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CSA UNIT-5 (mcq's) - Helps for ugc net exam

Network Analysis (Bangalore University)

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SYSTEM SOFTWARE AND OPERATING

SYSYEM (MCQ’S)

Unit - 5

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1. The physical devices of a computer : a) 256

a) Software b) 124
b) Package c) 4096
c) Hardware d) 3096
d) System Software
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: The memory unit is made up of
Explanation: Hardware refers to the 4,096 bytes. Memory unit is responsible for
physical devices of a computer system. the storage of data. It is an important entity
Software refers to a collection of programs. in the computer system.
A program is a sequence of instructions.
5. Which of the following is not an example
2. Software Package is a group of programs of system software?
that solve multiple problems. a) Language Translator
a) True b) Utility Software
b) False c) Communication Software
d) Word Processors
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The Answer: d
software package is a group of programs Explanation: A system software is
that solve a specific problem or perform a responsible for controlling the operations of
specific type of job. a computer system. Word Processor is an
application software since it is specific to its
3. refer to renewing or
purpose.
changing components like increasing the
main memory, or hard disk capacities, or 6. A person who designs the programs in a
adding speakers, or modems, etc. software package is called :
a) Grades a) User
b) Prosody b) Software Manager
c) Synthesis c) System Developer
d) Upgrades d) System Programmer

Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Upgrades is the right term to Explanation: The programs included in a
be used. Upgrades are installed to renew or system software package are called system
implement a new feature. Except for programs. The programmers who design
upgrades, hardware is normally one-time them and prepare them are called system
expense. programmers.

4. The memory unit is made up of 7. is designed to

bytes. solve a specific problem or to do a specific

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task. c) Blocked
a) Application Software d) Execution
b) System Software
Answer: c
c) Utility Software
Explanation: There is no blocked state in a
d) User
process model. The different states are
Answer: a ready, running, executing, waiting and
Explanation: An application software is terminated.
specific to solving a specific problem.
11. The language made up of binary coded
System software is designed for controlling
instructions.
the operations of a computer system.
a) Machine
8. Assembler is used as a translator for? b) C
a) Low level language c) BASIC
b) High Level Language d) High level
c) COBOL
Answer: a
d) C
Explanation: The language made up of
Answer: a binary coded instructions built into the
Explanation: Assembler is used in case of hardware of a particular computer and used
low level languages. It is generally used to directly by the computer is machine
make the binary code into an language.
understandable format. Interpreter is used
12. Binary code comprises of digits from 0
with the high level languages similarly.
to 9.
9. What do you call a program in execution? a) True
a) Command b) False
b) Process
Answer: b
c) Task
Explanation: The statement is false. Binary
d) Instruction
as the word suggests contains only 2 digits :
Answer: b 0 and 1.
Explanation: Option Process is correct. A 0 denotes false and 1 denotes a truth value.
program is a set of instructions. A program
13. The contains the address
in execution is called a process.
of the next instruction to be executed.
10. Which of the following is not a process a) IR
state? b) PC
a) Terminated c) Accumulator
b) Running d) System counter

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Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: PC stands for program counter Explanation: The statement is true.
(It contains the address of the next Advantages of using assembly language are:
instruction to be executed). • It requires less memory and execution
time.
14. A document that specifies how many
• It allows hardware-specific complex jobs
times and with what data the program must
in an easier way.
be run in order to thoroughly test it.
• It is suitable for time-critical jobs.
a) addressing plan
b) test plan 17. The data size of a word is
c) validation plan a) 2-byte
d) verification plan b) 4-byte
c) 8-byte
Answer: b
d)16-byte
Explanation: Test plan is the A document
that specifies how many times and with Answer: a
what data the program must be run in Explanation: The processor supports the
order to thoroughly test it. It comes under following data sizes:
testing. • Word: a 2-byte data item
• Double word: a 4-byte (32 bit) data item,
15. Each personal computer has a
etc.
that manages the computer‟s
arithmetical, logical and control activities. 18. A direct reference of specific location.
a) Microprocessor a) Segment Address
b) Assembler b) Absolute Address
c) Microcontroller c) Offset
d) Interpreter d) Memory Address

Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Microprocessor handles all Explanation: There are two kinds of
these activities. Each family of processors memory addresses:
has its own set of instructions for handling • An absolute address – a direct reference
various operations like getting input from of specific location.
keyboard, displaying information on a • The segment address (or offset) – starting
screen and performing various other jobs. address of a memory segment with the
offset value.
16. Assembly Language requires less
memory and execution time. 19. A Borland Turbo Assembler.
a) True a) nasm
b) False b) tasm

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c) gas “directly,” without first being translated

d) asm into machine language.

Answer: b 23. Executables might be called

Explanation: Tasm is the borland turbo a) native code
assembler. Nasm is used with linux b) executable code
generally. Gas is the GNU assembler. c) complex code
d) machine code
20. Prolog comes under
a) Logic Programming Answer: a
b) Procedural Programming Explanation: The executables are
c) OOP sometimes called native code. HLL are
d) Functional translated to Machine language called the
native code.
Answer: a
Explanation: Prolog stands for Programming 24. Source program is compiled to an
in Logic. The options mentioned are the intermediate form called
four categories of programming. Prolog is a a) Byte Code
type of logic programming. b) Smart code
c) Executable code
21. Java is procedural programming.
d) Machine code
a) True
b) False Answer: a
Explanation: The Source program is
Answer: b
compiled to an intermediate form called
Explanation: The statement is false. Java is a
byte code. For each supported platform,
type of object oriented programming
write a “virtual machine” emulator that
language. It involves solving real-life
reads byte code and emulates its execution.
problems as well.
25. What is operating system?
22. A program that can execute high-level
a) collection of programs that manages
language programs.
hardware resources
a) Compiler
b) system service provider to the
b) Interpreter
application programs
c) Sensor
c) link to interface the hardware and
d) Circuitry
application programs
Answer: b d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: Interpreter is a program that
Answer: d
can execute high-level language programs
Explanation: None.

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26. To access the services of operating c) to handle the files in operating system
system, the interface is provided by the d) none of the mentioned

a) System calls Answer: a

b) API Explanation: None.
c) Library 30. By operating system, the resource
d) Assembly instructions management can be done via
Answer: a a) time division multiplexing
Explanation: None. b) space division multiplexing
c) time and space division multiplexing
27. Which one of the following is not true? d) none of the mentioned
a) kernel is the program that constitutes the
central core of the operating system Answer: c
b) kernel is the first part of operating Explanation: None.
system to load into memory during booting 31. If a process fails, most operating system
c) kernel is made of various modules which write the error information to a
can not be loaded in running operating a) log file
system b) another running process
d) kernel remains in the memory during the c) new file
entire computer session d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.
28. Which one of the following error will be 32. Which facility dynamically adds probes
handle by the operating system? to a running system, both in user processes
a) power failure and in the kernel?
b) lack of paper in printer a) DTrace
c) connection failure in the network b) DLocate
d) all of the mentioned c) DMap
Answer: d d) DAdd
Explanation: None. Answer: a
29. What is the main function of the Explanation: None.
command interpreter? 33. Which one of the following is not a real
a) to get and execute the next user- time operating system?
specified command a) VxWorks
b) to provide the interface between the API b) Windows CE
and application program

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c) RTLinux an error
d) Palm OS b) software generated interrupt caused by
an error
Answer: d
c) user generated interrupt caused by an
Explanation: None.
error
34. The OS X has d) none of the mentioned
a) monolithic kernel
Answer: b
b) hybrid kernel
Explanation: None.
c) microkernel
d) monolithic kernel with modules 38. What is an ISR?
a) Information Service Request
Answer: b
b) Interrupt Service Request
Explanation: None.
c) Interrupt Service Routine
35. The initial program that is run when the d) Information Service Routine
computer is powered up is called
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
a) boot program
b) bootloader 39. What is an interrupt vector?
c) initializer a) It is an address that is indexed to an
d) bootstrap program interrupt handler
b) It is a unique device number that is
Answer: d
indexed by an address
Explanation: None.
c) It is a unique identity given to an
36. How does the software trigger an interrupt
interrupt? d) None of the mentioned
a) Sending signals to CPU through bus
Answer: a
b) Executing a special operation called
Explanation: None.
system call
c) Executing a special program called 40. The systems which allow only one
system program process execution at a time, are called
d) Executing a special program called
interrupt trigger program a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
Answer: b
c) unitasking systems
Explanation: None.
d) none of the mentioned
37. What is a trap/exception?
Answer: b
a) hardware generated interrupt caused by
Explanation: Those systems which allows

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more than one process execution at a time, c) when process is using the CPU
are called multiprogramming systems. d) none of the mentioned
Uniprocessing means only one processor.
Answer: a
41. In operating system, each process has Explanation: When process is unable to run
its own until some task has been completed, the
a) address space and global variables process is in blocked state and if process is
b) open files using the CPU, it is in running state.
c) pending alarms, signals and signal
45. What is interprocess communication?
handlers
a) communication within the process
d) all of the mentioned
b) communication between two process
Answer: d c) communication between two threads of
Explanation: None. same process
d) none of the mentioned
42. In Unix, Which system call creates the
new process? Answer: b
a) fork Explanation: None.
b) create
46. A set of processes is deadlock if
c) new
d) none of the mentioned
a) each process is blocked and will remain
Answer: a so forever
Explanation: None. b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
43. A process can be terminated due to d) none of the mentioned

a) normal exit Answer: a

b) fatal error Explanation: None.
c) killed by another process
47. A process stack does not contain
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d a) Function parameters

