0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1K views61 pages

RHT Main Arts 2023 Question and Answer

The document details the results of the OSSC Main Written Examination for Regular Teacher conducted on September 15, 2023, for participant RUTUPARNA SAHOO, who scored 100 marks in the TGT Arts subject. It includes a series of multiple-choice questions related to pedagogy, history, and political science, along with the chosen answers and marks obtained for each question. The examination covered various educational theories and assessment methods, reflecting the participant's understanding of teaching strategies and historical knowledge.

Uploaded by

pallabipradhan55
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1K views61 pages

RHT Main Arts 2023 Question and Answer

The document details the results of the OSSC Main Written Examination for Regular Teacher conducted on September 15, 2023, for participant RUTUPARNA SAHOO, who scored 100 marks in the TGT Arts subject. It includes a series of multiple-choice questions related to pedagogy, history, and political science, along with the chosen answers and marks obtained for each question. The examination covered various educational theories and assessment methods, reflecting the participant's understanding of teaching strategies and historical knowledge.

Uploaded by

pallabipradhan55
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 61

OSSC Main Written Examination for Regular Teacher 15th Sep 2023

Tentative Score
Participant ID 220927200554
Participant Name RUTUPARNA SAHOO
Test Center Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Banamaliprasad
Test Date 15/09/2023
Test Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Subject TGT Arts
Marks Obtained 100

Section : Pedagogy

Q.1 Which of the following approaches to teaching is teacher-centred?


Ans A. Discussion method

B. Discovery method

C. Demonstration method

E!
D. Project method

M
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391210
Option 1 ID : 4906394838
TI Option 2 ID :
Option 3 ID :
4906394837
4906394839
Option 4 ID : 4906394840
Y
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
D
U

Q.2 A collection of learner’s work sample on various learning tasks over a long period is
technically called a:
ST

Ans A. Report-card

B. Term-paper

C. Rubric
'S

D. Portfolio
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391216
Option 1 ID : 4906394863
Option 2 ID : 4906394864
Option 3 ID : 4906394861
Option 4 ID : 4906394862
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.3 Which of the following statement is false about continuous and comprehensive
assessment?

Ans A. It helps learners to monitor their progress

B. It amounts to an extra work for teachers.

C. It is conducted by the teacher who teaches.

D. It reduces test-anxiety among learners.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391214
Option 1 ID : 4906394855
Option 2 ID : 4906394856
Option 3 ID : 4906394853
Option 4 ID : 4906394854
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.4 Which of the following is the highest level of teaching?

E!
Ans A. Interpretation level

B. Memory level

M
C. Reflective level

D. Understanding level
TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391201
Option 1 ID : 4906394804
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906394802
Option 3 ID : 4906394803
D

Option 4 ID : 4906394801
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
ST

Q.5 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of summative assessment?

Ans A. Conducted at the end of teaching work


'S

B. Helps the teacher to modify teaching

C. Certification and reporting learning level


IT

D. Results help in promoting to the next grade.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391213
Option 1 ID : 4906394850
Option 2 ID : 4906394851
Option 3 ID : 4906394849
Option 4 ID : 4906394852
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.6 While developing a selection test for entrance to a course, which of the following types of
validity is considered important?

Ans A. Construct validity

B. Predictive validity

C. Content validity

D. Concurrent validity

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391217
Option 1 ID : 4906394866
Option 2 ID : 4906394867
Option 3 ID : 4906394865
Option 4 ID : 4906394868
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4

Q.7 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate strategy for learning through constructivist

E!
approach?
Ans A. Encouraging students to read textbooks

B. Creation of problem-solving situation

M
C. Initiation of debate and discussion

D. Direct experience with learning situation TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391203
Y
Option 1 ID : 4906394812
Option 2 ID : 4906394809
D

Option 3 ID : 4906394810
Option 4 ID : 4906394811
U

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
ST

Marks : 1

Q.8 Some teachers ask the students probing questions during teaching-learning process. This
is called:
'S

Ans A. Summative assessment.

B. Norm-referenced assessment.
IT

C. Criterion-referenced assessment.

D. Formative assessment.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391212
Option 1 ID : 4906394845
Option 2 ID : 4906394846
Option 3 ID : 4906394848
Option 4 ID : 4906394847
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.9 A mathematics teacher distributes in his class some plane figures of different shapes to
help them learn the concept of area. He is following the theory of:
Ans A. J S Bruner

B. Ivan Pavlov

C. B F Skinner

D. Jean Piaget

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391204
Option 1 ID : 4906394814
Option 2 ID : 4906394816
Option 3 ID : 4906394815
Option 4 ID : 4906394813
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.10 For assessing higher mental abilities of learners, the most appropriate type of test items is:

E!
Ans A. Open-ended type.

B. Matching type.

M
C. Assertion-reason type.

D. Multiple-choice type.
TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391211
Option 1 ID : 4906394844
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906394843
Option 3 ID : 4906394842
D

Option 4 ID : 4906394841
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
ST

Q.11 The law of readiness in the context of learning process was given by:
Ans A. Pavlov

B. Skinner
'S

C. Piaget
IT

D. Thorndike

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391207
Option 1 ID : 4906394827
Option 2 ID : 4906394828
Option 3 ID : 4906394826
Option 4 ID : 4906394825
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.12 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of learning?
Ans A. It is continuous and lifelong process.

B. It changes behaviour of the learner.

C. It develops personality of the learner.

D. It always results in a positive impact.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391202
Option 1 ID : 4906394807
Option 2 ID : 4906394806
Option 3 ID : 4906394808
Option 4 ID : 4906394805
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.13 Which of the following statements is NOT correct for standardised tests?
Ans A. Score-interpretation method is in the manual.

E!
B. They cannot be used for all populations.

C. Test administrator can use them as he likes.

M
D. Their norms and standards are fixed.

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391218
Option 1 ID : 4906394872
Option 2 ID : 4906394869
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906394871
Option 4 ID : 4906394870
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4
U
ST

Q.14 Non-directive counselling as proposed by Karl rogers is most effective when the counsellor:
Ans A. Is equipped with good communication skills.

B. Can effectively use testing techniques.

C. Establishes good rapport with the subject.


'S

D. Is properly trained in counselling skills.


IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391205
Option 1 ID : 4906394819
Option 2 ID : 4906394820
Option 3 ID : 4906394818
Option 4 ID : 4906394817
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.15 A test is valid for the purpose for which it is used, then:

Ans A. It must have perfect reliability.

