RRB Health and MI

Preious Year Paper

 PREVIOUS PAPER
IBPS RRB (GROUP A OFFICERS) EXAM
(Based on memory) Held on 02-09-2012
Test-I Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q 1-5) In each of the question- sets below are two/ three statements
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given state-
ments to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
(1-3): Statements: All stars are bottles.
Some bottles are papers.
No paper is a calender.
1. Conclusions: I. All stars being papers is a possibility.
II. No calendar is a bottle.
2. Conclusions: I. All calenders being stars is a possibility.
II. At least some bottles are stars.
3. Conclusions: I. At least some calendars are bottles.
II. No calender is a star.
(4-5): Statements: Some pencils are blankets.
All blankets are erasers.
4. Conclusions: I. At least some pencils are erasers.
II. All erasers being pencils is a possibility.
5. Conclusions: I. No eraser is a pencil.
II. All blankets being pencils is a possibility.
Directions (6-10): Each of the following questions below consists of a question and
two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both
the statements and give answer.
1) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient in answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data in either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
4) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II are together necessary to answer the
question.
6. Who amongst P, Q, R, S and T is the tallest?
I. P is taller than Q. T is not the tallest.
II. R is taller than P. S in not the tallest.
7. In which direction is point E, with reference to point S?
I. Point D is to the east of point E. Point E is to the south of point F.
II. Point F is to the north-west to point S. Point D is to the north of point S.
8. In which month of the year did Rahul go abroad for a vacation?
I. Rahul correctly remembers that he went for a vacation in the first half of the
year.
II. Rahul's son correctly remembers that they went for a vacation after 31st
March but before 1st May.
9. On which day of the same week is Ramesh's exam scheduled (Monday being
the first day of the week)?
I. Ramesh correctly remembers that his exam is scheduled on a day after
Tuesday, But before Thursday of the same week.
II. Ramesh's father correctly remembers that Ramesh's exam is scheduled on
the third day of the week.
10. How many marks has Suman scored in the test?
(Maximum marks 20)
I. Suman scored two-digit marks. Her marks were not in decimals.
II. Suman scored more than 9 marks in the test.
Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the information given below and answer the given
questions:
In a certain code 'facing problems with health' is coded as 'mlp hlt ngi snk',
'health problems on rise' is coded as 'hlt sa rtv mlp', 'rise with every challenge' is coded
as 'snk rtv lne riy' and 'facing challenge each day' is coded as 'ngi riy nop hus'.
11. What could be a code for "lne"?
1) facing 2) with 3) every
4) rise 5) challenge
12. "riy rtv roi" could be a code for which of the following?
1) rise above challenge 2) rise health challenge
3) day rise challenge 4) with rise challenge
5) challenge every rise
13. Which of the following is the code for "facing"?
1) nop 2) rtv 3) ngi 4) snk 5) sa
14. "riy snk mlp" could be a code for which of the following?
1) problem every day 2) challenge with health
3) with health day 4) every challenge facing
5) challenge facing with
15. Which of the following is the code for 'day'?
1) riy 2) nop 3) ngi
4) hus 5) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q. 16-21): Study the information given below and answer the given
questions.
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle, but not necessari-
ly in the same order. Four of them are facing outside and four of them are facing the
centre.
★ E faces outside. Both the immediate neighbours of E face the centre. H sits sec-
 ond to the right of E. B sits third to the left of E.
★ D faces the centre. Both the immediate neighbours of D face outside.
★ G sits second to the left of A. B sits third to the right of H.
★ F is an immediate neighbour of D. C is an immediate neighbour of G.
★ D is not an immediate neighbour of B.
16. Who amongst the following sits on the immediate right of H?
1) A 2) D 3) C
4) G 5) None of these
17. Who amongst the following sits third to the right of A?
1) D 2) E 3) F
4) A 5) None of these
18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, based on the information
given above and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group?
1) HA 2) FH 3) GC
4) DA 5) AE
19. If all the people are made to sit in an alphabetical order, in clockwise direction,
starting from A, the position of whom amongst the following remains the same
(excluding A)?
1) E 2) F 3) C
4) G 5) None of these
20. How many people are seated between A and C (counting clockwise from A)?
1) Two 2) Four 3) None
4) One 5) Three
21. Who amongst the following sits exactly between F and C (and is also their neigh-
bour)?
1) E 2) B 3) G
4) A 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 22-30): Study the information given below and answer the given
questions.
Nine people, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and J stay in a building, but not necessarily
in the same order. The building has nine floors and only one person stays on one floor.
All of them own one car each, and each car is of a different colour, ie blue, grey, white,
black, yellow, green, red, orange and pink, but not necessarily in the same order. The
Ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2, and so on, and the top-
most floor is numbered 9.
H owns a black-coloured car and stays on an even-numbered floor. A Stays on any
even-numbered floor below the floor on which H stays. The one who owns an orange
coloured car stays on the fourth floor. E stays on the second floor and owns a white-
coloured car. The one who owns a pink-coloured car stays on the third floor. A does not
own a green-coloured car. There are two floors between the floors on which the people
owning the red and the black-coloured cars stay. C owns a grey-coloured car. There are
three floors between the floors on which C and G stay. D stays on a floor immediately
above J's floor. There is one floor between the floors on which F and G stay. F does not
own the pink- coloured car. The one who owns the blue car stays on the topmost floor.
F does not stay on the ground floor.
22. Who amongst the following owns the green-coloured car
1) D 2) J 3) G
4) F 5) None of these
23. Who amongst the following stays on the topmost floor?
1) F 2) G 3) D
4) C 5) None of these
24. A owns a car of which of the following colours?
1) Orange 2) Pink 3) Yellow
4) Blue 5) None of these
25. Who stays on the floor which is exactly between the floor on which H stays and
the floor on which A stays?
1) B 2) G 3) C
4) F 5) None of these
26. How many floors are there between the floor on which J stays and the floor on
which C stays?
1) One 2) Two 3) None
4) Three 5) More than three
27. Which of the following is true as per the given information?
1) B stays on a floor immediately below the floor on which H stays.
2) G stays on a floor immediately above the floor on which A stays.
3) F stays on the eighth floor.
4) D owns the orange-coloured car. 5) None is true
28. On which of the following floors does G stays?
1) 1st 2) 6th 3) 5th
4) 7th 5) None of these
29. B is related to C in the same way as H is related to E as per the given informa-
tion. Following the same pattern, F is related to which of the following?
1) J 2) D 3) A
4) G 5) None of these
30. What is the colour of the car of the person who stays on the ground floor?
1) Red 2) Green 3) Yellow
4) Grey 5) None of these
31. How many meaningful words can be made with the alphabets D, R, H and A each
being used only once in each word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) More than three
32. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TELEPATHY, each of which
has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward
directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
1) One 2) Two 3) None
4) Three 5) More than three
Direction (Q. 33-35): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
33. 1) Repair 2) Mend 3) Correct
4) Rectify 5) Trouble
34. 1) Employed 2) Trained 3) Hired
4) Appointed 5) Commissioned
35. 1) Quick 2) Brisk 3) Quiet
4) Fast 5) Rapid
36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English alpha-
betical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to
that group if the English alphabetical series is broken into two equal halves, ie
the first 13 alphabets are clubbed together and the last 13 alphabets are clubbed
separately?
1) FH 2) SU 3) MA
4) CK 5) LB
Directions (Q. 37-40): In each of these questions, relationship between different
elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclu-
sions.
Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both the conclusions I and II are true.
(37-38):
Statements: A > B = C; E = F; ED>C
37. Conclusions: I. B<E II. F<B
38. Conclusions: I. C<F II. A>C
(39-40):
Statements: IJ; K<l>M; J=K; GH=I
39. Conclusions: I H<J II. J<G
40. Conclusions: I. L>J II. J<M

