2.1 d.​ Dielectric Separation, Insulation breakdown and
c.​ 2:1 radiation
d.​ 1:2
63.​ Termination means
55.​ A characteristic of an infinite transmission line is that
a.​ *load connected to the output end of a transmission
a.​ *the impedance in equals impedance out line
b.​ it carries waves at the velocity of light b.​ result of disconnecting a line from a transmitter
c.​ it can be connected to mismatched loads c.​ looking back impedance of a line with no load
d.​ the impedance varies with the length of the line d.​ result of cutting both ends of a conductor

56.​ A quarter wave transmission line shorted at the end: 64.​ When transmission line uses ground return, it is
called a/n _______ line.
a.​ *has the characteristics of parallel tuned circuit
b.​ has the characteristics of a series tuned circuit a.​ ungrounded
c.​ has a minimum current at the end b.​ *unbalanced​
d.​ reflects a low impedance to the supply c.​ grounded​
d.​ balanced​
57.​ The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission line is
usually grounded at the: 65.​ Permeability is the measure of superiority of a
material over vacuum as a path of magnetic lines of
force. The permeability of free space is equal to
a.​ *input and output ______ henry/meter
b.​ output only
c.​ input only​ a.​ *1.257 x 10exp-6​
d.​ point of infinite resistance b.​ 1.527 x 10exp –6​
c.​ 7.251 x 10exp-6
58.​ A certain feedline has a high SWR. It can be caused d.​ 5.217 x 10exp-6
by:
 c. clover leaf
ANTENNAS d. narrow beam

1. A popular half-wavelength antenna is the 7. The length of a ground plane vertical at 146 MHz is
a. ground plane a. 1.6 ft
b. end-fire b. 1.68 ft
c. collinear c. 2.05 ft
d. dipole d. 3.37 ft

2. The length of a doublet at 27 MHz is 8. The impedance of a dipole is about

a. 8.67 ft a. 50 Ω
b. 17.3 ft b. 73 Ω
c. 18.2 ft c. 93 Ω
d. 34.67 ft d. 300 Ω

3. A popular vertical antenna is the 9. A direction antenna with two or more elements is known as
a. collinear a(n)
b. dipole a. folded dipole
c. ground plane b. ground plane
d. broadside c. loop
d. array
4. The magnetic field of an antenna is perpendicular to the
earth. The antenna’s polarization 10. In a Yagi antenna, maximum direction of radiation is
a. is vertical toward the
b. is horizontal a. director
c. is circular b. driven element
d. cannot be determined from the information given c. reflector
d. sky
5. An antenna that transmits or receives equally well in all
directions is said to be 11. Conductors in multielement antennas that do not receive
a. omnidirectional energy directly from the transmission line are known as
b. bidirectional a. parasitic elements
c. unidirectional b. driven elements
d. quasidirectional c. the boom
d. receptors
6.. The horizontal radiation pattern of a dipole is a
a. circle
b. figure eight
b. 12°
c. 19°
d. 28°

14. The radiation pattern of collinear and broadside

antennas
a. omnidirectional
b. bidirectional
c. unidirectional
d. clover-leaf shaped