B. It has certain degree of reliability.

C. It is certainly not reliable.

D. It is not necessarily reliable.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391220
Option 1 ID : 4906394879
Option 2 ID : 4906394877
Option 3 ID : 4906394880
Option 4 ID : 4906394878
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4

Q.16 Which of the following teaching method may be categorized as learning-centric approach?
Ans A. Lecture-cum-demonstration

E!
B. Power-point presentation

C. Online lecture by specialist

M
D. Laboratory experimentation

TI Question Type :
Question ID :
MCQ
4906391209
Option 1 ID : 4906394833
Option 2 ID :
Y
4906394834
Option 3 ID : 4906394836
Option 4 ID : 4906394835
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
U

Marks : 1
ST

Q.17 Which of the following strategies, when adopted by the teacher, acts as best motivator for
students?
Ans A. Conducting frequent tests

B. Using teaching aids


'S

C. Seeking students’ cooperation


IT

D. Encouraging competition

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391206
Option 1 ID : 4906394821
Option 2 ID : 4906394823
Option 3 ID : 4906394824
Option 4 ID : 4906394822
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.18 Which of the following concepts is a measure of consistency of scores obtained on
repeated application of the same test under same conditions?
Ans A. Validity

B. Objectivity

C. Reliability

D. Usability

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391219
Option 1 ID : 4906394876
Option 2 ID : 4906394873
Option 3 ID : 4906394874
Option 4 ID : 4906394875
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.19 Which of the following may be used as assessment tool for constructivist teaching-learning
process?

E!
Ans A. Teacher’s observation

B. Multiple-choice test

M
C. Open-ended essay test

D. Structured interview TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391215
Y
Option 1 ID : 4906394860
Option 2 ID : 4906394857
D

Option 3 ID : 4906394859
Option 4 ID : 4906394858
U

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
ST

Marks : -1/4

Q.20 Which of the following statements describes learner-centric teaching-learning process?


Ans A. Teacher directs students to read the book.
'S

B. Students discuss the issues among themselves.

C. Teacher speaks and students listen passively.


IT

D. Teacher dictates notes and students write down.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391208
Option 1 ID : 4906394832
Option 2 ID : 4906394830
Option 3 ID : 4906394831
Option 4 ID : 4906394829
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Section : History & Poltical Science


Q.21 Which of the following rock edicts describe the Kalinga War?
Ans A. Rock Edict XIII

B. Rock Edict XI

C. Rock Edict XII

D. Rock Edict X

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391223
Option 1 ID : 4906394892
Option 2 ID : 4906394890
Option 3 ID : 4906394891
Option 4 ID : 4906394889
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.22 The materialistic view to achieve salvation is propounded by

Ans A. Mimansa school of philosophy

E!
B. Charvoka school of philosophy

C. Vedanta school of philosophy

M
D. Nyaya school of philosophy

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391221
Option 1 ID : 4906394883
Option 2 ID :
Y
4906394882
Option 3 ID : 4906394881
Option 4 ID : 4906394884
D

Status : Not Answered


Chosen Option : --
U

Marks : 0
ST

Q.23 Which Article of Constitution deals with uniform civil code?


Ans A. None

B. 44
'S

C. 43B

D. 48
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391231
Option 1 ID : 4906394924
Option 2 ID : 4906394922
Option 3 ID : 4906394921
Option 4 ID : 4906394923
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.24 In the Government Act of 1919, which of the following was treated as a “Transferred
Subject”?
Ans A. Education

B. Law and Order

C. Finance

D. Land Revenue

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391226
Option 1 ID : 4906394901
Option 2 ID : 4906394902
Option 3 ID : 4906394903
Option 4 ID : 4906394904
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.25 Which of the following is not listed as Fundamental Duty under Article 51 A of Constitution?
Ans A. To support all policy of Govt. of the day

E!
B. To protect and improve natural environment

C. To safeguard public property

M
D. To develop scientific temper

TI Question Type :
Question ID :
MCQ
4906391232
Option 1 ID : 4906394928
Option 2 ID :
Y
4906394927
Option 3 ID : 4906394926
Option 4 ID : 4906394925
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
U

Marks : 1
ST

Q.26 To whom is Chief Minister and his Cabinet collectively responsible?


Ans A. None of above

B. High Court
'S

C. Governor

D. Legislative Assembly
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391236
Option 1 ID : 4906394944
Option 2 ID : 4906394943
Option 3 ID : 4906394942
Option 4 ID : 4906394941
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.27 What was the name of the series of programmes and projects F.D. Roosevelt enacted during
the Great Depression?
Ans A. Five Year Plan

B. New Economic Policy

C. The Marshall Plan

D. The New Deal

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391228
Option 1 ID : 4906394911
Option 2 ID : 4906394910
Option 3 ID : 4906394909
Option 4 ID : 4906394912
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.28 In which city was Archduke Ferdinand assassinated?


Ans A. Sarajevo

E!
B. Zagreb

C. Belgrade

M
D. Vienna

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391227
Option 1 ID : 4906394907
Option 2 ID :
Y
4906394905
Option 3 ID : 4906394906
Option 4 ID : 4906394908
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
U

Marks : 1
ST

Q.29 The most striking feature of Ashokan pillar is


Ans A. Uniformity of workmanship

B. Carving
'S

C. Floral design

D. Polish
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391222
Option 1 ID : 4906394888
Option 2 ID : 4906394886
Option 3 ID : 4906394885
Option 4 ID : 4906394887
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
Q.30 Eleventh Schedule of Constitution deals with
Ans A. Power, Authority and Responsibility of Municipalities

B. Languages

C. Power, Authority and Responsibility of Panchayats

D. Provision as to disqualification on grounds of defection

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391235
Option 1 ID : 4906394938
Option 2 ID : 4906394940
Option 3 ID : 4906394937
Option 4 ID : 4906394939
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.31 Article 19 does not mention which of the following


Ans A. Right to Employment

E!
B. Freedom of Speech and Expression

C. Right to Assemble peacefully

M
D. Right to form Association or Union

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391240
Option 1 ID : 4906394960
Option 2 ID : 4906394957
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906394958
Option 4 ID : 4906394959
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
U
ST

Q.32 “Freedom is my birth right” who said it?


Ans A. Kautilya

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

C. Swami Vivekanand
'S

D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy


IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391234
Option 1 ID : 4906394934
Option 2 ID : 4906394933
Option 3 ID : 4906394935
Option 4 ID : 4906394936
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.33 Which of following country was NOT a member of the Axis power.
Ans A. Germany

B. France

C. Japan

D. Italy

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391229
Option 1 ID : 4906394913
Option 2 ID : 4906394916
Option 3 ID : 4906394915
Option 4 ID : 4906394914
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.34 The Resolution for Quit India Movement was passed in which city?
Ans A. Bombay

E!
B. Madras

C. Lucknow

M
D. Calcutta

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391224
Option 1 ID : 4906394896
Option 2 ID : 4906394895
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906394893
Option 4 ID : 4906394894
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
U
ST

Q.35 “No person shall be deprived of his …………………. or personal liberty except according to
procedure established by law.” Fill up the blank from options below.
Ans A. Property

B. Wealth
'S

C. Privacy

D. Life
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391233
Option 1 ID : 4906394929
Option 2 ID : 4906394932
Option 3 ID : 4906394931
Option 4 ID : 4906394930
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.36 Who among the following has right to speak or otherwise take part in proceedings of either
House of Parliament?
Ans A. Attorney General

B. Solicitor General

C. Advocate General

D. Comptroller and Auditor General

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391238
Option 1 ID : 4906394950
Option 2 ID : 4906394951
Option 3 ID : 4906394952
Option 4 ID : 4906394949
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4

