Software Application Development Tool S & Techniques - Feb18
Software Application Development Tool S & Techniques - Feb18
5. Which of the following activities of SDLC involves choosing a system structure capable of satisfying
requirement specification?
a) Requirement analysis b) Design c) Coding d) Testing
7. ------------------- Lifecycle model describe how software system should be developed and describe how
software are actually developed.
a) Prescriptive & Descriptive b) Prescriptive & Definitive
c) Descriptive & Prescriptive d) Descriptive & Intuitive
11. Ability of a software to perform intended function with minimum consumption of computing resources
a) Efficiency b) Robustness c) Reliability d) Correctness
12. Ability to deal with exceptional conditions e.g. invalid input, improper handling, power failure, disk crash
etc.
a) Efficiency b) Robustness c) Reliability d) Correctness
13. The type of testing carried out along with coding is called
a) System testing b) Unit testing c) Pretesting d) Stress testing
14. Maintainability is the ease with which a software can
a) Be corrected if an error is encountered
b) Adapted if its environment changes
c) Enhanced if the customer desires a change in requirements
d) All of above
15. The type of software maintenance which is done to remove bugs or defects in the software is called
a) Corrective Maintenance b) Adaptive Maintenance
c) Regressive Maintenance d) Perfective Maintenance
17. Which of the following is not true about Component Assembly Model
a) It is similar to the Spiral Model
b) The technical framework for this model is provided by object technologies
c) Candidate classes are extracted from class library or developed
d) Its productivity is low
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18. Which of the following is not true about the context diagram?
a) It does not show details of the functioning b) It shows major inputs & outputs of the system
c) It shows the external entities of the system c) It shows the data stores of the system
23. If two modules are coupled without exchange of data or control information then they exhibit
a) Normal Coupling b) Stamp Coupling c) Control Coupling d) Common Coupling
25. Changes made to the software to correct defects uncovered after delivery is called
a) Perfective maintenance b) Regressive maintenance
c) Adaptive maintenance d) Corrective maintenance
26. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of software estimation a. Schedule Estimation b. Effort
Estimation c. Cost Estimation d. Size estimation
a) B, C, A, D b) C, A, B, D c) D, B, A, C d) A, C, D, B
27. Final Function point count calculated for project will result in the smallest LOC if implemented in
a) Assembly b) C c) C++ d) Visual Basic
30. ________ shows the dependencies between the different activities making up a project.
a) PERT chart b) Bar chart c) Staffing Plan d) Pi chart
32. Judging the seriousness of a risk by evaluating its probability along with its consequences is called
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a) Risk analysis b) Risk Projection c) Risk Estimation d) All of the above
37. The WM_INITDIALOG message is sent to the dialog box procedure immediately before a dialog box is is
played.
a) True b) False c) Not Always
44. What is the primary difference between Send Message and Post Message?
a) Send Message is used for local queues, while Post Message issued for remote queues.
b) Send Message can only be used within a worker thread, while Post Message can be used at any time.
C) Send Message can only send messages to the application thread, while Post Message can send messages
to any thread.
d) Send Message is called from within a Windows procedure, while Post Message is called from within
message queues
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47. Modal Dialog Box is created on ____________ &Mode less Dialog Box is created on __________.
a) Heap , stack b) Stack , heap
57. A windows program should have a message loop comprising of Get Message(), Dispatch Message() and
Translate Message() to process messages from the message queue.
a) True b) False c) Not always
58. Get DC() is used to retrieve the device context handle for the windows client area when processing a
WM_PAINT message.
a) True b) False c) Not always
59. If a printable key is pressed then WM_CHAR message will be generated and the ASCII code of the key will be
stored in Parma.
a) True b) False c) Not always
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60. Whenever WM_LBUTTONDOWN, WM_MOUSEMOVE, WM_RBUTTONDOWN messages are generated that
time LOWORD (Param) and HIWORD (Param) consists of x and y coordinates of the mouse pointer.