Directions (Q. 41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five
answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the
sequence were continued?
 Problem Figures

41.

Answer Figures

Problem Figures

42.

Answer Figures

Problem Figures

43.

Answer Figures

Problem Figures
44.

Answer Figures
 Problem Figures

45.

Answer Figures

Problem Figures

46.

Answer Figures

Problem Figures
47.

Answer Figures

Problem Figures
48.

Answer Figures
 Problem Figures

49.

Answer Figures

Problem Figures

50.

Answer Figures

Test-II: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 51-55): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the follow-
ing questions?
  
51. ( 5 10) ( 2 + 5)2 = (?)3  22
2+

1)  2 2) 2 3) 16
4) 8 5) None of these

52. 55% of  2116  0.01 = ?  20
1) 126.5 2) 126.6 3) 124.6
4) 125.4 5) None of these
  
53.  12216 24+193+75 = (?)2
  
1) 3 2 2) 4 2 3) 5 2
4) 18 5) 32
  
54.  31.36   0.64  252 = (?)2
 36
1) 81 2) 64 3) 8
4) 7 5) 9
55. (1.69)4  (2197  1000)3  (0.13  10)3 =
(1.3)?2
1) 6 2) 2 3) 4
4) 0 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 56-60): What approximate value will come in place of question
mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact
value).
56. 68% of 1288 + 26% of 734 -215=?
1) 620 2) 930 3) 540
4) 850 5) 710
57. (32.05)2(18.9)2(11.9)2 = ?
1) 670 2) 530 3) 420
4) 780 5) 960
58. 6578  67  15=?
x6
1) 200 2) 250 3) 150
4) 100 5) 300
679 23 126
59.     
=?
45 2130 169
1) 540 2) 760 3) 800
4) 1260 5) 1040
  
60.  5687   1245   689 =?13
1) 840 2) 910 3) 1320
4) 1120 5) 1550
Directions (Q. 61-63): What will come in place of question mark (?) in the fol-
lowing number series?
61. 987 587 331 187 123 (?)
1) 104 2) 113 3) 107
4) 114 5) None of these
62. 125 171 263 401 585 (?)
1) 835 2) 815 3) 792
4) 788 5) None of these
63. 121 132 167 226 309 (?)
1) 424 2) 413 3) 427
4) 416 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 64-65): In the following number series, only one is wrong. Find out
the wrong number.
64. 454 327 648 524 842 713 1036
1) 327 2) 648 3) 521
4) 842 5) 713
65. 72.5 86 113 168 275 491 923
1) 86 2) 113 3) 168
4) 275 5) 491
Directions (Q.66-70): In the following questions, two equations numbered I and II
are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer -
1) if x > y 2) if x  y 3) if x < y
4) if x  y 5) if x = y or relationship cannot be established
66. I. 4x + 3y = (1600)1/2
II. 6x  5y = (484)1/2
 
