URTS (Unacademy Revision Test Series)

Test - 2

Time: 3:20 Hours Test Date: 11-01-2025 Maximum Marks: 720

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questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany &
Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given
below:
(1) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions Nos- 1 to 35,
51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(2) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos- 36 to 50, 86
to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten)
questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
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attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions,
the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
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 TEST SYLLABUS

Test - 2

Physics : Work, Energy & Power, Circular Motion, Centre of Mass,

Momentum & Collision

Chemistry : Chemical Bonding, Chemical Equilibrium, Ionic Equilibrium

Botany : Morphology of Flowering Plant & Anatomy of Flowering Plant

Zoology : Biomolecules & Enzymes, Breathing & Exchange of Gases

 PART-A: PHYSICS PART-A: PHYSICS
(SECTION-A) (SECTION-A)
1. ,d d.k A dks yacor Åij dh vksj ç{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA 1. A Particle A is projected vertically upwards.
leku æO;eku dk ,d vU; d.k B, 45° ds dks.k ij ç{ksfir Another particle B of same mass is projected at
fd;k tkrk gSA nksuksa ,d gh Å¡pkbZ rd igq¡prs gSaA A dh an angle of 45°. Both reach the same height.
çkjafHkd xfrt ÅtkZ dk B dh çkjafHkd xfrt ÅtkZ ls The ratio of the initial kinetic energy of A to that
vuqikr gS of B is
(1) 1:2 (2) 1 : 1 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1

(3) (4) (3) 1: 2 (4) 2:1

1: 2 2:1

2. ,d vkneh ,d h ?kaVs eh. xgjs dq,a ls ikuh ls Hkjh ckYVh 2. A man pulls a bucket full of water from an h
[khaprk gSA ;fn jLlh dk æO;eku m gS vkSj ikuh ls Hkjh metre deep well. If the mass of rope is m and
ckYVh dk æO;eku M gS] rks euq"; }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z gS the mass of the bucket full of water is M, then
M  M + m the work done by the man is
(1)  + m  gh (2)   gh M  M + m
2   2  (1)  + m  gh (2)   gh
2   2 
 m
(3)  M +  gh (4) (M + m)gh  m
 2 (3)  M +  gh (4) (M + m)gh
 2

3. m æO;eku dk ,d d.k leku vfHkdsUæh; cy ds vèkhu 3. A particle of mass m is moving in a circle of

−K −K
f=T;k r ds o`Ùk esa ?kwe jgk gS r̂, tgk¡ K ,d fLFkjkad radius r under a centripetal force equal to r̂,
r 2 r2
gSA d.k dh dqy ÅtkZ fdruh gS\ where K is a constant. What is the total energy
−K K of the particle?
(1) (2) −K K
2r 4r (1) (2)
K 2r 4r
(3) (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha K
r (3) (4) none of these
r

4. fdlh fiaM ij yxus okyk cy F mlds foLFkkiu x ij 4. A force F acting on a body depends on its
F  xn ds :i esa fuHkZj djrk gSA ;fn n gS] rks F }kjk displacement x as F  xn. The power delivered
çnÙk 'kfä x ls Lora= gksxh by F will be independent of x, if n is

1 1 1 1
(1) (2) − (1) (2) −
3 3 3 3

1 1 1 1
(3) (4) − (3) (4) −
2 2 2 2

5. cy fLFkjkad K okyk ,d ÅèokZèkj fLçax ,d est ij yxk 5. A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed
on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above
gqvk gSA fLçax ds eqä Åijh fljs ls h Å¡pkbZ ij m æO;eku
the free upper end of the spring falls vertically
dh ,d xsna fLçax ij yacor :i ls fxjrh gS ftlls fLçax
on the spring so that the spring is compressed
d nwjh rd ladqfpr gks tkrh gSA bl çfØ;k esa fd;k x;k
by a distance d. The net work done in the
'kq) dk;Z gS process is
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
(1) mg(h − d) + Kd (2) mg(h + d) + Kd (1) mg(h − d) + Kd (2) mg(h + d) + Kd
2 2 2 2
1 2 1
(3) mg(h + d) − Kd (4) mg(h − d) − Kd2 (3) mg(h + d) −
1 2
Kd
1
(4) mg(h − d) − Kd2
2 2 2 2

3
6. 50 fdyksxzke æO;eku dk ,d O;fä ,d fy¶V esa [kM+k gSA 6. A man of mass 50 kg is standing in an elevator.
;fn fy¶V euq"; ij fy¶V ds Q'kZ dh lkekU; vfHkfØ;k If the elevator is moving up with an acceleration
g g
, }kjk fd, x, dk;Z ds Roj.k ds lkFk Åij dh vksj c<+ of , the work done by the normal reaction of
3 3
jgh gS tc fy¶V 12 ehVj dh nwjh rd pyrh gS (g = 10 the floor of elevator on man when the elevator
m/s2) moves by a distance 12 m is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2000 J (2) 4000 J (1) 2000 J (2) 4000 J
(3) 6000 J (4) 8000 J (3) 6000 J (4) 8000 J

7. 6 fdyksxzke æO;eku dk ,d fiaM ,d cy ds vèkhu gS tks 7. A body of mass 6 kg is under a force which
t2 t2
blesa S = ehVj }kjk fn, x, foLFkkiu dk dkj.k curk causes displacement in it given by S =
4 4
gS tgka t le; gSA cy }kjk 2 lsdaM esa fd;k x;k dk;Z gS metres where t is time. The work done by the
(1) 12 J (2) 9 J force in 2 seconds is
(3) 6J (4) 3 J (1) 12 J (2) 9 J
(3) 6 J (4) 3 J

8. fdlh fiaM dh fLFkfrt ÅtkZ U = A – Bx2 ¼tgk¡ x foLFkkiu 8. The potential energy of a body is given by
gS½ }kjk nh tkrh gSA d.k ij yxus okys cy dk ifjek.k gS U = A – Bx2 (where x is the displacement). The
(1) fLFkj magnitude of force acting on the particle is
(1) x ds lekuqikrh (1) constant
(2) proportional to x
(1) x2 ds lekuqikrh
(3) proportional to x2
(1) x ds O;qRØekuqikrh
(4) inversely proportional to x

9. nks inkFkksZa dk æO;eku 1 xzke vkSj 9 xzke gSA ;fn mudh 9. Masses of two substances are 1 g and 9 g. If
xfrt ÅtkZ,¡ leku gSa] rks muds laosx dk vuqikr Øe'k% their kinetic energies are same, then the ratio
gksxkA of their momentum will be respectively.
(1) 1:9 (2) 9 : 1 (1) 1 : 9 (2) 9 : 1
(3) 3:1 (4) 1 : 3 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3

10. v osx ls xfreku ,d fiaM nks cjkcj Hkkxksa esa VwV tkrk gSA 10. A body moving with a velocity v breaks up into
,d Hkkx osx v ds lkFk vius iFk dk vuqlj.k djrk gSA two equal parts. One of the part retraces its
fQj] nwljs Hkkx dk osx gS path with velocity v. Then, the velocity of the
¼1½ v vkxs dh fn'kk esa other part is
(1) v in forward direction
¼2½ vkxs dh fn'kk esa 3v
(2) 3v in forward direction
¼3½ v foijhr fn'kk esa
(3) v in backward direction
¼4½ ihNs dh fn'kk esa 3v (4) 3v in backward direction

11. ,d xsna dks 10 ehVj dh ÅapkbZ ls fxjus fn;k tkrk gSA ;fn 11. A ball is allowed to fall from a height of 10 m.
çHkko ds dkj.k 40% ÅtkZ dh gkfu gksrh gS] rks ,d çHkko If there is 40% loss of energy due to the impact,
ds ckn xsna Åij tk;sxh then after one impact the ball will go up to
(1) 10 m (2) 8 m (1) 10 m (2) 8 m
(3) 4m (4) 6 m (3) 4 m (4) 6 m

12. ,d Øsu 3 lsdaM esa 300 fdyksxzke otu i`Foh dh lrg ls 12. A crane lifts 300 kg weight from earth’s surface
2 ehVj dh ÅapkbZ rd mBkrh gSA blds }kjk mRiUu vkSlr upto a height of 2 m in 3 seconds. The average
'kfDr gksxh & power generated by it will be :
(1) 1960 W (2) 2205 W (1) 1960 W (2) 2205 W
(3) 4410 W (4) 0 W (3) 4410 W (4) 0 W

4
13. ,d d.k U = 8x2 – 4x + 100 J }kjk fn, x, laHkkfor 13. A particle moves in a potential region given by
{ks= esa pyrk gSA bldh larqyu dh fLFkfr gksxh & U = 8x2 – 4x + 100 J. Its state of equilibrium will
(1) x = 25 m (2) x = 0.25 m be :
(3) x = 0.025 m (4) x = 2.5 m (1) x = 25 m (2) x = 0.25 m
(3) x = 0.025 m (4) x = 2.5 m

14. ,d laj{kh cy {ks= esa iFk PQR ds fy, ,d fiaM dks P ls 14. For the path PQR in a conservative force field
Q vkSj Q ls R rd ys tkus esa fd, x, dk;Z dh ek=k the amounts of work done in carrying a body
Øe'k% 5 twy vkSj 2 twy gSA 'kjhj dks P ls R rd ys tkus from P to Q and from Q to R are 5 Joule and 2
esa fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk& Joule respectively. The work done in carrying
the body from P to R will be :

(1) 7 Joule (2) 3 Joule (1) 7 Joule (2) 3 Joule

(3) 21 Joule (4) Zero (3) 21 Joule (4) Zero

15. ,d cy F = Kx2 ,d d.k ij x&v{k ls 60° ds dks.k ij 15. A force F = Kx2 acts on a particle at an angle of
dk;Z djrk gSA d.k dks x1 ls x2 rd foLFkkfir djus esa 60° with the x-axis. The work done in displacing
fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk & the particle from x1 to x2 will be :

kx 2 k 2 kx 2 k 2
(1) (2) (x − x21 ) (1) (2) (x − x21 )
2 2 2 2 2 2
k 3 k 3 k 3 k 3
(3) (x − x31 ) (4) (x − x31 ) (3) (x − x31 ) (4) (x − x31 )
6 2 3 2 6 2 3 2

16. ;fn o`Ùkkdkj iFk ij ?kwe jgs fdlh d.k ds foLFkkiu dk 16. If the equation for the displacement of a
lehdj.k (t) = 2t3 + 0.5 }kjk fn;k x;k gS] tgka  jsfM;u particle moving on a circular path is given by
esa gS vkSj t lsdaM esa gS] rks viuh 'kq#vkr ls 2 s ds ckn (t) = 2t3 + 0.5, where  is in radians and t in
d.k dk dks.kh; osx gS & seconds, then the angular velocity of the
particle after 2 s from its start is :
(1) 8 rad/s (2) 12 rad/s
(3) 24 rad/s (4) 36 rad/s (1) 8 rad/s (2) 12 rad/s
(3) 24 rad/s (4) 36 rad/s

17. jSf[kd osx dk eku D;k gS] 17. What is the value of linear velocity,
ˆ
ˆ vkSj r = 5iˆ − 6ˆj + 6k ˆ and r = 5iˆ − 6ˆj + 6k
 = 3iˆ − 4ˆj + k ˆ
 = 3iˆ − 4ˆj + k
ˆ (1) ˆ
6iˆ + 2jˆ − 3k ˆ
(2) −18iˆ − 13ˆj + 2k
(1) ˆ
6iˆ + 2jˆ − 3k (2) −18iˆ − 13ˆj + 2k
ˆ ˆ (3) ˆ
4iˆ − 13jˆ + 6k ˆ
(4) 6iˆ − 2jˆ + 8k
(3) 4iˆ − 13jˆ + 6k (4) 6iˆ − 2jˆ + 8k

18. ,d gokbZ tgkt 100 ehVj f=T;k ds o`Ùkkdkj iFk ij 100 18. An aeroplane is flying with a uniform speed of
ehVj@lsdM sa dh ,d leku xfr ls mM+ jgk gSA gokbZ tgkt 100 m/s along a circular path of radius 100 m.
dh dks.kh; xfr gksxh & the angular speed of the aeroplane will be
(1) 1 rad/sec (2) 2 rad/sec (1) 1 rad/sec (2) 2 rad/sec
(3) 3 rad/sec (4) 4 rad/sec (3) 3 rad/sec (4) 4 rad/sec

5
19. nks d.k P vkSj Q fn[kk, x, osx ls ?kwe jgs gSaA Q dk 19. Two particles P and Q are moving with
dks.kh; osx w.r.t. P, 2 jsM@lsdaM gSA Q dk osx fuEu }kjk velocities as shown. Angular velocity of Q w.r.t.
fn;k x;k gS& P is 2 rad/sec. Velocity of Q is given by :

(1) 5 2 m/s (2) 4 2 m/s (1) 5 2 m/s (2) 4 2 m/s

(3) 6 2 m/s (4) 2 2 m/s (3) 6 2 m/s (4) 2 2 m/s

20. 600 rev@feuV ij ?kweus okys ,d ¶ykbZ Oghy dks ,d 20. A fly wheel rotating at 600 rev/min is brought
leku eanu ds rgr yk;k tkrk gS vkSj mlds ckn jksd fn;k under uniform deceleration and stopped after
tkrk gS 2 feuV] rks rad/sec2 esa dks.kh; eanu D;k gS\ 2 minutes, then what is angular deceleration in
 rad/sec2?
(1) (2) 10
6 
(1) (2) 10
1 6
(3) (4) 300
12 1
(3) (4) 300
12

21. fdlh d.k ds o`Ùkkdkj iFk dh f=T;k nksxquh gksrh gS ysfdu 21. The radius of the circular path of a particle is
mlds ?kweus dh vko`fÙk fLFkj j[kh tkrh gSA ;fn çkjfEHkd double but its frequency of rotation is kept
vfHkdsUæh; cy gks F] rks vfHkdsUæh; cy dk vafre eku constant. If the initial centripetal force be
gksxk& F, then the final value of centripetal force will
F be :
(1) F (2) F
2 (1) F (2)
(3) 4F (4) 2F 2
(3) 4F (4) 2F

22. 1.96 ehVj yach Mksjh ds fljs ls tqM+h 0.25 fdxzk æO;eku 22. A ball of mass 0.25 kg attached to the end of a
dh ,d xsna ,d {kSfrt o`Ùk esa ?kwe jgh gSA ;fn ruko 25 N string of length 1.96 m is moving in a horizontal
ls vfèkd gS rks Mksjh VwV tk,xhA xsna dks fdl vfèkdre circle. The string will break if the tension is
xfr ls ?kqek;k tk ldrk gS\ more than 25 N. What is the maximum speed
(1) 14 m/s (2) 3 m/s with which the ball can be moved
(3) 3.92 m/s (4) 5 m/s (1) 14 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(3) 3.92 m/s (4) 5 m/s

23. tSlk fd fp= esa fn[kk;k x;k gS] rhu leku d.k ,d èkkxs 23. Three identical particles are joined together by
ls ,d lkFk tqM+s gq, gSaA rhuksa d.k {kSfrt ry esa o`Ùkkdkj a thread as shown in figure. All the three
iFk esa ?kwe jgs gSaA ;fn lcls ckgjh d.k dk osx v0 gS] rks particles are moving in a circular path in
Mksjh ds rhu [kaMksa esa ruko dk vuqikr gS horizontal plane. If the velocity of the
outermost particle is v0, then the ratio of
tensions in the three sections of the string is

(1) 3:5:7 (2) 3 : 4 : 5

(3) 7 : 11 : 6 (4) 3 : 5 : 6 (1) 3 : 5 : 7 (2) 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 7 : 11 : 6 (4) 3 : 5 : 6

6
24. 30° ds cSafdax dks.k ds lkFk ,d oØ dh f=T;k 10 3 24. A curve has a radius of 10 3 meters with a
ehVj gSA cSafdax Q‚eZwyk dk mi;ksx djds bl oØ ij ,d banking angle of 30°. What will be the ideal or
dkj ds fy, vkn'kZ ;k Økafrd osx D;k gksxk\ critical velocity for a car on this curve using
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s Banking Formula?
(3) 3 m/s (4) 8 m/s (1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 3 m/s (4) 8 m/s

25. 1 fdxzk æO;eku dk ,d d.k 10 2 m. yackbZ dh ,d Mksjh 25. A particle of mass 1 kg is suspended from a
ds ekè;e ls Nr ls yVdk;k x;k gSA d.k ,d {kSfrt o`Ùk ceiling through a string of length 10 2 m. The
esa xfr djrk gSA bldh le;kofèk ¼lsdaM esa½ Kkr dhft,A particle moves in a horizontal circle. Find its
time period (in sec).


(1) (2) 
2 
(1) (2) 
3 2
(3) (4) 2
2 3
(3) (4) 2
2
26. 1.6 ehVj yach Mksjh ds fljs ij caèkh ,d ckYVh dks ,d 26. A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long string
ÅèokZèkj o`Ùk esa fLFkj xfr ls ?kqek;k tkrk gSA U;wure xfr is whirled in a vertical circle with constant
D;k gksuh pkfg, rkfd ckYVh ls ikuh u fxjs] tc ckYVh speed. What should be the minimum speed so
mPpre fLFkfr ij gks ¼ g = 10 m/sec ys½a 2 that the water from the bucket does not spill,
(1) 4 m/sec (2) 6.25 m/sec when the bucket is at the highest position (Take
(3) 16 m/sec (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha g = 10 m/sec2)
(1) 4 m/sec (2) 6.25 m/sec
(3) 16 m/sec (4) None of these

27. m æO;eku dk ,d fiaM l yackbZ dh Mksjh ds ,d fljs ij 27. A body of mass m hangs at one end of a string
yVdk gqvk gS] ftldk nwljk fljk fLFkj gSA bls ,d {kSfrt of length l, the other end of which is fixed. It is
osx fn;k x;k gS rkfd Mksjh ogha igqaps tgka og ÅèokZèkj ds given a horizontal velocity so that the string
lkFk 60° dk dks.k cukrh gSA ekè; fLFkfr esa Mksjh esa ruko would just reach where it makes an angle of
60° with the vertical. The tension in the string
gS -
at mean position is
(1) 2 mg (2) mg
(1) 2 mg (2) mg
(3) 3 mg (4) 3 mg
(3) 3 mg (4) 3 mg

28. nks Vªsusa A vkSj B lekukarj jsy ij ,d gh fn'kk esa bl çdkj 28. Two trains A and B are running in the same
direction on parallel rails such that ‘A’ is faster
py jgh gSa fd 'A'] 'B' ls rst+ gSA muds chp leku otu than ‘B’. Packets of equal weight are
transferred between them. What will happen
ds iSdsV LFkkukarfjr fd, tkrs gSaA blls D;k gksxk\ due to this?
(1) A will be accelerated but B will be
(1) A Rofjr gks tk,xk ysfdu B ean gks tk,xkA retarded.
(2) B will be accelerated but A will be
(2) B Rofjr gks tk,xk ysfdu A ean gks tk,xkA retarded.
(3) There will be no change in A but B will be
(3) A esa dksbZ cnyko ugha gksxk ysfdu B esa rsth vk,xhA
accelerated.
(4) B esa dksbZ cnyko ugha gksxk] ysfdu A esa rsth vk,xhA (4) There will be no change in B, but A will be
accelerated.