a) True b) False c) Not always
61. Predefined controls send WM_COMMAND message whereas common controls send WM_NOTIFY message.
a) True b) False c) Not always
62. A Device Context is a GDI structure, which deals with text and graphics.
a) True b) False c) Not always
63. A Metafile is a collection of GUI functions that are encoded in a binary format.
a) True b) False c) Not always
67. WINAPI is a API function which explicitly calls Operating System to run Window Procedure.
a) True b) False c) Not Always
68. When function key(s) pressed on the keyboard that time WM_KEYDOWN message is generated.
a) True b) False c) Not Always
70. Set Pixel is used to draw a particular pixel with a particular colour.
a) True b) False c) Not Always
74. In MDI application the default window procedure for main Window is Def. WindowProc ().
a) True b) False c) Not Always
75. The WM_INITDIALOG message is sent to the dialog box procedure immediately before a dialog box is
displayed.
a) True b) False c) Not Always
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a) True b) False c) Not Always
80. If you want your window procedure to receive double click mouse message that time, you must include the
identifier ___________________ in a window class structure before calling
a) RegisterClassEX (). b) CS_DBLCLKS
c) CS_DBLCLICKS d) CS_DBLS e) CS_DOUBLECLICKS
82. To use the windows common controls always include _______________ .h header file.
a) COMMONCTL b) COMCTL c) COMMDLG d) COMMCTL
83. You can obtain the state of Shift keys by using __________________ function.
a) Get Key State( ) b) Key get Value( ) c) Get State( ) d) Get Status( )
86. Pick up one of the testing methods given below that is part of white-box testing:
a) Equivalence partitioning b) Boundary value analysis c) Basis path testing
87. For drawing an Icon on client area of window ____________ function is used.
a) Paint Icon( ) b) Paste Icon ( ) c) Draw Icon( ) d) Load Icon ( )
88. You can create a logical font by calling which of the following functions.
a) Create Font( ) b) CreateFontdirect( ) c) CreateFontIndirect( ) d) New Font ( )
91. Which API call is used to check what type of data available in clipboard.
a) Is Clipboard Format Available ( ) b) Is Clipboard Contain Data ( )
c) Is Type of Data ( ) d) Set Clipboard Data ( )
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a) MM_ISOTROPIC b) MM_TEXT c) MM_BITMAP d) MM_HIMETRIC
100. SetROP2() function is used to change the Raster Operation the Device Context.
a) True b) False c) Not Always
103. If 4 windows are running in a single application then there are 4 Message Queues.
a) True b) False c) Not Always
104. With Create Window _____________________ and _____________________ functions are used to display
the window.
a) Display Window( ) , Update Window( ) b) Show Window( ), Dialog Box( )
c) Show Window( ) , Update Window( ) d) Show Window ( ) , Repaint Window ( )
105. The Windows system32 directory contains files which provides function to user application to perform
certain task in the windows environment.
a) GDI32.DLL b) KERNEL32.DLL c) USER32.DLL d) WIN32.DLL
106. The layer between the application and different types of hardware
a) Application Layer b) GDI layer c) Data Layer Shell Layer
107. The Message received if the right mouse button is pressed in the non-client is
a) WM_RBUTTONDOWN b) WM_NCRBUTTONDOWN
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c) WM_NCIRBUTTONDOWN d) WS_RBUTTONDOWN
108. In order to receive DoubleClick message a window must be created with which window style?
a) 1DB_DBCLK b) CS_DBLCLICK c) CS_DBLCLKS d) CS_DBLCLK
109. Which message helps in detecting mouse movement and finding mouse cursor position
a) WM_MOUSEMOVE b) WM_MOUSEPOS
c) WM_ONMOUSEMOVE d) None of these
110. When child Control in a dialog box is activated window sends which message?
a) WM_COMMAND b) Send Dlg Item c) WM_NOTIFY d) WM_ACTIVATE
111. Which function will test whether the message is the dialog box or the window?
a) Dlg Message() b) Send Dlg Message()
c) Translate Message() d) Is Dialog Message()