67. I. 2x2 (4   13)x + 2 13 = 0
 
II. 10y  (18 + 5 13)y  9 13 = 0
2

68. I. (6x2 + 17)  (3x2 + 20) = 0

II. (5y2  12)  (9y2  16) = 0

69. I. (169)1/2 x +  289 = 134
II. (361)1/2 y2  270 = 1269
70. I. 821x2  757x2 = 256

II.  196 y3  12y3 = 16
71. Rita's present age is four times her daughter's present age and two-thirds of her
mother's present age. The total of the present ages of all of them is 154 years.
What is the difference between Rita's and her mohter's present age?
 1) 28 years 2) 34 years 3) 32 years
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
72. The ratio between the three angles of a quadrilateral is 3 : 5 : 9. The value of the
fourth angle of the quadrilateral is 71 What is the difference between the largest
and the smallest angles of the quadrilateral?
1) 82 2) 106 3) 102


4) 92 5) None of these

73. If twentyfive percent of three-sevenths of twenty six percent of a number is
136.5, what is the number?
1) 6300 2) 5600 3) 4800
4) 4900 5) None of these
74. The ratio between the speed of a truck, car and train is 3:8:12. The car moved
uniformaly and covered a distance of 1040 km in 13 hours. What is the average
speed of the truck and the train together?
1) 75Km/hr 2) 60Km/hr
3) 48km/hr 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
75. The second largest and the smallest angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 6:5. The
difference between the second largest angle and the smallest angle of the triangle
is equal to 9. What is the difference between the smallest and the largest angles
of the triangle?
1) 36 2) 24 3) 12


4) 18 5) None of these

76. The circumference of a circle is twise the perimeter of a rectangle. The area of
the circle is 5544 Sqcm. What is the area of the rectangle if the length of the rec-
tangle is 40cm?
1) 1120 Sq cm 2) 1020 Sq cm
3) 1140 Sq cm 4) 1040 Sq cm 5) None of these
77. A 476-metre-long moving train crosses a pole in 14 seconds. The length of a plat-
form is equal to the distance covered by the train in 20 Seconds. A man crosses the
same platform in 7 minutes and 5 seconds. What is the speed of the man in metre/
second?
1) 1.8 m/s 2) 1.4 m/s
 3) 1.6 m/s 4) 2 m/s 5) 1.2 m/s
78. Two-Thirds of Ranjit's monthly salary is equal to Raman's monthly Salary.
Raman's Monthly salary is thirty percent more than Pawan's monthly salary.
Pawan's Monthly salary is `32000. What is Ranjit's monthly salary?
1) `64200 2) `62500 3) `64500
4) `62400 5) None of these
79. The simple interest accrued on a sum of a certain Principal is `35,6727 in seven
years at the rate of 8 pcpa. What would be the compound interest accrued on that
principal at the rate of 2 pcpa in 2 years?
1) `2573.48 2) `2564.86 3) `2753.86
4) `2654.48 5) None of these
80. In a class there are 60 students, out of whom 15 percent are girls. Each girl's
monthly fee is 250 and each boy's monthly fee is 34 percent more than a girl.
What is the total monthly fees of girls and boys together?
1) `19335 2) `18435 3) `19345
4) `19435 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 81-85): Study the following pie-chart and answer the following ques-
tions.

Percentagewise distribution of teachers F 18% A 11%

in six different universities. B 17%

E 29%
Total number of teachers = 6400

Percentage of Teachers C 19%

D
6%

81. The number of teachers in University B is approximately what percent of the

total number of teachers in University D and University E together?
1) 55 2) 59 3) 49 4) 45 5) 65
82. If twenty five percent of the teachers in University C are females, What is the
number of male teacher in University C?
1) 922 2) 911 3) 924 4) 912 5) None of these
83. The difference between the total number of teachers in University A, University
B and University C together and the total number of teachers in University D,
University E and University F together is exactly equal to the number of teach-
ers of which University?
1) University A 2) University B 3) University C
4) University D 5) University F
84. If one-thirtysixth of the teachers from University F are Professors and the salary
of each professor is Rs.96000, What will be the total salary of all the professors
together from University F?
1)Rs.307.2 Lakh 2)Rs 32.64 lakh 3)Rs 3.072 Lakh
4)Rs3.264 lakh 5) None of these
85. What is the average number of teachers in University A, University C, University
D and University F together?
1) 854 2) 3546 3) 3456 4) 874 5) None of these
Directions: (Q. 86-90): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that fol-
low Number of cars (in thousand) of two models (Basic and Premium) produced
by five different companies in five different years