Explanation: None. b) Local variables
c) Return addresses
44. What is the ready state of a process? d) PID of child process
a) when process is scheduled to run after
some execution Answer: d
b) when process is unable to run until some Explanation: None.
task has been completed

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48. Which system call returns the process 52. What will happen when a process
identifier of a terminated child? terminates?
a) wait a) It is removed from all queues
b) exit b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) fork c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) get d) Its process control block is never de-
allocated
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
49. The address of the next instruction to
be executed by the current process is 53. Which process can be affected by other
provided by the processes executing in the system?
a) CPU registers a) cooperating process
b) Program counter b) child process
c) Process stack c) parent process
d) Pipe d) init process

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

50. Which of the following do not belong to 54. When several processes access the
queues for processes? same data concurrently and the outcome of
a) Job Queue the execution depends on the particular
b) PCB queue order in which the access takes place, is
c) Device Queue called?
d) Ready Queue a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
Answer: b
c) essential condition
Explanation: None.
d) critical condition
51. When the process issues an I/O request
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
a) It is placed in an I/O queue
b) It is placed in a waiting queue 55. If a process is executing in its critical
c) It is placed in the ready queue section, then no other processes can be
d) It is placed in the Job queue executing in their critical section. This
condition is called?
Answer: a
a) mutual exclusion
Explanation: None.
b) critical exclusion

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c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion a) priority inversion
b) priority removal
Answer: a
c) priority exchange
Explanation: None.
d) priority modification
56. Which one of the following is a
Answer: a
synchronization tool?
Explanation: None.
a) thread
b) pipe 60. Process synchronization can be done on
c) semaphore
d) socket a) hardware level
b) software level
Answer: c c) both hardware and software level
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned
57. A semaphore is a shared integer Answer: c
variable Explanation: None.
a) that can not drop below zero
b) that can not be more than zero 61. What is Inter process communication?
c) that can not drop below one a) allows processes to communicate and
d) that can not be more than one synchronize their actions when using the
same address space
Answer: a b) allows processes to communicate and
Explanation: None. synchronize their actions without using the
58. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the same address space
c) allows the processes to only synchronize
a) mutex locks their actions without communication
b) binary semaphores d) none of the mentioned
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores
Answer: b
d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
62. Message passing system allows
Explanation: Binary Semaphores are known
processes to
as mutex locks.
a) communicate with one another without
59. When high priority task is indirectly resorting to shared data
preempted by medium priority task b) communicate with one another by
effectively inverting the relative priority of resorting to shared data
the two tasks, the scenario is called c) share data

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d) name the recipient or sender of the b) A communication link can be associated

message with exactly two processes
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair
Answer: a
of processes(N = max. number of processes
Explanation: None.
supported by system)
63. Which of the following two operations d) Exactly two link exists between each pair
are provided by the IPC facility? of processes
a) write & delete message
Answer: b
b) delete & receive message
Explanation: None.
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message 67. In indirect communication between
processes P and Q
Answer: d
a) there is another process R to handle and
Explanation: None.
pass on the messages between P and Q
64. Messages sent by a process b) there is another machine between the
a) have to be of a fixed size two processes to help communication
b) have to be a variable size c) there is a mailbox to help communication
c) can be fixed or variable sized between P and Q
d) None of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

65. The link between two processes P and Q 68. In the non blocking send
to send and receive messages is called a) the sending process keeps sending until
the message is received
a) communication link b) the sending process sends the message
b) message-passing link and resumes operation
c) synchronization link c) the sending process keeps sending until it
d) all of the mentioned receives a message
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
66. Which of the following are TRUE for
direct communication? 69. In the Zero capacity queue
a) A communication link can be associated a) the queue can store at least one message
with N number of process(N = max. number b) the sender blocks until the receiver
of processes supported by system) receives the message
c) the sender keeps sending and the

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messages don‟t wait in the queue 73. The interval from the time of
d) none of the mentioned submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as
Answer: b
a) waiting time
Explanation: None.
b) turnaround time
70. The Zero Capacity queue c) response time
a) is referred to as a message system with d) throughput
buffering
Answer: b
b) is referred to as a message system with
Explanation: None.
no buffering
c) is referred to as a link 74. Which scheduling algorithm allocates
d) none of the mentioned the CPU first to the process that requests
the CPU first?
Answer: b
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
Explanation: None.
b) shortest job scheduling
71. Which module gives control of the CPU c) priority scheduling
to the process selected by the short-term d) none of the mentioned
scheduler?
Answer: a
a) dispatcher
Explanation: None.
b) interrupt
c) scheduler 75. In priority scheduling algorithm
d) none of the mentioned
a) CPU is allocated to the process with
Answer: a highest priority
Explanation: None. b) CPU is allocated to the process with
72. The processes that are residing in main lowest priority
memory and are ready and waiting to c) Equal priority processes can not be
execute are kept on a list called scheduled
d) None of the mentioned
a) job queue
Answer: a
b) ready queue
Explanation: None.
c) execution queue
d) process queue 76. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a
process arrives at the ready queue, its
Answer: b
priority is compared with the priority of
Explanation: None.
a) all process
b) currently running process

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c) parent process c) money

d) init process d) all of the mentioned

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

77. Which algorithm is defined in Time 81. What are the two steps of a process
quantum? execution?
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm a) I/O & OS Burst
b) round robin scheduling algorithm b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) priority scheduling algorithm c) Memory & I/O Burst
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm d) OS & Memory Burst

Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

78. Process are classified into different 82. An I/O bound program will typically
groups in have
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm a) a few very short CPU bursts
b) round robin scheduling algorithm b) many very short I/O bursts
c) priority scheduling algorithm c) many very short CPU bursts
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm d) a few very short I/O bursts

Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

79. CPU scheduling is the basis of 83. A process is selected from the
queue by the scheduler, to be
a) multiprocessor systems executed.
b) multiprogramming operating systems a) blocked, short term
c) larger memory sized systems b) wait, long term
d) none of the mentioned c) ready, short term
d) ready, long term
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: None.
80. With multiprogramming is used
productively. 84. Round robin scheduling falls under the
a) time category of
b) space a) Non-preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling

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c) All of the mentioned c) use many resources

d) None of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: Large computers are
overloaded with a greater number of
85. With round robin scheduling algorithm
processes.
in a time shared system
a) using very large time slices converts it 88. What is FIFO algorithm?
into First come First served scheduling a) first executes the job that came in last in
algorithm the queue
b) using very small time slices converts it b) first executes the job that came in first in
into First come First served scheduling the queue
algorithm c) first executes the job that needs minimal
c) using extremely small time slices processor
increases performance d) first executes the job that has maximum
d) using very small time slices converts it processor needs
into Shortest Job First algorithm
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: All the processes will be able
89. The strategy of making processes that
to get completed.
are logically runnable to be temporarily
86. The portion of the process scheduler in suspended is called
an operating system that dispatches a) Non preemptive scheduling
processes is concerned with b) Preemptive scheduling
a) assigning ready processes to CPU c) Shortest job first
b) assigning ready processes to waiting d) First come First served
queue
Answer: b
c) assigning running processes to blocked
Explanation: None.
queue
d) all of the mentioned 90. What is Scheduling?
a) allowing a job to use the processor
Answer: a
b) making proper use of processor
Explanation: None.
c) all of the mentioned
87. Complex scheduling algorithms d) none of the mentioned

a) are very appropriate for very large Answer: a

computers Explanation: None.
b) use minimal resources

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91. Which is the most optimal scheduling P3 7

algorithm?
P4 3
a) FCFS – First come First served
b) SJF – Shortest Job First Assuming the above process being
c) RR – Round Robin scheduled with the SJF scheduling
d) None of the mentioned algorithm.
a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
Answer: b
b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
Explanation: None.
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
92. The real difficulty with SJF in short term d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms
scheduling is
Answer: a
a) it is too good an algorithm
Explanation: None.
b) knowing the length of the next CPU
request 95. Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling
c) it is too complex to understand is sometimes called
d) none of the mentioned a) Fast SJF scheduling
b) EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First
Answer: b
c) HRRN scheduling – Highest Response
Explanation: None.
Ratio Next
93. The FCFS algorithm is particularly d) SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining
troublesome for Time Next
a) time sharing systems
Answer: d
b) multiprogramming systems
Explanation: None.
c) multiprocessor systems
d) operating systems 96. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority
algorithm where the priority is
Answer: b
Explanation: In a time sharing system, each
a) the predicted next CPU burst
user needs to get a share of the CPU at
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU
regular intervals.
burst
94. Consider the following set of processes, c) the current CPU burst
the length of the CPU burst time given in d) anything the user wants
milliseconds.
Answer: a
Process Burst time Explanation: The larger the CPU burst, the
lower the priority.
P1 6

P2 8

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97. Choose one of the disadvantages of the c) non – critical section

priority scheduling algorithm? d) synchronizing
a) it schedules in a very complex manner
Answer: b
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time
Explanation: None.
c) it can lead to some low priority process
waiting indefinitely for the CPU 101. Which of the following conditions must
d) none of the mentioned be satisfied to solve the critical section
problem?
Answer: c
a) Mutual Exclusion
Explanation: None.
b) Progress
98. Concurrent access to shared data may c) Bounded Waiting
result in d) All of the mentioned
a) data consistency
Answer: d
b) data insecurity
Explanation: None.
c) data inconsistency
d) none of the mentioned 102. Mutual exclusion implies that
Answer: c
a) if a process is executing in its critical
Explanation: None.
section, then no other process must be
99. A situation where several processes executing in their critical sections
access and manipulate the same data b) if a process is executing in its critical
concurrently and the outcome of the section, then other processes must be
execution depends on the particular order executing in their critical sections
in which access takes place is called c) if a process is executing in its critical
section, then all the resources of the system
a) data consistency must be blocked until it finishes execution
b) race condition d) none of the mentioned
c) aging Answer: a
d) starvation Explanation: None.