Q.37 Where did the formation of Azad Hind Fauz take place?
Ans A. Singapore

E!
B. Tokyo

C. Delhi

M
D. Imphal

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391225
Option 1 ID : 4906394899
Option 2 ID : 4906394897
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906394900
Option 4 ID : 4906394898
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
U

Marks : 1
ST

Q.38 Which of the following is not an original jurisdiction of Supreme Court as per Article 131 of
the Constitution?
Ans A. Dispute between Govt. of India and any state or states on one side and one or more
state(s) on other
'S

B. Dispute between Govt. of India and foreign Government

C. Dispute between two or more states


IT

D. Dispute between Govt. of India and one or more State.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391237
Option 1 ID : 4906394946
Option 2 ID : 4906394948
Option 3 ID : 4906394947
Option 4 ID : 4906394945
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.39 Who was the most important scientist associated with the Manhattan Project?
Ans A. Einstein

B. Robert Oppenheimer

C. Niel Bohr

D. Leslie Groves

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391230
Option 1 ID : 4906394919
Option 2 ID : 4906394920
Option 3 ID : 4906394917
Option 4 ID : 4906394918
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.40 Preamble of Constitution of India does not list which of the following justice.
Ans A. Economic

E!
B. Social

C. Philosophical

M
D. Political

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391239
Option 1 ID : 4906394954
Option 2 ID : 4906394953
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906394956
Option 4 ID : 4906394955
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
U
ST

Section : Economics & Geography

Q.41 What is the largest available source of freshwater on earth?


Ans A. Glacier and icecaps
'S

B. Rivers & soil moisture

C. Ground water
IT

D. Lakes & swamps

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391244
Option 1 ID : 4906394975
Option 2 ID : 4906394976
Option 3 ID : 4906394973
Option 4 ID : 4906394974
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.42 What is not true about Physical Quality of life index?
Ans A. A major criticism is a considerable overlap between life expectancy and infant
mortality
B. It uses indicators like life expectancy, infant mortality and per capita income

C. It is an alternative to GDP as a measure of development

D. It was developed by Morris David Morris in the 1970s

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391259
Option 1 ID : 4906395035
Option 2 ID : 4906395034
Option 3 ID : 4906395036
Option 4 ID : 4906395033
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.43 Hygrometer is an instrument used to measure


Ans A. Atmospheric pressure

E!
B. Rainfall

C. Sunshine

M
D. Humidity

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391247
Option 1 ID : 4906394986
Option 2 ID : 4906394987
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906394985
Option 4 ID : 4906394988
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
U

Marks : 1
ST

Q.44 Which plateau is located between Aravali and Vindhya ranges?


Ans A. Baghelkhand

B. Bundelkhand
'S

C. Malwa

D. Deccan
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391243
Option 1 ID : 4906394971
Option 2 ID : 4906394970
Option 3 ID : 4906394972
Option 4 ID : 4906394969
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4
Q.45 Which one is a cold current?
Ans A. Brazillian current

B. Kuroshio Current

C. Gulf stream

D. Labrader current

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391248
Option 1 ID : 4906394989
Option 2 ID : 4906394992
Option 3 ID : 4906394990
Option 4 ID : 4906394991
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.46 Which is not an example of metamorphic rock?


Ans A. Marble

E!
B. Quartzite

C. Conglomerate

M
D. Schist

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391246
Option 1 ID : 4906394982
Option 2 ID : 4906394983
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906394984
Option 4 ID : 4906394981
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4
U
ST

Q.47 Which, among the following, is not a poverty eradication programme?


Ans A. Make in India

B. Deendayal Antyodoya Yojna-NRLM

C. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojna


'S

D. MGNREGS
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391256
Option 1 ID : 4906395023
Option 2 ID : 4906395021
Option 3 ID : 4906395024
Option 4 ID : 4906395022
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.48 Which one of the following methods of map scale is a universal method?
Ans A. Diagonal Scale

B. Representative Fraction

C. Statement Scale

D. Graphical Scale

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391250
Option 1 ID : 4906395000
Option 2 ID : 4906394998
Option 3 ID : 4906394997
Option 4 ID : 4906394999
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.49 Which one of the following is not correctly matched?


Ans A. Copper mines - Singhbhum

E!
B. Iron ore - Bailadila

C. Bauxite - Koraput

M
D. Manganese - Kudremukh

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391245
Option 1 ID : 4906394978
Option 2 ID : 4906394979
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906394980
Option 4 ID : 4906394977
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
U
ST

Q.50 Which of the following is not true about the multidimensional poverty index currently being
constructed by NITI Ayog?
Ans A. Ownership of a mobile phone is an indicator of standard of living

B. It makes use of broad indicators such as health, education and standard of living
'S

C. There are 12 indicators with different weights

D. The above indicators have each equal weight in the index


IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391254
Option 1 ID : 4906395016
Option 2 ID : 4906395013
Option 3 ID : 4906395015
Option 4 ID : 4906395014
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4
Q.51 October and November months give more rainfall in
Ans A. Northern Circar

B. Coromandal coast

C. Eastern Hills

D. Konkan coast

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391242
Option 1 ID : 4906394968
Option 2 ID : 4906394967
Option 3 ID : 4906394965
Option 4 ID : 4906394966
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.52 Which employment programme is mandated to provide at least 100 days unskilled work in a
year to rural people who seek employment?
Ans A. MGNREGS

E!
B. JRY

C. IRDP

M
D. RLEGP

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391253
Option 1 ID : 4906395011
Option 2 ID : 4906395009
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906395010
Option 4 ID : 4906395012
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
U

Marks : 1
ST

Q.53 Pir Panjal is the longest and important range of


Ans A. Trans Himalaya

B. Outer Himalaya
'S

C. Greater Himalaya

D. Lesser Himalaya
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391241
Option 1 ID : 4906394963
Option 2 ID : 4906394964
Option 3 ID : 4906394962
Option 4 ID : 4906394961
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.54 The rate at which commercial banks borrow funds from the RBI is known as
Ans A. Prime lending rate

B. Prime borrowing rate

C. Repo rate

D. Reverse Repo rate

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391257
Option 1 ID : 4906395026
Option 2 ID : 4906395028
Option 3 ID : 4906395025
Option 4 ID : 4906395027
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.55 What is frictional unemployment?