15. Which antenna has a unidirectional radiation pattern

and gain
28. A coax has an attenuation of 2.4 db per 100 ft. The a. dipole
attenuation for 275 ft is
b. ground plane
a. 2.4 dB
c. yagi
b. 3.3 dB
d. collinear
c. 4.8 dB
d. 6.6 dB 16. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:
a. a Marconi antenna c. a Yagi antenna
12. An antenna has a power gain of 15. The power applied b. a Hertz antenna d. none of the above
to the antenna is 32 W. The effective radiated power is ANS: B
a. 15 W
b. 32 W 17. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in
c. 120 W the:
d. 480 W a. standing wave pattern around the antenna c. radiation
resistance of the antenna
13. Which beamwidth represents the best antenna b. SWR along the feed cable d. I2R loss of the antenna
directivity ANS: C
a. 7°
18. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one a. center c. focus
direction than in other directions is called: b. edges d. horn
a. directivity c. active antenna ANS: C
b. selectivity d. resonance
ANS: A
WAVE PROPAGATION
19. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is:
a. 0 dB c. 10 dB 1. Ground-wave communications is most effective in what
b. 3 dB d. infinite frequency range?
ANS: A a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
20. An antenna's beamwidth is measured: c. 30 to 300 MHz
a. from +90to –90c. between half-power points d. above 300 MHz
b. from front to back d. between the minor side-lobes
ANS: C 2. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what
frequency range?
21. ERP stands for: a. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
a. Equivalent Radiation Pattern c. Equivalent Radiated b. 3 to 30 MHz
Power
c. 30 to 300 MHz
b. Effective Radiation Pattern d. Effective Radiated Power
d. above 300 MHz
ANS: D
3. The type of radio wave responsible for long-distance
22. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be:
communications by multiple skips is the
a. mounted vertically c. at least one half-wavelength long
a. ground wave
b. mounted horizontally d. at least one wavelength long
ANS: A b. direct wave
c. surface wave
23. The polarization of plane waves received from a d. sky wave
satellite is changed by:
a. gamma rays c. helical rotation 4. Microwave signals propagate by way of the
b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled a. direct wave
ANS: B b. sky wave
c. surface wave
24. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless d. standing wave
antenna should be:
a. resistive c. capacitive 5. The line-of-sight communications is not a factor in which
b. inductive d. infinite frequency range?
ANS: A a. VHF
b. UHF
25. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using: c. HF
a. a shorted stub c. an LC network d. microwave
b. a loading coil d. all of the above
ANS: D 6. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550 ft high. The
receiving antenna is 200 ft high. The maximum
26. Arrays can be: transmission distance is
a. phased c. parasitic a. 20 mi
b. driven d. all of the above b. 33.2 mi
ANS: D
c. 38.7 mi
27. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one d. 53.2 mi
or more directors is called a:
a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole 7. To increase the transmission distance of a UHF signal,
b. Yagi d. stacked array which of the following should be done?
ANS: B a. increase antenna gain
b. increase antenna height
28. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is c. increase transmitter power
concentrated at the: d. increase receiver sensitivity

d. RG-214/U
8. A coax has a velocity factor of 0.68. What is the length of
a half wave at 30 MHz? 10.​ The typical value of the velocity factor of an open-wire
a. 11.2 ft transmission line is
b. 12.9 ft A. 0.8 * ​ ​ B. 0.7​ ​ C. 0.6 ​ ​ D.
c. 15.6 ft 0.9
d. 16.4 ft
11.​ The most dense of all ionized layer of the ionosphere.
9. Which transmission line has the lowest attenuation? A. E​ ​ ​ B. F1​ ​ ​ C.
a. twin lead F2 * ​ ​ D. D
b. RG-11/U
c. RG-59/U 12.​ Frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by
means of _____.
 A. surface waves​ ​ ​ C. ground waves ​ B. remains the same​ ​ D. cannot be
B. space waves *​ ​ ​ D. sky waves determined

13.​ Electric field that lies in a plane perpendicular to the 25.​ What is selective fading?
earth’s surface. A.​ fading effect caused by the phase difference
A. circular polarization​ ​ C. horizontal between two signals of the same transmission as
polarization experienced at the receiver. *
B. vertical polarization *​ D. elliptical polarization B.​ fading effect caused by small changes in the
direction of propagation as experience as the
14.​ A critical frequency at a particular time is 11.6 MHz. receive end.
What is the MUF for a transmitting station if the C.​ A type of fading effect of no constant phase relation
required angle of incidence for propagation to a desired with the signal being propagated.
destination is 70 degrees? D.​ Fading that results in many paths taken in the
A. 41.2 MHz B. 15.6 MHz C. 33.9 MHz * D. 24.8 direction of propagation.
MHz
26.​ Approximate height of the combined F1 and F2 layers.
15.​ It is defined as the highest frequency that can be ​ A. 250 km​ ​ B. 300 km *​ C. 400 km
propagated directly upward and still be returned to ​ ​ D. 500 km
earth by the ionosphere.
A. virtual height​ ​ ​ C. maximum 27.​ _________is the amount of voltage induced by an
usable frequency electromagnetic wave.
B. critical frequency *​ ​ ​ D. ​ A. Receive voltage​ ​ ​ C. Field
optimum working frequency strength *
​ B. Signal​ ​ ​ ​ ​ D.
16.​ The polarization of a radio waves depends upon the Attenuation
position of its _____ with respect to the earth’s surface.
A. magnetic field ​ C. direction of propagation ​ 28.​ For the receive power density of 10uW/m^2 and a
B. . electric field * ​ D. either electric or magnetic field receive antenna with a capture area of 0.2 m^2,
determine the power recieved in dBm.
17.​ At a certain time, the MUF for transmission at an angle ​ A. -27 dBm *​ B. -57 dBm​ C. -67 dBm D.
of incidence of 75 degrees is 17 MHz. What is the -47 dBm
critical frequency?
A. 4.4 MHz * B. 6.57 MHz​ C. 65.68 MHz D. 44.4 29.​ What is the relation between the H and the E in an
MHz electromagnetic wave?
​ A. 45 degrees​ ​ ​ ​ C. 180
18.​ A receiver requires 0.5 uV of the signal for satisfactory degrees
reception. How strong in microvolts must the signal be ​ B. 360 degrees​ ​ ​ ​ D. 90
at the antenna if the receiver is connected to the degrees *
antenna by 25 m of the matched line having an
attenuation of 6 dB per 100m? 30.​ Wave that is the same day or night.
A. 0.345 uV B. 0.467 uV​ C. 0.132 uV D. A. sky wave ​ ​ C. direct wave​
0.594 uV * B. space wave ​ ​ D. ground wave *