Answer: b 103. Bounded waiting implies that there

Explanation: None. exists a bound on the number of times a
process is allowed to enter its critical
100. The segment of code in which the
section
process may change common variables,
a) after a process has made a request to
update tables, write into files is known as
enter its critical section and before the
request is granted
a) program
b) when another process is in its critical
b) critical section

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section a) hardware for a system

c) before a process has made a request to b) special program for a system
enter its critical section c) integer variable
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

105. A minimum of variable(s) is/are 109. What are the two atomic operations
required to be shared between processes to permissible on semaphores?
solve the critical section problem. a) wait
a) one b) stop
b) two c) hold
c) three d) none of the mentioned
d) four
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
110. What are Spinlocks?
106. An un-interruptible unit is known as a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical
sections of programs
a) single b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context
b) atomic switches
c) static c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor
d) none of the mentioned systems
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Answer: d
Explanation: None.
107. TestAndSet instruction is executed
111. What is the main disadvantage of
a) after a particular process spinlocks?
b) periodically a) they are not sufficient for many process
c) atomically b) they require busy waiting
d) none of the mentioned c) they are unreliable sometimes
d) they are too complex for programmers
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
108. Semaphore is a/an to solve
the critical section problem.

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112. The wait operation of the semaphore Answer: b

basically works on the basic Explanation: None.
system call.
116. What is a mutex?
a) stop()
a) is a binary mutex
b) block()
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) hold()
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
d) wait()
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
113. What will happen if a non-recursive
117. At a particular time of computation the
mutex is locked more than once?
value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20
a) Starvation
P operations and 15 V operations were
b) Deadlock
completed on this semaphore. The resulting
c) Aging
value of the semaphore is?
d) Signaling
a) 42
Answer: b b) 2
Explanation: If a thread which had already c) 7
locked a mutex, tries to lock the mutex d) 12
again, it will enter into the waiting list of
Answer: b
that mutex, which results in a deadlock. It is
Explanation: P represents Wait and V
because no other thread can unlock the
represents Signal. P operation will decrease
mutex.
the value by 1 every time and V operation
114. What is a semaphore? will increase the value by 1 every time.
a) is a binary mutex
118. The bounded buffer problem is also
b) must be accessed from only one process
known as
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
a) Readers – Writers problem
d) none of the mentioned
b) Dining – Philosophers problem
Answer: c c) Producer – Consumer problem
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned

15. What are the two kinds of semaphores? Answer: c

a) mutex & counting Explanation: None.
b) binary & counting
119. In the bounded buffer problem, there
c) counting & decimal
are the empty and full semaphores that
d) decimal & binary

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a) count the number of empty and full Answer: a

buffers Explanation: None.
b) count the number of empty and full
123. A deadlock free solution to the dining
memory spaces
philosophers problem
c) count the number of empty and full
a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of
queues
starvation
d) none of the mentioned
b) does not necessarily eliminate the
Answer: a possibility of starvation
Explanation: None. c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of
problem further
120. In the bounded buffer problem
d) none of the mentioned

a) there is only one buffer Answer: b

b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than Explanation: None.
one but finite)
c) there are infinite buffers 124. What is a reusable resource?
d) the buffer size is bounded a) that can be used by one process at a time
and is not depleted by that use
Answer: b b) that can be used by more than one
Explanation: None. process at a time
c) that can be shared between various
121. To ensure difficulties do not arise in
threads
the readers – writers problem are
d) none of the mentioned
given exclusive access to the shared object.
a) readers Answer: a
b) writers Explanation: None.
c) readers and writers
d) none of the mentioned 125. Which of the following condition is
required for a deadlock to be possible?
Answer: b a) mutual exclusion
Explanation: None. b) a process may hold allocated resources
while awaiting assignment of other
122. The dining – philosophers problem will
resources
occur in case of
c) no resource can be forcibly removed
a) 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
from a process holding it
b) 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
d) all of the mentioned
c) 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
d) 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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126. A system is in the safe state if Answer: d

Explanation: None.
a) the system can allocate resources to each
process in some order and still avoid a 130. For an effective operating system,
deadlock when to check for deadlock?
b) there exist a safe sequence a) every time a resource request is made
c) all of the mentioned b) at fixed time intervals
d) none of the mentioned c) every time a resource request is made at
fixed time intervals
Answer: a d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
127. The circular wait condition can be Explanation: None.
prevented by
a) defining a linear ordering of resource 131. A problem encountered in multitasking
types when a process is perpetually denied
b) using thread necessary resources is called
c) using pipes a) deadlock
d) all of the mentioned b) starvation
c) inversion
Answer: a d) aging
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
128. Which one of the following is the Explanation: None.
deadlock avoidance algorithm?
a) banker‟s algorithm 132. Which one of the following is a visual (
b) round-robin algorithm mathematical ) way to determine the
c) elevator algorithm deadlock occurrence?
d) karn‟s algorithm a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
Answer: a c) inversion graph
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned

129. What is the drawback of banker‟s Answer: a

algorithm? Explanation: None.
a) in advance processes rarely know how
much resource they will need 133. To avoid deadlock
b) the number of processes changes as time a) there must be a fixed number of
progresses resources to allocate
c) resource once available can disappear b) resource allocation must be done only
d) all of the mentioned once

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c) all deadlocked processes must be 137. For a deadlock to arise, which of the
aborted following conditions must hold
d) inversion technique can be used simultaneously?
a) Mutual exclusion
Answer: a
b) No preemption
Explanation: None.
c) Hold and wait
134. The number of resources requested by d) All of the mentioned
a process
Answer: d
a) must always be less than the total
Explanation: None.
number of resources available in the system
b) must always be equal to the total 138. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the
number of resources available in the system system
c) must not exceed the total number of a) at least one resource must be held in a
resources available in the system non sharable mode
d) must exceed the total number of b) the processor must be a uniprocessor
resources available in the system rather than a multiprocessor
c) there must be at least one resource in a
Answer: c
sharable mode
Explanation: None.
d) all of the mentioned
135. The request and release of resources
Answer: a
are
Explanation: If another process requests
a) command line statements
that resource (non – shareable resource),
b) interrupts
the requesting process must be delayed
c) system calls
until the resource has been released.
d) special programs
139. For a Hold and wait condition to
Answer: c
prevail
Explanation: None.
a) A process must be not be holding a
136. What are Multithreaded programs? resource, but waiting for one to be freed,
a) lesser prone to deadlocks and then request to acquire it
b) more prone to deadlocks b) A process must be holding at least one
c) not at all prone to deadlocks resource and waiting to acquire additional
d) none of the mentioned resources that are being held by other
processes
Answer: b c) A process must hold at least one resource
Explanation: Multiple threads can compete and not be waiting to acquire additional
for shared resources. resources
d) None of the mentioned

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Answer: b c) operating system

Explanation: None. d) resources

140. Each request requires that the system Answer: a

consider the to decide Explanation: Resource allocation states are
whether the current request can be used to maintain the availability of the
satisfied or must wait to avoid a future already and current available resources.
possible deadlock.
143. A state is safe, if
a) resources currently available
a) the system does not crash due to
b) processes that have previously been in
deadlock occurrence
the system
b) the system can allocate resources to each
c) resources currently allocated to each
process in some order and still avoid a
process
deadlock
d) future requests and releases of each
c) the state keeps the system protected and
process
safe
Answer: a d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
141. Given a priori information about the Explanation: None.
number of resources of each type
144. A system is in a safe state only if there
that maybe requested for each process, it is
exists a
possible to construct an algorithm that
a) safe allocation
ensures that the system will never enter a
b) safe resource
deadlock state.
c) safe sequence
a) minimum
d) all of the mentioned
b) average
c) maximum Answer: c
d) approximate Explanation: None.
Answer: c 145. All unsafe states are
Explanation: None. a) deadlocks
b) not deadlocks
142. A deadlock avoidance algorithm
c) fatal
dynamically examines the to
d) none of the mentioned
ensure that a circular wait condition can
never exist. Answer: b
a) resource allocation state Explanation: None.
b) system storage state

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146. The wait-for graph is a deadlock c) rarely & frequently

detection algorithm that is applicable when d) none of the mentioned

a) all resources have a single instance Answer: b

b) all resources have multiple instances Explanation: None.
c) all resources have a single 7 multiple 150. What is the disadvantage of invoking
instances the detection algorithm for every request?
d) all of the mentioned a) overhead of the detection algorithm due
Answer: a to consumption of memory
Explanation: None. b) excessive time consumed in the request
to be allocated memory
147. An edge from process Pi to Pj in a wait c) considerable overhead in computation
for graph indicates that time
a) Pi is waiting for Pj to release a resource d) all of the mentioned
that Pi needs
b) Pj is waiting for Pi to release a resource Answer: c
that Pj needs Explanation: None.
c) Pi is waiting for Pj to leave the system 151. A deadlock can be broken by
d) Pj is waiting for Pi to leave the system
View Answer a) abort one or more processes to break the
circular wait
Answer: a
b) abort all the process in the system
Explanation: None.
c) preempt all resources from all processes
148. If the wait for graph contains a cycle d) none of the mentioned

a) then a deadlock does not exist Answer: a

b) then a deadlock exists Explanation: None.
c) then the system is in a safe state 152. The two ways of aborting processes
d) either deadlock exists or system is in a and eliminating deadlocks are
safe state
a) Abort all deadlocked processes
Answer: b
b) Abort all processes
Explanation: None.
c) Abort one process at a time until the
149. If deadlocks occur frequently, the deadlock cycle is eliminated
detection algorithm must be invoked d) All of the mentioned

a) rarely Answer: c
b) frequently Explanation: None.