7
29. nks vkneh 'A' vkSj 'B' ,d r[rs ij [kM+s gSaA 'B' r[rs ds 29. Two men ‘A’ and ‘B’ are standing on a plank. ‘B’
eè; esa gS vkSj 'A' r[rs dk ck;ka Nksj gSA flLVe 'kq: esa is at the middle of the plank and ‘A’ is the left
fojke dh fLFkfr esa gS vkSj æO;eku fp= esa fn[kk, vuqlkj end of the plank. System is initially at rest and
gSA 'A' vkSj 'B' bl çdkj pyuk 'kq: djrs gSa fd tehu ds masses are as shown in the figure. ‘A’ and ‘B’
lacaèk esa 'B' dh fLFkfr fLFkj jgrh gS] fQj 'A' 'B' ls feyrk starts moving such that the position of ‘B’
remains fixed with respect to ground, then ‘A’
gSA fQj og fcanq tgka A] B ls feyrk gS] fLFkr gS
meets ‘B’. Then the point where A meets B is
located at

(1) r[k+~rs dk eè; Hkkx

(2) r[rs ds ck;sa fljs ls 30 lseh
(1) the middle of the plank
(3) r[rs dk nkfguk fljk (2) 30 cm from the left end of the plank
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (3) the right end of the plank
(4) None of these

30. ,d xsna xfr p ds lkFk Q'kZ ij yacor fxjrh gS] vkSj fQj 30. A ball falls vertically onto a floor, with
ckj&ckj mNyrh gSA izR;koLFkku xq.kkad e gSA xsna }kjk Q'kZ momentum p, and then bounces repeatedly.
dks fn;k x;k dqy laosx gS & The coefficient of restitution is e. The total
(1) p(1 + e) momentum imparted by the ball to the floor is
(1) p(1 + e)
p
(2) p
1−e (2)
1−e
 1
(3) p1 +   1
 e (3) p1 + 
 e 
1+ e
(4) p  1+ e
1−e (4) p 
1−e

31. ,d xsna dks 10 ehVj dh ÅapkbZ ls fxjk;k tkrk gSA ;g jsr 31. A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. It is
esa 1 ehVj èkaldj #d tkrh gSA bl çfØ;k esa embedded 1 m in sand and stops. In this
process
(1) dsoy laosx lajf{kr gS
(1) Only momentum is conserved
(2) dsoy xfrt ÅtkZ lajf{kr jgrh gS
(2) Only kinetic energy is conserved
(3) laosx vkSj xfrt ÅtkZ nksuksa lajf{kr gSa
(3) Both momentum and kinetic energy are
(4) u rks laosx vkSj u gh xfrt ÅtkZ lajf{kr gksrh gS conserved
(4) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy is
conserved

32. n NksVh xsna sa] çR;sd æO;eku m dh] osx u ds lkFk lrg ij 32. n small balls, each of mass m, impinge
çR;sd lsdaM çR;kLFk :i ls Vdjkrh gSaA lrg }kjk vuqHko elastically each second on a surface with
fd;k tkus okyk cy gksxk velocity u. The force experienced by the surface
(1) mnu will be
(2) 2 mnu (1) mnu
(3) 4 mnu (2) 2 mnu
(3) 4 mnu
1
(4) mnu 1
2 (4) mnu
2

8
33. 50 xzke æO;eku dh ,d xsna dks Å¡pkbZ h = 10 m ls 33. A ball of mass 50 g is dropped from a height h
fxjk;k tkrk gSA ;g viuh xfrt ÅtkZ dk 75% [kksdj iqu% = 10 m. It rebounds losing 75% of its kinetic
mNy tkrh gSA ;fn ;g t = 0.01 s rd tehu ds laidZ energy. If it remains in contact with the ground
esa jgrk gS] rks çHkko cy dk vkosx gS (ysa g = 10 ms )
–2 for t = 0.01 s, the impulse of the impact force
(1) 1.3 Ns (2) 1.06 Ns is (take g = 10 ms–2)
(3) 1300 Ns (4) 105 Ns (1) 1.3 Ns (2) 1.06 Ns
(3) 1300 Ns (4) 105 Ns

34. 1 fdyks æO;eku dk ,d fiaM le; ij fuHkZj cy 34. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the
F = (2tiˆ + 3t2ˆj) N, vkjksfir djus ij xfr 'kq: djrk gS action of a time dependent force
F = (2tiˆ + 3t j) N, where î
2ˆ
and ĵ are unit
tgka î vkSj ĵ X vkSj Y v{kksa ds vuqfn'k ,dkad lafn'k gksrs
vectors along X and Y axes. What power will be
gSaA le; ¼t½ ij yxus okys cy ls dkSu lh 'kfä fodflr
developed by the force a the time (t)?
gksxh\
(1) (2t2 + 4t4) W (2) (2t3 + 3t4) W
(1) (2t2 + 4t4) W (2) (2t3 + 3t4) W
(3) (2t + 3t ) W
3 5
(4) (2t + 3t3) W
(3) (2t3 + 3t5) W (4) (2t + 3t3) W

35. fdlh fiaM ij yxus okys cy dk ifjek.k ¼U;wVu esa½ le; 35. The magnitude of force (in Newton) acting on a
ds lkFk ¼ekbØksld
s aM esa½ ifjofrZr gksrk gS] tSlk fd fp= esa body varies with time (in microsecond), as
fn[kk;k x;k gS rks] fi.M ij cy ds dqy vkosx dk ifjek.k shown in the figure. The magnitude of total
t = 4 s ls 16 s gS impulse of the force on the body from t = 4 s
to 16 s is

(1) 5 × 10–2 Ns (2) 5 × 10–3 Ns

(3) 5 × 10–4 Ns (4) 5 × 10–6 Ns (1) 5 × 10–2 Ns (2) 5 × 10–3 Ns
(3) 5 × 10–4 Ns (4) 5 × 10–6 Ns

(SECTION-B) (SECTION-B)
36. leku æO;eku ds nks NksVs xksys] vkSj leku xfr ls ,d&nwljs 36. Two small spheres of equal mass, and heading
dh vksj c<+ jgs gSa] lEeq[k VDdj ls gksrh gSa ¼nks {ks=ksa dh towards each other with equal speeds, undergo
ç.kkyh ij dksbZ ckgjh cy dk;Z ugha djrk gS½A rks a head-on collision (no external force acts on
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gS\ system of two spheres). Then which of the
(1) mudk vafre osx 'kwU; gksuk pkfg,A following statement is correct?
(2) mudk vafre osx 'kwU; gks ldrk gSA (1) Their final velocities must be zero.
(2) Their final velocities may be zero.
(3) çR;sd dk vafre osx nwljs ds çkjafHkd osx ds cjkcj
(3) Each must have a final velocity equal to
gksuk pkfg,A
the other’s initial velocity.
(4) muds osxksa dk ifjek.k de fd;k tkuk pkfg,
(4) Their velocities must be reduced in
magnitude
37. nks Bksl xksys ds chp la?kV~V esa] la?kV~V dh js[kk ds vuqfn'k 37. In a collision between two solid spheres,
i`FkDdj.k dk osx ¼eku ysa fd çHkko ds nkSjku nks {ks=ksa dh velocity of separation along the line of impact
fudk; ij dksbZ ckgjh cy dk;Z ugha djrk gS½ & (assume no external forces act on the system
(1) ikl vkus ds osx ls vfèkd ugha gks ldrk of two spheres during impact) :
(2) ikl vkus ds osx ls de ugha gks ldrk (1) cannot be greater than velocity of
(3) ikl vkus ds osx ds cjkcj ugha gks ldrk approach
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (2) cannot be less than velocity of approach
(3) cannot be equal to velocity of approach
(4) none of these
9
38. ;fn fudk; ds nzO;eku dsUnz ij osx fu;r gS] rks fudk; ij 38. The velocity of centre of mass of the system
vkjksfir dqy cy remains constant, if the total external force
(1) U;wure (2) vfèkdre acting on the system is
(3) ,d ¼4) 'kwU; (1) minimum (2) maximum
(3) unity (4) zero

39. fp= esa nks d.k fn[kk, x, gSaA t = 0 ij ,d fLFkj cy 39. Two particles are shown in figure. At t = 0 a
F = 6 N, 3 fdyks ij dk;Z djuk 'kq: dj nsrk gSA t = 5s constant force F = 6 N starts acting on 3 kg.
ij bu d.kksa ds æO;eku dsæa dk osx Kkr dhft,A Find the velocity of centre of mass of these
particles at t = 5 s.

(1) 5 m/s (2) 4 m/s

(3) 6 m/s (4) 3 m/s (1) 5 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s (4) 3 m/s

40. leku æO;eku ds nks d.kksa dk osx v1 = 2iˆ ms−1 vkSj 40. Two particles of equal mass have velocities
v2 = 2jˆ ms−1. gSA igys d.k dk Roj.k v1 = 2iˆ ms−1 and v2 = 2jˆ ms−1. First particle has

ˆ ms−2 gS tcfd nwljs d.k dk Roj.k 'kwU; ˆ ms−2 while the

an acceleration a1 = (3iˆ + 3j)
a1 = (3iˆ + 3j)
gSA nksuksa d.kksa ds æO;eku dsæa dh xfr dk iFk gksxk \ acceleration of the other particle is zero. The
centre of mass of the two particles moves in a
(1) lhèkh js[kk (2) ijoy;
path of
(3) o`Ùk (4) nh?kZo`Ùk
(1) straight line (2) parabola
(3) circle (4) ellipse

41. ,d vkneh fpduh {kSfrt lrg ij vkjke ls j[kh Vª‚yh ij 41. A man walks on the trolley, placed at rest on a
py jgk gS rks fudk; ds æO;eku dk dsæa ¼vkneh $ Vª‚yh½ smooth horizontal surface. The centre of mass
of the system (man + trolley)

(1) ckbZa vksj rsth ls c<+rk gS (1) accelerates towards left

(2) nkbZa vksj rsth ls c<+rk gS (2) accelerates towards right
(3) moves with urel
(3) urel ds lkFk xfr djrk gS
(4) remains stationary
(4) fLFkj jgrk gS

42. d.kksa dk ,d ra= fdlh Hkh ckgjh cy ls eqä gSA ;fn v 42. A system of particles is free from any external
vkSj a æO;eku ds dsaæ dk osx vkSj Roj.k gks] rks ;g force. If v and a be the velocity and
vko';d :i ls & acceleration of the centre of mass, then it
(1) v = 0; a = 0 necessarily follows that :
(1) v = 0; a = 0
(2) v  0; a = 0
(2) v  0; a = 0
(3) v = 0; a  0
(3) v = 0; a  0
(4) v = const; a = 0
(4) v = const; a = 0

10
43. 1 fdyksxzke vkSj 2 fdyksxzke æO;eku ds nks fiaM 1 43. Two bodies of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are moving
ehVj@lsdM sa vkSj 2 ehVj@lsdM sa ds osx ds lkFk nks yacor in two perpendicular direction with velocities 1
fn'kkvksa esa xfr dj jgs gSa tSlk fd fp= esa fn[kk;k x;k gSA m/s and 2 m/s as shown in figure. The velocity
fudk; ds æO;eku dsæa dk osx ¼ifjek.k esa½ gksxk & of the centre of mass (in magnitude) of the
system will be :

(1) 3 m/s (2) 1.67 m/s

(3) 1.5 m/s (4) 1.37 m/s (1) 3 m/s (2) 1.67 m/s
(3) 1.5 m/s (4) 1.37 m/s

44. M æO;eku dk ,d varfj{k ;ku eqä varfj{k esa v osx ls 44. A space craft of mass M is moving with velocity
xfr dj jgk gS rHkh mlesa foLQksV gks tkrk gS vkSj og nks v in free space when it explodes and breaks in
VqdM+ksa esa VwV tkrk gSA foLQksV ds ckn] varfj{k ;ku dk two. After the explosion, a mass m of the space
æO;eku m fLFkj jg tkrk gSA nwljs Hkkx dk osx D;k gS\ craft is left stationary. What is the velocity of
other part?
Mv mv
(1) (2) Mv mv
M−m M+m (1) (2)
M−m M+m
mv Mv
(3) (4) mv Mv
M−m m (3) (4)
M−m m

45. ;fn ,d oxkZdkj IysV vkSj ,d xksykdkj IysV ds inkFkZ dk 45. If the density of material of a square plate and
?kuRo leku gS] rks la;qDr fudk; dk æO;eku dsæa gksxk& a circular plate shown in is same, the centre of
mass of the composite system will be :

(1) oxkZdkj IysV ds vanj

(2) xksykdkj IysV ds vanj (1) Inside the square plate
(3) laidZ fcanq ij (2) Inside the circular plate
(4) fudk; ds ckgj (3) At the point of contact
(4) Outside the system

46. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk fcanq fp= esa fn[kk, x, fudk; ds 46. Which of the following points is the likely
æO;eku ds dsæa dh laHkkfor fLFkfr gS\ position of the centre of mass of the system
shown in figure?

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

11
47. nks æO;eku m1 = 1 kg vkSj m2 = 2 kg ,d gYdh vrU; 47. Two masses m1 = 1 kg and m2 = 2 kg are
Mksjh ls tqM+s gq, gSa vkSj ,d Hkkjghu f?kjuh ds ekè;e ls connected by a light inextensible string and
yVdk, x, gSa tSlk fd fp= esa fn[kk;k x;k gSA ;g ekurs suspended by means of a weightless pulley as
gq, fd nksuksa æO;eku fojke ls xfr 'kq: djrs gSa] æO;eku ds shown in the figure. Assuming that both the
dsæa }kjk nks lsdaM esa r; dh xbZ nwjh gS (Take g = 10 masses start from rest, the distance travelled
by the centre of mass in two seconds is (Take
ms–2)
g = 10 m s–2)

20 40
(1) m (2) m 20 40
9 9 (1) m (2) m
9 9
2 1
(3) m (4) m 2 1
3 3 (3) m (4) m
3 3

48. 1 fdxzk vkSj 3 fdxzk æO;eku ds nks d.kksa esa Øe'k% fLFkfr 48. Two particles of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have
lfn'k 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ vkSj −2iˆ + 3jˆ − 4kˆ gSaA æO;eku ds ˆ and −2iˆ + 3jˆ − 4k
position vectors 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4k ˆ

dsæa esa ,d fLFkfr lfn'k gksrk gS respectively. The centre of mass has a position
ˆ vector
(1) ˆ
ˆi + 3jˆ − 2k (2) −ˆi − 3jˆ − 2k
ˆ
(1) ˆi + 3jˆ − 2k ˆ
(2) −ˆi − 3jˆ − 2k
(3) ˆ
−ˆi + 3jˆ + 2k ˆ
(4) −ˆi + 3jˆ − 2k
(3) ˆ
−ˆi + 3jˆ + 2k ˆ
(4) −ˆi + 3jˆ − 2k

49. æO;eku m1 = 2 m, m2 = 4 m, m3 = m vkSj m4ds pkj 49. Four particle of masses m1 = 2 m, m2 = 4 m, m3 = m

d.k ,d oxZ ds pkjksa dksuksa ij j[ks x, gSaA m4 dk eku D;k and m4 are placed at four corners of a square. What
gksuk pkfg, rkfd lHkh pkj d.kksa dk æO;eku dsæa fcYdqy should be the value of m4 so that the centre of
oxZ ds dsæa ij gks\ mass of all the four particles are exactly at the
centre of the square?