Company A B C D E

Year  Basic Premium Basic Premium Basic Premium Basic Premium Basic Premium
2006 4.4 2.5 5.6 2.4 5.4 6.1 7.6 7.5 2.7 5.1
2007 4.9 7.2 9.4 7.2 7.5 8.3 8.4 4.9 4.2 5.5
2008 13.6 15.5 14.8 9.5 12.8 9.9 9.2 8.2 7.7 11.5
2009 6.6 13.9 11.8 11.4 16.6 18.2 10.6 10.4 7.2 12.8
2010 5.8 14.9 12.2 7.2 19.9 22.3 14.6 12.2 13.2 12.2

86. The number of cars of premium model produced by company D in the year 2009
was approximately what percent of the total number of cars (both models) pro-
duced by Company C in the year 2007?
1) 70 2) 51 3) 56
4) 61 5) 66
87. What was the approximate percentage decrease in the number of cars of basic
model produced by Company B in the year 2009 as compared to the Previous
year?
1) 15 2) 20 3) 10
4) 80 5) 85
88. What was the average number of cars of premium model produced by Company
A over all the years together?
1) 9000 2) 8000 3) 6000
4) 48000 5) None of these
89. In which year was the difference between the basic model and premium model
of cars produced by Company E the second highest?
1) 2010 2) 2006 3) 2007
4) 2008 5) 2009
90. In which Company did the production of cars of premium model consistently
increase from the year 2006 to the year 2010 ?
1) Both C and E 2) Both C and D 3) C only
4) D only 5) E only
Directions (Q. 91-95) : Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions
that follow:
Monthly income (` in thousands) of three different persons in six diffrent years
91. What was the difference between the total monthly salary of Arun in all the years
together and Suman's monthly income in the year 2007?
1)Rs 1.24 lakh 2)Rs 1.14 lakh 3)Rs 11.4 lakh
4)Rs 12.4 lakh 5) None of these
92. What is the ratio of Arun's monthly income in the year 2006, Suman's monthly
income in the year 2007 and Jyoti's monthly income in the year 2005?
1) 6:3:5 2) 6:4:5 3) 5:6:4
4) 5:4:7 5) None of these
93. In Which year was the difference between Jyoti's and Arun's montly income the
second highest?
1) 2005 2) 2006 3) 2007
4) 2009 5) 2010
94. The monthly income of Suman in the year 2009 was approximately what per-
centage of the monthly income of Jyoti in the year 2010?
1) 72 2) 89 3) 83
4) 67 5) 95
95. What was the percentage increase in the monthly income of Jyoti in the year
2008 as compared to the previous year?
1) 50 2) 150 3) 160
4) 60 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 96-100): Study the information carefully to answer the questions
that follow.
A Company produced five different products, Viz mobile phone, pen drive, cal-
culator, television and washing machine. The total number of all the five products is
1650. 24% of the total number of products is mobile phones. One-sixth of the total
number of products is pen drives. 14% of the total number of products is calculators.
Remaining products are either television or washing machine. The number of wash-
ing machines is 50 more than the number of televisions produced.
96. What is the ratio of the number of washing machines to the number of calcula-
tors produced by the company?
1) 17:11 2) 19:11 3) 11:17
4) 19:13 5) None of these
97. If 24 percent of the pen drives are defective, What is the number of pen drives
which are not defective?
1) 209 2) 215 3) 219
4) 225 5) None of these
98. The number of televisions produced is approximately what percent of the total
number of calculators and washing machines produced together?
1) 63 2) 55 3) 59
4) 51 5) 67
99. What is the difference between the total number of televisions and mobile phones
together and the number of calculators produced?
1) 534 2) 524 3) 511
4) 523 5) None of these
100. What is the total number of pen drives, calculators and washing machines pro-
duced by the company?
1) 907 2) 917 3) 925
4) 905 5) None of these