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153. Those processes should be aborted on Answer: b

occurrence of a deadlock, the termination Explanation: None.
of which?
157. To to a safe state, the system
a) is more time consuming
needs to keep more information about the
b) incurs minimum cost
states of processes.
c) safety is not hampered
a) abort the process
d) all of the mentioned
b) roll back the process
Answer: b c) queue the process
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned

154. The process to be aborted is chosen on Answer: b

the basis of the following factors? Explanation: None.
a) priority of the process
158. If the resources are always preempted
b) process is interactive or batch
from the same process can
c) how long the process has computed
occur.
d) all of the mentioned
a) deadlock
Answer: d b) system crash
Explanation: None. c) aging
d) starvation
155. Cost factors for process termination
include Answer: d
a) Number of resources the deadlock Explanation: None.
process is not holding
159. What is the solution to starvation?
b) CPU utilization at the time of deadlock
a) the number of rollbacks must be included
c) Amount of time a deadlocked process has
in the cost factor
thus far consumed during its execution
b) the number of resources must be
d) All of the mentioned
included in resource preemption
Answer: c c) resource preemption be done instead
Explanation: None. d) all of the mentioned

156. If we preempt a resource from a Answer: a

process, the process cannot continue with Explanation: None.
its normal execution and it must be
160. CPU fetches the instruction from
a) aborted memory according to the value of
b) rolled back
a) program counter
c) terminated
b) status register
d) queued

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c) instruction register a) fragmentation

d) program status word b) paging
c) mapping
Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
161. A memory buffer used to
Explanation: None.
accommodate a speed differential is called
165. The address of a page table in memory
a) stack pointer is pointed by
b) cache a) stack pointer
c) accumulator b) page table base register
d) disk buffer c) page register
d) program counter
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
162. Which one of the following is the
address generated by CPU? 166. Program always deals with
a) physical address
b) absolute address a) logical address
c) logical address b) absolute address
d) none of the mentioned c) physical address
d) relative address
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
163. Run time mapping from virtual to
physical address is done by 167. The page table contains
a) Memory management unit a) base address of each page in physical
b) CPU memory
c) PCI b) page offset
d) None of the mentioned c) page size
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
164. Memory management technique in
which system stores and retrieves data 168. What is compaction?
from secondary storage for use in main a) a technique for overcoming internal
memory is called? fragmentation

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b) a paging technique contiguous section of memory

c) a technique for overcoming external b) all processes are contained in a single
fragmentation contiguous section of memory
d) a technique for overcoming fatal error c) the memory space is contiguous
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
169. Operating System maintains the page
table for 173. The relocation register helps in
a) each process
b) each thread a) providing more address space to
c) each instruction processes
d) each address b) a different address space to processes
c) to protect the address spaces of
Answer: a processes
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned
170. The main memory accommodates Answer: c
Explanation: None.
a) operating system
b) cpu 174. With relocation and limit registers,
c) user processes each logical address must be the
d) all of the mentioned limit register.
a) less than
Answer: a
b) equal to
Explanation: None.
c) greater than
171. What is the operating system? d) none of the mentioned
a) in the low memory
Answer: a
b) in the high memory
Explanation: None.
c) either low or high memory (depending on
the location of interrupt vector) 175. The operating system and the other
d) none of the mentioned processes are protected from being
modified by an already running process
Answer: c
because
Explanation: None.
a) they are in different memory spaces
172. In contiguous memory allocation b) they are in different logical addresses
c) they have a protection algorithm
a) each process is contained in a single d) every address generated by the CPU is

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being checked against the relocation and 179. If relocation is static and is done at
limit registers assembly or load time, compaction

Answer: d a) cannot be done

Explanation: None. b) must be done
176. In internal fragmentation, memory is c) must not be done
internal to a partition and d) can be done
a) is being used Answer: a
b) is not being used Explanation: None.
c) is always used
d) none of the mentioned 180. The disadvantage of moving all process
to one end of memory and all holes to the
Answer: b other direction, producing one large hole of
Explanation: None. available memory is
177. A solution to the problem of external a) the cost incurred
fragmentation is b) the memory used
a) compaction c) the CPU used
b) larger memory space d) all of the mentioned
c) smaller memory space Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: None.
Answer: a 181. is generally faster than
Explanation: None. and
178. Another solution to the problem of a) first fit, best fit, worst fit
external fragmentation problem is to b) best fit, first fit, worst fit
c) worst fit, best fit, first fit
a) permit the logical address space of a d) none of the mentioned
process to be noncontiguous
Answer: a
b) permit smaller processes to be allocated
Explanation: None.
memory at last
c) permit larger processes to be allocated 182. Physical memory is broken into fixed-
memory at last sized blocks called
d) all of the mentioned a) frames
b) pages
Answer: a
c) backing store
Explanation: None.
d) none of the mentioned

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Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

183. Logical memory is broken into blocks 187. The size of a page is typically
of the same size called
a) frames a) varied
b) pages b) power of 2
c) backing store c) power of 4
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

184. Every address generated by the CPU is 188. Each entry in a translation lookaside
divided into two parts. They are buffer (TLB) consists of
a) key
a) frame bit & page number b) value
b) page number & page offset c) bit value
c) page offset & frame bit d) constant
d) frame offset & page offset
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
189. If a page number is not found in the
185. The is used as an index TLB, then it is known as a
into the page table. a) TLB miss
a) frame bit b) Buffer miss
b) page number c) TLB hit
c) page offset d) All of the mentioned
d) frame offset
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
190. An uniquely identifies
186. The table contains the base processes and is used to provide address
address of each page in physical memory. space protection for that process.
a) process a) address space locator
b) memory b) address space identifier
c) page c) address process identifier
d) frame d) none of the mentioned

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Answer: b c) a value & segment number

Explanation: None. d) a key & value

191. The percentage of times a page Answer: a

number is found in the TLB is known as Explanation: None.

a) miss ratio 195. In paging the user provides only

b) hit ratio which is partitioned by the
c) miss percent hardware into and
d) none of the mentioned a) one address, page number, offset
b) one offset, page number, address
Answer: b c) page number, offset, address
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned

192. Memory protection in a paged Answer: a

environment is accomplished by Explanation: None.

a) protection algorithm with each page 196. Each entry in a segment table has a
b) restricted access rights to users
c) restriction on page visibility a) segment base
d) protection bit with each page b) segment peak
c) segment value
Answer: d d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
193. When the valid – invalid bit is set to Explanation: None.
valid, it means that the associated page
197. The segment base contains the
a) is in the TLB
b) has data in it a) starting logical address of the process
c) is in the process‟s logical address space b) starting physical address of the segment
d) is the system‟s physical address space in memory
c) segment length
Answer: c d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
194. In segmentation, each address is Explanation: None.
specified by
a) a segment number & offset 198. The segment limit contains the
b) an offset & value
a) starting logical address of the process

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b) starting physical address of the segment 202. The protection bit is 0/1 based on
in memory
c) segment length a) write only
d) none of the mentioned b) read only
c) read – write
Answer: c d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
199. The offset „d‟ of the logical address Explanation: None.
must be
a) greater than segment limit 203. If there are 32 segments, each of size
b) between 0 and segment limit 1Kb, then the logical address should have
c) between 0 and the segment number
d) greater than the segment number a) 13 bits
b) 14 bits
Answer: b c) 15 bits
Explanation: None. d) 16 bits
200. If the offset is legal Answer: a
a) it is used as a physical memory address Explanation: To specify a particular
itself segment, 5 bits are required. To select a
b) it is subtracted from the segment base to particular byte after selecting a page, 10
produce the physical memory address more bits are required. Hence 15 bits are
c) it is added to the segment base to required.
produce the physical memory address
d) none of the mentioned 204. If one or more devices use a common
set of wires to communicate with the
Answer: a computer system, the connection is called
Explanation: None.
a) CPU
201. When the entries in the segment
b) Monitor
tables of two different processes point to
c) Wirefull
the same physical location
d) Bus
a) the segments are invalid
b) the processes get blocked Answer: d
c) segments are shared Explanation: None.
d) all of the mentioned
205. A a set of wires and a rigidly
Answer: c defined protocol that specifies a set of
Explanation: None. messages that can be sent on the wires.
a) port