(1) 3m (2) 5 m
(3) 8m (4) none of these (1) 3 m (2) 5 m
(3) 8 m (4) none of these

50. æO;eku m1 rFkk m2 ds nks d.kksa dh ,d fudk; dk æO;eku 50. The centre of mass of a system of two particles
dsæa m1 ls nwjh d1 rFkk æO;eku m2 ls nwjh d2 ij gS rks of masses m1 and m2 is at a distance d1 from m1
and at a distance d2 from mass m2 such that
d1 m2 d1 m1
(1) = (2) = d1 m2 d1 m1
d2 m1 d2 m2 (1) = (2) =
d2 m1 d2 m2
d1 m1 d1 m2
(3) = (4) = d1 m1 d1 m2
d2 m1 + m2 d2 m1 + m2 (3) = (4) =
d2 m1 + m2 d2 m1 + m2

12
 PART-B : CHEMISTRY PART-B : CHEMISTRY
(SECTION-A) (SECTION-A)
51. v"Vd fu;e dh O;k[;k ugha dh tk ldrh 51. Octet rule can’t explain
I. dsæ a h; ijek.kq dk viw.kZ v"Vd I. The incomplete octet of central atom
II. dsæ
a h; ijek.kq ij bysDVª‚uksa dh fo"ke la[;kA II. An odd number of electrons on central
III. dsæa h; ijek.kq dk foLrkfjr v"Vd atom.
IV- gkbMªkstu }kjk fufeZr MqIysV III. Expanded octet of the central atom
IV. Duplet formed by hydrogen
(1) dsoy I vkSj III (2) dsoy II vkSj III
(1) I and III only (2) II and III only
(3) dsoy III vkSj IV (4) ;s lHkh
(3) III and IV only (4) All of these

52. lgla;kstd caèk ds fuekZ.k ds fy, fo|qr _.kkRedrk ds eku 52. For the formation of covalent bond, the
esa varj gksuk pkfg, difference in the value of electronegativity
(1) 1.7 ds cjkcj ;k mlls de should be
(2) 1-7 ls vfèkd (1) Equal to or less than 1.7
(3) 1-9 ls 2-5 ds chp (2) More than 1.7
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (3) Between 1.9 to 2.5
(4) None of these

53. vk;fud ;kSfxdksa ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku 53. Which of the following statements is incorrect
xyr gS\ regarding ionic compounds?
(1) Bksl voLFkk esa ;s vPNs pkyd gksrs gSaA (1) They are good conductors in solid state.
(2) os vke rkSj ij èkzqoh; foyk;d esa ?kqyu'khy gksrs gSaA (2) They are generally soluble in polar
solvents.
(3) buesa vk;u gksrs gSa
(3) They consist of ions
(4) budk xyukad vkSj DoFkukad lkekU;r% mPp gksrk gS
(4) They generally have high melting and
boiling points

54. pkj rRoksa A. B. C. D dh bysDVª‚fud lajpuk gS 54. The electronic structure of four elements A, B,
A. 1s 2
B. 1s , 2s 2p
2 2 2 C, D are
C. 1s2, 2s2 2p5 D. 1s2, 2s2 2p6 A. 1s2 B. 1s2, 2s2 2p2
fo|qrla;kstd caèku cukus dh ço`fÙk lcls vfèkd gksrh gS C. 1s , 2s 2p
2 2 5
D. 1s2, 2s2 2p6
(1) A (2) B The tendency to form electrovalent bond is
(3) C (4) D largest in
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

55. tkyd ÅtkZ ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk Øe lgh 55. Which of the following order for lattice energy
ugha gS is not correct
(1) KCl > MgO (1) KCl > MgO
(2) AlN > MgO (2) AlN > MgO
(3) CaO > BaO (3) CaO > BaO
(4) MgCO3 > CaCO3 (4) MgCO3 > CaCO3

56. Qtku dk fu;e ds vuqlkj] vk;fud caèku esa lgla;kstd 56. According to Fajan’s rule, covalent character in
xq.k ds vuqdwy gSa ionic bond is favoured by
(1) cM+k èkuk;u vkSj NksVk _.kk;u (1) Large cation and small anion
(2) cM+k èkuk;u vkSj cM+k _.kk;u (2) Large cation and large anion
(3) Small cation and large anion
(3) NksVk èkuk;u vkSj cM+k _.kk;u
(4) Small cation and small anion
(4) y?kq èkuk;u ,oa y?kq _.kk;u

13
57. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ;kSfxd esa 'kwU; f}èkzqo vk?kw.kZ gksrk gS\ 57. Which of the following compounds possesses
I- ikuh zero dipole moment?
II- csta hu I. Water
III- dkcZu VsVªkDyksjkbM II. Benzene
IV- cksjksu Vªkb¶yksjkbM III. Carbon tetrachloride
IV. Boron trifluoride
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqu& sa
Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) II, III vkSj IV only
given below :
(2) II vkSj III only
(1) II, III and IV only
(3) II vkSj IV only
(2) II and III only
(4) I vkSj IV only (3) II and IV only
(4) I and IV only

58. ,d mnklhu v.kq XF3 dk f}/kzoq vk?kw.kZ 'kwU; gksrk gSA rRo 58. A neutral molecule XF3 has a zero dipole
X dh lcls vfèkd laHkkouk gS moment. The element X is most likely
(1) Dyksjhu (2) cksjksu (1) Chlorine (2) Boron
(3) ukbVªkstu (4) dkcZu (3) Nitrogen (4) Carbon

59. HF, H2S rFkk H2O ds f}/kzqo vk?kw.kksaZ dk lgh Øe gS 59. The correct order of dipole moments of HF, H2S
(1) H2S < HF < H2O (2) HF < H2S > H2O and H2O is
(3) HF > H2S > H2O (4) HF > H2O < H2S (1) H2S < HF < H2O (2) HF < H2S > H2O
(3) HF > H2S > H2O (4) HF > H2O < H2S

60. nksuksa çtkfr;ksa ¼Lihlht½ ds leku vkdkj okyh çtkfr;ksa 60. The pair of species having identical shape of
¼Lihlht½ dh tksM+h both species
(1) BF3, PCl3 (2) PF5, IF5 (1) BF3, PCl3 (2) PF5, IF5
(3) CF4, SF4 (4) XeF2, CO2 (3) CF4, SF4 (4) XeF2, CO2

61. ,fyy lkbukbM gS 61. Allyl cyanide has

¼1½ 9 flXek ca/k vkSj 4 ikbZ ca/k (1) 9 sigma bonds and 4 pi bonds
¼2½ 9 flXek ca/k 3 ikbZ ca/k vkSj 1 ,dkadh tksM+k (2) 9 sigma bonds, 3 pi bonds and 1 lone pair
¼3½ 8 flXek ca/k vkSj 5 ikbZ ca/k (3) 8 sigma bonds and 5 pi bonds
¼4½ 8 flXek ca/k vkSj 3 ikbZ ca/k (4) 8 sigma bonds and 3 pi bonds

62. Which of the following overlaps are not

62. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk vfrO;kiu laHko ugha gS\
possible
I. II.
I. II.

III. IV.
III. IV.
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa &
Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) I, III vkSj IV only (2) II vkSj III only
given below :
(3) III vkSj IV only (4) I vkSj IV only (1) I, III and IV only (2) II and III only
(3) III and IV only (4) I and IV only

63. tSls&tSls ladfjr d{kd dk s&xq.k/keZ ¼s-character½ 63. As the s-character of hybridized orbital
c<+rk gS] vkcaèk dks.k c<+rk gS increases, the bond angle
(1) o`f) (2) deh (1) Increase (2) Decrease
(3) 'kwU; gks tkrk gS (4) ifjorZu ugha gksrk (3) Becomes zero (4) Does not change

14
64. vkcaèk dks.k dk lgh Øe gS 64. The correct order of bond angle is
(1) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < CH4 (1) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < CH4
(2) NH3 < H2S < CH4 < BF3 (2) NH3 < H2S < CH4 < BF3
(3) H2S < NH3 < CH4 < BF3 (3) H2S < NH3 < CH4 < BF3
(4) H2S < CH4 < NH3 < BF3 (4) H2S < CH4 < NH3 < BF3

65. NH2–, NH3 vkSj NH4+ ds ckjs esa dkSu lk lR; gS\ 65. Which is true about NH2–, NH3 and NH4+?
I. N dk ladj.k leku gSA I. Hybridization of N is same.
II. N ij bysDVª‚u ds ,dkdh ;qXe dh la[;k leku gSA II. Number of lone pair of electron on N are
III. vk.kfod T;kfefr ¼vFkkZr~ vkdkj½ fHkUu gSA same.
III. Molecular geometry (i.e. shape) is
IV. ca/k dks.k leku gS-
different.
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa &
IV. Bond angle is same.
(1) II vkSj IV only (2) I, III vkSj IV only
Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) II vkSj III only (4) I vkSj III only
given below :
(1) II and IV only (2) I, III and IV only
(3) II and III only (4) I and III only

66. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl çtkfr ¼Lih'kht½ dk caèk Øe rhu ls 66. Which of the following species have bond order
de gS\ less than three?
(1) CN– (2) CO (1) CN– (2) CO
(3) NO+ (4) O2+ (3) NO+ (4) O2+

67. O2–, O2 vkSj O22– vk.kfod çtkfr;ksa esa] Øe'k% caèku 67. In O2–, O2 and O22– molecular species, the total
bysDVª‚uksa dh dqy la[;k gS number of bonding electrons, respectively, are
(1) 7, 6, 8 (2) 11, 10, 12 (1) 7, 6, 8 (2) 11, 10, 12
(3) 10, 10, 10 (4) 8, 6, 8 (3) 10, 10, 10 (4) 8, 6, 8

68. ,d izfrfØ;k N2 + 3H2 2NH3, ds fy, KC dk eku 68. For a reaction N2 + 3H2 2NH3, the value of

fuHkZj ugha djrk gS& KC does not depend upon :

A- vfHkdkjdksa dh çkjafHkd lkaærk A. Initial concentration of the reactants
B. Pressure
B. ncko
C. Temperature
C. rkieku
D. Catalyst
D. mRçsjd
(1) Only C (2) A, B, C
(1) Only C (2) A, B, C
(3) A, B, D (4) All
(3) A, B, D (4) All

69. uhps fn, x, fuEufyf[kr xSlh; larqyu ij fopkj djsa& 69. Consider the following gaseous equilibria given
below :
I. N2 + 3H2 2NH3; Equilibrium Constant = K1
I. N2 + 3H2 2NH3; Equilibrium Constant = K1
II. N2 + O2 2NO; Equilibrium Constant = K2
II. N2 + O2 2NO; Equilibrium Constant = K2
III. H2 + 1/2O2 H2O; Equilibrium Constant =
III. H2 + 1/2O2 H2O; Equilibrium Constant = K3
K3
vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lkE;koLFkk fLFkjkad] The equilibrium constant for the reaction,
5 5
2NH3 + O2 2NO + 3H2O 2NH3 + O2 2NO + 3H2O
2 2
K1, K2 vkSj K3 ds lanHkZ esa gksxk in terms of K1, K2 and K3 will be :
K 1 K2 K K
(1) K1 K2 K3 (2) (1) K1 K2 K3 (2) 1 2
K3 K3

K 1 K23 K2 K33 K 1 K23 K2 K33

(3) (4) (3) (4)
K2 K1 K2 K1

15
70. vfHkfØ;k PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) PCl5 (g), ds fy,] 70. For the reaction PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) PCl5 (g),

250°C ij Kp dk eku 0.61 atm–1 gSA bl rkieku ij the value of KP at 250°C is 0.61 atm–1. The value
KC dk eku gksxk of KC at this temperature will be
(1) 15 (mol/l)–1 (2) 26 (mol/l)–1 (1) 15 (mol/l)–1 (2) 26 (mol/l)–1
(3) 35 (mol/l)–1 (4) 52 (mol/l)–1 (3) 35 (mol/l) –1
(4) 52 (mol/l)–1

71. dSfY'k;e dkckZsusV dk rkih; vi?kVu fo"ke lkE;koLFkk 71. The thermal dissociation of calcium carbonate
n'kkZrk gS& showing heterogenous equilibrium is

CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)

bl vfHkfØ;k ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk@ls lR; For this reactions which of the following is/are
true?
gS@gSa\
I. Kc = [CO2(g)]
I. Kc = [CO2(g)]
II. Kp = pCO
II. Kp = pCO 2
2
III. [CaCO3(s)] and [CaO(s)], both are constant = 1
III. [CaCO3(s)] vkSj [CaO(s)], nksuksa fLFkj gS = 1
IV. [CO2(g)] is constant
IV. [CO2(g)] fLFkj gS
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;qä mÙkj pquas & options given below :
(1) I, II vkSj IV (1) I, II and IV
(2) I, II vkSj III (2) I, II and III
(3) II vkSj IV (3) II and IV
(4) I, III vkSj IV (4) I, III and IV

72. ;g ekurs gq, fd fudk; lkE;koLFkk ij gS] fuEufyf[kr esa 72. Assuming that the system is at equilibrium,
ls dkSu lh vfHkfØ;k 100% iw.kZ gksus ds djhc igqaprh gSA which of the following reactions goes most
nearly to 100% completion.
(1) C(s) + H2O CO(g) + H2(g); Kc = 6.5 × 10–23
(1) C(s) + H2O CO(g) + H2(g); Kc = 6.5 × 10–23
(2) CO(g) + 3H2 CH4(g) + H2O(g); Kc = 0.176
(2) CO(g) + 3H2 CH4(g) + H2O(g); Kc = 0.176
(3) 2C(g) + O2 2CO(g); Kc = 1 × 10 16

(3) 2C(g) + O2 2CO(g); Kc = 1 × 1016

(4) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g); Kc = 54.5
(4) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g); Kc = 54.5

73. H2, N2 vkSj NH3 okys ,d vfHkfØ;k feJ.k esa 725 K ij 73. A reaction mixture containing H2, N2 and NH3
Øe'k% vkaf'kd ncko 2 atm, 1 atm vkSj 3 atm gSA ;fn has partial pressure 2 atm, 1 atm and 3 atm
vfHkfØ;k ds fy, Kp dk eku gS] respectively at 725 K. If the value of KP for the
reaction,
N2 + 3H2 2NH3 is 4.28 × 10–5 atm–2 at 725 K
N2 + 3H2 2NH3 is 4.28 × 10–5 atm–2 at 725
dqy vfHkfØ;k fdl fn'kk esa tk,xh\
(1) vxz K, in which direction the net reaction will go?
(1) Forward
(2) i'p
(2) Backward
(3) dksbZ 'kq) vfHkfØ;k ugha
(3) No net reaction
(4) vfHkfØ;k dh fn'kk dh iwokZuqeku ugha dh tk ldrh
(4) Direction of reaction cannot be predicted

16
74. vfHkfØ;k ds fy, vfHkfØ;k HkkxQy ¼Q½ 74. The reaction quotient(Q) for the reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

[NH3 ]2 [NH3 ]2
is given by Q = . The reaction will ;fn is given by Q = . The reaction will
[N2 ][H2 ]3 [N2 ][H2 ]3
nk,¡ ls ck,¡ dh vksj vkxs c<+sa proceed from right to left if
(1) Q=0 (2) Q = Kc (1) Q = 0 (2) Q = Kc
(3) Q < Kc (4) Q > Kc (3) Q < Kc (4) Q > Kc

75. ,d vfHkfØ;k PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 esa fo;kstu dh ek=k 75. In a reaction PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 degree of

30% gSA ;fn PCl5 dk çkjafHkd eksy ,d gS rks larqyu ij dissociation is 30%. If initial moles of PCl5 is one
dqy eksy gS then total moles at equilibrium is
(1) 1.3 (2) 0.7 (1) 1.3 (2) 0.7
(3) 1.6 (4) 1.0 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.0

76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa vfHkfØ;k iw.kZrk dh vksj c<+rh gS\ 76. In which of the following, the reaction proceeds
(1) K = 10 3
(2) K = 10 –2 towards completion?
(3) K = 10 (4) K = 1 (1) K = 103 (2) K = 10–2
(3) K = 10 (4) K = 1

77. ,d vfHkfØ;k A + B → C + D gSA çkjaHk esa] ge A vkSj B 77. A reaction is A + B → C + D. Initially we start
dh leku lkaærk ls 'kq: djrs gSaA larqyu ij ge ikrs gSa fd with equal concentration of A and B. At
C dk eksy A dk nks xquk gSA vfHkfØ;k dk lkE;koLFkk equilibrium we find the moles of C is two times
fLFkjkad D;k gS\ of A. What is the equilibrium constant of the
(1) 4 reaction?
(2) 2 (1) 4
(3) 1/4 (2) 2
(4) 1/2 (3) 1/4
(4) 1/2

78. 4.5 eksy gkbMªkstu vkSj 4-5 eksy vk;ksMhu dks ,d lhycan 78. 4.5 moles each of hydrogen and iodine heated
10 yhVj ds crZu esa xeZ fd;k x;kA lkE;koLFkk ij] HI ds in a sealed 10 litre vessel. At equilibrium, 3
moles of HI was found. The equilibrium
3 eksy ik, x,A H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) ds fy,
constant for H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) is
lkE;koLFkk fLFkjkad gS
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 10 (2) 10
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 0.33 (4) 0.33

79. fdlh vfHkfØ;k ds fy,] Kp dk eku rkieku esa o`f) ds lkFk 79. For a reaction, the value of Kp increases with
c<+rk gSA vfHkfØ;k ds fy, H gksxk& increase in temperature. The H for the
(1) ldkjkRed reaction would be :
(2) udkjkRed (1) positive
(3) 'kwU; (2) negative
(4) iwokZuqeku ugha dh tk ldrh (3) zero
(4) cannot be predicted

17
80. fLFkj rkieku ij lkE;koLFkk ij fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl 80. For which of the following reactions at
vfHkfØ;k ds fy,] vk;ru dks nksxquk djus ls lkE;koLFkk equilibrium at constant temperature, doubling
nkbZa vksj LFkkukarfjr gks tk,xk\ the volume will shift equilibrium to the right?

I. N2O4(g) 2N2O(g) I. N2O4(g) 2N2O(g)

II. CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) II. CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)

III. 2CO(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g) III. 2CO(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g)

IV. N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) IV. N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

(1) I, II dsoy (2) II, III dsoy (1) I, II only (2) II, III only
(3) III, IV dsoy (4) I, IV dsoy (3) III, IV only (4) I, IV only

81. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k ds fy, vkxs dh vfHkfØ;k 81. For which of the following reactions forward
mPp ncko vkSj fuEu rkieku }kjk vuqdwy gksrh gS\ reaction is favoured by high pressure and low
temperature?
I. H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g); H° = –9.4 kJ
I. H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g); H° = –9.4 kJ
II. CO2(g) + C(s) 2CO(g); H° = 172.5 kJ
II. CO2(g) + C(s) 2CO(g); H° = 172.5 kJ
III. CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(l); H°=–21.7 kJ
III. CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(l); H°=–21.7 kJ
IV. 3O2(g) 2O3(g); H° = 285 kJ
IV. 3O2(g) 2O3(g); H° = 285 kJ
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;qä mÙkj pquas &
(1) I, II, III lgh gS Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(2) dsoy III lgh gS
(1) I, II, III are correct
(3) dsoy II, III lgh gS
(2) only III is correct
(4) dsoy I, II lgh gS (3) only II, III are correct
(4) only I, II arecorrect

82. vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lkE;koLFkk fLFkjkad 82. The equilibrium constant for the reaction

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) is 4 × 10–4 at 200 K. In N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) is 4 × 10–4 at 200 K. In

mRçsjd dh mifLFkfr ls larqyu 10 xquk rsth ls çkIr gksrk the presence of a catalyst the equilibrium is
attained 10 times faster. Therefore the
gSA blfy, 200 K ij mRçsjd dh mifLFkfr esa lkE;koLFkk
equilibrium constant in presence of the catalyst
fLFkjkad gS at 200 K is
(1) 4 × 10–3 (2) 4 × 10–4
(1) 4 × 10–3 (2) 4 × 10–4
(3) 4 × 10–5 (4) None
(3) 4 × 10 –5
(4) None

83. H2PO4– dk la;qXeh {kkj gS : 83. The conjugate base of H2PO4– is :

(1) H3PO4 (2) H2PO4– (1) H3PO4 (2) H2PO4–
(3) HPO42– (4) PO43– (3) HPO4 2–
(4) PO43–

84. uhps nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k dk mfpr fpfUgr djsa vkSj lgh dFku 84. Give proper labelling of below reaction and
dks fpfàr djsaA mark correct statement.