Test-III General Awareness

101. Major producer of mulberry silk in India is
1) Jammu and Kashmir 2) Jharkhand 3) Karnataka
4) Assam 5) Himachal Pradesh
102. We come across the term 'PPP' in financial news nowadays. What does 'PPP' rep-
resent?
1) Personal Percapita Power 2) Private Public Partnership
3) Per capita Potential for Purchases 4) Present Purchasing Power
5) Pure Purchase Parity
103. Many times we read the term 'ECB' in newspapers. What is the full form' of
'ECB'?
1) Essential Commercial Banking 2) European Credit Borrowing
3) External Credit for Business 4) External Commercial Borrowing
5) None of These
104. What is meant by financial inclusion?
1) Making available banking services at an affordable cost
2) Opening savings accounts in rural areas without any deposit
3) Opening any type of account without introduction
4) Distributing money through rural branches
5) Distributing wages through bank accounts
105. Which of these countris is the largest producer of milk and milk products in the
world?
1) USA 2) China 3) India
4) New Zealand 5) None of These
106. Which of the following is the most important rabi crop of India?
1) Rice 2) Millet 3) Sugarcane
4) Groundnut 5) Mustard
107. Who is the regulatory authority for insurance business in India?
1) RBI 2) IRDP 3) SEBI
4) NABARD 5) IRDA
108. What is money laundering?
1) Conversion of assets into cash-
2) Conversion of illegally obtained money into accountable money
3) Conversion of cash into gold 4) Conversion of gold into cash
5) None of These
109. Golden revolution refers to the deveolopment of which of the following agricul-
tural products?
1) Oilseeds 2) Pulses 3) Horticultural products
4) Cereals 5) Fodder
110. Which programme was launched by Government of India to improve irrigation
facilities in rural India?
1) Annapurna Scheme 2) National Social Assistance Programme
3) Integrated Rural Development Programme
4) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
5) National Watershed Development Programme
111. Montek Singh Ahluwalia is holding which of the following positions at present?
1) Chairman of Planning Commission
2) Governor of RBI
3) Secretary of UNO
4) Economic Advisor to Prime Minister
5) Dy Chairman of Planning Commission
112. Bird flu is a disease which affects and spreads through?
1) Cattle 2) Sheep 3) Prawn
4) Silkworm 5) Poultry
113. Which country won the Davis Cup tennis tournament 2011 held in December
2011?
1) Argentina 2) USA 3) Australia
4) Japan 5) Spain
114. Who among the following cricketers recently became the 10th batsman to score
10000 runs in Test Cricket?
1) Mahela Jayawardene 2) Vijay Zol 3) Yuvaraj Singh
4) Younis Khan 5) Umar Akmal
115. The Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) Summit took place in
December 2011 in?
1) Tokyo 2) Moscow 3) New Delhi
4) Paris 5) Perth
116. Who represented India in 12th Consecutive Annual India-Russia Summit held in
December 2011?
1) Smt. Pratibha Patil 2) Dr Manmohan Singh
3) Sonia Gandhi 4) S M Krishna 5) None of These
117. Which of the following currencies is used in Britain?
1) Pound 2) Dollar 3) Euro
4) France 5) Pesso
118. Which of the following cups/ trophies is associated with the game of Football?
1) Grand Prix 2) Rangaswami Cup
3) Wimbledon Trophy 4) Fifa Cup 5) Ranji Trophy
119. The head office of the Bank of Maharashtra is located in which of the following
cities?
1) Kolkata 2) New Delhi 3) Pune
4) Ahmedabad 5) Mumbai
120. Which country hosted the summit of SAARC nations in the year 2011?
1) India 2) Bangladesh 3) Nepal
4) Maldives 5) Pakistan
121. Which of the following terms is not used in the field of Economics?
1) Balance of Trade 2) Break Even Point
3) Plasma 4) Fiscal Deficit
5) Capital Account Convertibility
122. "Carbon credit" is concerned with which one of these internationally sensitive
issues?
1) Deforestation 2) Contract farming 3) Rural infrastructure
4) Diamond trading 5) Protection of environment
123. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?
1) Half Nelson 2) Love 3) Back Hand Drive
4) Penalty Stroke 5) Clean Bowled
124. India recently signed a Currency Swap Agreement with which of the following
countries?
1) USA 2) Pakistan 3) Japan
4) Germany 5) Australia
125. What is the full form of the term ASBA?
1) Allotment Supported by Blocked Amount
2) Application Supported by Bank Amount
3) Allotment Supported by Bank Account
4) Application Supported by Blocked Amount
5) Allotment and Social Banking Amount
126. Dipika Pallikal, who won an international tournament recently in Hong Kong is a
1) Golf Player 2) Badminton Player 3) Squash Player
 4) Swimmer 5) Table Tennis Player
127. The term "Deficit Financing" means the Government borrows money from the
1) IMF 2) Local bodies 3) RBI
4) Large corporates 5) Public at large
128. Regional Rural Banks
1) Have limited area of operation and access to refinance from NABARD.
2) are required to lend only to weaker sections.
3) are mandated to do only narrow banking.
4) can only extend agricultural loans.
5) have unrestricted area of operation.
129. Ms Christine Lagarde is holding which of the following positions at present?
1) Chief of Asian Development Bank
2) Chief of International Monetary Fund
3) Chancellor of Germany
4) Chief of Morgan Stanley
5) Chief of World Bank
130. What is the present reverse REPO rate?
1) 7.5% 2) 8.5% 3) 8%
4) 6.5% 5) None of these
131. General Assembly elections were held in which of the following North East
states in January 2012?
1) Assam 2) Meghalaya 3) Arunachal Pradesh
4) Manipur 5) Tripura
132. What is the full form of the term FDI?
1) Foreign Direct Investment
2) Foreign Diverse Investment
3) Fixed Deposit Investment
4) Floating Deposit Investment
5) Financial Derivatives in India
133. The erstwhile UTI Bank is presently known as
 1) ING Vysya Bank 2) Yes Bank 3) Indusind Bank
4) Axis Bank 5) IDBI Bank
134. Which of the following telecom giants recently won its case against the Income
Tax Department?
1) Bharti Airtel 2) Vodafone 3) Idea Cellular
4) Reliance Communications 5) Tata Telecom
135. Which of the following countries recently attained the status of world's sixth
largest economy?
1) Russia 2) Japan 3) China
4) India 5) Brazil
136. Which of the following countries decided to withdraw from Kyoto Protocol?
1) Canada 2) Russia 3) India
4) USA 5) China
137. Which of the following is NOT a Banking or Finance Company?
1) Barclay 2) Lufthansa 3) BNP Paribas
4) American Express 5) HSBC
138. India and Russia were having some differences over which of the following
nuclear power plants?
1) Kaiga 2) Kudankulam 3) Rawatbhata
4) Narora 5) None of these
139. Excise duty is a tax levied on which of the following?
1) Production of goods 2) Purchase of goods 3) Export of goods
4) Sale of goods 5) Movement of goods beyond municipal limits
140. "India and Pakistan started fresh talks on conventional CBM" was the news in all
major newspapers. What does the letter 'M' denote in the term 'CBM' as used
above?