19.​ The surface wave is effective only at frequencies below 31.​ Thickest layer in ionosphere.
about _________ MHz. A. D​ ​ B. F2 *​​ C. F1​ ​ D.
A. 30​ ​ ​ B. 3 *​ ​ C. 300​ E
​ D. 0.3
32.​ Responsible for long distance propagation at night
20.​ Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies in the time.
following range A. E​ ​ B. D​ ​ ​ C. F *​
A. HF​ ​ ​ B. VHF​ ​ C. UHF * ​ D. A and B
​ ​ D. VLF
33.​ Field intensity unit .
21.​ Magnetic field is perpendicular to the earth’s surface A. mV/m *​ ​ B. W/m​C. W/m^2​ ​ D.
​ A. Circular Polarization ​​ C. Horizontal V/m^2
Polarization *​ B. Vertical Polarization​ ​ D.
Elliptical Polarization FIBER OPTICS

22.​ LOS is not a factor in what type of propagation. 1. One of the following is not a characteristic of light
A.​ VHF​ ​ B. HF *​​ C. UHF​​ D. detectors.
EHF A. spectral response​ ​ ​ C.
dispersion *
23.​ What is a wavefront?
B. responsivity​ ​ ​ ​ D. transit
A.​ fix point in an electromagnetic wave *
time
B.​ a wave that has no change in the direction
C.​ a traveling wave with changing phase
D.​ a front of the wave
2.,A fiber optic cable has a loss of 16 db/km. What
24.​ What happens to the beamwidth when the gain would be its attenuation if the cable is 2000 ft long?
increases? A. 97.6 dB ​ B. 2.6 dB​ ​ C. 9.76 dB * ​
​ A. decreases *​ ​ ​ C. increases ​ D. 26 dB
 14.​ The maximum angle in which external light rays may
strike air/fiber interface and still propagate down the
3. The amount of power per unit area in optical fiber is
fiber.
called
A. acceptance cone half-angle​ *​ C. angle
A. reflectance​ ​ ​ ​ C.
of incidence
discernance
B. numerical aperture ​ ​ ​ ​ D.
B. irradiance *​ ​ ​ ​ D. angle of refraction
permeance
15.​ Chromatic dispersion in fiber optics can be eliminated
by:
4.​ Find the energy in electronvolts, in one photon at A. buying another run of optical fiber
a wavelength of 1 um. B.​ using a monochromatic light source *
A. 0.45 eV B. 1.24 eV *​ ​ C. 2.13 eV ​ D. C.​ using a step-index optical fiber
0.9 eV D.​ using a graded-index optical fiber
​ ​ ​ ​ ​
5.​ An optical fiber and its cladding have a refractive
indexes of 1.33 and 1.23 respectively. Determine the 16.​ It is not true that:
numerical aperture.
A. 0.256​ B. 30.39​ C. .506 *​ ​ D. a.​ endoscopes use coherent bundles of fibers
0.50 b.​ silica glass is used because of its clarity
6.​ Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray c.​ photocell converts light into electric current
strikes the interface at an angle with what relationship d.​ plastic fiber is normally used for long distance
to the critical angle? communications
A. less than B. greater than * C. equal to D.
zero 17.​ The speed of light in a transparent material:

7.​ Laser light is very bright because it is a.​ is always the same regardless of the material
A. pure​ B. white​ C. coherent *​ D. chosen
monochromatic b.​ is never greater than the speed of light in free
space
8.​ Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with c.​ increases if the light enters a material with a
A. forward bias *​ ​ ​ ​ C. neither higher refractive index
a or b d.​ is slowed down by a factor of a million within
B. reverse bias​ ​ ​ ​ D. either a the first 60 meters
or b
18.​ In free space, light travels at approximately:
9.​ What do you call the loss in signal power as the light
travels the fiber optic? a.​ 186,000 ms-1
A. bending​ ​ ​ ​ ​ C. b.​ 3 x 109 ms-1
Propagation c.​ 300 ms-1
B. Attenuation *​ ​ ​ ​ D. d.​ 0.3 meters per nanosecond
Scattering
19.​ No material could have a refractive index of:
10.​ Which fiber-optic system is better?
A. 3 repeaters *​ ​ ​ ​ C. 11 a.​ 1.5
repeaters b.​ 1.3
B. 8 repeaters​ ​ ​ ​ D. 20 c.​ 1.1
repeaters d.​ 0.9