NH3 (aq) + H2O(l) NH4+ (aq) + − OH(aq) NH3 (aq) + H2O(l) NH4+ (aq) + − OH(aq)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

I. a czkLsa VsM {kkj gS I. a is bronsted base

II. b czkLsa VsM vEy gS II. b is bronsted acid
III. NH3 vkSj H2O la;qXeh vEy {kkj ;qXe gSa III. NH3 and H2O are conjugate acid base pairs
IV. NH3 is stronger base than H2O
IV- NH3] H2O ls vfèkd etcwr {kkj gS
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;qä mÙkj pquas & options given below :
(1) I, II, IV lgh gS (2) I, III lgh gS
(1) I, II, IV are correct (2) I, III are correct
(3) I, III, IV lgh gS (4) I, II, III lgh gS (3) I, III, IV are correct (4) I, II, III are correct

18
85. yqbZl vEy {kkj csl voèkkj.kk ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls 85. Which of the following statements about Lewis
dkSu lk dFku lgh gS\ acid base concept are correct?
I. vEy bysDVª‚u ;qXe nkrk gS vkSj {kkj bysDVª‚u ;qXe I. Acid is electron pair donor and base is
LohdrkZ gSA electron pair acceptor.
II. os lHkh çtkfr;k¡ ¼Lih'kht½ ftuesa çksV‚u gksrk gS] yqbZl II. All species which have proton behave as
lewis acids.
,flM dh rjg O;ogkj djrh gSaA
III. AlCl3 behaves as lewis acid because its
III. AlCl3 yqbZl ,flM dh rjg O;ogkj djrk gS D;ksfa d
central atom is electron deficient.
blds dsæa h; ijek.kq esa bysDVª‚u dh deh gSA
IV. There is formation of adduct between
IV- yqbZl vEy vkSj {kkj ds chp ;kstd dk fuekZ.k gksrk gSA
lewis acid and base.
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls mi;qä mÙkj pquas & Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(1) III vkSj IV dsoy (2) I vkSj II dsoy options given below :
(3) I, II vkSj IV dsoy (4) lHkh (1) III and IV only (2) I and II only
(3) I, II and IV only (4) All

(SECTION-B) (SECTION-B)
86. Na2CO3 dk ty vi?kVu x çdkj dk gksrk gS vkSj y vk;u 86. Hydrolysis of Na2CO3 is of type x and y ion
dk ty vi?kVu gksrk gS] y vkSj x çdkj dk gksrk gS undergoes hydrolysis, y and x are
(1) Na+ anionic (2) Na+ cationic (1) Na+ anionic (2) Na+ cationic
(3) CO32– anionic (4) CO32– cationic (3) CO32– anionic (4) CO32– cationic

87. fo|qrvi?kV~; MX1, MX2 vkSj MX3 dh ?kqyu'khyrk 87. The solubility of electrolytes MX1, MX2 and MX3
1×10–3 eksy çfr yhVj gSA blfy, muds lacafèkr is 1 × 10–3 moles per litre. Hence their respective
?kqyu'khyrk mRikn gSa & solubility products are :
(1) 10–6, 4 × 10–9, 27 × 10–12 (1) 10–6, 4 × 10–9, 27 × 10–12
(2) 10–9, 4 × 10–9, 32 × 10–12 (2) 10–9, 4 × 10–9, 32 × 10–12
(3) 10–9, 8 × 10–8, 32 × 10–12 (3) 10–9, 8 × 10–8, 32 × 10–12
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of these

88. fuEufyf[kr vEy ds fy, fo;kstu dh vfèkdre 88. Maximum degree of dissociation () for
ek=k ¼½& following acid :
(1) 0.1 M CH3COOH (2) 0.01 M CH3COOH (1) 0.1 M CH3COOH (2) 0.01 M CH3COOH
(3) 0.001 M CH3COOH (4) 0.0001 M CH3COOH (3) 0.001 M CH3COOH (4) 0.0001 M CH3COOH

89. H2SO4 dk 10 ml ftldk pH = 1 gS] ruq djus ij ?kksy 89. 10 ml of H2SO4 whose pH = 1, after dilution of
dh ek=k 10000 ml gks tkrh gSA ruqdj.k ds ckn ?kksy dk solution volume becomes 10000 ml. Find the pH
pH Kkr djsaA of solution after dilution.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6 (3) 5 (4) 6

90. pH = 6 ds 100 mL ?kksy dks ikuh ls 100 ml rd iryk 90. 100 mL of pH = 6 solution is diluted to 100 ml
fd;k tkrk gS] ?kksy dk pH c<+ tk,xk & by water pH of the solution will increase by :
(1) 6.3 (2) 1 (1) 6.3 (2) 1
(3) 0.7 (4) 0.3 (3) 0.7 (4) 0.3

91. N/10 NaOH vkSj N/20 HCl dks leku vk;ru esa feykus 91. The pH of the mixture obtained when equal
ij çkIr feJ.k dk pH gS& volumes of N/10 NaOH and N/20 HCl are mixed, is :
(1) 1.6 (2) 12.4 (1) 1.6 (2) 12.4
(3) 13.4 (4) 10.8 (3) 13.4 (4) 10.8

92. ,d nqcZy vEy (HA) dk pKa 4.5 gSA HA ds ,d tyh; 92. The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of an
cQj foy;u dk pOH ftlesa 50% vEy vk;fur gksrk gS& aqueous buffered solution of HA in which 50%
(1) 4.5 (2) 2.5 of the acid ionised in :
(3) 9.5 (4) 7.0 (1) 4.5 (2) 2.5
(3) 9.5 (4) 7.0
19
93. tc pH = 4 vkSj pH = 6 dh leku vk;ru dks ,d lkFk 93. When equal volumes of pH = 4 and pH = 6 are
feyk;k tkrk gS rks ifj.kkeh ?kksy dk pH gksxkA mixed together then the pH of the resulting
[log 5 = 0.7] solution will be [log 5 = 0.7]
(1) 4.3 (2) 4.7 (1) 4.3 (2) 4.7
(3) 5 (4) 5.3 (3) 5 (4) 5.3

94. 1 M CH3COONa foy;u dk pH eku fdruk gksrk gS\ Ka 94. What is the pH of 1 M CH3COONa solution?
,flfVd ,flM = 1.8 × 10–5, Kw = 10–14 mol2 L–2 : Ka of acetic acid = 1.8 × 10–5,
(1) 2.4 (2) 3.6 Kw = 10–14 mol2 L–2 :
(3) 4.8 (4) 9.4 (1) 2.4 (2) 3.6
(3) 4.8 (4) 9.4
95. dkSulk tksM+k mHk;fu"B vk;u çHkko fn[kk,xk& 95. Which pair will show common ion effect :
(1) BaCl2 + Ba(NO3)2 (2) NaCl + HCl (1) BaCl2 + Ba(NO3)2 (2) NaCl + HCl
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl (4) NaCN + KCN (3) NH4OH + NH4Cl (4) NaCN + KCN

96. ;fn tyvi?kVu vfHkfØ;k esa Kb eku( 96. If the Kb value in the hydrolysis reaction;

B+ + H2O BOH + H+ B+ + H2O BOH + H+

1.0 × 10–6 gS] rks yo.k dk tyvi?kVu fLFkjkad gksxk : is 1.0 × 10–6, then the hydrolysis constant of the
(1) 1 × 10–6 (2) 1 × 10–7 salt would be :
(3) 1 × 10–8 (4) 1 × 10–9 (1) 1 × 10–6 (2) 1 × 10–7
(3) 1 × 10 –8
(4) 1 × 10–9

97. NH4Cl ds fy, dkSu lk lacaèk lgh gS\ 97. Which relation is correct for NH4Cl?
(1) Kh = Kw/Ka (2) Kh = Kw/Kb (1) Kh = Kw/Ka (2) Kh = Kw/Kb
(3) Kh = Kw/Ka × Kb (4) Kh = Kw × Ka (3) Kh = Kw/Ka × Kb (4) Kh = Kw × Ka

98. fn;k x;k gS] 0.1 M HCOONH4 (h1), 98. Given 0.1 M HCOONH4 (h1),
0.01 M CH3COONH4 (h2) 0.01 M CH3COONH4 (h2)
tyvi?kVu dh ek=k dk lgh Øe Kkr dhft, Find the correct order of degree of hydrolysis
[fn;k x;k ka(CH3COOH) = 2 × 10–5, ka(HCOOH) = 2 × 10–5] : [given ka(CH3COOH) = 2 × 10–5, ka(HCOOH) = 2 × 10–5] :
(1) h1 = h2 (2) h1 > h2 (1) h1 = h2 (2) h1 > h2
(3) h1 < h2 (4) None (3) h1 < h2 (4) None

99. yo.k dk ?kqyu'khyrk mRikn] AxBy dks lcls mi;qä :i 99. Solubility product of the salt, AxBy will be
ls n'kkZ;k tk,xk] ;fn ?kqyu'khyrk s dks }kjk n'kkZ;k tkrk represented most suitably, if the solubility is
gS& represented by S :
(1) Ksp = xyyx (S)x×y (2) Ksp = xy + yx + Sx + y (1) Ksp = xyyx (S)x×y (2) Ksp = xy + yx + Sx + y
(3) Ksp = xxyy (S)x + y (4) Ksp = x.Sx + y.y (3) Ksp = xxyy (S)x + y (4) Ksp = x.Sx + y.y

100. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ?kksy dk pH lcls de gksxk\ 100. Which of the following solutions will have
M M lowest pH?
(1) 100 ml, HCl + 100 ml, NaOH
5 5 M M
(1) 100 ml, HCl + 100 ml, NaOH
M M 5 5
(2) 55 ml, HCl + 45 ml, NaOH
10 10 M M
(2) 55 ml, HCl + 45 ml, NaOH
M M 10 10
(3) 10 ml, HCl + 90 ml, NaOH
10 10 M M
(3) 10 ml, HCl + 90 ml, NaOH
10 10
M M
(4) 75 ml, HCl + 25 ml, NaOH
5 5 M M
(4) 75 ml, HCl + 25 ml, NaOH
5 5

20
 PART-C : BOTANY PART-C : BOTANY
(SECTION-A) (SECTION-A)
101. xqM+gy esa 101. In china rose
A. ny O;ofrZr iq"inyfoU;kl n'kkZrk gSa A. Petals show twisted aestivation
B. vaMk'k; m/oZorhZ gS B. Ovary is superior
C. f}la?kh iqadslj ik, tkrs gSa C. Diadelphous stamens are found
D. chatk.Mklu vaMk'k; dh ifjfèk ij ekStwn gksrk gS D. Placenta is present at periphery of ovary
(1) Only A and D are true
(1) dsoy A vkSj D lR; gS
(2) Only A and B are true
(2) dsoy A vkSj B lR; gS
(3) B, C and D are true
(3) B, C vkSj D lR; gS
(4) A, B and D are true
(4) A, B vkSj D lR; gS
102. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk@ls ,d fof'k"V ewy ra= dk dk;Z 102. Which of the following is/are the function(s) of
gS@gSa\ a typical root system?
(a) feêh ls ikuh vkSj [kfutksa dks vo'kksf"kr djrs gSa (a) Absorb water and minerals from the soil
(b) ikSèkksa ds fgLlksa dks LFkkf;Ro çnku djrk gS (b) Provide anchorage to plants parts
(c) vkjf{kr [kk| lkexzh dk HkaMkj.k djrk gS (c) Store reserve food materials
(d) ikni o`f) fu;ked la'ysf"kr djrs gS (d) Synthesise plant growth regulators
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(1) dsoy ¼a½ vkSj ¼B½
(2) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(2) dsoy ¼a½] ¼b½ vkSj ¼c½
(3) Only (a), (c) and (d)
(3) dsoy ¼a½] ¼c½ vkSj ¼d½
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) lHkh ¼a½] ¼b½] ¼c½ vkSj ¼d½

103. viLFkkfud ewy fdlesa viLFkkfud gSa 103. Adventitious roots are adventitious in their:
(1) in esa (2) dk;Z esa (1) Position (2) Function
(3) vkUrfjd lajpuk esa (4) mRifÙk LFkku esa (3) Internal structure (4) Place of origin

104. ifÙk;ksa ds fuekZ.k vkSj rus ds foLrkj ds nkSjku] çjksg 'kh"kZ 104. During the formation of leaves and elongation
foHkT;ksrd ls dqN dksf'kdk,¡ cp tkrh gSa] tks curh gSa& of stem, some cells are left behind from the
(1) ikÜoZ foHkT;ksrd shoot apical meristem which constitute the:
(2) d{kh; dfydk (1) Lateral meristem
(3) izjksg 'kh"kZLFk foHkT;ksÙkd (2) Axillary bud
(3) Shoot apical meristem
(4) lgk;d dfydk
(4) Accessory bud
105. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks è;kuiwoZd i<+Asa 105. Read the following statements carefully.
f}v.Mih; tk;k¡x] ;qDrk.Mih] v/kksorhZ] vk/kkjh; Gynoecium is bicarpellary, syncarpous, inferior,
chtk.MU;kl okyk ,dizdks"Bh; v.Mk'k; ovary unilocular with basal placentation.
Åij of.kZr vko`rchth; daqy dh igpku djsa & Identify the angiospermic family described
(1) ljlksa dqy (2) ?kkl dqy above:
(3) vkyw dqy (4) lwjteq[kh dqy (1) Mustard family (2) Grass family
(3) Potato family (4) Sunflower family
106. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+sa vkSj xyr fodYi pqusa & 106. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) ,d ikSèkk fofHkUu çdkj ds Årdksa ls cuk gksrk gSA incorrect option:
(2) Årdksa dks nks eq[; lewgksa esa oxÊ—r fd;k tkrk gS] (1) A plant is made up of different kinds of
vFkkZr~ ljy vkSj LFkk;h ÅrdA tissues.
(3) ikSèks ds fofHkUu vaxksa dh vkarfjd lajpuk esa varj fn[kkbZ (2) Tissues are classified into two main
nsrk gS groups, namely, simple and permanent tissues.
(4) vko`rchth ds Hkhrj] ,dchti=h vkSj f}chti=h Hkh (3) Different organs in a plant shown
'kkjhfjdh esa fHkUu ns[ks tkrs gSa differences in their internal structure
(4) Within angiosperms, the monocots and
dicots are also seen to be anatomically
different

21
107. fn, x, lHkh ikSèkksa esa Hkwfexr rus fpjLFkk;h vax dk dk;Z 107. All the given plants have underground stems
djrs gSa] flok; performing function of perennation, except
(1) dksyksdsf'k;k( vkyw ds (1) Colocasia; Potato
(2) gYnh( I;kt ds (2) Turmeric; Onion
(3) [khjk] rjcwt+ ds (3) Cucumber, Watermelon
(4) Ginger; Alocasia
(4) vnjd( ,yksdsfl;k ds

108. vkyw vkSj 'kdjdan nksuksa ds fy, D;k lR; gS\ 108. What is true for both Potato and Sweet potato?
(1) nksuksa esa [kkus ;ksX; Hkkx gksrs gSa vkSj letkrh; vax gksrs (1) Both have edible parts and are homologous
gSaA organs.
(2) nksuksa esa [kkus ;ksX; Hkkx gksrs gSa vkSj vuq:i vax gksrs gSaA (2) Both have edible parts and are analogous
organs.
(3) nksuksa dks Hkkjr esa ,d gh LFkku ij ifjfpr fd;k x;k
(3) Both have been introduced in India from
gSA
the same place.
(4) nksuksa ,d gh oa'k ds gSaA
(4) Both belong to the same genus.

109. fuEufyf[kr dFku i<+as &

109. Read the following statements:
A- ikÜoZ foHkT;ksrd f}rh;d Årdksa ds fuekZ.k ds fy, A. Lateral meristems are responsible for
ftEesnkj gksrs gSaA producing the secondary tissues.
II- ifjiDo dksf'kdk,a LFkk;h Årdksa dk fuekZ.k djrh gSa B. Mature cells constitute the permanent
III- ikÜoZ foHkT;ksrd csyukdkj foHkT;ksrd gSa tissues
IV- ikSèkksa dh vkarfjd lajpuk esa dbZ lekurk,¡ vkSj fHkUurk,¡ C. Lateral meristems are cylindrical
fn[kkbZ nsrh gSaA meristems
lgh fodYi pquas- D. The internal structure of plants, show
(1) A, B, C vkSj D several similarities as well as differences.
(2) A vkSj B Choose the correct option.
(3) B vkSj C (1) A, B, C and D
(2) A and B
(4) A, B vkSj D
(3) B and C
(4) A, B and D

110. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk y{k.k ,LVsjl s h dqy ls lacafèkr 110. Which of the following character is not related
ugha gS\ to family Asteraceae?
(1) 'kh"kZ ;k dSfiVqye iq"iØe (1) Head or capitulum inflorescence
(2) vk/kkjh; chtk.Mklu ds lkFk f}vaMih] ;qDrk.Mih] (2) Bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary
with basal placenta
m/oZorhZ vaMk'k;
(3) Presence of ray and disc florets
(3) vj vkSj fcEc iq"idksa dh mifLFkfr
(4) Calyx gets modified into hair- like
(4) ckányiaqt jkse tSlh lajpukvksa esa ifjofrZr gks tkrk gS
structures

111. dksfuQ+lZ esa js'kksa dh vuqifLFkfr fdl Ård esa ikbZ tk,xh\ 111. In which tissue will one find the absence of
(1) çkFkfed ¶yks,e (2) f}rh;d ¶yks,e fibres in conifers?
(3) f}rh;d tkbye (4) ifÙk;k¡ (1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary phloem
(3) Secondary xylem (4) Leaves

22
112. fn;s x;s fp= ds lacaèk esa fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ & 112. How many statements are correct w.r.t. given
diagram :

A. ;g Qfy;ksa dk fof'k"V xq.k gS

B. vaMk'k; esa nks ls vfèkd izdks"B gksrs gSa A. It is the characteristic feature of legumes
C. vaMk'k; ,dizdks"Bdh; gksrk gS B. The ovary bearing more than two locule
D. VekVj vkSj xqM+gy esa ;g chtk.MU;kl gksrk gS C. Ovary is unilocular
(1) A vkSj D nksuksa lgh gSa D. Tomato and china rose possess this
(2) B vkSj D nksuksa lgh gSa placentation
(1) Both A and D are correct
(3) lHkh lgh gSa
(2) Both B and D are correct
(4) lHkh xyr gSa
(3) All are correct
(4) All are incorrect
113. osfDlyjh nyfoU;kl ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk 113. Which of the following statement is correct
dFku lgh gS\ with respect to vexillary aestivation?
(1) lcls cM+h ny ekud gksrh gSa (1) Largest petals are keel
(2) lcls NksVh ny lkeus dh vksj ikbZ tkrh gSa (2) Smallest petals are found anteriorly
(3) ihNs dh ny ia[k gSa (3) Posterior petals are wings
(4) ia[k nks ikÜoZ nyksa dks vfrO;kfir djrs gSa (4) Wings overlap two lateral petals