116. The register() function takes a pointer to the Windlass structure as a parameter
a) True b) False
117. WM_CHAR is a combination of WM_KEYUP and WM_KEYDOWN.
a) True b) False
119. The ID value for the child window is passed by Param Parameter with the message.
a) True b) False
120. In which message it is better to initialize all the controls with in the dialog box.
a) WM_CREATE b) WM_INITDIALOG c) WM_INIT d) WM_COMMAND
121. The Copy Meta File function copies the content of a window-format Meta File to
a) Specified File b) Create Meta File
c) Copy Meta File d) Copy Data Get Meta File
122. Translate Message Detects a Keyboard action that translates to an ANSI Character
a) True b) False
123. Screen Coordinates are pixels measured from the upper left corner of the window's client area
a) True b) False
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124. Select Object function obtains an object from Device Context
a) True b) False
126. Which function use to copy file from one Device context to another
131. The Thread Control Panel is capable of performing the following action
a) Setting Thread Priority b) Suspending a Thread
c) Resuming Thread d) Terminating a Thread
133. To display a modeless dialog which property u have to add in its resource files?
a) WM_SHOW b) WS_SHOW c) WS_VISIBLE d) WS_DISPLAY
136. Get Text Matrix() determines the physical diminution of the font currently selected in the DC.
a) True b) False
137. Begin Paint() Prepares the windows client area for painting.
a) True b) False
139. The Windlass Structure must be registered with the window before it can be used to create a 1.window.
a) True b) False
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141. The following are the steps of SDLC
a) Analysis b) Design c) Testing d) All of the above
141. The SDLC Model most suitable for large projects with clear knowledge & priority of requirements is
a) Spiral Model b) Incremental Model
c) Waterfall Model d) Prototyping Model
142. Which of the following is not true about the Waterfall Model?
a) It is suited for small projects b) It does not consider risk handling
c) It gives efficient staff utilization d) It needs clarity of requirements at start.
144. Which of the following model may require largest deployment of manpower
a) Incremental Model b) Waterfall Model c) Component Assembly Model d) RAD Model
145. The majority of the lifetime of a program is spent in the __________ phase
a) Maintenance b) Analysis c) Design d) Testing
146. In Boehm’s spiral model, each loop in the spiral represents _____ of the software process
a) Phase b) Design c) Documentation d) None of the above
147. Which of the following is seen in the DFD but not in the Context Diagram
a) Data Sources b) Data Flows c) Data Stores d) Users
152. Which model used to show data processing at different levels of abstraction from fairly abstract to fairly
detailed
a) Semantic Data Models b) Object Model c) Data Flow Models d) Service Usage Models
153._______ Models describe the logical structure of the data which is imported to and exported by the
system.
a) Object b) Semantic data c) Data flow d) None of the above
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154. Which of the following is true about E-R Diagrams?
a) They consist of object-relationship pairs b) It indicates cardinality of relationships
c) It indicates modality of relationships d) All of the above
157. Which is the most undesirable form of cohesion from the following options
a) Sequential b) Coincidental c) Temporal d) Communicational
159. Which of the following is true with respect to function oriented & object oriented design methodologies
a) They vary in the basic abstractions they use b) They vary in the way state information is
maintained
c) They vary in the way functions are grouped d) All of the above
160. In which of the following phases of a use-case driven process do you think use cases have a role? a)
Requirements capture b) Analysis c) Design d) Implementation e) Test
a) A, B & C b) A, B, C & D c) B & D d) A, B, C, D & E
162. ______________ is a programming method which combines data and instructions for processing that data
into a self-sufficient block that can be used in other programs.