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b) node Answer: a
c) bus Explanation: None.
d) none of the mentioned
209. An I/O port typically consists of four
Answer: c registers status, control, and
Explanation: None. registers.
a) system in, system out
206. When device A has a cable that plugs
b) data in, data out
into device B, and device B has a cable that
c) flow in, flow out
plugs into device C and device C plugs into a
d) input, output
port on the computer, this arrangement is
called a Answer: b
a) port Explanation: None.
b) daisy chain
210. The register is read by the host
c) bus
to get input.
d) cable
a) flow in
Answer: b b) flow out
Explanation: None. c) data in
d) data out
207. The present a uniform
device-access interface to the I/O Answer: c
subsystem, much as system calls provide a Explanation: None.
standard interface between the application
211. The register is written by the
and the operating system.
host to send output.
a) Devices
a) status
b) Buses
b) control
c) Device drivers
c) data in
d) I/O systems
d) data out
Answer: c
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
208. A is a collection of
212. The hardware mechanism that allows a
electronics that can operate a port, a bus,
device to notify the CPU is called
or a device.
a) polling
a) controller
b) interrupt
b) driver
c) driver
c) host
d) controlling
d) bus

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Answer: b c) priority does not depend on the duration

Explanation: None. of the job
d) none of the mentioned
213. The CPU hardware has a wire called
that the CPU senses after Answer: a
executing every instruction. Explanation: None.
a) interrupt request line
217. In which scheduling certain amount of
b) interrupt bus
CPU time is allocated to each process?
c) interrupt receive line
a) earliest deadline first scheduling
d) interrupt sense line
b) proportional share scheduling
Answer: a c) equal share scheduling
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned

214. In real time operating system Answer: b

Explanation: None.
a) all processes have the same priority
b) a task must be serviced by its deadline 218. The problem of priority inversion can
period be solved by
c) process scheduling can be done only once a) priority inheritance protocol
d) kernel is not required b) priority inversion protocol
c) both priority inheritance and inversion
Answer: b protocol
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned

215. For real time operating systems, Answer: a

interrupt latency should be Explanation: None.
a) minimal
b) maximum 219. Earliest deadline first algorithm assigns
c) zero priorities according to
d) dependent on the scheduling a) periods
b) deadlines
Answer: a c) burst times
Explanation: Interrupt latency is the time d) none of the mentioned
duration between the generation of
interrupt and execution of its service. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
216. In rate monotonic scheduling
220. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a
a) shorter duration job has higher priority CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80
b) longer duration job has higher priority and a CPU burst of 35. The total CPU

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utilization is c) power consumption

a) 0.90 d) all of the mentioned
b) 0.74
Answer: a
c) 0.94
Explanation: None.
d) 0.80
224. T shares of time are allocated among
Answer: c
all processes out of N shares in
Explanation: None.
scheduling algorithm.
221. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a a) rate monotonic
CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 b) proportional share
and a CPU burst of 35., the priorities of P1 c) earliest deadline first
and P2 are? d) none of the mentioned
a) remain the same throughout
Answer: b
b) keep varying from time to time
Explanation: None.
c) may or may not be change
d) none of the mentioned 225. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to
be divided among three processes, A, B and
Answer: b
C. A is assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15
Explanation: None.
shares and C is assigned 20 shares.
222. A process P1 has a period of 50 and a A will have percent of the total
CPU burst of t1 = 25, P2 has a period of 80 processor time.
and a CPU burst of 35., can the two a) 20
processes be scheduled using the EDF b) 15
algorithm without missing their respective c) 50
deadlines? d) none of the mentioned
a) Yes
Answer: c
b) No
Explanation: None.
c) Maybe
d) None of the mentioned 226. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to
be divided among three processes, A, B and
Answer: a
C. A is assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15
Explanation: None.
shares and C is assigned 20 shares.
223. Using EDF algorithm practically, it is B will have percent of the total
impossible to achieve 100 percent processor time.
utilization due to a) 20
a) the cost of context switching b) 15
b) interrupt handling c) 50
d) none of the mentioned

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Answer: b 230. If the period of a process is „p‟, then

Explanation: None. what is the rate of the task?
a) p2
227. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to
b) 2*p
be divided among three processes, A, B and
c) 1/p
C. A is assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15
d) p
shares and C is assigned 20 shares.
C will have percent of the total Answer: c
processor time. Explanation: None.
a) 20
231. The scheduler admits a process using
b) 15
c) 50
a) two phase locking protocol
d) none of the mentioned
b) admission control algorithm
Answer: a c) busy wait polling
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned

228. If there are a total of T = 100 shares to Answer: c

be divided among three processes, A, B and Explanation: None.
C. A is assigned 50 shares, B is assigned 15
232. The scheduling
shares and C is assigned 20 shares.
algorithm schedules periodic tasks using a
If a new process D requested 30 shares, the
static priority policy with preemption.
admission controller would
a) earliest deadline first
a) allocate 30 shares to it
b) rate monotonic
b) deny entry to D in the system
c) first cum first served
c) all of the mentioned
d) priority
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
233. Rate monotonic scheduling assumes
229. To schedule the processes, they are
that the
considered
a) processing time of a periodic process is
a) infinitely long
same for each CPU burst
b) periodic
b) processing time of a periodic process is
c) heavy weight
different for each CPU burst
d) light weight
c) periods of all processes is the same
Answer: b d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.

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Answer: a a) errors
Explanation: None. b) exceptions
c) interrupt handlers
234. The can be turned off by the
d) all of the mentioned
CPU before the execution of critical
instruction sequences that must not be Answer: b
interrupted. Explanation: None.
a) nonmaskable interrupt
238. For large data transfers, is
b) blocked interrupt
used.
c) maskable interrupt
a) dma
d) none of the mentioned
b) programmed I/O
Answer: c c) controller register
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned

235. The is used by device Answer: a

controllers to request service. Explanation: None.
a) nonmaskable interrupt
239. Buffering is done to
b) blocked interrupt
a) cope with device speed mismatch
c) maskable interrupt
b) cope with device transfer size mismatch
d) none of the mentioned
c) maintain copy semantics
Answer: c d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
236. The interrupt vector contains Explanation: None.

a) the interrupts 240. Caching is spooling.

b) the memory addresses of specialized a) same as
interrupt handlers b) not the same as
c) the identifiers of interrupts c) all of the mentioned
d) the device addresses d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

237. Division by zero, accessing a protected 241. Caching

or non existent memory address, or a) holds a copy of the data
attempting to execute a privileged b) is fast memory
instruction from user mode are all c) holds the only copy of the data
categorized as d) holds output for a device

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Answer: a 246. A is a full duplex connection

Explanation: None. between a device driver and a user level
process.
242. Spooling
a) Bus
a) holds a copy of the data
b) I/O operation
b) is fast memory
c) Stream
c) holds the only copy of the data
d) Flow
d) holds output for a device
Answer: c
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
247. The process of dividing a disk into
243. The keeps state information
sectors that the disk controller can read and
about the use of I/O components.
write, before a disk can store data is known
a) CPU
as
b) OS
a) partitioning
c) kernel
b) swap space creation
d) shell
c) low-level formatting
Answer: c d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
244. The kernel data structures include Explanation: None.

249. The header and trailer of a sector

a) process table
contain information used by the disk
b) open file table
controller such as and
c) close file table
d) all of the mentioned
a) main section & disk identifier
Answer: b b) error correcting codes (ECC) & sector
Explanation: None. number
c) sector number & main section
245. Windows NT uses a d) disk identifier & sector number
implementation for I/O.
a) message – passing Answer: b
b) draft – passing Explanation: None.
c) secondary memory
250. The two steps the operating system
d) cache
takes to use a disk to hold its files are
Answer: a and
Explanation: None. a) partitioning & logical formatting
b) swap space creation & caching

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c) caching & logical formatting a) magnetic disks

d) logical formatting & swap space creation b) electrical disks
c) assemblies
Answer: a
d) cylinders
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
251. The program initializes all
Explanation: None.
aspects of the system, from CPU registers to
device controllers and the contents of main 255. The heads of the magnetic disk are
memory, and then starts the operating attached to a that moves all the
system. heads as a unit.
a) main a) spindle
b) bootloader b) disk arm
c) bootstrap c) track
d) rom d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

252. For most computers, the bootstrap is 256. The set of tracks that are at one arm
stored in position make up a
a) RAM a) magnetic disks
b) ROM b) electrical disks
c) Cache c) assemblies
d) Tertiary storage d) cylinders

Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

253. A disk that has a boot partition is called 257. The time taken to move the disk arm
a to the desired cylinder is called the
a) start disk
b) end disk a) positioning time
c) boot disk b) random access time
d) all of the mentioned c) seek time
d) rotational latency
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: None.
254. In information is recorded
magnetically on platters.