114. fn, x, çdkj ds ljy LFkk;h Ård ds chp lgh varj dk 114. Select the correct difference between the given
p;u djsa & types of simple permanent tissue:
e`nwÙkd n`<+ksÙkd Parenchyma Sclerenchyma
(i) iryh lsyqyksl;qDr buesa eksVh fyafXuu;qDr (i) Possess thin Possess thick
dksf'kdk fHkfÙk gksrh gS dksf'kdk fHkfÙk gksrh gS cellulosic cell lignified cell wall
wall
(ii) dksf'kdk,¡ vkerkSj ij dksf'kdk,¡ vkerkSj ij
(ii) Cells are usually Cells are usually
thfor vkSj leO;klh e`r vkSj thonzO;d
living and dead and without
gksrh gSa jfgr gksrh gSa
isodiametric protoplast
(iii) ikSèks dks ;kaf=d Hk.Mkj.k ,oa L=o.k dk (iii) Provides Perform the
lgk;rk çnku djrk gS dk;Z djrs gSa mechanical function of storage
support to the and secretion
(1) (i) vkSj (ii) (2) (i) dsoy plant
(3) (ii) dsoy (4) (i), (ii) vkSj (iii) (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) only
(3) (ii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

115. jkbtksQksjk ds lacaèk esa lgh fodYi dk p;u djsaA 115. Select the correct option with respect to
a. eSaxzkso ;k nynyh {ks=ksa esa mxrk gS Rhizophora.
b. U;wesVksQkslZ xSlh; fofue; ds fy, ekStwn gksrs gSaA a. Grows in mangroves or swampy areas
c. dbZ ewy tehu ls fudydj Åij dh c<+rh gSa b. Pneumatophores are present for gaseous
exchange.
(1) a vkSj b dsoy (2) a, b vkSj c c. Many root come out of the ground and
(3) a vkSj c dsoy (4) b vksj c dsoy grow vertical upwards
(1) a and b only (2) a, b and c
(3) a and c only (4) b and c only

23
116. fjä LFkku Hkjsa & 116. Fill in the blanks:
igys cus çkFkfed ¶yks,e esa __A__ gksrh gS vkSj bls __C__ The first formed primary phloem consists of
dgk tkrk gS vkSj ckn esa cus ¶yks,e esa __D__ gksrh gS vkSj __A__ and is referred to as __C__ and the later
bls __B__ dgk tkrk gSA formed phloem has __D__ and referred to as
(1) A & ladh.kZ Nyuh ufydk] B & çksVks¶yks,e] C & cM+h __B__.
(1) A – Narrow sieve tubes, B – Protophloem,
Nyuh ufydk] D & esVk¶yks,e
C – Bigger sieve tubes, D – Metaphloem
(2) A & ladh.kZ Nyuh ufydk] C & çksVks¶yks,e] D & cM+h
(2) A – Narrow sieve tubes, C – Protophloem,
Nyuh ufydk] B & esVk¶yks,e
D – Bigger sieve tubes, B – Metaphloem
(3) D & ladh.kZ Nyuh ufydk] C & çksVks¶yks,e] A & cM+h
(3) D – Narrow sieve tubes, C – Protophloem,
Nyuh ufydk] B & esVk¶yks,e A – Bigger sieve tubes, B – Metaphloem
(4) D & ladh.kZ Nyuh ufydk] B & çksVks¶yks,e] C & cM+h (4) D – Narrow sieve tubes, B – Protophloem,
Nyuh ufydk] A & esVk¶yks,e A – Bigger sieve tubes, A – Metaphloem

117. lkekU;r% ,dchti=h cht __A__ gksrs gSa ysfdu __B__ 117. Generally monocotyledonous seeds are __A__
tSls dqN cht __C__ gksrs gSaA but some as in __B__ are __C__.
A B C A B C
(1) vHkzw.kiks"kh v‚fdZM Hkzw.kiks"kh (1) Non- Orchids Endospermic
endospermic
(2) Hkzw.kiks"kh v‚fdZM vHkzw.kiks"kh
(2) Endospermic Orchids Non-
(3) vHkzw.kiks"kh vj.Mh Hkzw.kiks"kh
endospermic
(4) Hkzw.kiks"kh vj.Mh vHkzw.kiks"kh (3) Non- Castor Endospermic
endospermic
(4) Endospermic Castor Non-
endospermic

118. dFkuksa ds lgh lewg dks igpkusaA 118. Identify the correct set of statements.
(a) ,d Qwy isV a kesjl] VsVªkesjl ;k Vªkbesjl gks ldrk gS (a) A flower may be pentamerous,
tc iq"i mikax Øe'k% 3] 4 ;k 5 ds xq.kd esa gksAa tetramerous or trimerous when the floral
appendages are in
(b) fcuk lgi= okys Qwy dks lgi=ghu dgk tkrk gS
multiple of 3, 4 or 5 respectively
(c) iq"iklu ij vaMk'k; ds lacaèk esa ckányiqat] nyiaqt vkSj
(b) A flower without bract is called ebracteate
iqeax dh fLFkfr ds vkèkkj ij] Qwyksa dks v/kkstk;k¡xh]
(c) Based on the position of calyx, corolla and
ifjtk;k¡xh vkSj vf/ktk¡;kxh ds :i esa of.kZr fd;k x;k gSA
androecium in respect of the ovary on
(d) Qwyksa ds >qMa iq"iko`r ;k MaBy ds lwts gq, fljs ij thalamus, the flowers are
Øfed :i ls O;ofLFkr gksrs gSa] ftls iq"iklu ;k fjlsIVsdy described as hypogynous, perigynous and
dgk tkrk gSA epigynous
(e) ckányiqqat Qwy dk lcls ckgjh pØ gS] vkSj blds (d) Floral whorls arranged successively on the
lnL;ksa dks ny dgk tkrk gSA swollen end of the stalk or pedicel, called
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa & thalamus or receptacle
(1) (a), (b) vkSj (c) dsoy (e) The calyx is the outermost whorl of the
(2) (a), (c) vkSj (e) dsoy flower, and the members are called petals.
(3) (b) vkSj (d) dsoy Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) (b), (c) vkSj (d) dsoy given below:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (a), (c) and (e) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only

24
119. vukt vkSj [kk| Qly fdl dqy ls lacafèkr gSa] mldk iq"ih; 119. Floral diagram of the family to which cereals
fp= bl çdkj gS & and millets belong is:

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

120. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa( ,d dks vfHkdFku ¼A½ ds :i esa 120. Given below are two statements ; one is
fpfUgr fd;k x;k gS vkSj nwljs dks dkj.k ¼R½ ds :i esa labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled
fpfUgr fd;k x;k gSA as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- Petioles are long, thin and
dFku ¼A½ & i.kZo`Ur yacs] irys vkSj yphys gksrs gSa
flexible
dkj.k ¼R½ & i.kZo`Ur iÙkh ds Lrfjdk dks gok esa ygjkus nsrs
Reason (R) : - Petioles allow leaf blades to
gSa] ftlls iÙkh BaMh gks tkrh gS vkSj iÙkh dh lrg ij rkth
flutter in wind, thereby cooling the leaf and
gok vkrh gS
brining fresh air to leaf surface
mijksä dFkuksa ds vkyksd esa] uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls In the light of the above statements, chose the
lcls mi;qä mÙkj pqusa& most appropriate answer from the options
(1) ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh given below:
Li"Vhdj.k gSA (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(2) ¼A½ lgh gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh ugha gS correct explanation of (A)
(3) ¼A½ lgh ugha gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh gS (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh gSa ysfdu ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
121. Hkj.k Ård ra= fdlLks fufeZr gksrk gS 121. The ground tissue system is made up of:
(1) vf/kpeZ vkSj laoguh Ård (1) Epidermis and vascular tissues
(2) ljy ,oa tfVy LFkk;h Ård (2) Simple and complex permanent tissues
(3) Simple tissues such as parenchyma,
(3) ljy Ård tSls e`nqrd LFkwyksrd vkSj n`<+ksrd
collenchyma and sclerenchyma
(4) dsoy iryh fHkfÙk okys ljy LFkk;h Ård
(4) Only thin-walled simple permanent tissue

25
122. d‚ye ds ewy feyk,a: 122. Match the columns:
d‚ye&I d‚ye&II Column-I Column-II
A. Hkzw.kiks"k I. iks"k.k A. Endosperms I. Nutrition
B. vaMk'k; II. cht B. Ovary II. Seed
C. vfu"kspd Qy III. Qy C. Parthenocarpic III. Fruit
fruit
D. chtkaM IV. fcuk fu"kspu ds
D. Ovule IV. Without
(1) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
fertilization
(2) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(1) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(3) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
(2) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(4) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(3) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
(4) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
123. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa & 123. Given below are two statements:
dFku I: & çR;sd ijkxdks"k lkekU;r% f}ikyh; gksrk gS vkSj Statement I : - Each anther is usually bilobed
çR;sd ikyh esa nks d{k gksrs gSa and each lobe has two chambers
dFku II: & Qwy ds iqadslj vU; lnL;ksa tSls nyksa ;k vkil Statement II : - Stamens of flower may be
esa layXu gks ldrs gSaA united with other members such as petals or
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj II xyr gSa among themselves.
(2) dFku I lgh gS] ysfdu dFku II xyr gS (1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
(3) dFku I xyr gS] ysfdu dFku II lgh gS
incorrect
(4) dFku I vkSj II nksuksa lgh gSa
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II
is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are correct

124. fuEufyf[kr dk feyku djsa vkSj lgh fodYi pquas & 124. Match the following and choose the correct
option :
dkWye-I dkWye-II
Column-I Column-II
A. 'kh"kZ foHkT;ksrd I. çkFkfed foHkT;ksrd
A. Apical I. Primary meristem
B. vardZyjh II. f}rh;d foHkT;ksrd meristem
foHkT;ksrd B. Intercalary II. Secondary meristem
C. ikÜoZ foHkT;ksrd III. csyukdkj C. Lateral III. Cylindrical
IV. pjokgs 'kkdkgkjh thoksa meristem
}kjk gVk, x, Hkkxksa dks IV. Regenerate parts
iqutÊfor djuk removed by the
V. d{kh; dfydk grazing herbivores
V. Axillary bud
(1) A-I, V; B-I, IV; C-II, III (1) A-I, V; B-I, IV; C-II, III
(2) A-I, IV; B-I, V; C-II, III (2) A-I, IV; B-I, V; C-II, III
(3) A-II, V; B-I, IV; C-I, III (3) A-II, V; B-I, IV; C-I, III
(4) A-I, V; B-I, III; C-II, IV (4) A-I, V; B-I, III; C-II, IV

125. ØqflQsjh ekyoslh ls fdldh mifLFkfr ls fHkUu gS 125. Cruciferae differ from Malvaceae in the
(1) f}v.Mih] f}izdks"Bh; vaMk'k; vkSj flfydqvk QyA presence of
(2) cgqvaMih;] ,dizdks"Bh; vaMk'k; vkSj dSIlwy QyA (1) Bicarpellary, bilocular ovary and siliqua
(3) ,dv.Mih] dSIlwy Qy ds lkFk cgqizdks"Bh; vaMk'k;A fruit.
(2) Multicarpellary, unilocular ovary and
(4) cgqvaMih;] ,dizdks"Bh; vaMk'k; vkSj flIlsyk QyA
capsule fruit.
(3) Monocarpellary, multilocular ovary with
capsule fruit.
(4) Multicarpellary, unilocular ovary and
cypsela fruit.

26
126. rus ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+as vkSj mUgsa lR; ¼T½ 126. Read the following statements about the stem
;k vlR; ¼F½ ds :i esa igpkusaA and identify them as true (T) or false (F).
¼A½ ;g ikSèks ds v{k dk vkjksgh Hkkx gS (A) It is the ascending part of plant axis
¼B½ ;g vadqfjr cht esa Hkzw.k ds ewykadqj ls fodflr gksrk gS (B) It develops from radicle of the embryo of
¼C½ rus lkekU;r% cM+s gksus ij gjs ysfdu ;qok gksus ij Hkwjs a germinating seed
(C) Stems are generally green when older but
jax ds gksrs gSa
brown when young
¼D½ ;g dkf;d izo/kZu dk dk;Z dj ldrk gS
(D) It may perform function of vegetative
(1) A-T; B-F; C-F; D-T (2) A-T; B-T; C-F; D-T
propagation
(3) A-T; B-T; C-F; D-F (4) A-T; B-F; C-F; D-F
(1) A-T; B-F; C-F; D-T (2) A-T; B-T; C-F; D-T
(3) A-T; B-T; C-F; D-F (4) A-T; B-F; C-F; D-F
127. d‚ye dk feyku djsa &
127. Match the column :
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
A. f}chti=h@i`"B/kkjh I. iÙkh v/kksjU/kzh; A. Dicotyledonous/ I. Leaf
iÙkh Dorsiventral hypostomatic
B. ,dchti=h II. i.kZe/;ksÙkd dks [kEHk leaf
@lef}ikf'oZd iÙkh vkSj Liath e`nqÙkd esa B. Monocotyledonous/ II. Mesophyll is
isobilateral leaf differentiated
foHksfnr fd;k tkrk into palisade
gS and spongy
III. iÙkh mHk;ja/kzh; gS parenchyma
IV. laoguh iwy ¾ la;qä III. Leaf is
amphistomatic
vkSj can IV. Vascular bundle
V. i.kZ e/;ksÙkd esa = conjoint and
dsoy Liath e`nqÙkd close
gksrk gS V. Mesophyll
consists of only
VI. vf/kpeZ miRopk;qDr spongy
gksrh gS parenchyma
VII. fofHkUu vkdkjksa ds VI. Epidermis is
laoguh iwy cuticularized
VII. Vascular
VIII. eè; f'kjk dks bundles of
NksM+dj leku different sizes
vkdkj dk laoguh VIII. Vascular bundle
iwy of similar size
except mid vein
(1) A-I, IV, V, VI, VII; B-II, III, IV, VI, VIII
(2) A-I, II, VI, VII; B-III, IV, V, VI, VIII (1) A-I, IV, V, VI, VII; B-II, III, IV, VI, VIII
(3) A-III, IV, V, VI, VIII; B-I, II, IV, VI, VII (2) A-I, II, VI, VII; B-III, IV, V, VI, VIII
(4) A-I, IV, V, VIII; B-II, III, IV, VI, VII (3) A-III, IV, V, VI, VIII; B-I, II, IV, VI, VII
(4) A-I, IV, V, VIII; B-II, III, IV, VI, VII
128. f}chti=h rus ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+as vkSj 128. Read the following statements with respect to
lgh fodYi dk p;u djsAa dicot stem and select the correct option.
A. vf/kpeZ D;wfVdy dh ,d iryh ijr ls <dk gksrk gS] A. Epidermis is covered with a thin layer of
blesa Vªkbdkse vkSj dqN jaèkz gks ldrs gSa cuticle, may bear trichomes and few stomata
B. la;qä] laikfÜoZd vkSj [kqys laoguh iwyksa dh oy; O;oLFkk B. Ring arrangement of conjoint, collateral,
C. ¶yks,e ds Åij n`+<k+ sÙkd ds vèkZpUækdkj iSp dh mifLFkfr and open vascular bundles
C. Presence of semilunar patches of
D. tkbye vkSj ¶yks,e ds chp la;ksth Ård dh mifLFkfrA
sclerenchyma above the phloem
(1) dsoy dFku ¼A½ lgh gS
D. Presence of conjuctive tissue between the
(2) dFku ¼B½] ¼C½ vkSj ¼D½ lgh gSa
xylem and the phloem.
(3) dFku ¼A½] ¼B½] ¼C½ vkSj ¼D½ lgh gSa (1) Only statement (A) is correct
(4) dsoy dFku ¼D½ xyr gS (2) Statement (B), (C) and (D) are correct
(3) Statement (A), (B), (C) and (D) are correct
(4) Only statement (D) is incorrect
27
129. QScslh dqy dh fo'ks"krk gS & 129. The family Fabaceae is characterized by:
(1) lhekar chtk.MU;kl ds lkFk ,dv.Mih] m/oZorhZ] (1) Monocarpellary, superior, unilocular ovary
,dizdks"Bh; vaMk'k; with marginal placentation
(2) f}v.Mih fo;qDrv.Mih] m/oZorhZ] v{kh; chtk.MU;kl ds (2) Bicarpellary, apocarpous, superior,
lkFk f=izdks"Bh; vaMk'k; trilocular ovary with axile placentation
(3) Tricarpellary, syncarpous, inferior,
(3) lhekar chtk.MU;kl ds lkFk f=v.Mih] ;qDrk.Mih]
bilocular ovary with marginal placentation
v/kksorhZ] f}izdks"Bh; vaMk'k;
(4) Tricarpellary, apocarpous, inferior,
(4) f=v.Mih] fo;qDrv.Mih] v/kksorhZ] v{kh; chtk.MU;kl
bilocular ovary with axile placentation
ds lkFk f}izdks"Bh; vaMk'k;
130. ikSèks dh i`"Bk/kj iÙkh esa gksrk gS & 130. The dorsiventral leaf of plant has:
A. Åijh vkSj fupys nksuksa vf/kpeZ ij ekStwn lqLi"V miRopk A. Conspicuous cuticle present on both upper
B. fupyh vf/kpeZ dh vksj [kEHk Ård vkSj Åijh vf/kpeZ and lower epidermis
dh vksj Liath e`nqÙkd B. Palisade tissue towards abaxial epidermis
and spongy parenchyma towards adaxial
C. Åijh vf/kpeZ esa cqfyQ+‚eZ dksf'kdk,a
epidermis
D- laoguh iqy eksVh fHkfÙk okyh iqykPNn dksf'kdkvksa dh ,d
C. Bulliform cells in adaxial epidermis
ijr ls f?kjs gksrs gSa
D. Vascular bundles surrounded by a layer of
lgh dFku gSa & thick-walled bundle sheath cells
(1) dsoy B (2) A vkSj D Correct statement are:
(3) B, C vkSj D (4) A, C vkSj D (1) Only B (2) A and D
(3) B, C and D (4) A, C and D

131. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+sa vkSj lgh fodYi pquAsa 131. Read the following statements and choose the
dFku I: vkyw] vnjd] gYnh] t+ehudan vkSj vjch ds Hkwfexr correct option.
ruksa dks Hkkstu laxzfgr djus ds fy, la'kksfèkr fd;k tkrk gS Statement I : Underground stems of potato,
ginger, turmeric, zaminkand and Colocasia are
dFku II: os fodkl ds fy, çfrdwy ifjfLFkfr;ksa ls fuiVus
modified to store food in them
ds fy, fpjLFkk;h vaxksa ds :i esa Hkh dk;Z djrs gSaA
Statement II : They also act as organs of
(1) dsoy dFku I lgh gS
perennation to tide over conditions
(2) dsoy dFku II lgh gSA unfavourable for growth.
(3) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa (1) Only statements I is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa (2) Only statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement are correct
(4) Both statement are incorrect

132. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa & 132. Given below are two statements:
dFku I: ?kklksa esa] f'kjkvksa ds lkFk dqN Åijh vf/kpehZ; Statement I : In grasses, certain adaxial
dksf'kdk,a [kqn dks cM+h [kkyh] jaxghu dksf'kdkvksa esa cny epidermal cells along with the veins modify
ysrh gSa] ftUgsa cqyhQ‚eZ dksf'kdk,a dgk tkrk gSA themselves into large empty, colourless cells,
dFku II% var%peZ ds ckgjh rjQ ds lHkh Ård tSls ifjjEHk called bulliform cells
laoguh iwy vkSj eTtk f}chti=h ewy esa LVhy dk fuekZ.k Statement II : All tissues on the outer side of
djrs gSaA endodermis such as pericycle, vascular bundles
and pith constitute the stele in dicot root.
mijksä dFkuksa ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls
In the light of the above statements, choose the
mi;qä mÙkj pquas
most appropriate answer from the options
(1) dFku I vkSj II nksuksa lgh gSa
given below
(2) dFku I vkSj II nksuksa xyr gSa
(1) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) dFku I lgh gS] ysfdu dFku II xyr gS (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(4) dFku I xyr gS] ysfdu dFku II lgh gS (3) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II
is correct

28
133. tfVy Ård ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku 133. Which of the following statement is incorrect
xyr gS\ about complex tissue?
(1) tkbye vkSj ¶yks,e ikSèkksa esa tfVy Årdksa dk fuekZ.k (1) Xylem and phloem constitute the complex
djrs gSaA tissues in plants.
(2) tkbye ewykas ls rus vkSj ifÙk;ksa rd ikuh vkSj [kfutksa (2) Xylem functions as a conducting tissue for
water and minerals from the roots to the stem
ds fy, ,d laokgd Ård ds :i esa dk;Z djrk gS
and leaves
(3) tkbye ikSèks ds Hkkxksa dks ;kaf=d 'kfä çnku djrk gS
(3) Xylem provides mechanical strength to the
(4) tkbye vkSj ¶yks,e Hkkstu dks LokWxhd`r djrs gSa tc
plant parts
muesa gfjr yod gksrs gSaA (4) Xylem and phloem assimilate food when
they contain chloroplasts.