1) Money 2) Mechanism 3) Modalities
4) Measures 5) Memorial
141. Which of the following is the unit of electrical current?
1) Bar 2) Calorie 3) Ampere
4) Decibel 5) Angstrom
142. Global Meet on Emerging Economies was organised in December 2011 in
1) New Delhi 2) Dhaka 3) Islamabad
4) Kathmandu 5) Capetown
143. Which of the following awards is given to the coaches of sport persons?
1) Kalidas Samman 2) Dronacharya Award 3) Arjuna Award
4) Dada Saheb Phalke Award 5) Saraswati Samman
144. Which of the following countries recently agreed to sell Uranium to India?
1) Australia 2) USA 3) Iran
4) Germany 5) Bangladesh
145. Which of the following schemes launched by the Government of India is aimed
at developing rural Infrastructure?
1) MNREGA 2) ASHA 3) Bharat Nirman
4) Operation Flood 5) Operation Black board
146. Who among the following is a famous Sports person?
1) Dhanush 2) Saina Nehwal 3) Charles Correa
3) Ajit Singh 5) Kim Jong-Un
147. Speed of a ship is expressed in
1) Kilometre 2) Horsepower 3) Ohm
4) Knot 5) Coulomb
148. USA and some other European countries recently imposed fresh sanctions on which
of the following countries as they are not in favour of its nuclear advancement?
1) Iraq 2) Pakistan 3) India
4) Iran 5) Kuwait
149. Who among the following has written the book Dr Zhivago?
1) Pearl S Buck 2) HG Wells 3) Saul Bellow
4) Emile Zola 5) Boris Pasternak
150. Yoshihiko Noda was on a visit to India recently. He is the present Prime Minister
of
1) Myanmar 2) South Korea 3) North Korea
4) Japan 5) None of these
 Test-IV: English Language
Directions (Q. 151-160): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Rural healthcare in India is (151) by a huge gap between supply and demand.
Currently, rural healthcare needs are (152) either by limited government facilities and
private nursing homes, which have not bean able to keep pace with increasing
demand, (153) by a number of quacks who practise medicine in rural areas. The qual-
ity of infrastructure is usually poor and people (154) up having to go to nearby large
cities if they need high-quality care.
Rural India deserves better, since the ability to pay has gone up over the last few
years, driven by growth in income and penetration of government healthcare pro-
grammes. Increasing demand, (155) with the failure of existing infrastructure to scale,
has resulted in rural healthcare (156) a large under-served market. Absence of a viable
business model (157) conversion of the huge rural expenditure on health into an eco-
nomic activity that generates incomes and (158) the poor. It is this (159) that entre-
preneurs are looking to (160).
151. 1) Performed 2) displayed 3) furthered
4) characterised 5) made
152. 1) stopped 2) met 3) elevated
4) discussed 5) set
153. 1) also 2) nor 3) but
4) or 5) and
154. 1) end 2) give 3) fed
4) start 5) set
155. 1) couple 2) combined 3) mentioning
4) engaged 5) resulting
156. 1) become 2) happening 3) being
4) exists 5) is
157. 1) to 2) makes 3) so
4) ceasing 5) prevents
158. 1) generates 2) supplies 3) lists
4) turns 5) serves
159. 1) gap 2) truth 3) progress
4) catastrophes 5) divides
160. 1) fills 2) access 3) plug
4) form 5) distance
Directions (Q. 161-165): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below
each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to
make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and 'No
correction is required', mark (5) as the answer.
161. A freezing morning accompanied by a dense cover of fog set the toning for the
coming weekend.
1) keeping tone 2) started the toning 3) kept the tone
4) set the tone 5) No correction required
162. The jail is in the news again with the finding of a pistol and some bullets?
1) to finding 2) with find 3) finding
4) on found 5) No correction required
163. The space-crunched city throws up several stories of struggle that schools have
had putup with to win playgrounds for their students?
1) have had to put up to 2) had put up on
3) have had to put up with 4) had to put up to
5) No correction required
164. Emotions rang high as both families were taken to the police station last night?
1) Emotions went higher 2) Emotion became high
3) Emotionally high 4) Emotions ran high
5) No Correction required
165. Work at all the court complexes was paralysed as lawyers went on a day-long
strike as a mark of protest?
1) for a one day strike 2) for a strike
 3) on a day's long strike 4) on a day-long striking
5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 166-170): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the
questions given below them.
(A) The policy makers in most of the developing economies recognise this
importance and have been implementing a host of programmes and measures
to achieve rural developments objectives.
(B) While some of these countries have achieved impressive results from those
programmes and measures, others have failed to make a significant dent in
the problem of persistent rural underdevelopment.
(C) The socio-economic disparties between rural and urban areas are windening
and creating tremendous presssure on the social and economic fabric of
many such developing economics
(D) These factors, among many others, tend to highlight the importance of rural
development.
(E) Although millions of rural people have escaped poverty as a result of rural
development in many Asian Countries, a large majority of rural people con-
tinue to suffer from persistent poverty.
166. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C
4) D 5) E
167. Which of the following should be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after rearrange-
ment?
1) A 2) B 3) C
4) D 5) E
168. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) C 2) B 3) A
4) D 5) E
169. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C
4) D 5) E
170. Which of the following should SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) D 2) E 3) C
4) B 5) A
Directions (Q. 171-175): Each question below has two blanks, each blank indi-
cating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank
which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
171. Forest department officials said that when the elephants were made to --- from
their trucks, they went straight to the spot where they had been --- during the
camp.
1) jump, killed 2) alight, tied 3) enter, hurt
4) step, played 5) exit, enjoyed
172. Excise officials seized pouches of whisky --- a bus travelling --- Maharashtra.
1) from, to 2) in, for 3) for, towards
4) inside, on 5)through, till
173. Organisations ---- for the victims --- the inhuman and unjust attitude of the gov-
ernment.
1) fighting, applauded 2) lobbying, supported 3) working, condemned
4) stand, opposed 5) trying, spoke
174. A collision between two buses --- six people dead, --- the driver of one of the
buses.
1) made, also 2) left, including 3) caused, combined
4) resulted, except 5) got, surpassing
175. The court --- revenue authorities and PCB officials to --- teams and visit pharma