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258. Whenever a process needs I/O to or Considering SSTF (shortest seek time first)
from a disk it issues a scheduling, the total number of head
a) system call to the CPU movements is, if the disk head is initially at
b) system call to the operating system 53 is?
c) a special procedure a) 224
d) all of the mentioned b) 236
c) 245
Answer: b
d) 240
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
259. If a process needs I/O to or from a disk,
Explanation: None.
and if the drive or controller is busy then
262. Random access in magnetic tapes is
a) the request will be placed in the queue of compared to magnetic disks.
pending requests for that drive a) fast
b) the request will not be processed and will b) very fast
be ignored completely c) slow
c) the request will be not be placed d) very slow
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
263. I/O hardware contains
260. Consider a disk queue with requests a) Bus
for I/O to blocks on cylinders. b) Controller
98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67 c) I/O port and its registers
Considering FCFS (first cum first served) d) All of the mentioned
scheduling, the total number of head
Answer: d
movements is, if the disk head is initially at
Explanation: None.
53 is?
a) 600 264. The data-in register of I/O port is
b) 620
c) 630 a) Read by host to get input
d) 640 b) Read by controller to get input
c) Written by host to send output
Answer: d
d) Written by host to start a command
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
261. Consider a disk queue with requests
Explanation: None.
for I/O to blocks on cylinders.
98 183 37 122 14 124 65 67

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265. The host sets bit when a Answer: a

command is available for the controller to Explanation: None.
execute.
269. The device-status table contains
a) write
b) status
a) each I/O device type
c) command-ready
b) each I/O device address
d) control
c) each I/O device state
Answer: c d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
266. When hardware is accessed by reading Explanation: None.
and writing to the specific memory
270. The model in which one kernel thread
locations, then it is called
is mapped to many user-level threads is
a) port-mapped I/O
called
b) controller-mapped I/O
a) Many to One model
c) bus-mapped I/O
b) One to Many model
d) none of the mentioned
c) Many to Many model
Answer: d d) One to One model
Explanation: It is called memory-mapped
Answer: a
I/O.
Explanation: None.
267. Device drivers are implemented to
271. The model in which one user-level
interface
thread is mapped to many kernel level
a) character devices
threads is called
b) block devices
a) Many to One model
c) network devices
b) One to Many model
d) all of the mentioned
c) Many to Many model
Answer: d d) One to One model
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
268. Which hardware triggers some Explanation: None.
operation after certain programmed count?
272. In the Many to One model, if a thread
a) programmable interval timer
makes a blocking system call
b) interrupt timer
a) the entire process will be blocked
c) programmable timer
b) a part of the process will stay blocked,
d) none of the mentioned
with the rest running

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c) the entire process will run 275. When is the Many to One model at an
d) none of the mentioned advantage?
a) When the program does not need
Answer: a
multithreading
Explanation: None.
b) When the program has to be multi-
273. In the Many to One model, multiple threaded
threads are unable to run in parallel on c) When there is a single processor
multiprocessors because of d) None of the mentioned
a) only one thread can access the kernel at
Answer: a
a time
Explanation: None.
b) many user threads have access to just
one kernel thread 276. In the Many to Many model true
c) there is only one kernel thread concurrency cannot be gained because
d) none of the mentioned
a) the kernel can schedule only one thread
Answer: a at a time
Explanation: None. b) there are too many threads to handle
273. The One to One model allows c) it is hard to map threads with each other
d) none of the mentioned
a) increased concurrency
Answer: a
b) decreased concurrency
Explanation: None.
c) increased or decreased concurrency
d) concurrency equivalent to other models 277. In the Many to Many models when a
thread performs a blocking system call
Answer: a
Explanation: None. a) other threads are strictly prohibited from
274. In the One to One model when a running
thread makes a blocking system call b) other threads are allowed to run
c) other threads only from other processes
a) other threads are strictly prohibited from are allowed to run
running d) none of the mentioned
b) other threads are allowed to run
Answer: b
c) other threads only from other processes
Explanation: None.
are allowed to run
d) none of the mentioned 278. 1. Thread pools are useful when

Answer: b a) when we need to limit the number of threads

Explanation: None. running in the application at the same time

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b) when we need to limit the number of threads Answer: d

running in the application as a whole Explanation: None.
c) when we need to arrange the ordering of
threads 282. What is a valid network topology?
d) none of the mentioned a) Multiaccess bus
b) Ring
Answer: a
c) Star
Explanation: None.
d) All of the mentioned
279. Instead of starting a new thread for
Answer: d
every task to execute concurrently, the task
Explanation: None.
can be passed to a
a) process 283. What are sites in network topology
b) thread pool compared?
c) thread queue a) Basic cost
d) none of the mentioned b) Communication cost
c) Reliability
Answer: b
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
280. Each connection arriving at multi
Explanation: None.
threaded servers via network is generally
284. Which design features of a
a) is directly put into the blocking queue communication network are important?
b) is wrapped as a task and passed on to a a) Naming and name resolution
thread pool b) Routing strategies
c) is kept in a normal queue and then sent c) Connection strategies
to the blocking queue from where it is d) All of the mentioned
dequeued
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 285. What are the characteristics of Naming
and Name resolution?
281. What are the parts of network a) name systems in the network
structure? b) address messages with the process-id
a) Workstation c) virtual circuit
b) Gateway d) message switching
c) Laptop
d) All of the mentioned Answer: b
Explanation: None.

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286. What are routing strategies which is 290. If one site fails in distributed system
not used in distributed systems? then
a) Fixed routing a) the remaining sites can continue
b) Token routing operating
c) Virtual circuit b) all the sites will stop working
d) Dynamic routing c) directly connected sites will stop working
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
287. What are the connection strategies not
used in distributed systems? 291. Network operating system runs on
a) Circuit switching
b) Message switching a) server
c) Token switching b) every system in the network
d) Packet switching c) both server and every system in the
network
Answer: c d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
288. How is are collisions avoided in Explanation: None.
network?
a) Carrier sense with multiple access 292. Which technique is based on compile-
(CSMA); collision detection (CD) time program transformation for accessing
b) Carrier sense multiple access with remote data in a distributed-memory
collision avoidance parallel system?
c) Message slots a) cache coherence scheme
d) All of the mentioned b) computation migration
c) remote procedure call
Answer: d d) message passing
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
289. In distributed system, each processor Explanation: None.
has its own
a) local memory 293. Logical extension of computation
b) clock migration is
c) both local memory and clock a) process migration
d) none of the mentioned b) system migration
c) thread migration
Answer: c d) data migration
Explanation: None.

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Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

294. Processes on the remote systems are 298. What are the characteristics of
identified by processor in distributed system?
a) host ID a) They vary in size and function
b) host name and identifier b) They are same in size and function
c) identifier c) They are manufactured with single
d) process ID purpose
d) They are real-time devices
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
295. Which routing technique is used in a
distributed system? 299. What are the characteristics of a
a) fixed routing distributed file system?
b) virtual routing a) Its users, servers and storage devices are
c) dynamic routing dispersed
d) all of the mentioned b) Service activity is not carried out across
the network
Answer: d
c) They have single centralized data
Explanation: None.
repository
296. In distributed systems, link and site d) There are multiple dependent storage
failure is detected by devices
a) polling
Answer: a
b) handshaking
Explanation: None.
c) token passing
d) none of the mentioned 300. What is not a major reason for building
distributed systems?
Answer: b
a) Resource sharing
Explanation: None.
b) Computation speedup
297. What is not true about a distributed c) Reliability
system? d) Simplicity
a) It is a collection of processor
Answer: d
b) All processors are synchronized
Explanation: None.
c) They do not share memory
d) None of the mentioned 301. What are the types of distributed
operating system?
a) Network Operating system

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b) Zone based Operating system (CSMA); collision detection (CD)

c) Level based Operating system b) Carrier sense multiple access with
d) All of the mentioned collision avoidance
c) Message slots
Answer: a
d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
302. What are characteristic of Network
Explanation: None.
Operating Systems?
a) Users are aware of multiplicity of 306. What is a common problem found in
machines distributed system?
b) They are transparent a) Process Synchronization
c) They are simple to use b) Communication synchronization
d) All of the mentioned c) Deadlock problem
d) Power failure
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: None.
303. What are routing strategies which is
not used in distributed systems? 307. How many layers does the Internet
a) Fixed routing model ISO consist of?
b) Token routing a) Three
c) Virtual circuit b) Five
d) Dynamic routing c) Seven
d) Eight
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: None.
304. What are the connection strategies not
used in distributed systems? 308. Which layer is responsible for The
a) Circuit switching process-to-process delivery?
b) Message switching a) Network
c) Token switching b) Transport
d) Packet switching c) Application
d) Physical
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
305. How is are collisions avoided in
network? 309. Which layer is the layer closest to the
a) Carrier sense with multiple access transmission medium?

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a) Physical a) Servers may not run on dedicated

b) Data link machines
c) Network b) Servers and clients can be on same
d) Transport machines
c) Distribution cannot be interposed
Answer: a
between a OS and the file system
Explanation: None.
d) OS cannot be distributed with the file
310. Header are when data packet system a part of that distribution
moves from upper to the lower layers?
Answer: b
a) Modified
Explanation: None.
b) Removed
c) Added 314. What are not the characteristics of a
d) All of the mentioned DFS?
a) login transparency and access
Answer: c
transparency
Explanation: None.
b) Files need not contain information about
311. Which layer lies between the transport their physical location
layer and data link layer? c) No Multiplicity of users
a) Physical d) No Multiplicity if files
b) Network
Answer: c
c) Application
Explanation: None.
d) Session
315. What are characteristic of a DFS?
Answer: b
a) Fault tolerance
Explanation: None.
b) Scalability
312. Which of the following is an c) Heterogeneity of the system
application layer service? d) Upgradation
a) Mail service
Answer: d
b) File transfer
Explanation: None.
c) Remote access
d) All of the mentioned 316. What are the different ways file
accesses take place?
Answer: d
a) sequential access
Explanation: None.
b) direct access
313. What are the different ways in which c) indexed sequential access
clients and servers are dispersed across d) all of the mentioned
machines?