Ans A. Persons who are unemployed temporarily while moving from one job to another

E!
B. Persons seem to be employed but are not productive

C. Persons who are not employed full time

M
D. Persons who are unemployed seasonally

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391260
Option 1 ID : 4906395038
Option 2 ID : 4906395040
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906395039
Option 4 ID : 4906395037
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
U
ST

Q.56 Economic growth brought about by a change in the structure of population of a country due
to a fall in fertility rate and mortality is called:
Ans A. Private dividend

B. National dividend
'S

C. Demographic dividend

D. Social dividend
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391251
Option 1 ID : 4906395002
Option 2 ID : 4906395004
Option 3 ID : 4906395003
Option 4 ID : 4906395001
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.57 Who suggested the need to move away from calorie-based measurement of Poverty in
India?
Ans A. B.S. Minhas

B. Dandekar Rath

C. M.S. Ahluwalia

D. Suresh Tendulkar

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391255
Option 1 ID : 4906395018
Option 2 ID : 4906395017
Option 3 ID : 4906395019
Option 4 ID : 4906395020
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.58 Development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the
ability of future generations to meet their own needs is known as:

E!
Ans A. Economic development

B. Environmental protection

M
C. Sustainable development

D. Social development
TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391252
Option 1 ID : 4906395006
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906395005
Option 3 ID : 4906395008
D

Option 4 ID : 4906395007
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
ST

Q.59 With an initial deposit of Rs.1000, and a Cash Reserve Ratio of 5%, total credit that can be
created by commercial bank is
Ans A. Rs.2000
'S

B. Rs.10000

C. Rs.20000
IT

D. Rs.5000

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391258
Option 1 ID : 4906395029
Option 2 ID : 4906395030
Option 3 ID : 4906395031
Option 4 ID : 4906395032
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.60 The 66 ½0 North of the equator is known as
Ans A. Arctic Circle

B. Tropic of capricon

C. Greenwich Meridian

D. Tropic of cancer

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391249
Option 1 ID : 4906394996
Option 2 ID : 4906394993
Option 3 ID : 4906394994
Option 4 ID : 4906394995
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Section : English

Q.61 Read the passage below and answer the questions choosing the correct alternatives:

E!
A tiny uninhabited island, one of many that constitute the republic of Maldives, disappeared
into the sea, raising speculation among scientists about onset global warming. The islands
of Maldives rise barely two or four meters above sea level. Various scientific studies had

M
identified the Maldives and Bangladesh as the most prone to flooding due to predicted rise
in sea-level caused by one or two-degree Celsius increase in the earth’s temperature. The
Maldives case has aroused considerable curiosity among scientists due to the predicted
TI
vulnerability of the islands to minute changes in the global weather system. Further, the
Maldives already face serious environmental degradation, mainly because of high
population density on the few inhabited islands. Male the capital of Maldives is an extreme
case, with a population density of more than 30,000 people per square kilometer.
Y
What calamity be fell on the tiny island?
Ans A. A Tsunami swept it
D

B. A gale storm hit it hard

C. A wild fire broke out.


U

D. It disappeared into sea.


ST

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391261
Option 1 ID : 4906395041
Option 2 ID : 4906395042
'S

Option 3 ID : 4906395043
Option 4 ID : 4906395044
IT

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.62 Read the passage below and answer the questions choosing the correct alternatives:

A tiny uninhabited island, one of many that constitute the republic of Maldives, disappeared
into the sea, raising speculation among scientists about onset global warming. The islands
of Maldives rise barely two or four meters above sea level. Various scientific studies had
identified the Maldives and Bangladesh as the most prone to flooding due to predicted rise
in sea-level caused by one or two-degree Celsius increase in the earth’s temperature. The
Maldives case has aroused considerable curiosity among scientists due to the predicted
vulnerability of the islands to minute changes in the global weather system. Further, the
Maldives already face serious environmental degradation, mainly because of high
population density on the few inhabited islands. Male the capital of Maldives is an extreme
case, with a population density of more than 30,000 people per square kilometer.
What do the scientists speculate about the reason of this calamity?
Ans A. Test of a nuclear bomb somewhere

B. A tremor under the earth

C. The onset of global warming

D. deforestation

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391262
Option 1 ID : 4906395045
Option 2 ID : 4906395046

E!
Option 3 ID : 4906395047
Option 4 ID : 4906395048
Status : Answered

M
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4
TI
Q.63 Read the passage below and answer the questions choosing the correct alternatives:

A tiny uninhabited island, one of many that constitute the republic of Maldives, disappeared
Y
into the sea, raising speculation among scientists about onset global warming. The islands
of Maldives rise barely two or four meters above sea level. Various scientific studies had
identified the Maldives and Bangladesh as the most prone to flooding due to predicted rise
D

in sea-level caused by one or two-degree Celsius increase in the earth’s temperature. The
Maldives case has aroused considerable curiosity among scientists due to the predicted
vulnerability of the islands to minute changes in the global weather system. Further, the
U

Maldives already face serious environmental degradation, mainly because of high


population density on the few inhabited islands. Male the capital of Maldives is an extreme
ST

case, with a population density of more than 30,000 people per square kilometer.
The islands of Maldives are prone to flooding because:
Ans A. they are low-lying

B. They are cyclone-prone


'S

C. They have no trees on them

D. No system is in place to control flood


IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391263
Option 1 ID : 4906395049
Option 2 ID : 4906395050
Option 3 ID : 4906395051
Option 4 ID : 4906395052
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.64 Read the passage below and answer the questions choosing the correct alternatives:

A tiny uninhabited island, one of many that constitute the republic of Maldives, disappeared
into the sea, raising speculation among scientists about onset global warming. The islands
of Maldives rise barely two or four meters above sea level. Various scientific studies had
identified the Maldives and Bangladesh as the most prone to flooding due to predicted rise
in sea-level caused by one or two-degree Celsius increase in the earth’s temperature. The
Maldives case has aroused considerable curiosity among scientists due to the predicted
vulnerability of the islands to minute changes in the global weather system. Further, the
Maldives already face serious environmental degradation, mainly because of high
population density on the few inhabited islands. Male the capital of Maldives is an extreme
case, with a population density of more than 30,000 people per square kilometer.
A serious problem being faced by the Maldives is:
Ans A. High percentage of voters

B. High density of forest flora

C. High density of population

D. High altitude of mountains

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391264
Option 1 ID : 4906395053
Option 2 ID : 4906395054

E!
Option 3 ID : 4906395055
Option 4 ID : 4906395056
Status : Answered

M
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.65
TI
Read the passage below and answer the questions choosing the correct alternatives:
Y
A tiny uninhabited island, one of many that constitute the republic of Maldives, disappeared
into the sea, raising speculation among scientists about onset global warming. The islands
of Maldives rise barely two or four meters above sea level. Various scientific studies had
D

identified the Maldives and Bangladesh as the most prone to flooding due to predicted rise
in sea-level caused by one or two-degree Celsius increase in the earth’s temperature. The
Maldives case has aroused considerable curiosity among scientists due to the predicted
U

vulnerability of the islands to minute changes in the global weather system. Further, the
Maldives already face serious environmental degradation, mainly because of high
ST

population density on the few inhabited islands. Male the capital of Maldives is an extreme
case, with a population density of more than 30,000 people per square kilometer.
The noun form of inhabit is
Ans A. inhabitable

B. habitable
'S

C. habitat
IT

D. inhabitant

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391265
Option 1 ID : 4906395057
Option 2 ID : 4906395058
Option 3 ID : 4906395059
Option 4 ID : 4906395060
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.66 Read the poem below and answer the questions choosing the correct alternatives:

I’m an angel in disguise


With dimpled cheeks
and laughing eyes.
Don’t you want me ?
I am your baby
I have come as a gift
from Heaven’s hall in your heart.
Oh, hear my call
Mother, keep me. I am your baby.
Oh Mother, let me live,
don’t take away my life.
Mother, let me live
I want to live my life.
Mother, you will see when you look at me
and you hold me in your arms.
You will fall in love with me.
Like a flower in your care, I am a gift
so pure and fair.
Don’t you want me?
I am your baby.
My little life please don’t abort, Let me live,
don’t cut me short.
Mother, keep me. I am your baby.
Who is the speaker in the poem?