units
1) directed, form 2) announced, arrange 3) commanded, display
4) ruled, make 5) told, carve
Directions (Q.176-190): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part
of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the
answer is 5. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
176. 1) The transit system's underground/ 2) tunnels and stations will/ 3) be con-
structed/ 4) next heritage structures./ 5) No error
177. 1) Residents have been planting/ 2) the ornamental trees outside/ 3) their homes
and in lawns to/ 4) add beauty and give their place a grand look./ 5) No error
178. 1) A diamond jeweller's peon/ 2) tipped off a gang/ 3) about the gold 4) in his
employer's vault./ 5) No error
179. 1) He said that the performance of the Indian team/ 2) was satisfactory at the
international meet/ 3) and that they learnt a lot from/ 4) watching top seeded
players through action at the grand slam/ 5)No error
180. 1) Watching the Exponential /2) talent of world tennis/ 3) Was the best things/ 4)
to happen to him./ 5) No error
181. 1) The meeting took place a day after/ 2) the agency held a meeting with project
contractors/ 3) to evaluate steps that being taken to/4) ensure that the buidlings
were not affected./5) No error
182. 1) The director explained/ 2) the theme and/3) the concept of/4) the internation-
al folk festival./5) No error
183. 1) The fight among/2) rival candidates between the medium/ 3) of catchy slo-
gans/ 4) has started. 5/) No error
184. 1) Acting on a tip-off/2) the anti-robbery squadled/ 3) by inspectors laid/4) a trap
for the robbers/ 5) No error
185. 1) The process of/2) revising figures of damage/ 3) to get additional compensa-
tion/4) has began./5) No error
186. 1) Farmers who grow the crop/ 2) are the worse hit, as the investment/ 3) they
make on a crop is/ 4)huge as compared to the profit./5) No error
187. 1) The govenrment is made it/2) mandatory for pharmacies to send/ 3) copies of
medical bills along with/ 4) prescriptions of drugs and details of patients./ 5) No
error.
188. 1) While these schools have/ 2) a strong traditonal hold, the reason for/ 3) form-
ing a consortium in India is to encourage /4) cultural diversity for their insti-
tutes./5) No error.
189. 1) The Government soon will make/ 2) it mandatory for all private hospitals/ 3)
to notify infectious cases/ 4) as soon as they are detected./5) No error.
190. 1) School children, who so far/ 2) have had rationed access to/ 3) the few play-
grounds on the city must be/ 4) happy by the recent move./ 5)No error.
Directions (Q. 191-200): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been printed in bold to
help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
A large number of branches' of banks have been set up in the village. The main
purpose of setting up these banks is to develop the habit of saving among the villagers
and also to give loans to farmers for boosting production in one way or the other. So
far banks had been concentrated in the bigger cities and Indian villagers had no faith
in them. The new banks also intend to re-channel bank credit- from the big industries
to the small sectors. With the intention of promoting rural banking, regional rural
banks were established. These aligned the local field with the rural problems. These
banks are not to replace the other credit-giving bodies but to supplement them.
The Steering Committee of the Regional Rural Banks considered some structur-
al changes. First of all they gave thought to the staffing spectrum, then to effective
coordination among banks- rural cooperatives and commercial, and the possibility of
bringing credit within the access of weaker sections. They wanted to recruit staff for
the rural banks at lower salaries. But this type of discrimination would have been
unfruitful. So it was given up.
A problem with regard to the rural banks is the creditworthiness of the poor. The
Indian farmers are so poor that they cannot pay back their loans. The rural Indian sur-
veys make it quite clear that practically rural farmers have no creditworthiness. Their
socio-economic mobility is almost zero. That is why banks fear that their credit will
never be paid back.
Another diffuculty for the rural banks is that loans cannot be processed so easi-
ly. Processing loans also entails heavy expenditure. This was also going to affect their
financial position. Still the establishment of the rural banks was decided because the
social advantages were more important than the commercial consideration.
Rural banks definitely encourage savings. No doubt the villagers do not have to
pay income tax and they get many other concessions, yet their savings is not signifi-
cant. Despite all the hurdles, the rural banking system, will boost up the economy of
villages, and thereby the economy of the country.
191. Which of the following is/are the purpose/s of setting up banks in rural areas?
(A) Replacing other credit-giving bodies
(B) Giving loans to farmers (C) Increasing the amount of savings of villagers.
1) Only (B) 2) Only (A) and (B) 3) Only (B) and (c)
4) Only (A) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)
192. The structural changes made by the Steering Committee were in respect of
1) staffing, co-ordinating and providing access to weaker sections.
2) building smaller buildings to house the banks
3) investing very little in terms of infrastructure required to start a bank
4) discriminating between urban bank staff and rural bank staff
5) None of these
193. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
1) Regional Rural Banks 2) The Rural Consumer
3) Microfinance In Rural India
4) Characteristics Of Indian Villages
5) Banking Concepts In India
194. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
1) Processing of loans by rural banks is difficult
2) Staff of the rural banks is paid a lower salary as compared to urban banks.
3) Rural banks may not make as much profit as their urban counterparts
4) Processing of loans by banks is not cheap
5) Rural farmers are, many a time, unable to pay back the loans they avail.
195. Which of the following is one of the benefits of living in the Village, as men-
tioned in the passage?
1) People living in the villages enjoy a higher income than their urban counterparts
2) People living in villages do not have to pay income tax and they also get other
consessions
3) People living in villages have a better quality of life
4) Villages are self-sufficient; hence they do not need outside help for any activity.
5) People living in villages are rarely in need of a loan.
Directions (Q.196-198): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in
meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
196. CONCENTRATED
1) clustered 2) rigorous 3) attentive
4) diluted 5) intense
197. ACCESS
1) admittance 2) reach 3) admission
4) entry 5) permission
198. ENTAILS
1) recommends 2) lasts 3) lists
4) involves 5) filters