134. uhps fn, x, fp= dh tkap djsa vkSj lgh fodYi dk p;u 134. Examine the figure given below and select the
djsa tks lgh fpfUgdj.k A, B, C vkSj D dk çfrfufèkRo djrk correct option that represents the correct
gSA labelling A, B, C and D.

(1) A&i.kZ izkbekWfMZ;e( B&foHkT;ksÙkd {ks=( (1) A-Leaf primordium; B-Meristematic zone;
C&d{kh; dfydk( D&vUrosZ'kh foHkT;ksÙkd C-Axillary bud; D-Intercalary meristem
(2) A& i.kZ izkbekWfMZ;e( B&izjksg 'kh"kZLFk foHkT;ksÙkd( (2) A-Leaf primordium; B-Shoot apical
C& d{kh; dfydk( D&d‚dZ dSfEc;e meristem; C-Axillary bud; D-Cork cambium
(3) A & d{kh; dfydk( B& i.kZ izkbekWfMZ;e( (3) A-Axillary bud; B-Leaf primordium; C-
Shoot apical meristem; D-Differentiating
C& izjksg 'kh"kZLFk foHkT;ksÙkd( D&foHksnd laoguh Ård
vascular tissue
(4) A& d{kh; dfydk( B& izjksg 'kh"kZLFk foHkT;ksÙkd(
(4) A-Axillary bud; B-Shoot apical meristem;
C& foHkT;ksÙkd {ks=( D& i.kZ izkbekWfMZ;e
C-Meristematic zone; D-Leaf primordium

135. js'keh dikl ds isM+ksa esa & 135. In silk cotton trees :
(1) Lrfjdk ds dVko vuqifLFkr gS (1) Incision of lamina is absent
(2) ifÙk;ka ifÙk;ksa ds ikÜoZ Hkkx ij ekStwn gksrh gSa (2) Leaflets are present on the lateral side of
(3) i=d ,d lkekU; fcanq vFkkZr MaByksa ds 'kh"kZ ij tqM+s leaves
gksrs gSa (3) Leaflets are attached at a common point
(4) ifÙk;ksa ds d{k esa dfydk vuqifLFkr gksrh gS i.e. the tip of petioles
(4) Bud is absent in the axile of leaves
SECTION-B SECTION-B
136. rus ;k mldh 'kk[kkvksa ij ifÙk;ksa dh O;oLFkk dgykrh gS: 136. The arrangement of leaves on stem or its
(1) i.kZfoU;kl (2) nyfoU;kl branches is called:
(3) f'kjk&foU;kl (4) fctkUMU;kl (1) Phyllotaxy (2) Aestivation
(3) Venation (4) Placentation
137. ,Y;qjksu ijr "A" ds ifjèkh; {ks= esa gksrh gS vkSj "B" ls 137. Aleurone layer occurs in the peripheral region
cuh gksrh gS of “A” and is made up of “B”
lgh fodYi pquas & Choose the correct option:
(1) A&izkdqjpksy( B&çksVhu (1) A-Coleoptile; B-Protein
(2) A&LdqVy s e( B&fyfiM (2) A-Scutellum; B-Lipid
(3) A&Hkzw.kiks"k( B&çksVhu (3) A-Endosperm; B-Protein
(4) A& Hkzw.kiks"k( B&fyfiM (4) A-Endosperm; B-Lipid

29
138. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks è;kuiwoZd i<+Asa 138. Read the following statements carefully.
A. ;g f}chti=h rus esa ckáRopk ds uhps ekStwn gksrk gS A. It is present below the epidermis in dicot
B. lsY;qykst] gseh&lsY;qykst vkSj isfDVu ds teko ds stem
dkj.k dksf'kdk,a dksuksa ij vfèkd eksVh gks tkrh gSaA B. Cells are much thickened at the corners
C. fjfädk;qä thonzO; dh mifLFkfr gksuk y{kf.kd xq.k gS due to deposition of cellulose, hemi-cellulose,
and pectin.
bu lHkh dh fo'ks"krk gS &
C. Characterized by the presence of
(1) e`nqÙkd (2) gfjr e`nÙw kd
vacuolated protoplast.
(3) LFkwydks.kÅÙkd (4) NM+e`nÙw kd
All of these are feature of:
(1) Parenchyma (2) Chlorenchyma
(3) Collenchyma (4) Prosenchyma

139. vaMk'k; esa vkHkklh iV~V dk fuekZ.k fuEu esa ls fdlesa ns[kk 139. Formation of the false septum in the ovary is
tkrk gS seen in
(1) Primrose (2) China rose
(1) çkbejkst+ (2) xqM+gy
(3) Marigold (4) Argemone
(3) xSank (4) vktÊeksu
140. Select the incorrect statement about leaves.
(1) Leaf develops at the node
140. ifÙk;ksa ds ckjs esa xyr dFku dk p;u djsaA
(2) Leaves originate from shoot apical
¼1½ iÙkh xk¡B ij fodflr gksrh gS meristem
¼2½ ifÙk;k¡ izjksg 'kh"kZLFk foHkT;ksÙkd ls mRiUu gksrh gSa (3) Leaves bear a bud in its axil
¼3½ ifÙk;ksa dh d{k esa ,d dfydk gksrh gS (4) Leaves are arranged in basipetal order
¼4½ ifÙk;k¡ rykfHklkjh Øe esa O;ofLFkr gksrh gSa
141. Match the following column and choose the
141. fuEufyf[kr d‚ye dk feyku djsa vkSj lgh fodYi pquas & correct option
d‚ye&I कॉलम-II Column-I Column-II
A. Trichomes I. Specialised
A. VªkbdksEl I. fof'k"V vf/kpehZ; dksf'kdk,a epidermal cells
B. ewy jkse II. tM+ksa esa vuqifLFkr
B. Root hairs II. Absent in roots
C. lgk;d III. izk;% cgqdksf'kdh; C. Subsidiary III. Usually
dksf'kdk,¡ cells multicellular
D. miRopk IV. lnSo ,ddksf'kdh; D. Cuticle IV. Always unicellular
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (1)A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (4)A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
142. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa( ,d dks vfHkdFku ¼A½ ds :i esa 142. Given below are two statements ; one is
fpfUgr fd;k x;k gS vkSj nwljs dks dkj.k ¼R½ ds :i esa labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled
fpfUgr fd;k x;k gSA as Reason (R).
vfHkdFku ¼A½% lse vkSj dSfl;k ds Qwyksa esa ,dO;kl lefefr Assertion (A) : Flowers of bean and Cassia have
gksrh gSA zygomorphic symmetry.
dkj.k ¼R½% lse vkSj dSfl;k ds Qwyksa dks dsæa ls xqtjus okys Reason (R) : Flowers of bean and Cassia can be
fdlh Hkh O;klh; v{k esa nks cjkcj O;klh; fgLlksa esa foHkkftr divided into two equal radial halves in any radial
plane passing through the centre.
fd;k tk ldrk gSA
In the light of the above statements, choose the
mijksä dFkuksa ds lanHkZ es]a uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls
most appropriate answer from the options
mi;qä mÙkj pquas & given below :
(1) ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Li"Vhdj.k gS correct explanation of (A)
(2) ¼A½ lgh gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh ugha gS (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) ¼A½ lgh ugha gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh gS (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh gSa ysfdu ¼R½] ¼A½ dk lgh (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gS the correct explanation of (A)

30
143. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa & 143. Given below are two statements:
dFku I:& okfgdk dksf'kdk,¡ thonzO;d ls jfgr gksrh gSa Statement I : - The vessel cells are devoid of
dFku II: & ¶yks,e e`nqÙkd dksf'kdkvksa esa IykLeksMslesVy protoplasm
la;kstu gksrk gSA Statement II : - Phloem parenchyma cells has
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj II xyr gSa Plasmodesmatal connection.
(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh gS] ysfdu dFku II xyr gS
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
(3) dFku I xyr gS] ysfdu dFku II lgh gS
incorrect
(4) dFku I vkSj II nksuksa lgh gSa
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II
is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are correct

144. ewy 'kh"kZ dk og {ks= ftldh dksf'kdk,¡ rst nh?khZdj.k vkSj 144. The region of root tip whose cells undergo
foLrkj ls xqtjrh gSa vkSj yackbZ esa tM+ dh o`f) ds fy, rapid elongation and enlargement and are
ftEesnkj gksrh gSa] dgykrh gSa & responsible for the growth of the root in
(1) ifjiDork dk {ks= length is called the:
(2) nh?khZdj.k dk {ks= (1) Region of maturation
(2) Region of elongation
(3) foHkT;ksrd xfrfofèk dk {ks=
(3) Region of meristem activity
(4) ewy jkse
(4) Root hairs

145. vk—fr dks igpkusa vkSj xyr fodYi pqusa & 145. Identify the figure and select the incorrect
option:

(1) eksVh fyfXuu;qDr fHkfÙk;ksa vkSj irys fljs okyh yEch ;k

ufydk tSlh dksf'kdk,¡A (1) Elongated or tube-like cells with thick
(2) dksf'kdk,¡ e`r ,oa thoæO; ls jfgr gksrh gSa lignified walls and tapering ends.
(3) bldh ckgjh fHkfÙk esa fofHkUu çdkj dh eksVkbZ dh (2) Cells are dead and devoid of protoplasm
(3) Presence of various kinds of thickening in
mifLFkfr
its outer wall
(4) ;g ty ifjogu djus okyk rRo gS]
(4) It is a water transporting element

146. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa &

146. Given below are two statements:
dFku I: f'kjk;sa iÙkh ds Lrfjdk dks dBksjrk çnku djrh gSa Statement I : Veins provide rigidity to the leaf
vkSj ikuh] [kfut vkSj [kk| lkexzh ds ifjogu ds pSuy ds blade and acts as the channel of transport for
:i esa dk;Z djrh gSaA water, minerals and food materials.
dFku II: vfèkdka'k f}chti=h ikSèkksa dh ifÙk;ksa esa f'kjk,¡ gksrh Statement II : Leaves of most of the
gSa tks ,d Lrfjdk ds Hkhrj ,d nwljs ds lekukarj pyrh dicotyledonous plants bear veins that run
gSaA parallel to each other within a lamina.
(1) dsoy dFku I xyr gS (1) Only statements I is incorrect
(2) dsoy dFku II xyr gS (2) Only statements II is incorrect
(3) dFku I vkSj II nksuksa xyr gSa (3) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(4) dFku I vkSj II nksuksa lgh gSa (4) Both statement I and II are correct

31
147. vukorZchth esa ¶yks,e dk fuekZ.k gksrk gS & 147. Phloem in gymnosperms is composed of:
(1) Nyuh ufydk rRo] lgk;d dksf'kdk,a] ¶yks,e e`nqÙkd (1) Sieve tube elements, companion cells,
vkSj ¶yks,e js'ksa phloem parenchyma, and phloem fibres
(2) Nyuh dksf'kdk,a] ,Ycqfeul dksf'kdk,a] ¶yks,e e`nqÙkd (2) Sieve cells, albuminous cells, phloem
vkSj ¶yks,e js'ksa parenchyma and phloem fibres
(3) Sieve tube elements, albuminous cells,
(3) Nyuh ufydk rRo] ,Ycqfeul dksf'kdk,a] ¶yks,e
phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres
e`nqÙkd vkSj ¶yks,e js'ksa
(4) Sieve cells, companion cells, phloem
(4) Nyuh dksf'kdk,a] lgk;d dksf'kdk,a] ¶yks,e e`nqÙkd
parenchyma and phloem fibres
vkSj ¶yks,e js'ksa

148. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lh iq"i fo'ks"krk ikni ifjokj ds 148. Which of the following floral features is not
lw= esa ladsrksa }kjk çnf'kZr ugha gksrh gS\ represented by symbols in the formula of a
(1) Qwy dh le:irk plant family?
(2) ckányiqat vkSj nyiqat dk iq"inyfoU;kl (1) Symmetry of flower
(3) Qwyksa ds pØkas ds chp llatu vkSj vklatu (2) Aestivation of calyx and corolla
(3) Cohesion and adhesion between floral
(4) ikSèkksa dh ySafxdrk
whorls
(4) Sexuality of plants
149. uhps nks dFku fn, x, gSa( ,d dks vfHkdFku ¼A½ ds :i esa 149. Given below are two statements ; one is
fpfUgr fd;k x;k gS vkSj nwljs dks dkj.k ¼R½ ds :i esa labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled
fpfUgr fd;k x;k gSA as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Intercalary meristem occurs
vfHkdFku ¼A½% vUrosZ'kh foHkT;ksÙkd ifjiDo Årdksa ds chp
between mature tissues.
gksrk gSA
Reason (R) : Intercalary meristem helps in the
dkj.k ¼R½% vUrosZ'kh foHkT;ksÙkd vax ds foLrkj esa enn djrk elongation of the organ
gS In the light of the above statements, choose the
mijksä dFkuksa ds lanHkZ es]a uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lcls most appropriate answer from the options
mi;qä mÙkj pquas & given below:
(1) ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Li"Vhdj.k gS correct explanation of (A)
(2) ¼A½ lgh gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh ugha gS (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) ¼A½ lgh ugha gS ysfdu ¼R½ lgh gS (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lgh gSa ysfdu ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gS the correct explanation of (A)

150. dFkuksa ds lgh lewg dks igpkusa & 150. Identify the correct set of statements:
A. If the endosperm is not present in mature
A. ;fn ifjiDo chtksa esa Hkzq.kiks"k ekStwn ugha gS] rks ,sls
seeds, such seeds are called non-albuminous
chtksa dks xSj&,YC;wfeul cht dgk tkrk gS
seeds
B- ,dchtif=dk es]a Hkzw.kiks"k vR;f/kd gksrk gS vkSj Hkkstu
B. In monocot, the endosperm is bulky and
dk HkaMkj.k djrk gSA stores food.
C. puk vkSj eVj esa cht Hkzw.kiks"kh gksrs gSa C. In gram and pea, seeds are endospermic
D. cht dk lcls ckgjh vkoj.k chtkoj.k gksrk gS D. The outermost covering of a seed is the
E. izk¡dqj vkSj ewyk¡dqj vkoj.k esa f?kjs gksrs gSa ftUgsa Øe'k% seed coat
izk¡dqjpksy vkSj ewyk¡dqjpksy dgk tkrk gSA E. The plumule and radicle are enclosed in
uhps fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lgh mÙkj pqusa & sheaths which are called coleoptile and
(1) A, B vkSj C dsoy (2) A, C vkSj E dsoy coleorhiza
(3) B vkSj D dsoy (4) A, B, D vkSj E dsoy respectively.
Choose the correct answer from options given
below:
(1) A, B and C only (2) A, C and E only
(3) B and D only (4) A, B, D and E only

32
 PART-D : ZOOLOGY PART-D : ZOOLOGY
(SECTION-A) (SECTION-A)
151. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gS\ 151. Which of the following statement is correct?
¼1½ var%'oLu ds nkSjku var%Qq¶Qqlh; ncko ok;qeaMyh; ncko (1) During inspiration intrapulmonary pressure
ls vfèkd gksrk gSA is more than the atmospheric pressure.
¼2½ cfg%'oLu ds nkSjku e/;iV vkSj EICM esa ladqpu gksrk (2) During expiration diaphragm and EICM
gSA contracts.
(3) Epiglottis is muscular flap which prevents
¼3½ daBPNn ekalis'kh; ¶ySi gS tks Hkkstu dks /ofu isfVdk esa
entry of food into the larynx.
ços'k djus ls jksdrk gSA
(4) During forceful expiration abdominal
¼4½ cyiwoZd fu%Üolu ds nkSjku mnjh; ekalisf'k;ksa esa ladqpu
muscles contract.
gksrk gSA
152. d‚ye I esa fn, x, vkbVe dks d‚ye II esa fn, x, vkbVe 152. Match the items given column I with those in
ls feyk,a vkSj uhps fn, x, lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa & column II and select the correct option given
dkWye-I dkWye-II below :
A. Tokjh; vk;ru I. 2500-3000 mL Column-I Column-II
A. Tidal volume I. 2500-3000 mL
B. var'oLu lqjf{kr II. 1100-1200 mL
volume B. Inspiratory II. 1100-1200 mL
vk;ru
Reserve volume volume
C. fu'oLr lqjf{kr III. 500-550 mL
C. Expiratory III. 500-550 mL
vk;ru volume
Reserve volume volume
D. vof'k"V vk;ru IV. 1000-1100 mL D. Residual volume IV. 1000-1100 mL
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
153. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdrus dkjd v‚DlhgheksXyksfcu i`FkDdj.k 153. How many of the following factors are
oØ dks ckbZa vksj LFkkukarfjr djus ds fy, vuqdwy gSa & favourable for the shifting of Oxyhaemoglobin
mPp pCO2] vfèkd H lkaærk] mPp pO2 mPp pH] de
+ dissociation Curve to the left side :
H lkaærk] de rkiekuA
+ High pCO2, more H+ concentration, higher pO2,
(1) 3 (2) 4 high pH, less H+ concentration, lower
(3) 5 (4) 6 temperature.
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6