E!
Ans A. an angel

B. a baby girl who is just born

M
C. a baby girl whose mother wants to abort.

D. a still born girl child


TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391266
Option 1 ID : 4906395061
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906395062
Option 3 ID : 4906395063
D

Option 4 ID : 4906395064
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
ST
'S
IT
Q.67
Read the poem below and answer the questions choosing the correct alternatives:

I’m an angel in disguise


With dimpled cheeks
and laughing eyes.
Don’t you want me ?
I am your baby
I have come as a gift
from Heaven’s hall in your heart.
Oh, hear my call
Mother, keep me. I am your baby.
Oh Mother, let me live,
don’t take away my life.
Mother, let me live
I want to live my life.
Mother, you will see when you look at me
and you hold me in your arms.
You will fall in love with me.

Like a flower in your care, I am a gift


so pure and fair.
Don’t you want me?
I am your baby.
My little life please don’t abort, Let me live,
don’t cut me short.

E!
Mother, keep me. I am your baby.
The speaker is in danger because_______________.
Ans A. her mother is cruel

M
B. she is an angel in disguise

C. she is a girl

D. she is a gift from heaven


TI
Question Type : MCQ
Y
Question ID : 4906391267
Option 1 ID : 4906395065
D

Option 2 ID : 4906395066
Option 3 ID : 4906395067
U

Option 4 ID : 4906395068
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
ST

Marks : 1
'S
IT
Q.68 Read the poem below and answer the questions choosing the correct alternatives:

I’m an angel in disguise


With dimpled cheeks
and laughing eyes.
Don’t you want me ?
I am your baby
I have come as a gift
from Heaven’s hall in your heart.
Oh, hear my call
Mother, keep me. I am your baby.
Oh Mother, let me live,
don’t take away my life.
Mother, let me live
I want to live my life.
Mother, you will see when you look at me
and you hold me in your arms.
You will fall in love with me.
Like a flower in your care, I am a gift
so pure and fair.
Don’t you want me?
I am your baby.
My little life please don’t abort, Let me live,
don’t cut me short.
Mother, keep me. I am your baby.
The mother knows that________________.

E!
Ans A. the baby in her womb is ugly

B. it is wrong to kill the baby

M
C. the baby will not live long

D. she wants the baby girl to be born


TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391268
Option 1 ID : 4906395069
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906395070
Option 3 ID : 4906395071
D

Option 4 ID : 4906395072
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : C
Marks : -1/4
ST
'S
IT
Q.69 Read the poem below and answer the questions choosing the correct alternatives:

I’m an angel in disguise


With dimpled cheeks
and laughing eyes.
Don’t you want me ?
I am your baby
I have come as a gift
from Heaven’s hall in your heart.
Oh, hear my call
Mother, keep me. I am your baby.
Oh Mother, let me live,
don’t take away my life.
Mother, let me live
I want to live my life.
Mother, you will see when you look at me
and you hold me in your arms.
You will fall in love with me.
Like a flower in your care, I am a gift
so pure and fair.
Don’t you want me?
I am your baby.
My little life please don’t abort, Let me live,
don’t cut me short.
Mother, keep me. I am your baby.
Which expression reveals the girl child’s desire to live?

E!
Ans A. I am an angel

B. I have come as a gift.

M
C. I am your baby

D. I want to live my life.


TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391269
Option 1 ID : 4906395073
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906395074
Option 3 ID : 4906395075
D

Option 4 ID : 4906395076
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
ST
'S
IT
Q.70 Read the poem below and answer the questions choosing the correct alternatives:

I’m an angel in disguise


With dimpled cheeks
and laughing eyes.
Don’t you want me ?
I am your baby
I have come as a gift
from Heaven’s hall in your heart.
Oh, hear my call
Mother, keep me. I am your baby.
Oh Mother, let me live,
don’t take away my life.
Mother, let me live
I want to live my life.
Mother, you will see when you look at me
and you hold me in your arms.
You will fall in love with me.
Like a flower in your care, I am a gift
so pure and fair.
Don’t you want me?
I am your baby.
My little life please don’t abort, Let me live,
don’t cut me short.
Mother, keep me. I am your baby.
The mother will fall in love with the baby girl when______________.

E!
Ans A. mother holds the baby in her arms

B. the baby babbles

M
C. the baby grows up

D. the baby is born


TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391270
Option 1 ID : 4906395077
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906395078
Option 3 ID : 4906395079
D

Option 4 ID : 4906395080
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
ST

Q.71 Which is the correct pronunciation of ‘ticket’?


Ans A. / tiket /

B. / tikit /
'S

C. / ti : kit /
IT

D. / tiki : t /

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391271
Option 1 ID : 4906395081
Option 2 ID : 4906395082
Option 3 ID : 4906395083
Option 4 ID : 4906395084
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.72 The correct pronunciation of ‘precious’ is :
Ans A. / preʃiəs /

B. / priʃəs /

C. / preʃə:s /

D. / preʃəs /

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391272
Option 1 ID : 4906395085
Option 2 ID : 4906395086
Option 3 ID : 4906395087
Option 4 ID : 4906395088
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0

Q.73 ‘houses’ can be transcribed as:


Ans A. / haʊsiz /

E!
B. / haʊziz /

C. / haʊses /

M
D. / haʊzi:z /

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391273
Option 1 ID : 4906395089
Option 2 ID : 4906395090
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906395091
Option 4 ID : 4906395092
D

Status : Not Answered


Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
U
ST

Q.74 The correct pronounciation of ‘village, is:


Ans A. / vi : lidz /

B. /vili :dz /

C. / vilidz /
'S

D. / viledz /
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391274
Option 1 ID : 4906395093
Option 2 ID : 4906395094
Option 3 ID : 4906395095
Option 4 ID : 4906395096
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.75 Which of the following is a grammatically correct sentence?
Ans A. Tell me what is your name?

B. Tell me what your name is?

C. Tell me what your name?

D. Will you tell me what is your name?

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391275
Option 1 ID : 4906395097
Option 2 ID : 4906395098
Option 3 ID : 4906395099
Option 4 ID : 4906395100
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.76 Which of the following is grammatically acceptable?


Ans A. One should do one’s duty sincerely

E!
B. One should do his duty sincerely

C. One should do her duty sincerely.

M
D. One should do their duty sincerely.

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391276
Option 1 ID : 4906395101
Option 2 ID : 4906395102
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906395103
Option 4 ID : 4906395104
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
U
ST

Q.77 Which sentence is grammatically correct?


Ans A. I came here today.