Directions (Q.199-200): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite

in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
199. BOOSTING
1) reducing 2) managing 3) overwhelming
4) smoothening 5) heightening
200. SIGNIFICANT
1) forgettable 2) untrustworthy 3) reliable
4) irregular 5) little
 Answers
1–1; 2-5; 3-4; 4-5; 5-2; 6-5; 7-5; 8-2; 9-3; 10-4; 11-3; 12–1; 13–3; 14-2; 15-5; 16-4;
17–3; 18-3; 19-2; 20-1; 21-2; 22-4; 23-5; 24–3; 25-4; 26-1; 27-4; 28–3; 29-1; 30–4;
31-2; 32–2; 33-5; 34-2; 35–3; 36-2; 37-1; 38-5; 39–4; 40-1; 41-4; 42-1; 43-2; 44-1;
45-5; 46–2; 47-1; 48-3; 49-1; 50-4; 51-5; 52-1; 53-1; 54-4; 55–3; 56-4; 57-2; 58–2;
59-5; 60–3; 61-3; 62-2; 63-4; 64-5; 65-3; 66-1; 67-2; 68-5; 69–2; 70-4; 71-1; 72–3;
73–4; 74-2; 75-1; 76–4; 77–3; 78–4; 79-1; 80-1; 81-3; 82–4; 83–4; 84-5; 85-5; 86-5;
87-2; 88-5; 89-5; 90-3; 91-2; 92-5; 93-2; 94-3; 95-1; 96-2; 97-1; 98-2; 99-5; 100–4;
101-3; 102-2; 103-4; 104-1; 105-3; 106-5; 107-5; 108-2; 109-3; 110-5; 111-5; 112-5;
113-5; 114-1; 115-2; 116-2; 117-1; 118-4; 119–3; 120-4; 121-3; 122-5; 123-5; 124–3;
125-4; 126-3; 127-3; 128-1; 129–2; 130-5; 131-4; 132-1; 133-4; 134–2; 135-5; 136-
1; 137–2; 138-2; 139–1; 140-4; 141–3; 142-1; 143–2; 144–1; 145–3; 146–2; 147-4;
148-4; 149-5; 150-4; 151-4; 152-2; 153–4; 154–1; 155-2; 156-3; 157-5; 158-5; 159–1;
160-3; 161-4; 162–5; 163–4; 164–4; 165–5; 166–4; 167–2; 168–3; 169–5; 170–3;
171–2; 172–1; 173–3; 174–2; 175–1; 176–4; 177–2; 178–5; 179–4; 180–3; 181–3;
182–5; 183–2; 184–5; 185–4; 186–2; 187–1; 188–4; 189–1; 190–3; 191–3; 192–1;
193–1; 194–2; 195–2; 196–1; 197–2; 198–4; 199–1; 200–5.