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Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

317. Which is not a major component of a 321. What are characteristic of NFS
file system? protocol?
a) Directory service a) Search for file within directory
b) Authorization service b) Read a set of directory entries
c) Shadow service c) Manipulate links and directories
d) System service d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

318. What are the different ways mounting 322. The file once created can not be
of the file system? changed is called
a) boot mounting a) immutable file
b) auto mounting b) mutex file
c) explicit mounting c) mutable file
d) all of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

319. Implementation of a stateless file 323. of the distributed file system

server must not follow? are dispersed among various machines of
a) Idempotency requirement distributed system.
b) Encryption of keys a) Clients
c) File locking mechanism b) Servers
d) Cache consistency c) Storage devices
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Answer: d
Explanation: None.
320. What are the advantages of file
replication? 324. is not possible in distributed
a) Improves availability & performance file system.
b) Decreases performance a) File replication
c) They are consistent b) Migration
d) Improves speed c) Client interface
d) Remote access

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Answer: b b) less than the time required to create a

Explanation: None. new process
c) equal to the time required to create a
325. Which one of the following hides the
new process
location where in the network the file is
d) none of the mentioned
stored?
a) transparent distributed file system Answer: b
b) hidden distributed file system Explanation: None.
c) escaped distribution file system
329. When the event for which a thread is
d) spy distributed file system
blocked occurs?
Answer: a a) thread moves to the ready queue
Explanation: None. b) thread remains blocked
c) thread completes
326. A process can be
d) a new thread is provided
a) single threaded
b) multithreaded Answer: a
c) both single threaded and multithreaded Explanation: None.
d) none of the mentioned
330. A thread is also called
Answer: c a) Light Weight Process(LWP)
Explanation: None. b) Heavy Weight Process(HWP)
c) Process
327. If one thread opens a file with read
d) None of the mentioned
privileges then
a) other threads in the another process can Answer: a
also read from that file Explanation: None.
b) other threads in the same process can
331. A thread shares its resources(like data
also read from that file
section, code section, open files, signals)
c) any other thread can not read from that
with
file
a) other process similar to the one that the
d) all of the mentioned
thread belongs to
Answer: b b) other threads that belong to similar
Explanation: None. processes
c) other threads that belong to the same
328. The time required to create a new
process
thread in an existing process is
d) all of the mentioned

a) greater than the time required to create Answer: c

a new process Explanation: None.

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332. A heavy weight process c) reduce the address space that a process
a) has multiple threads of execution could potentially use
b) has a single thread of execution d) all of the mentioned
c) can have multiple or a single thread for
Answer: d
execution
Explanation: None.
d) none of the mentioned
336. Multithreading on a multi – CPU
Answer: b
machine
Explanation: None.
a) decreases concurrency
333. A process having multiple threads of b) increases concurrency
control implies c) doesn‟t affect the concurrency
a) it can do more than one task at a time d) can increase or decrease the concurrency
b) it can do only one task at a time, but
Answer: b
much faster
Explanation: None.
c) it has to use only one thread per process
d) none of the mentioned 337. The kernel is of user threads.
a) a part of
Answer: a
b) the creator of
Explanation: None.
c) unaware of
334. Multithreading an interactive program d) aware of
will increase responsiveness to the user by
Answer: c
a) continuing to run even if a part of it is Explanation: None.
blocked 338. is a unique tag, usually a
b) waiting for one part to finish before the number identifies the file within the file
other begins system.
c) asking the user to decide the order of a) File identifier
multithreading b) File name
d) none of the mentioned c) File type
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: None. Answer: a
335. Resource sharing helps Explanation: None.
a) share the memory and resources of the 339. To create a file
process to which the threads belong a) allocate the space in file system
b) an application have several different b) make an entry for new file in directory
threads of activity all within the same c) allocate the space in file system & make
address space

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an entry for new file in directory directory structure

d) none of the mentioned d) removing the portion of the file system
into a directory structure
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: None.
340. By using the specific system call, we
can 344. Mapping of file is managed by
a) open the file
b) read the file a) file metadata
c) write into the file b) page table
d) all of the mentioned c) virtual memory
d) file system
Answer: d
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: None.
341. File type can be represented by
345. Mapping of network file system
a) file name protocol to local file system is done by
b) file extension
c) file identifier a) network file system
d) none of the mentioned b) local file system
c) volume manager
Answer: b d) remote mirror
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
342. Which file is a sequence of bytes Explanation: None.
organized into blocks understandable by
the system‟s linker? 346. Which one of the following explains
a) object file the sequential file access method?
b) source file a) random access according to the given
c) executable file byte number
d) text file b) read bytes one at a time, in order
c) read/write sequentially by record
Answer: a d) read/write randomly by record
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
343. What is the mounting of file system? Explanation: None.
a) crating of a filesystem
b) deleting a filesystem 347. When will file system fragmentation
c) attaching portion of the file system into a occur?

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a) unused space or single file are not Answer: b

contiguous Explanation: None.
b) used space is not contiguous
351. A process lower the priority of
c) unused space is non-contiguous
another process if both are owned by the
d) multiple files are non-contiguous
same owner.
Answer: a a) must
Explanation: None. b) can
c) cannot
348. What is the mount point?
d) none of the mentioned
a) an empty directory at which the mounted
file system will be attached Answer: b
b) a location where every time file systems Explanation: None.
are mounted
352. In distributed file system
c) is the time when the mounting is done
directories are visible
d) none of the mentioned
from the local machine.
Answer: a a) protected
Explanation: None. b) local
c) private
349. When a file system is mounted over a
d) remote
directory that is not empty then
Answer: d
a) the system may not allow the mount Explanation: None.
b) the system must allow the mount
c) the system may allow the mount and the 353. In the world wide web, a is
directory‟s existing files will then be made needed to gain access to the remote files,
obscure and separate operations are used to
d) all of the mentioned transfer files.
a) laptop
Answer: c b) plugin
Explanation: None. c) browser
d) player
350. In UNIX, exactly which operations can
be executed by group members and other Answer: c
users is definable by Explanation: None.
a) the group‟s head
b) the file‟s owner 354. Anonymous access allows a user to
c) the file‟s permissions transfer files
d) all of the mentioned a) without having an account on the remote
system

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b) only if he accesses the system with a translations for the entire internet
guest account c) binary to hex translations for the entire
c) only if he has an account on the remote internet
system d) all of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: The world wide web uses
358. Reliability of files can be increased by
anonymous file exchange almost
exclusively.
a) keeping the files safely in the memory
355. The machine containing the files is the b) making a different partition for the files
and the machine wanting to access c) by keeping them in external storage
the files is the d) by keeping duplicate copies of the file
a) master, slave
Answer: d
b) memory, user
Explanation: None.
c) server, client
d) none of the mentioned 359. Protection is only provided at the
level.
Answer: c
a) lower
Explanation: None.
b) central
356. Distributed naming c) higher
services/Distributed information systems d) none of the mentioned
have been devised to
Answer: a
a) provide information about all the
Explanation: None.
systems
b) provide unified access to the information 360. What is the main problem with access
needed for remote computing control lists?
c) provide unique names to all systems in a a) their maintenance
network b) their length
d) all of the mentioned c) their permissions
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: None. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
357. Domain name system provides
361. Many systems recognize three
a) host-name-to-network-address classifications of users in connection with
translations for the entire internet each file (to condense the access control
b) network-address-to-host-name

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list). Answer: b
a) Owner Explanation: None.
b) Group
365. In indexed allocation
c) Universe
a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous
d) All of the mentioned
blocks on the disk
Answer: d b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
Explanation: None. c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are
placed together in one location
362. The three major methods of allocating
d) none of the mentioned
disk space that are in wide use are
Answer: c
a) contiguous Explanation: None.
b) linked
c) indexed 366. On systems where there are multiple
d) all of the mentioned operating system, the decision to load a
particular one is done by
Answer: d a) boot loader
Explanation: None. b) bootstrap
c) process control block
363. In contiguous allocation
d) file control block
a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous Answer: a
blocks on the disk Explanation: None.
b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are 367. The VFS (virtual file system) activates
placed together in one location file system specific operations to handle
d) none of the mentioned local requests according to their
a) size
Answer: a b) commands
Explanation: None. c) timings
d) file system types
364. In linked allocation
a) each file must occupy a set of contiguous Answer: d
blocks on the disk Explanation: None.
b) each file is a linked list of disk blocks
c) all the pointers to scattered blocks are 368. A device driver can be thought of like a
placed together in one location translator. Its input consists of
d) none of the mentioned commands and output consists of
instructions.
a) high level, low level

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b) low level, high level 372. For processes to request access to file
c) complex, simple contents, they need
d) low level, complex a) to run a seperate program
b) special interrupts
Answer: a
c) to implement the open and close system
Explanation: None.
calls
369. The file organization module knows d) none of the mentioned
about
Answer: c
a) files
Explanation: None.
b) logical blocks of files
c) physical blocks of files 373. A better way of contiguous allocation
d) all of the mentioned to extend the file size is
a) adding an extent (another chunk of
Answer: d
contiguous space)
Explanation: None.
b) adding an index table to the first
370. Metadata includes contiguous block
a) all of the file system structure c) adding pointers into the first contiguous
b) contents of files block
c) both file system structure and contents d) none of the mentioned
of files
Answer: a
d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
374. If the extents are too large, then what
Explanation: None.
is the problem that comes in?
371. For each file there exists a a) internal fragmentation
that contains information b) external fragmentation
about the file, including ownership, c) starvation
permissions and location of the file d) all of the mentioned
contents.
Answer: a
a) metadata
Explanation: None.
b) file control block
c) process control block 375. The FAT is used much as a
d) all of the mentioned a) stack
b) linked list
Answer: b
c) data
Explanation: None.
d) pointer

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Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.