B. I had come here today.

C. I come here today.


'S

D. I have come here today.


IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391277
Option 1 ID : 4906395105
Option 2 ID : 4906395106
Option 3 ID : 4906395107
Option 4 ID : 4906395108
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
Q.78 Which of the following is grammatically acceptable?
Ans A. When I will arrive, I will call you.

B. When I shall arrive, I shall call you.

C. When I arrive, I will call you.

D. When I am arrive, I will call you.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391278
Option 1 ID : 4906395109
Option 2 ID : 4906395110
Option 3 ID : 4906395111
Option 4 ID : 4906395112
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.79 Which sentence is grammatically correct?


Ans A. You can meet the Principal between 2 to 3 O’clock in the afternoon.

E!
B. You can meet the Principal between 2 and 3 O‘clock in the afternoon.

C. You can meet the Principal between 2 or 3 O’clock in the afternoon.

M
D. You can meet the Principal between 2 by 3 O’clock in the afternoon.

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391279
Option 1 ID : 4906395113
Option 2 ID : 4906395114
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906395115
Option 4 ID : 4906395116
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
U
ST

Q.80 We ___________ Konark Temple two years ago. The correct form of the verb is :
Ans A. had visited

B. visited

C. have visited
'S

D. visit
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391280
Option 1 ID : 4906395117
Option 2 ID : 4906395118
Option 3 ID : 4906395119
Option 4 ID : 4906395120
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.81 Which of the following is a complex sentence?
Ans A. A barking dog seldom bites.

B. A barking dog does seldom bites.

C. Seldom does a barking dog bite.

D. A dog that barks seldom bites.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391281
Option 1 ID : 4906395121
Option 2 ID : 4906395122
Option 3 ID : 4906395123
Option 4 ID : 4906395124
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.82 Rajesh said to his friend, “are you free tomorrow?”. It can be changed into indirect speech
as:
Ans A. Rajesh asked his friend if he was free the next day.

E!
B. Rajesh asked his friend was he free the next day.

C. Rajesh asked his friend if he is free the next day.

M
D. Rajesh asked his friend if he was free tomorrow.

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391282
Option 1 ID : 4906395125
Option 2 ID :
Y
4906395126
Option 3 ID : 4906395127
Option 4 ID : 4906395128
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
U

Marks : 1
ST

Q.83 Who is knocking at my door? It can be changed into passive voice as:
Ans A. By whom has my door been knocked at?

B. By whom is my door being knocked at?


'S

C. By whom was my door being knocked at?

D. By whom is my door knocking at?


IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391283
Option 1 ID : 4906395129
Option 2 ID : 4906395130
Option 3 ID : 4906395131
Option 4 ID : 4906395132
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.84 My brother is good ___________ Mathematics. The appropriate preposition is:
Ans A. in

B. for

C. at

D. by

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391284
Option 1 ID : 4906395133
Option 2 ID : 4906395134
Option 3 ID : 4906395135
Option 4 ID : 4906395136
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

Q.85 The Principal wanted to know how many teacher were on leave. In which part of the
sentence does an error lie?
Ans A. The Principal

E!
B. wanted to know

C. how many teacher

M
D. were on leave

TI Question Type :
Question ID :
MCQ
4906391285
Option 1 ID : 4906395137
Option 2 ID :
Y
4906395138
Option 3 ID : 4906395139
Option 4 ID : 4906395140
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
U

Marks : 1
ST

Q.86

Ans A. turned down

B. turned off
'S

C. turned up
IT

D. turned out

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391286
Option 1 ID : 4906395141
Option 2 ID : 4906395142
Option 3 ID : 4906395143
Option 4 ID : 4906395144
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.87

Ans A. The subject of the sentence

B. An object of a transitive verb

C. A complement of a verb

D. An object of a preposition

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391287
Option 1 ID : 4906395145
Option 2 ID : 4906395146
Option 3 ID : 4906395147
Option 4 ID : 4906395148
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1

Q.88

E!
Ans A. A noun clause

B. A defining relative clause

M
C. A non-defining relative clause

D. An adverb clause
TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391288
Option 1 ID : 4906395149
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906395150
Option 3 ID : 4906395151
D

Option 4 ID : 4906395152
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
ST

Q.89 The bouquet of red roses ____________ very sweet. Fill in the blank with the right choice.
Ans A. smell

B. are smelling
'S

C. is smelling
IT

D. smells

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391289
Option 1 ID : 4906395153
Option 2 ID : 4906395154
Option 3 ID : 4906395155
Option 4 ID : 4906395156
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.90 Which sentence is correctly punctuated?
Ans A. The Pilot announced. “Fasten your seat belts.”

B. The Pilot announced, “Fasten your seat belts.”

C. The Pilot announced, “Fasten your seat belts”

D. The Pilot announced “Fasten your seat belts.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391290
Option 1 ID : 4906395157
Option 2 ID : 4906395158
Option 3 ID : 4906395159
Option 4 ID : 4906395160
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Q.91 Which of the following words is not spelt correctly?


Ans A. Defination

E!
B. Tuition

C. Maintenance

M
D. Calender

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391291
Option 1 ID : 4906395161
Option 2 ID : 4906395162
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906395163
Option 4 ID : 4906395164
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4
U
ST

Q.92 Which sentence is grammatically correct?


Ans A. The Captain along with his teammates were entering the field.

B. The Captain along with his teammates is entering the field.

C. The Captain along with his teammates entering the field.


'S

D. The Captain along with his teammates are entering the field.
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391292
Option 1 ID : 4906395165
Option 2 ID : 4906395166
Option 3 ID : 4906395167
Option 4 ID : 4906395168
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.93 The old man is too weak to walk. It can be changed in to a complex sentence as:
Ans A. The old man is so weak that he cannot walk.

B. The old man is very weak and he cannot walk.

C. The old man is so weak and he cannot walk.

D. The old man is weak enough to walk.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391293
Option 1 ID : 4906395169
Option 2 ID : 4906395170
Option 3 ID : 4906395171
Option 4 ID : 4906395172
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.94 As soon as the match ended, it started raining.


This sentence can be written using ‘no sooner……………………’ as:
Ans A. No sooner the match ended, it started raining.

E!
B. No sooner did the match end, it started raining.

C. No sooner the match ended than it started raining.

M
D. No sooner than the match ended, it started raining.

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391294
Option 1 ID : 4906395173
Option 2 ID :
Y
4906395174
Option 3 ID : 4906395175
Option 4 ID : 4906395176
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
U

Marks : 1
ST

Q.95 Identify the sequence of language skills


Ans A. Listening and reading precede writing and speaking.