11.​ Single frequency light is called 20.​ As the meridional ray is propagated along the
A. pure​ ​ ​ ​ ​ C. optic fiber it:
coherent
B. intense​ ​ ​ ​ ​ D. a.​ travels in a sort of spiral shape
monochromatic * b.​ stays in the center of the fiber
c.​ passes repeatedly through the center of the
12.​ What is the most widely used light generator in the fiber core
optic system? d.​ is reflected off the the inside surface of the
A. avalanche photodiode​ ​ C. injection laser primary buffer. This is called TIR
diode *
B. photodiode​ ​ ​ ​ D. light 21.​ If the refractive index of the core of an optic fiber
emitting diode was 1.47 and that of the cladding was 1.44, the
angle of acceptance would have an angle of
13.​ Medium 1 is made of silicon and medium 2 is made of approximately:
glass. Their refractive indexes are 3.2 and 1.2,
respectively. For an angle of refraction of 31.5 degrees, a.​ 17.19°
determine the angle of incidence. b.​ 72.82°
A. 11.13 ° ​ B. 11.14 ° *​ ​ C. 11.88 ° ​ c.​ 78.4°
​ D. 11.53 ° d.​ 34.36°
22.​ If light leaves a material of refractive index 1.45 30.​ In ____________ , the core has index of
and crosses an abrupt into a material of refraction that changes continuously from the
refractive index 1.0, the Fresnel loss would be: center to the outside

a.​ 0.346 dB a.​ step index fiber

b.​ 0.149 dB b.​ graded index fiber ​
c.​ 1.613 dB c.​ monomode
d.​ 3 dB d.​ multimode

31.​ That dielectric material of an optical fiber

23.​ Bending losses: surrounding the core

a.​ always result in breakage of the fiber a.​ cladding

b.​ can be caused by microbends and b.​ armor
macrobends c.​ shield
c.​ are used to detect the length of fiber on a drum d.​ cover
d.​ are caused by the difference in the operating
temperature of the core compared with the 32.​ A single fiber can handle as many voice channels
cladding on active fibers as

24.​ An SI MM fiber has a core of 62.5 μm diameter a.​ a pair of copper conductors
and a numerical aperture of 0.2424. The number b.​ a 1500 pair cable
of modes that would occur using a light of c.​ a 500 pair cable
wavelength of 865 nm would be: d.​ a 1000 pair cable

a.​ 1 33.​ An incident ray can be defined as

b.​ 378
c.​ 1513.78 a.​ a light ray reflected from a flat surface
d.​ 1513 b.​ a light ray directed toward a surface
c.​ a diffused light ray
25.​ Intramodal dispersion: d.​ a light ray that happens periodically

a.​ only occurs in multimode fiber 34.​ It is made from semiconductor material such as
b.​ is also called chromatic dispersion aluminum-gallium-arsenide or
c.​ does not occur in multimode fiber gallium-arsenide-phosphide.
d.​ could not occur in an all plastic fiber
a.​ APD
26.​ If the wavelength of the transmitted light were to b.​ Injection laser diode
be decreased, the number of modes would: c.​ Light emitting diode
d.​ Positive-intrinsic-negative
a.​ increase
b.​ decrease 35.​ The loss in signal power as light travels down a
c.​ remain the same fiber is
d.​ halve in a graded index fiber
a.​ attenuation
27.​ Cleaving is the process of: b.​ scattering
c.​ propagation
a.​ removing the cladding before connecting fibers d.​ absorption
together
b.​ cutting the end of the fiber in preparation for 36.​ The cladding which surrounds the core
connecting two fibers
c.​ cleaning the surface of optic fibers a.​ is used to reduce optical interference
d.​ inspecting fibers for flaws b.​ is used to protect the fiber
c.​ acts to help guide the light in the core
28.​ The core of a typical monomode fiber would have d.​ ensures that the refractive index remains
a diameter of: constant

a.​ 50 μm 37.​ The different angles of entry of light into an

b.​ 50 nm optical fiber when the diameter of the core is
c.​ 8 μm many times the wavelength of the light
d.​ 1 mm transmitted is known as __________.