376. tend to represent a major 380. A consistency checker

bottleneck in system performance. and tries to fix any
a) CPUs inconsistencies it finds.
b) Disks a) compares the data in the secondary
c) Programs storage with the data in the cache
d) I/O b) compares the data in the directory
structure with the data blocks on disk
Answer: b
c) compares the system generated output
Explanation: None.
and user required output
377. In UNIX, even an ‟empty‟ disk has a d) all of the mentioned
percentage of its space lost to
Answer: b
a) programs
Explanation: None.
b) inodes
c) virtual memory 381. Each set of operations for performing a
d) stacks specific task is a
a) program
Answer: b
b) code
Explanation: None.
c) transaction
378. Some directory information is kept in d) all of the mentioned
main memory or cache to
Answer: c
a) fill up the cache
Explanation: None.
b) increase free space in secondary storage
c) decrease free space in secondary storage 382. Once the changes are written to the
d) speed up access log, they are considered to be
a) committed
Answer: d
b) aborted
Explanation: None.
c) completed
379. A systems program such as fsck in d) none of the mentioned
is a consistency checker.
Answer: a
a) UNIX
Explanation: None.
b) Windows
c) Macintosh 383. When an entire committed transaction
d) Solaris is completed,
a) it is stored in the memory
b) it is removed from the log file

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c) it is redone
d) none of the mentioned a) Compile time
b) Load time
Answer: b
c) Execution time
Explanation: None.
d) All of the mentioned
384. A machine in Network file system (NFS)
Answer: d
can be
Explanation: None.
a) client
b) server Explanation: None.
c) both client and server
388. Which one of the following is a process
d) neither client nor server
that uses the spawn mechanism to revage
Answer: c the system performance?
Explanation: None. a) worm
b) trojan
385. A directory is mounted
c) threat
over a directory of a file system.
d) virus
a) local, remote
b) remote, local Answer: a
c) local, local Explanation: None.
d) none of the mentioned
389. What is true regarding „Fence‟?
Answer: d a) Its a method to confine users to one side
Explanation: None. of a boundary
b) It can protect Operating system from one
386. What is Address Binding?
user
a) going to an address in memory
c) It cannot protect users from each other
b) locating an address with the help of
d) All of the mentioned
another address
c) binding two addresses together to form a Answer: d
new address in a different memory space Explanation: None.
d) a mapping from one address space to
390. What is not true regarding „Fence‟?
another
a) It is implemented via hardware register
View Answer
b) It doesn‟t protect users from each other
Answer: d c) It good to protect OS from abusive users
Explanation: None. d) Its implementation is unrestricted and
can take any amount of space in Operating
387. Binding of instructions and data to
system.
memory addresses can be done at

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Answer: d b) Pointers are maintained for each object

Explanation: None. which can be used to revoke
c) Indirect pointing is done to revoke
391. What is correct regarding „relocation‟
object‟s capabilities
w.r.t protecting memory?
d) Master key can be used compare and
a) It is a process of taking a program as if it
revoke.
began at address 0
b) It is a process of taking a program as if it Answer: a
began at address 0A Explanation: None.
c) Fence cannot be used within relocation
395. What is false regarding Back-Pointers
process
scheme to revoke capability?
d) All of the mentioned
a) List of pointers is maintained with each
Answer: a object
Explanation: None. b) When revocation is required these
pointers are followed
392. What are the incorrect methods of
c) This scheme is not adopted in MULTICS
revocation of access rights?
system
a) Immediate/Delayed
d) These point to all capabilities associated
b) Selective/General
with that object
c) Partial/total
d) Crucial Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: None. 396. From the following, which is not a
common file permission?
393. Why is it difficult to revoke
a) Write
capabilities?
b) Execute
a) They are too many
c) Stop
b) They are not defined precicely
d) Read
c) They are distributed throughout the
system Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.

Answer: c 397. Which of the following is a good

Explanation: None. practice?
a) Give full permission for remote
394. What is the reacquisition scheme to
transferring
revoke capability?
b) Grant read only permission
a) When a process capability is revoked
c) Grant limited permission to specified
then it won‟t be able to reacquire it
account

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d) Give both read and write permission but 401. Which mechanism is used by worm
not execute process?
a) Trap door
Answer: c
b) Fake process
Explanation: Limited access is a key method
c) Spawn Process
to circumvent unauthorized access and
d) VAX process
exploits.
Answer: c
398. What is breach of availability?
Explanation: None.
a) This type of violation involves
unauthorized reading of data 402. Which of the following is not a
b) This violation involves unauthorized characteristic of a virus?
modification of data a) Virus destroy and modify user data
c) This violation involves unauthorized b) Virus is a standalone program
destruction of data c) Virus is a code embedded in a legitimate
d) This violation involves unauthorized use program
of resources d) Virus cannot be detected

Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: Virus can be detected by
having an antivirus program.
399. What is Trojan horse?
a) It is a useful way to encrypt password 403. What is not an important part of
b) It is a user which steals valuable security protection?
information a) Large amount of RAM to support
c) It is a rogue program which tricks users antivirus
d) It‟s a brute force attack algorithm b) Strong passwords
c) Audit log periodically
Answer: c
d) Scan for unauthorized programs in
Explanation: None.
system directories
400. What is trap door?
Answer: a
a) IT is trap door in WarGames
Explanation: RAM has no effect on security
b) It is a hole in software left by designer
of a system. System‟s protection remains
c) It is a Trojan horse
unchanged in increasing or decreasing
d) It is a virus which traps and locks user
amount of RAM.
terminal
404. What is used to protect network from
Answer: b
outside internet access?
Explanation: None.
a) A trusted antivirus
b) 24 hours scanning for virus

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c) Firewall to separate trusted and 407. A process is thrashing if

untrusted network a) it spends a lot of time executing, rather
d) Deny users access to websites which can than paging
potentially cause security leak b) it spends a lot of time paging than
executing
Answer: c
c) it has no memory allocated to it
Explanation: Firewall create a protective
d) none of the mentioned
barrier to secure internal network. An
antivirus can only detect harmful viruses Answer: b
but cannot stop illegal access by remote Explanation: None.
attacker.
408. Thrashing the CPU utilization.
405. What is the best practice in the firewall a) increases
domain environment? b) keeps constant
a) Create two domain trusted and untrusted c) decreases
domain d) none of the mentioned
b) Create strong policy in firewall to support View Answer
different types of users
Answer: c
c) Create a Demilitarized zone
Explanation: None.
d) Create two DMZ zones with one
untrusted domain 409. RAID level 3 supports a lower number
of I/Os per second, because
Answer: c
Explanation: All live servers or workstations
a) Every disk has to participate in every I/O
are kept in a separate zone than inside and
request
outside to enhance protection.
b) Only one disk participates per I/O
406. Which direction access cannot happen request
using DMZ zone by default? c) I/O cycle consumes a lot of CPU time
a) Company computer to DMZ d) All of the mentioned
b) Internet to DMZ
Answer: a
c) Internet to company computer
Explanation: None.
d) Company computer to internet
410. RAID level is also known as block
Answer: c
interleaved parity organisation and uses
Explanation: Connection from internet is
block level striping and keeps a parity block
never allowed to directly access internal PCs
on a separate disk.
but is routed through DMZ zone to prevent
a) 1
atta
b) 2

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c) 3 multiple processes
d) 4 b) for tasks where absolute priorities are
more important than fairness
Answer: d
c) all of the mentioned
Explanation: None.
d) none of the mentioned
411. A performance problem with
Answer: a
is the expense of computing and
Explanation: None.
writing parity.
a) non-parity based RAID levels 415. The first linux kernel which supports
b) parity based RAID levels the SMP hardware?
c) all RAID levels a) linux 0.1
d) none of the mentioned b) linux 1.0
c) linux 1.2
Answer: b
d) linux 2.0
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
412. In RAID level 4, one block read,
Explanation: None.
accesses
a) only one disk 416. What is Linux?
b) all disks simultaneously a) single user, single tasking
c) all disks sequentially b) single user, multitasking
d) none of the mentioned c) multi user, single tasking
d) multi user, multitasking
Answer: a
Explanation: Other requests are allowed to Answer: d
be processed by other disks. Explanation: None.

413. The overall I/O rate in RAID level 4 is 417. Which one of the following is not a
linux distribution?
a) low a) debian
b) very low b) gentoo
c) high c) open SUSE
d) none of the mentioned d) multics

Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: All disks can be read in parallel. Explanation: None.

414. Linux uses a time-sharing algorithm 418. In distributed systems, a logical clock is
associated with
a) to pair preemptive scheduling between a) each instruction

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b) each process 422. For proper synchronization in

c) each register distributed systems
d) none of the mentioned a) prevention from the deadlock is must
b) prevention from the starvation is must
Answer: b
c) prevention from the deadlock &
Explanation: None.
starvation is must
419. If timestamps of two events are same, d) none of the mentioned
then the events are
Answer: c
a) concurrent
Explanation: None.
b) non-concurrent
c) monotonic
d) non-monotonic

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

420. If a process is executing in its critical

section
a) any other process can also execute in its
critical section
b) no other process can execute in its
critical section
c) one more process can execute in its
critical section
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: None.

421. A process can enter into its critical

section
a) anytime
b) when it receives a reply message from its
parent process
c) when it receives a reply message from all
other processes in the system
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: None.

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