B. Listening and speaking precede reading and writing.


'S

C. Speaking and writing precede listening and writing.

D. Speaking and listening precede reading and writing


IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391295
Option 1 ID : 4906395177
Option 2 ID : 4906395178
Option 3 ID : 4906395179
Option 4 ID : 4906395180
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.96 In which of the following are the micro skills like, sounds, stress, rhythm and intonation etc.
involved?
Ans A. Listening

B. Reading

C. Speaking

D. Writing

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391296
Option 1 ID : 4906395181
Option 2 ID : 4906395182
Option 3 ID : 4906395183
Option 4 ID : 4906395184
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4

Q.97 In primary years a learner’s fluency, vocabulary, power of imagination and creativity can be
developed through:

E!
Ans A. Role-play

B. Story-telling

M
C. Total Physical Response (TPR)

D. Chain Drill
TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391297
Option 1 ID : 4906395185
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906395186
Option 3 ID : 4906395187
D

Option 4 ID : 4906395188
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
ST

Q.98 Pre-reading involves ____________. (Fill in the blank with the correct option)
Ans A. Skimming

B. Scanning
'S

C. Intensive Reading
IT

D. Extensive Reading

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391298
Option 1 ID : 4906395189
Option 2 ID : 4906395190
Option 3 ID : 4906395191
Option 4 ID : 4906395192
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4
Q.99 Which method of Reading is based on the principle of sound-letter relationship?
Ans A. The Phonic Method

B. The sentence Method

C. The word method

D. The story method

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391299
Option 1 ID : 4906395193
Option 2 ID : 4906395194
Option 3 ID : 4906395195
Option 4 ID : 4906395196
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

Q.100 Slogans or instructions used by the road, on walls, advertisement in hoardings in


newspapers and magazines come under the category of :
Ans A. Descriptive text

E!
B. Argumentative text

C. Persuasive text

M
D. Expository text

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391300
Option 1 ID : 4906395197
Option 2 ID : 4906395198
Y
Option 3 ID : 4906395199
Option 4 ID : 4906395200
D

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
U

Marks : -1/4
ST

Q.101 What is the effective strategy for the teacher to correct a student’s writing?
Ans A. Correcting every error in the write-up.

B. Locating patterns of error and suggesting improvement.


'S

C. Writing detailed comments in the margin.

D. Offering encouraging and summary remarks.


IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391301
Option 1 ID : 4906395201
Option 2 ID : 4906395202
Option 3 ID : 4906395203
Option 4 ID : 4906395204
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.102 Which one of the following, according to National Curriculum Frame Work 2005 is NOT an
objective of language teaching-learning?
Ans A. Introducing the concept of learning without too much load.

B. Giving all children easy access to quality education without any discrimination.

C. Curricular practices should be in alignment with secularism, social justice, and


equality.
D. Strengthening a regional education system.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391302
Option 1 ID : 4906395205
Option 2 ID : 4906395206
Option 3 ID : 4906395207
Option 4 ID : 4906395208
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4

Q.103 Banishing mother tongue from the English class room is the characteristic feature of:

E!
Ans A. Direct method

B. Bi-lingual method

M
C. Grammar translation method

D. Total Physical Response Method (TPR)


TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391303
Option 1 ID : 4906395209
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906395210
Option 3 ID : 4906395211
D

Option 4 ID : 4906395212
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
ST

Q.104 What is the purpose of continuous and comprehensive Evaluation (CCE)?


Ans A. to assess the level of competencies achieved by the student.

B. to promote the student to the next higher class


'S

C. to assess the student’s understanding of the text books.


IT

D. to test the student’s ability to remember lessons taught.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391304
Option 1 ID : 4906395213
Option 2 ID : 4906395214
Option 3 ID : 4906395215
Option 4 ID : 4906395216
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.105 The purpose of diagnostic test in language learning is to:
Ans A. give feedback to the parents

B. know the gaps in learner’s understanding

C. write the progress report of students

D. plan and prepare question paper for summative assessment

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391305
Option 1 ID : 4906395217
Option 2 ID : 4906395218
Option 3 ID : 4906395219
Option 4 ID : 4906395220
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

Section : Odia

Q.106

E!
M
TI
Y
D
U

Ans
A.
ST

B.

C.
'S

D.
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391306
Option 1 ID : 4906395221
Option 2 ID : 4906395222
Option 3 ID : 4906395223
Option 4 ID : 4906395224
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.107

Ans
A.

B.

E!
C.

M
D.
TI Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391307
Y
Option 1 ID : 4906395225
Option 2 ID : 4906395226
D

Option 3 ID : 4906395227
Option 4 ID : 4906395228
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
ST
'S
IT
Q.108

Ans
A.

B.

E!
C.

M
D.

TI Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391308
Option 1 ID : 4906395229
Y
Option 2 ID : 4906395230
Option 3 ID : 4906395231
D

Option 4 ID : 4906395232
Status : Answered
U

Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
ST
'S
IT
Q.109

Ans
A.

B.

C.

E!
D.

M
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391309
TI Option 1 ID : 4906395233
Option 2 ID : 4906395234
Option 3 ID : 4906395235
Option 4 ID : 4906395236
Y
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
D

Marks : 1
U
ST
'S
IT
Q.110

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

E!
Question Type : MCQ

M
Question ID : 4906391310
Option 1 ID : 4906395237
TI Option 2 ID : 4906395238
Option 3 ID : 4906395239
Option 4 ID : 4906395240
Status : Answered
Y
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
D

Q.111
U

Ans
A.
ST

B.

C.
'S

D.
IT

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391311
Option 1 ID : 4906395241
Option 2 ID : 4906395242
Option 3 ID : 4906395243
Option 4 ID : 4906395244
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.112

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391312
Option 1 ID : 4906395245
Option 2 ID : 4906395246
Option 3 ID : 4906395247
Option 4 ID : 4906395248
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

E!
Q.113

M
Ans
A.

B.
TI
C.
Y
D.
D

Question Type : MCQ


U

Question ID : 4906391313
Option 1 ID : 4906395249
ST

Option 2 ID : 4906395250
Option 3 ID : 4906395251
Option 4 ID : 4906395252
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
'S

Marks : 1
IT

Q.114

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391314
Option 1 ID : 4906395253
Option 2 ID : 4906395254
Option 3 ID : 4906395255
Option 4 ID : 4906395256
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.115

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391315
Option 1 ID : 4906395257
Option 2 ID : 4906395258
Option 3 ID : 4906395259
Option 4 ID : 4906395260
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D

E!
Marks : 1

Q.116

M
Ans
A.

B.
TI
C.
Y
D.
D
U

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391316
ST

Option 1 ID : 4906395261
Option 2 ID : 4906395262
Option 3 ID : 4906395263
Option 4 ID : 4906395264
Status : Answered
'S

Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
IT

Q.117

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391317
Option 1 ID : 4906395265
Option 2 ID : 4906395266
Option 3 ID : 4906395267
Option 4 ID : 4906395268
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.118

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391318
Option 1 ID : 4906395269
Option 2 ID : 4906395270
Option 3 ID : 4906395271
Option 4 ID : 4906395272
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1

E!
Q.119

M
Ans
A.

B. TI
C.
Y
D.
D

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391319
U

Option 1 ID : 4906395273
Option 2 ID : 4906395274
ST

Option 3 ID : 4906395275
Option 4 ID : 4906395276
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
'S

Marks : 1
IT

Q.120

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391320
Option 1 ID : 4906395277
Option 2 ID : 4906395278
Option 3 ID : 4906395279
Option 4 ID : 4906395280
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.121

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391321
Option 1 ID : 4906395281
Option 2 ID : 4906395282
Option 3 ID : 4906395283
Option 4 ID : 4906395284
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

E!
Q.122

M
Ans
A.