154. xSlksa ds ifjogu ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk lR; gS\ 154. Which of the following is true for transport of
(1) O2 dh vfèkdre ek=k dk ifjogu RBCs }kjk gksrk gS gases
(2) CO2 dh vfèkdre ek=k dk ifjogu IykTek }kjk (1) Maximum amount of O2 is transported by
ckbdkckZsusV ds :i esa gksrk gS RBCs
(2) Maximum amount of CO2 is transported by
¼3½ IykTek CO2 vkSj O2 nksuksa dk ifjogu djrk gS
Plasma as Bicarbonates
¼4½ mijksä lHkh
(3) Plasma transports both CO2 and O2
(4) All of the above

155. Üolu ds fuEufyf[kr pj.kksa dks lgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr djsa 155. Arrange the following steps of respiration in
A- dwfidk vkSj jä ds chp xSlksa dk folj.k correct order
B- jä vkSj Årdksa ds chp xSlksa dk folj.k A. Diffusion of gases between alveoli and
C. xSlksa dk ifjogu blood
D- Qq¶Qqlh; laokru B. Diffusion of gases between blood and
E. dksf'kdh; Üolu tissues
(1) A, B, C, D, E (2) D, A, C, B, E C. Transport of gases
(3) D, C, A, B, E (4) D, E, A, B, C D. Pulmonary ventilation
E. Cellular respiration
(1) A, B, C, D, E (2) D, A, C, B, E
(3) D, C, A, B, E (4) D, E, A, B, C

33
156. fxaxsyh rsy] tks vlar`Ir olh; vEyksa ls Hkjiwj gS] 156. Gingelly oil which is rich in unsaturated fatty
esa gS & acids have :
(1) mPp xyukad rFkk lfnZ;ksa esa Bksl cus jguk (1) Higher melting point and remain solid in
(2) xyukad de gksrk gS vkSj lfnZ;ksa esa Bksl jgrk gS winter
(3) xyukad de gks tkrk gS vkSj lfnZ;ksa esa rjy cuk jgrk (2) Lower melting point and remain solid in
winter
gS
(3) Lower melting point and remain liquid in
(4) mPp xyukad rFkk lfnZ;ksa esa rjy cus jguk
winter
(4) Higher melting point and remain liquid in
winter

157. nkok ¼A½% var%'oLu ds nkSjku] varjkQq¶Qqlh; ncko fxj tkrk 157. Assertion (A) : During inspiration,
gSA intrapulmonary pressure falls.
dkj.k ¼R½% var%'oLu ds nkSjku o{k dh vk;ru esa o`f) gksrh Reason (R) : There is a rise in volume of thorax
gSA during inspiration.
(1) ;fn ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh (1) If both the (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a
Li"Vhdj.k gS correct explanation of the (A)
(2) ;fn ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh (2) If both the (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gS not a correct explanation of the (A)
(3) ;fn ¼A½ lR; gS ysfdu ¼R½ xyr gS (3) If the (A) is true but the (R) is false
(4) ;fn ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa xyr gSa (4) If both the (A) and (R) are false

158. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa & 158. Consider the following statements :
A. dkcZfud ;kSfxd tks ,iks,atkbe ls dldj caèks gksrs gSa] A. Organic compounds that are tightly bound
O;frfjä lewg dgykrs gSaA to apoenzyme is called prosthetic group.
B. ,iks,atkbe ds lkFk lg izfd.o dk tqM+ko dsoy {kf.kd B. Association of coenzyme with apoenzyme
gksrk gS] vkerkSj ij mRizsj.k dh fØ;k ds nkSjku gksrk gSA is only transient, usually occurring during the
course
lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa-
of catalysis.
(1) A vkSj B nksuksa >wBs gSaA
Select the correct option.
(2) A xyr gS ysfdu B lp gSA
(1) Both A and B are false.
(3) A vkSj B nksuksa lR; gSaA (2) A is false but B is true.
(4) A lR; gS̀ ysfdu B xyr gSA (3) Both A and B are true.
(4) A is true but B is false.
159. dFku A& r`rh;d lajpuk izksVhu ds tSfod fØ;kdykiksa ds 159. Statement A : Tertiary structure is absolutely
fy, furkar vko';d gSA necessary for many biological activities of
dFku B& ,d çksVhu èkkxk ,d foLrkfjr dBksj NM+ ds :i proteins.
esa ekStwn gksrk gSA Statement B : A protein thread exists
mijksä dFkuksa dks i<+sa vkSj lgh fodYi pqusa throughout as an extended rigid rod.
(1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa Read the above statements and choose the
(2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSa correct option
(1) Both the statements are correct
(3) dFku A lgh gS ysfdu dFku B xyr gS
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(4) dFku A xyr gS ysfdu dFku B lgh gS
(3) Statement A is correct but statement B is
incorrect
(4) Statement A is incorrect but statement B
is correct

34
160. tSfod ra= esa vfèkdka'k ,atkbe gksrs gSa & 160. Most enzymes in biological system have :
(1) leku rkieku vkSj ih,p b"Vre (1) Similar temperature and pH optimum
(2) fofHkUu rkieku vkSj ih,p b"Vre
(3) leku rkieku vkSj fHkUu ih,p b"Vre (2) Different temperature and pH optimum
(4) fofHkUu rkieku vkSj leku ih,p b"Vre (3) Similar temperature and different pH
optimum
(4) Different temperature and similar pH
optimum

161. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk@ls lR; gS tkuojksa esa Üolu 161. Which of the following is/are true w.r.t.
lajpuk ds lanHkZ esa respiratory structures in animals
(1) Dykse dk mi;ksx vfèkdka'k tyh; tarqvksa }kjk fd;k (1) Gills are used by most of the aquatic
tkrk gS animals
(2) QsQM+ksa dk mi;ksx vfèkdka'k LFkyh; çk.kh djrs gSa (2) Lungs are used by most of the terrestrial
animals
(3) Lruèkkfj;ksa esa Üolu ra= lqfodflr gksrk gS
(3) Mammals have a well-developed
(4) mijksä lHkh
respiratory system
(4) All of the above

162. fØ;k/kkj lkaærk ftl ij ,d ,atkbe mRçsfjr vfHkfØ;k vius 162. Substrate concentration at which an enzyme
vfèkdre osx dk vkèkk çkIr dj ysrh gS & catalysed reaction attains half of its maximum
(1) ,atkbe dk v/kZ thoudky velocity is :
(2) ,atkbe dk Km&fLFkjkad (1) Half-life of enzyme
(3) lkanzrk vuqikr (2) Km-constant of enzyme
(3) Concentration ratio
(4) i.;korZ nj
(4) Turn over number
163. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk csesy gS\
163. Which of the following is mismatched?
(1) dkbfVu & ,u&,flVkby Xywdkslkekbu dk cgqyd
(1) Chitin – Polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine
(2) Xykbdkstu & Xywdkst dk cgqyd
(2) Glycogen – Polymer of glucose
(3) lsyqykst & fo"kei‚yhlsdsjkbM (3) Cellulose – Heteropolysaccharide
(4) buqfyu & lei‚yhlsdsjkbM (4) Inulin – Homopolysaccharide

164. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu y; dsæa ds fudV fLFkr 164. Which of the following can activate the
jlk;u&laosnu'khy {ks= dks lfØ; dj ldrk gS\ chemosensitive area situated adjacent to the

(1) mPp CO2 lkaærk] de H lkaærk rhythm centre?
(1) High CO2 concentration, less H
(2) mPp CO2 lkaærk] mPp H lkaærk
concentration
(3) de CO2 lkaærk] mPp H lkaærk
(2) High CO2 concentration, high H
(4) de CO2 lkaærk] de H lkaærk concentration
(3) Less CO2 concentration, high H
concentration
(4) Less CO2 concentration, less H
concentration

165. fuEufyf[kr lewgksa esa ls ml lewg dk p;u djsa ftlesa dsoy 165. From the following groups, select the one
f}rh;d mikip;t gSa\ which has only secondary metabolites?
(1) vkfczZu] lsywykst+] vkftZfuu] Vk;jksflu (1) Arbrin, cellulose, arginine, tyrosine
(2) Xykbflu] xksn a ] lsjhu] MkbVjihu (2) Glycine, gums, serine, diterpenes
(3) Carotenoids, phenylalanine, curcumin,
(3) dSjksVhu‚;M] Qsfuy,yfuu] djD;wfeu] jcj
rubber
(4) d‚udsuosfyu&,] e‚fQZu] dksMhu] ohuCysLVhu
(4) Concanavalin-A, morphine, codeine,
vinblastin

35
166. viw.kZ mikfLFky;qDr oy; fuEufyf[kr dks NksM+dj lHkh dk 166. Incomplete cartilaginous rings support all of
leFkZu djrs gSa & the followings except :
(1) Üokluyh (1) Trachea
(2) çkFkfed vkSj f}rh;d 'oluh (2) Primary and secondary bronchi
(3) Üolu 'olfudk,¡ (3) Respiratory bronchioles
(4) Initial bronchiole
(4) çkjafHkd 'olfudk

167. U;wfDyd ,flM ds ,d LVªSaM esa] Q‚LQsV dk va'k tqM+k gksrk 167. In a strand of nucleic acid, a phosphate moiety
gS links the
(1) ,d U;wfDy;ksVkbM dh 3'&dkcZu okyh 'kdZjk igys okys (1) 3’-carbon of the sugar of one nucleotide to
U;wfDy;ksVkbM ds 5'&dkcZu okyh 'kdZjk ds lkFkA the 5’-carbon of the sugar of the preceding
(2) ,d U;wfDy;ksVkbM dh 3'&dkcZu okyh 'kdZjk nwljs nucleotide.
jTtqd dh 3'&dkcZu okyh 'kdZjk ds lkFkA (2) 3’-carbon of the sugar of one nucleotide to
(3) ,d jTtqd dh 'kdZjk nwljs jTtqd okys ukbVªkstuh {kkj the 3’-carbon of the sugar on the other strand.
ds lkFkA (3) Sugar of one strand with the nitrogen base
on the other strand.
(4) ,d U;wfDy;ksVkbM dh 3'&dkcZu okyh 'kdZjk vxys okys
(4) 3’-carbon of the sugar of one nucleotide to
U;wfDy;ksVkbM ds 5'&dkcZu okyh 'kdZjk ds lkFkA
the 5’-carbon of the sugar of the succeeding
nucleotide.

168. jh<+ dh gìh ds fdl Lrj ij Üokluyh foHkkftr gksrh gS 168. At which level of vertebrae of the vertebral
vkSj 'oLuh cukrh gS\ column, trachea divides and forms bronchus?
(1) pkSFkh o{kh; d'ks#dh (1) 4th thoracic vertebrae
(2) ikapoha o{kh; d'ks#dh (2) 5th thoracic vertebrae
(3) ikapoha dfV d'ks#dh (3) 5th lumbar vertebrae
(4) rhljh o{kh; d'ks#dh (4) 3rd thoracic vertebrae

169. cyiwoZd lk¡l NksM+us ls QsQM+ksa esa gok dh dqN ek=k 'ks"k jg 169. Forceful exhalation results in some volume of
tkrh gSA ftls dgk tkrk gS % air remaining in the lungs. This volume is known
(1) vof'k"V vk;ru as :
(2) fu%Üolu lqjf{kr vk;ru (1) Residual volume
(3) fu%Üolu {kerk (2) Expiratory reserve volume
(4) fØ;k'khy vof'k"V {kerk (3) Expiratory capacity
(4) Functional residual capacity

170. fuEufyf[kr ?kVdksa dks dqy dksf'kdh; Hkkj esa muds çfr'kr 170. Arrange the following components in the
ds vkjksgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr djsa & ascending order of their percentage in the total
(1) fyfiM & dkckZsgkbMªsV& U;wfDyd ,flM & çksVhu & ikuh cellular mass.
(2) U;wfDyd ,flM & fyfiM & dkckZsgkbMªsV & ikuh & (1) Lipids – Carbohydrates – Nucleic acid –
çksVhu Proteins – Water
(3) dkckZsgkbMªV
s & fyfiM & U;wfDyd ,flM & çksVhu & (2) Nucleic acid – Lipids – Carbohydrates –
Water – Proteins
ikuh
(3) Carbohydrates – Lipids – Nucleic acid –
(4) U;wfDyd ,flM & dkckZsgkbMªsV & fyfiM & ikuh &
Proteins – Water
çksVhu (4) Nucleic acid – Carbohydrates – Lipids –
Water – Proteins
171. efLr"d esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dsæa euq";ksa esa Üolu 171. Which of the following centres in brain is
dh lkekU; y; ds fu;eu ds fy, eq[; :i ls ftEesnkj gS\ primarily responsible for regulation of normal
(1) iksl
a esa Üolu y; dsæa rhythm of respiration in humans?
(2) esMqyk esa Üolu y; dsæ a (1) Respiratory rhythm centre in pons
(3) iksla esa 'okl vuqpu dsæa (2) Respiratory rhythm centre in medulla
(4) iksl a esa ,iusfLVd lsVa j (3) Pneumotaxic centre in pons
(4) Apneustic centre in pons

36
172. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gS\ 172. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) fyfiM cgqydh; tSoo`gnv.kq gSa (1) Lipid are polymeric biomacromolecule
(2) U;wfDyd vEy lecgqyd gSa (2) Nucleic acids are homopolymers
(3) çksVhu fo"kecgqyd gSa (3) Proteins are heteropolymers
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of these

173. ok;qdks'kh; ok;q] egkf'kfj; jä vkSj Ård esa Øe'k% 173. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air,
v‚Dlhtu dk vkaf'kd ncko gksrk gS & venacaval blood and tissue respectively :
(1) 40, 159, 95 (2) 159, 40, 95 (1) 40, 159, 95 (2) 159, 40, 95
(3) 104, 40, 40 (4) 104, 45, 45 (3) 104, 40, 40 (4) 104, 45, 45

174. uhps fn, x, dFkuksa dks i<+sa vkSj lgh dFku dks fpfàr 174. Read the statements given below and mark the
djsa & correct statement :
(1) folj.k f>Yyh rhu çeq[k dksf'kdh; ijrksa ls cuh gksrh (1) The diffusion membrane is made up of
gS three major cellular layers
(2) yxHkx 20-25% v‚Dlhtu dk ifjogu (2) Nearly 20-25% of oxygen is transported in
the form of carbaminohaemoglobin
dkckZfeuksgheksXyksfcu ds :i esa gksrk gS
(3) Oxygen diffuses more readily than carbon
(3) v‚Dlhtu ,fYo;ksyh esa çlkj lhek ds ikj dkcZu
dioxide across diffusion boundary in alveoli
Mkbv‚DlkbM dh rqyuk esa vfèkd vklkuh ls QSyrh gS D;ksfa d
because
v‚Dlhtu dh ?kqyu'khyrk vfèkd gksrh gSA solubility of oxygen is higher.
(4) lkekU; 'kkjhfjd ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa] 100 ,e,y jä Årdksa (4) Under normal physiological conditions, 100
dks 5 ,e,y v‚Dlhtu igqapkrk gSA mL of blood delivers 5 mL of oxygen to tissues.

175. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk vLFkek dk y{k.k ugha gS\ 175. Which of the following is not a symptom of
(1) lkal ysus esa dfBukbZ gksuk asthma?
(2) 'kksj&'kjkcs@?kj?kjkgV ds lkFk lkal ysuk (1) Difficulty in breathing
(3) ok;qdks'kh; nhokjsa {kfrxzLr gks tkrh gSa (2) Breathing noisily/wheezing
(4) 'oluh vkSj 'olfudkvksa esa 'kksFk (3) Alveolar walls are damaged
(4) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles

176. Mh,u, dh f}rh;d lajpuk fdlds chp ijLij fØ;k dks 176. Secondary structure of DNA denotes
n'kkZrh gS & interaction between :
(1) XykbdksflfMd ca/k ds ekè;e ls Mh,u, ds ,d gh LVªaM S (1) Two nitrogenous bases on same strand of
ij nks ukbVªkstu {kkj DNA through glycosidic bonds
(2) gkbMªkstu ca/k ds ekè;e ls Mh,u, ds foijhr LVªaM
S ij (2) Two nitrogenous bases on opposite
nks ukbVªkstu {kkj strands of DNA through hydrogen bonds
(3) Two deoxyribose sugars on opposite
(3) XykbdksflfMd ca/k ds ekè;e ls Mh,u, ds foijhr LVªSaM
strands of DNA through glycosidic bonds
ij nks Mhv‚Dlhjkbckst 'kdZjk
(4) A nitrogenous base on one strand and
(4) ,d LVªaM S ij ukbVªkstu {kkj vkSj foijhr LVªaM
S ij deoxyribose sugar on opposite strand
Mhv‚Dlhjkbckst+ 'kdZjk

177. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk Xokuksflu vkSj lkbVksflu ds varj 177. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. the
ds lanHkZ esa lgh gS \ difference between guanosine and cytosine?
(1) Xokuksflu ,d U;wfDy;kslkbM gS] tcfd lkbVksflu ,d (1) Guanosine is a nucleoside, while cytosine
U;wfDy;ksVkbM gS is a nucleotide
(2) Xokuksflu ,d ukbVªkstu {kkj gS] tcfd lkbVksflu (2) Guanosine is a nitrogen base, while
cytosine is nucleoside
U;wfDy;kslkbM gS
(3) Guanosine is a nucleoside, while cytosine
(3) Xokuksflu ,d U;wfDy;kslkbM gS] tcfd lkbVksflu ,d
is a nitrogen base
ukbVªkstu {kkj gS
(4) Guanosine has deoxyribose sugar, while
(4) Xokuksflu esa Mhv‚Dlhjkbckst+ 'kdZjk gksrh gS] tcfd
cytosine has ribose sugar
lkbVksflu esa jkbckst+ 'kdZjk gksrh gS

37
178. çksVhu dh lajpuk ds lacaèk esa xyr dFku dks igpkusAa 178. Identify the wrong statement with respect to
(1) isIVkbM caèk çksVhu dh çkFkfed lajpuk dks fLFkj djrk the structure of protein.
gSA (1) Peptide bond stabilises the primary
(2) çksVhu es]a dsoy ck,a gkFk ds gsfyDl ns[ks tkrs gSaA structure of protein.
(3) rkieku c<+us ij çksVhu;qä ,atkbe fo—rhdj.k n'kkZrs (2) In proteins, only left-handed helices are
observed.
gSaA
(3) On increasing the temperature,
(4) ,dy i‚yhisIVkbM J`a[kyk okys çksVhu esa prq"d lajpuk
proteinaceous enzymes shows denaturation.
ugha gks ldrhA
(4) A protein having single polypeptide chain
cannot have quaternary structure.

179. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu vkj,u, vkSj Mh,u, esa fHkUu gS\ 179. Which of the following are different in RNA and
(1) I;wjhu vkSj ikbjhfeMhu DNA?
(2) 'kdZjk vkSj I;wjhu (1) Purines and pyrimidines
(3) 'kdZjk vkSj ikbjhfeMhu (2) Sugar and purines
(4) I;wjhu vkSj Q‚LQksfjd vEy (3) Sugar and pyrimidines
(4) Purines and phosphoric acid

180. lClVªsV ls mRikn esa :ikarj.k ds nkSjku] laØe.k voLFkk,¡ 180. During conversion of substrate to product,
curh gSa transition states formed are
(1) fLFkj ,oa {kf.kd (1) Stable and transient
(2) vLFkk;h ,oa vfLFkj (2) Temporary and unstable
(3) Low-energy states
(3) de ÅtkZ okyh voLFkk,¡
(4) Permanently altered states
(4) LFkk;h :i ls ifjofrZr jkT;

181. uhps nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk 181. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
dFku lgh gS@gSa\ correct with respect to the given reaction?

CO2 + H2O H2CO3 CO2 + H2O H2CO3

(1) ,atkbe dh vuqifLFkfr esa çfr ?kaVs dkckZsfud ,flM ds (1) In the absence of enzyme, 200 molecules
200 v.kq curs gSaA of carbonic acid are formed per hour.
(2) dkckZsfud ,ugkbMªst+ dh mifLFkfr esa çfr lsdaM H2CO3 (2) In the presence of carbonic anhydrase,
600,000 molecules of H2CO3 are formed per
ds 600,000 v.kq curs gSaA
second.
(3) ;g vfHkfØ;k euq"; dh RBC esa CO2 ds ifjogu ds
(3) This reaction occurs in RBC of humans
nkSjku gksrh gSA during transport of CO2.
(4) lHkh lgh gSaA (4) All are correct.

182. fuEufyf[kr d‚yeksa dk feyku djsa vkSj lgh fodYi pquaAs 182. Match the following columns and choose the
d‚ye-I d‚ye-II correct option.
1. lg izfd.o A. ghe Column-I Column-II
2. O;frfjä lewg B. ftad 1. Coenzymes A. Haem
3. èkkrq vk;u C. ,u,Mhih 2. Prosthetic groups B. Zinc
(1) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (2) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B 3. Metal ions C. NADP
(3) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A (4) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (1) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (2) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
(3) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A (4) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
183. fuEufyf[kr esa ls cstksM+ feyku pquaAs 183. Choose the odd match among the following.
(1) ,aVhc‚Mh laØked ,tsaVksa ls yM+rk gS (1) Antibody Fights infectious agents
(2) GLUT&4 dksf'kdkvksa esa Xywdkst ifjogu dks (2) GLUT-4 Enables glucose transport
l{ke cukrk gS into cells
(3) fVªfIlu (3) Trypsin Hormone
gkekZsu
(4) Receptor Sensory reception like
(4) xzkgh laosnh xzg.k tSls xaèk] Lokn] gkekZus ]
smell, taste, hormone, etc.
vkfnA
38
184. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+sa vkSj lgh fodYi pquAsa 184. Read the following statements and choose the
dFku I: çkFkfed mikip;t lHkh tSfod ?kVdksa esa mRikfnr correct option.
gksrs gSaA Statement I : Primary metabolites are produced
dFku II: f}rh;d mikip;t igpkuus ;ksX; dk;Z djrs gSa in all biotic components.
vkSj lkekU; 'kkjhfjd çfØ;kvksa esa Kkr Hkwfedk fuHkkrs gSaA Statement II : Secondary metabolites have
identifiable functions and play known roles in
(1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSaA
normal physiological processes.
(2) nksuksa dFku x+yr gSaA
(1) Both statements are correct.
(3) dsoy dFku I lgh gSA
(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(4) dsoy dFku II lgh gSA
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Only statement II is correct.

185. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+sa vkSj muesa ls lgh dk p;u djsAa 185. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) vYQk&,feuks ,flM ;qä gkbMª‚Dlh feFkkby ,ysfuu gSA correct one among them.
(2) vko';d vehuks vEy os gSa ftUgsa gekjk 'kjhj la'ysf"kr (1) A hydroxy methyl containing alpha-amino
dj ldrk gSA acid is alanine.
(2) Essential amino acids are those which our
(3) ,atkbe dk lfØ; LFky çksVhu dh r`rh;d lajpuk ls
body can synthesized.
curk gSA
(3) The active site of enzyme is formed by
(4) dkcZfud v.kq fo'ys"k.k ds nkSjku U;wfDyd vEy] vEy
tertiary structure of proteins.
?kqyu'khy Hkkx esa ik, tkrs gSaA
(4) The nucleic acid are found in acid soluble
fraction during organic molecule analysis.

(SECTION-B) (SECTION-B)
186. ysflfFku] thfor Årdksa esa ik;k tkus okyk ,d NksVk 186. Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic
vk.kfod Hkkj dkcZfud ;kSfxd] bldk ,d mnkgj.k gS compound found in living tissues, is an example
(1) fXyljkbM~l (2) dkckZsgkbMªV
s ~l of
(3) vehuks vEy (4) Q‚LQksfyfiM~l (1) Glycerides (2) Carbohydrates
(3) Amino acids (4) Phospholipids

187. ;fn ge dksf'kdk dh vkSlr lajpuk dk fujh{k.k djsa] rks 187. If we observe the average composition of cell,
¼1½ çksVhu dksf'kdk dk 5-7 Hkkx gS then
¼2½ dksf'kdk dk 10-15 ty Hkkx gS (1) Proteins constitute 5-7% of the cell

¼3½ dkckZsgkbMªsV dk çfr'kr fyfiM ls vfèkd gksrk gS (2) Water constitutes 10-15% of the cell
(3) Percentage of carbohydrate is more than
¼4½ fyfiM dk çfr'kr U;wfDyd ,flM ls vfèkd gksrk gS
lipids
(4) Percentage of lipids is more than nucleic
acid

188. fuEufyf[kr rRoksa dks ekuo 'kjhj esa çfr'kr Hkkj ds vuqlkj 188. Arrange the following elements in the
vojksgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr djsAa descending order in terms of percentage weight
¼1½ v‚Dlhtu > flfyd‚u > dkcZu > dSfY'k;e of human body.
¼2½ v‚Dlhtu > dkcZu > ukbVªkstu > dSfY'k;e (1) Oxygen > Silicon > Carbon > Calcium
(2) Oxygen > Carbon > Nitrogen > Calcium
¼3½ v‚Dlhtu > ukbVªkstu > dkcZu > dSfY'k;e
(3) Oxygen > Nitrogen > Carbon > Calcium
¼4½ v‚Dlhtu > ukbVªkstu > dSfY'k;e > dkcZu
(4) Oxygen > Nitrogen > Calcium > Carbon

39
189. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+sa vkSj lgh fodYi pqusa & 189. Read the following statements and choose the
dFku I: ;fn lw[ks Ård dks iwjh rjg ls tyk fn;k tkrk correct option :
gS] rks lHkh dkcZu ;kSfxd xSlh; :i ¼CO2, ok"i½ esa Statement I : If the dried tissue is fully burnt,
v‚Dlh—r gks tkrs gSa vkSj gVk fn, tkrs gSaA all the carbon compounds are oxidised to
dFku II: jk[k esa dSfY'k;e vkSj eSXuhf'k;e tSls vdkcZfud gaseous form (CO2, vapour) and are removed.
rRo gksrs gSaA Statement II : The ash contains inorganic
(1) nksuksa dFku lgh gSaA
elements like calcium and magnesium.
(2) nksuksa dFku xyr gSaA
(1) Both statements are correct.
(3) dsoy dFku I lgh gSA
(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(4) dsoy dFku II lgh gSA
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Only statement II is correct.
190. folj.k f>Yyh cukus okyh rhu eq[; ijrsa dkSu lh gSa\ 190. Which are the three main layers that form the
diffusion membrane?
(1) dwfidk dh iryh 'kYdh ,fiFksfy;e] 'oluhdkvksa dh
(1) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli,
vk/kkfj; f>Yyh ,oa vk/kkfj; inkFkZ basement membrane of bronchioles and
(2) dwfidk dh iryh 'kYdh ,fiFksfy;e] dwfi; dsf'kdkvksa basement
substance.
dh ,aMksfFkfy;e ,oa vk/kkfj; inkFkZ (2) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli,
(3) vk/kkfj; inkFkZ] dwfidk dh ?kukdkj midyk ,oa endothelium of alveolar capillaries and the
basement
'olfudkvksa dh Lrfjr midykA
substance.
(4) 'oLuh dh i{kekHkh midyk] dsf'kdk dh ,aMksfFkfy;e ,oa (3) Basement substance, cuboidal epithelium
dwfidk dh 'kYdh midykA of alveoli and stratified epithelium of
bronchiole.
(4) Ciliated epithelium of trachea,
endothelium of capillaries and squamous
epithelium of alveoli.

191. dksf'kdk ds jklk;fud fo'ys"k.k esa vEy&?kqyu'khy va'k dks 191. In the chemical analysis of cell, the acid-
__I__ vkSj vEy&v?kqyu'khy va'k dks __II__ dgk tkrk soluble fraction is called __I__ and the acid-
gSA 1000 Da ls de vk.kfod Hkkj okys v.kqvksa dks __III__ insoluble fraction is called __II__. The
dgk tkrk gS vkSj tks vEy&v?kqyu'khy va'k esa ik, tkrs gSa molecules having molecular weight less than
1000 Da are called __III__ and those found in
mUgsa __IV__dgk tkrk gSA
the acid-insoluble fraction are called __IV__.
(1) I&fuL;an( II&/kkfjr ( III&tSoy?kqv.kq( IV&tSoo`gnv.kq
(1) I-Filtrate; II-Retentate; III-
(2) I&/kkfjr(II& fuL;an( III& tSoo`gnv.kq( IV& tSoy?kqv.kq
Biomicromolecules; IV-Biomacromolecules
(3) I&fuL;an( II&/kkfjr( III& tSoo`gnv.kq ( IV&tSoy?kqv.kq
(2) I-Retentate; II-Filtrate; III-
(4) I&/kkfjr( II& fuL;an( III&tSoy?kqv.kq( IV&TkSoo`gnv.kq Biomacromolecules; IV-Biomicromolecules
(3) I-Filtrate; II-Retentate; III-
Biomacromolecules; IV-Biomicromolecules
(4) I-Retentate; II-Filtrate; III-
Biomicromolecules; IV-Biomacromolecules
192. nkok ¼A½& lHkh çksVhu cukus okys &vehuks ,flM dks 192. Assertion (A) : All protein forming -amino
izfrLFkkfir esFksu dgrs gSaA acids are substituted methanes.
dkj.k ¼R½& vehuks ,flM dkcZfud ;kSfxd gksrs gSa ftuesa ,d Reason (R) : Amino acids are organic
gh dkcZu ij ,d vehuks lewg vkSj ,d dkckZsfDly çfrLFkkiu compounds containing an amino group and a
carboxyl as substituents on the same carbon.
ds :i esa gksrk gSA
(1) If both the (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a
¼1½ ;fn ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj ¼R½] ¼A½ dk lgh
correct explanation of the (A)
Li"Vhdj.k gS
(2) If both the (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
¼2½ ;fn ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu ¼R½] ¼A½ dk lgh not a correct explanation of the (A)
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gS (3) If the (A) is true but the (R) is false
¼3½ ;fn ¼A½ lR; gS ysfdu ¼R½ xyr gS (4) If both the (A) and (R) are false
¼4½ ;fn ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa xyr gSa
40
193. fuEufyf[kr d‚yeksa dk feyku djsa vkSj lgh fodYi pquaAs 193. Match the following columns and select the
dkWye-I dkWye-II correct option.
A. fLFkfrewyd lwpuk I. çksVhu dh çkFkfed Column-I Column-II
lajpuk A. Positional I. Primary structure
B. [kks[kyh Åuh xksyk II. çksVhu dh f}rh;d information of protein
B. Hollow II. Secondary
lajpuk
woolen ball structure of protein
C. &IyhVsM 'khV III. çksVhu dh r`rh;d
C. -pleated III. Tertiary structure
lajpuk
sheet of protein
D. gheksXyksfcu IV. çksVhu dh prq"d
D. Haemoglobin IV. Quaternary
lajpuk structure of protein
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

194. fuEufyf[kr esa ls tkuojksa dk dkSu lk lewg Üolu ds fy, 194. Which of the following group of animals, is used
QsQM+ksa dk mi;ksx djrk gS\ lungs for respiration?
(1) eNfy;k¡] es< a d] VSMiksy ykokZ (1) Fishes, Frog, Tadpole Larva
(2) eNyh] eksyLdk] tyh; vkFkzkZsiksM (2) Fish, Mollusca, aquatic arthropods
(3) Reptiles, Birds, Mammals
(3) ljhl`i] i{kh] Lruèkkjh
(4) Insects, Earthworm, Mollusca
(4) dhM+]s dsp
a qvk] eksyLdk

195. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk xyr dFku gS\ 195. Which of the following is an incorrect
(1) U;wfDyd vEy fofHkUu çdkj dh f}rh;d lajpuk,¡ statement?
çnf'kZr djrk gSA (1) Nucleic acids exhibits a wide variety of
(2) U;wfDyd vEy cM+h la[;k esa U;wfDy;ksVkbM ds cgqyhdj.k secondary structures.
(2) Nucleic acids are formed by the
ls curs gSaA
polymerisation of a large number of
(3) Mh,u, dh jh<+ 'kdZjk vkSj Q‚LQsV lewgksa ls cuh gksrh
nucleotides.
gSA (3) The backbone of DNA is built up of sugar
(4) Mh,u, ds nksuksa LVªSaM lekukarj gSaA and phosphate groups.
(4) The two strands of DNA are parallel.

196. nkok ¼A½& jkbcksl ;qä U;wfDyd vEy dks jkbcksU;wfDyd 196. Assertion (A) : A nucleic acid containing ribose
vEy ¼RNA½ dgk tkrk gSA is called ribonucleic acid (RNA).
dkj.k ¼R½& xqvkukbu vkSj ,Msfuu çfrLFkkfir fifjfeMhu Reason (R) : Guanine and Adenine are
gSaA substituted pyrimidines.
(1) If both the (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a
(1) ;fn ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lR; gSa vkSj ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh
correct explanation of the (A)
Li"Vhdj.k gS
(2) If both the (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
(2) ;fn ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa lR; gSa ysfdu ¼R½ ¼A½ dk lgh
not a correct explanation of the (A)
Li"Vhdj.k ugha gS (3) If the (A) is true but the (R) is false
(3) ;fn ¼A½ lR; gS ysfdu ¼R½ xyr gS (4) If both the (A) and (R) are false
(4) ;fn ¼A½ vkSj ¼R½ nksuksa xyr gSa
197. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu fn, x, xzkQ+ dk lgh o.kZu djrk 197. Which of the following describes the given
gS\ graph correctly?

41
 (1) ,atkbe dh vuqifLFkfr esa lfØ;.k ÅtkZ A vkSj ,atkbe (1) Endothermic reaction with activation
dh mifLFkfr esa B ds lkFk m"ek'kksih vfHkfØ;kA energy A in absence of enzyme and B in
(2) ,atkbe dh vuqifLFkfr esa lfØ;.k ÅtkZ A vkSj ,atkbe presence of enzyme.
dh mifLFkfr esa B ds lkFk m"ek{ksfi vfHkfØ;kA (2) Exothermic reaction with activation energy
(3) ,atkbe dh mifLFkfr esa lfØ;.k ÅtkZ A vkSj ,atkbe A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of
enzyme.
dh vuqifLFkfr esa B ds lkFk m"ek{ksfi vfHkfØ;kA
(3) Exothermic reaction with activation energy
(4) ,atkbe dh mifLFkfr esa lfØ;.k ÅtkZ A vkSj ,atkbe
A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of
dh vuqifLFkfr esa B ds lkFk m"ek'kksih vfHkfØ;kA
enzyme.
(4) Endothermic reaction with activation
energy A in presence of enzyme and B in
absence of enzyme.

198. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+sa vkSj fjä LFkku dks lgh fodYi 198. Read the following statements and fill in the
ls HkjsaA blanks with the correct option.
__I__ ds ladqpu ls vxzi'ph; v{k esa o{k d{k dk vk;ru Contraction of __I__ increases the volume of
c<+ tkrk gSA thoracic chamber in anteroposterior axis.
__II__dk ladqpu ilfy;ksa vkSj mjksfLFk dks Åij mBkrk gS Contraction of __II__ lifts up the ribs and the
ftlls i`"B/kkj v{k esa o{k d{k ds vk;ru esa o`f) gksrh gSA sternum causing an increase in the volume of
the thoracic chamber in the dorsoventral axis.
(1) I&e/;iV~( II&IICM
(1) I-Diaphragm; II-Internal intercostal muscle
(2) I& e/;iV~ ( II&EICM
(2) I-Diaphragm; II-External intercostal
(3) I& EICM( II&e/;PNn
muscle
(4) I&mnfj; ekalisf'k;k¡( II&e/;iV~
(3) I-External intercostal muscle; II-Phrenic
muscles
(4) I-Abdominal muscles; II-Diaphragm

199. fuEufyf[kr d‚yeksa dk feyku djsa vkSj lgh fodYi pquaAs 199. Match the following columns and choose the
dkWye-I dkWye-II correct option.
1. Tokjh; vk;ru A. RV + ERV Column-I Column-II
2. fu%Üolu {kerk B. ERV + TV 1. Tidal Volume A. RV + ERV
3. fØ;k'khy vof'k"V C. IC – IRV 2. Expiratory capacity B. ERV + TV
{kerk 3. Functional residual C. IC – IRV
4. fu%Üolu lqjf{kr D. VC – [TV + IRV] capacity
vk;ru 4. Expiratory reserve D. VC – [TV +
(1) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D (2) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C volume IRV]
(3) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-A (4) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B (1) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D (2) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
(3) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-A (4) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

200. Qq¶Qqlh; vk;ru vkSj {kerkvksa ds fp=e; çfrfufèkRo esa "X" 200. In the graphical representation of pulmonary
n'kkZrk gS volumes and capacities “X" denotes

(1) var'olu lqjf{kr vk;ru (1) Inspiration reserves volume

(2) QsQM+ksa dh dqy {kerk (2) Total lung capacity
(3) fu%Üolu {kerk (3) Expiratory capacity
(4) tSo {kerk (4) Vital capacity

42
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