29.​ Plastic fibers have the following advantages over a.​ refraction
glass fiber except b.​ emitter
c.​ mode
a.​ flexibility ​ d.​ sensor
b.​ ease of installation
c.​ ruggedness​ 38.​ Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as a
d.​ low attenuation dielectric waveguide

a.​ Kao and Keck

 b.​ Karpon and Keck c.​ 3.7 dB
c.​ Bockham and Kao d.​ 4.1 dB
d.​ Karpon and Brockham
11.​ Denote the interference of noise in dB above an adjusted reference
dB NOISE noise. The adjusted reference noise level was a 1 kHz tone, set at
– 85 dBm
a.​ dBa
1.​ Indicate the voltage level in dB with reference to one volt. This unit b.​ dBm
is used in video or TV measurement c.​ dBa0
a.​ dBW d.​ pWp
b.​ dBk
c.​ dBm 12.​ A more precise evaluation of the quality of a receiver as far as
d.​ dBV noise is concerned.
a.​ S/N
2.​ When the power ratio of the output to input of a circuit is 200. What b.​ VSWR
is the gain in dB? c.​ Noise factor
a.​ 23 d.​ Noise margin
b.​ 46
c.​ – 23 13.​ Noise figure for an amplifier with noise is always
d.​ – 46 a.​ 0 dB
b.​ Infinite
3.​ What is the reference level for random noise measurement, FIA c.​ Less than 1
weighted? d.​ Greater than 1
a.​ – 82 dBm
b.​ – 90 dBm 14.​ Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from
c.​ – 85 dBm a.​ 0 to 20 KHz
d.​ – 77 dBm b.​ 8 Mhz to 1.43 GHz
c.​ 5 to 8 GHz
4.​ A 10 db pad has an output level of -3dBm. The level at the input is: d.​ 15 to 60 MHz
a.​ 13 dBm
b.​ – 7 dBm 15.​ An amplifier operating over the frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz
c.​ 1 dBm has a 200 kΩ input resistor. What is the RMS noise voltage at the
d.​ 7 dBm input to this amplifier if the ambient temperature is 17°C?
a.​ 40 μV
5.​ A power level of 50 μW could be expressed as: b.​ 4.0 μV
a.​ 1.69 dBm c.​ 400 μV
b.​ – 4.3 dBm d.​ 4.0 mV
c.​ 1 dBm
d.​ – 13 dBm 16.​ Calculate the noise figure of the amplifier whose Req equals 2518
Ω (RT = 600 Ω) if it’s driven by a generator whose output
6.​ A system having an input power of 2 mW an output power of 0.8 impedance is 50Ω
mW has a loss of: a.​ 39.4
a.​ 2.98 dBm b.​ 3.94
b.​ 3.98 dB c.​ 394
c.​ 3.98 μW d.​ 0.394
d.​ 1.98 mW
17.​ A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 Ω has
7.​ Is the reduction of signal amplitude as it passed over the an equivalent noise resistance of 30 Ω. Calculate its equivalent
transmission medium? noise temperature if the noise figure is equal to 1.6
a.​ Noise a.​ 17.4 K
b.​ Distortion b.​ 174 K
c.​ Attenuation c.​ 1.74 K
d.​ Interface d.​ 17 K

8.​ Signal waveform perturbation or deviation caused by imperfect 18.​ Which of the following is not a source of external noise?
response of the system to the desired signal a.​ Thermal agitation
a.​ Noise b.​ Auto ignition
b.​ Aliasing c.​ The sun
c.​ Distortion d.​ Fluorescent lights
d.​ Interference
19.​ What is the noise voltage across a 300 Ω input resistance to a TV
9.​ Signal contamination by extraneous or external sources, such as, set with a 6 MHz bandwidth and temperature of 30°C?
other transmitters, power lines and machinery. a.​ 2.3 μV
a.​ Noise b.​ 3.8 μV
b.​ Distortion c.​ 5.5 μV
c.​ Harmonics d.​ 6.4 μV
d.​ Interference
20.​ If bandwidth is doubled, the signal power is _____
10.​ Which noise figure represents the lowest noise? a.​ Not changed
a.​ 1.5 dB b.​ Quadrupled
b.​ 2.0 dB c.​ Tripled
 d.​ Doubled

21.​ A network that has an input of 75 dB and an output of 35dB. The

loss of the network is _____
a.​ -40 dB
b.​ 40 dB
c.​ -40 dBm
d.​ 40 dBm

22.​ If an amplifier has equal input and output impedances, what voltage
ratio does the gain of 50 dB represent?
a.​ 316.2
b.​ 325.2
c.​ 320.1
d.​ 315.0