B. TI
C.

D.
Y

Question Type : MCQ


D

Question ID : 4906391322
Option 1 ID : 4906395285
U

Option 2 ID : 4906395286
Option 3 ID : 4906395287
ST

Option 4 ID : 4906395288
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
'S

Q.123
IT

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391323
Option 1 ID : 4906395289
Option 2 ID : 4906395290
Option 3 ID : 4906395291
Option 4 ID : 4906395292
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4
Q.124

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391324
Option 1 ID : 4906395293
Option 2 ID : 4906395294
Option 3 ID : 4906395295
Option 4 ID : 4906395296
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -1/4

E!
Q.125

M
Ans
A.

B.
TI
C.
Y
D.
D

Question Type : MCQ


U

Question ID : 4906391325
Option 1 ID : 4906395297
ST

Option 2 ID : 4906395298
Option 3 ID : 4906395299
Option 4 ID : 4906395300
Status : Answered
'S

Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
IT

Q.126

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391326
Option 1 ID : 4906395301
Option 2 ID : 4906395302
Option 3 ID : 4906395303
Option 4 ID : 4906395304
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.127

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391327
Option 1 ID : 4906395305
Option 2 ID : 4906395306
Option 3 ID : 4906395307
Option 4 ID : 4906395308
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

E!
Q.128

M
Ans
A.

B.
TI
C.
Y
D.
D

Question Type : MCQ


U

Question ID : 4906391328
Option 1 ID : 4906395309
ST

Option 2 ID : 4906395310
Option 3 ID : 4906395311
Option 4 ID : 4906395312
Status : Answered
'S

Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
IT

Q.129

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391329
Option 1 ID : 4906395313
Option 2 ID : 4906395314
Option 3 ID : 4906395315
Option 4 ID : 4906395316
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.130

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391330
Option 1 ID : 4906395317
Option 2 ID : 4906395318
Option 3 ID : 4906395319
Option 4 ID : 4906395320
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

E!
Q.131

Ans

M
A.

B. TI
C.
Y
D.
D

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391331
U

Option 1 ID : 4906395321
Option 2 ID : 4906395322
ST

Option 3 ID : 4906395323
Option 4 ID : 4906395324
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
'S

Marks : -1/4
IT

Q.132

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391332
Option 1 ID : 4906395325
Option 2 ID : 4906395326
Option 3 ID : 4906395327
Option 4 ID : 4906395328
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.133

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391333
Option 1 ID : 4906395329
Option 2 ID : 4906395330
Option 3 ID : 4906395331
Option 4 ID : 4906395332
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -1/4

E!
Q.134

M
Ans
A.

B.
TI
Y
C.
D

D.
U

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391334
ST

Option 1 ID : 4906395333
Option 2 ID : 4906395334
Option 3 ID : 4906395335
Option 4 ID : 4906395336
'S

Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
IT
Q.135

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391335
Option 1 ID : 4906395337
Option 2 ID : 4906395338
Option 3 ID : 4906395339
Option 4 ID : 4906395340
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A

E!
Marks : 1

Q.136

M
Ans
A.
TI
B.
Y
C.
D

D.
U

Question Type : MCQ


ST

Question ID : 4906391336
Option 1 ID : 4906395341
Option 2 ID : 4906395342
Option 3 ID : 4906395343
'S

Option 4 ID : 4906395344
Status : Answered
IT

Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.137

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391337
Option 1 ID : 4906395345
Option 2 ID : 4906395346
Option 3 ID : 4906395347
Option 4 ID : 4906395348
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C

E!
Marks : 1

Q.138

M
Ans
A.

B.
TI
C.
Y
D.
D

Question Type : MCQ


U

Question ID : 4906391338
Option 1 ID : 4906395349
ST

Option 2 ID : 4906395350
Option 3 ID : 4906395351
Option 4 ID : 4906395352
Status : Answered
'S

Chosen Option : B
Marks : -1/4
IT

Q.139

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391339
Option 1 ID : 4906395353
Option 2 ID : 4906395354
Option 3 ID : 4906395355
Option 4 ID : 4906395356
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.140

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391340
Option 1 ID : 4906395357
Option 2 ID : 4906395358
Option 3 ID : 4906395359
Option 4 ID : 4906395360
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1

E!
Q.141

Ans

M
A.

B.

C.
TI
D.
Y
D

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391341
Option 1 ID : 4906395361
U

Option 2 ID : 4906395362
Option 3 ID : 4906395363
ST

Option 4 ID : 4906395364
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
'S

Q.142
IT

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391342
Option 1 ID : 4906395365
Option 2 ID : 4906395366
Option 3 ID : 4906395367
Option 4 ID : 4906395368
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.143

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391343
Option 1 ID : 4906395369
Option 2 ID : 4906395370
Option 3 ID : 4906395371
Option 4 ID : 4906395372
Status : Answered

E!
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

M
Q.144

TI
Y
Ans
A.
D

B.
U

C.
ST

D.

Question Type : MCQ


'S

Question ID : 4906391344
Option 1 ID : 4906395373
IT

Option 2 ID : 4906395374
Option 3 ID : 4906395375
Option 4 ID : 4906395376
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Marks : 0
Q.145

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Question Type : MCQ


Question ID : 4906391345
Option 1 ID : 4906395377
Option 2 ID : 4906395378
Option 3 ID : 4906395379
Option 4 ID : 4906395380
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1

E!
Q.146

M
Ans
A.

B. TI
C.
Y
D.
D

Question Type : MCQ


U

Question ID : 4906391346
Option 1 ID : 4906395381
Option 2 ID : 4906395382
ST

Option 3 ID : 4906395383
Option 4 ID : 4906395384
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
'S

Marks : -1/4
IT
Q.147

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

E!
Question Type : MCQ

M
Question ID : 4906391347
Option 1 ID : 4906395385
TI Option 2 ID : 4906395386
Option 3 ID : 4906395387
Option 4 ID : 4906395388
Status : Answered
Y
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
D
U
ST
'S
IT
Q.148

Ans
A.

B.

C.

E!
D.

M
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 4906391348
TI Option 1 ID : 4906395389
Option 2 ID : 4906395390
Option 3 ID : 4906395391
Option 4 ID : 4906395392
Y
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
D

Marks : 1
U
ST
'S
IT
Q.149

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

E!
Question Type : MCQ

M
Question ID : 4906391349
Option 1 ID : 4906395393
TI Option 2 ID : 4906395394
Option 3 ID : 4906395395
Option 4 ID : 4906395396
Status : Answered
Y
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
D
U
ST
'S
IT
Q.150

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

E!
Question Type : MCQ

M
Question ID : 4906391350
Option 1 ID : 4906395397
TI Option 2 ID : 4906395398
Option 3 ID : 4906395399
Option 4 ID : 4906395400
Status : Answered
Y
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
D
U
ST
'S
IT

You might also like