a) Modular programming b) Top down design
c) Object oriented programming d) Structured programming
163. A test case design technique that makes use of a knowledge of the internal program logic
a) Black Box Testing b) White Box Testing c) Unit Testing d) None of these
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d) All of the above
167. Which of the following is true about McCabe`s Cyclamate Complexity of a Program
a) It is an indicator of the structural complexity of a program
b) It gives the maximum no of independent paths in a program
c) It is calculated from the no. of edges & nodes in the Control Flow diagram
d) All of the above
169. Which of the following is generally not a part of the SPMP document?
a) Configuration Management Plan b) Quality Assurance Plan
b) Risk Management Plan d) Requirements Elicitation Plan
174. According to the staffing pattern of a software project follows the Rayleigh-Norden curve and peaks during
the _____________
a) Detailed design b) Coding & Unit testing c) Integration Testing d) System Testing
174. Arrange the following activities in Risk Assessment in the correct sequence a. Prioritization b. Identification
c. Analysis
a) b, a, c b) b, c, a c) a, b, c d) c, a, b
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a) By their respective authors b) By the appropriate team
c) In a central project database d) All of the above
178. Which one of the following is method is not used in describing complex system process
a) Decision table b) Structure English c) Finite automata d) Binary tree
182. The choice of the Software Development Life Cycle Model to be followed for a project depends on A)
Initial Clarity of Requirements B) Size of the Project C) Time Frame of the Project D) Clarity on Technical Issues
a) A, B & C only b) A, B & D only c) A, B, C & D d) A & D only
183. The SDLC Model most suitable for small projects with clear requirements is
a) Spiral Model b) Incremental Model c) Waterfall Model d) Prototyping Model
187. In the Spiral model the radius of the spiral at any point represents
a) The level of risk b) The progress made in the current phase
c) The cost incurred in the project till then d) None of these
188. __________ uses powerful development software and small, highly trained teams of programmers.
a) Prototyping b) RAD c) Coding d) Modeling
189. Planning the modular program structure & control relationships between modules is called
a) Architectural Design b) High Level Design c) System Design d) All of the above
190. Designers should aim to produce strongly _____ and weakly _____ designs
a) coupled, functional b) Maintainable, cohesive
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c) Cohesive, coupled d) Coupled, cohesive
194. The two questions "Are we building the right product?" &"Are we building the product right?" correspond
to
a) Verification only b) Validation only
c) Validation & Verification respectively d) Verification &Validation respectively
197. A stub is a dummy verion of the __________ module of the module under testing
a) Superordinate b) Subordinate c) Coordinate d) All of the above
198. A driver is a dummy version of the __________ module of the module under testing
a) Superordinate b) Subordinate c) Coordinate d) All of the above
199. _________ exercises the system beyond its maximum design load
a) Thread testing b) Stress Testing c) Back to back testing d) All of the above
200. Presenting the same tests to different versions of the system and compare outputs is called
a) Thread testing b) Stress Testing c) Back to back testing d) All of the above
201. Which of the following is true for two projects of same category with the same estimated LOC size and
using COCOMO for estimation
A) The initial effort estimate for both projects will be same as both have same LOC
B) The Effort Adjustment Factor will always be the same for both projects
C) The final effort estimate will always be the same for both projects
a) Only A is true. b) Only A & B are true c) Only C is true d) Neither A, B or C are true.
202. In COCOMO terminology a project with software being strongly coupled to complex hardware & stringent
regulations on operating procedures is categorised as
a) Organic b) Semidetached c) Embedded d) Application
203. Which version of COCOMO develops estimates for large projects as sum of estimates of its various
subsystems by considering the differences in the complexities of its various sub sytems
a) Basic COCOMO b) Intermediate COCOMO c) Complete COCOMO d) None of the above
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204. The minimum time required to finish the project can be estimated by considering the ______ path in the
activity graph
a) Shortest b) Longest c) Average d) SPT
207. ___________ ensures that a set procedure is followed to make any changes to the software
a) Configuration Identification b) Configuration Control c) Base lining d) All of the above
211. Which one of the following is not considered as parameter of function point
a) Number of input b) Number of interface c) Number of file d) Number of output data
214. Object oriented technology`s use of ___________ facilitates reuse of the code and architecture while its
______________ feature provides systems with stability, as a small change in requirements doesn`t require
massive changes in the system.
a) Inheritance, Encapsulation b) Inheritance, Polymorphism
c) Encapsulation, Polymorphism d) Polymorphism, Abstraction
215. Which of the following steps do you think developers should take to create efficient compact applications?
1. Clearly define initial requirements of the system
2. concentrate earl development efforts on modeling implementation mechanisms
3. Analyze and manage risk throughout the development process
4. Leave all software testing until after system has been implemented
a) a, c b) a, b c) a., b, d d) a, b, c
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217. Which of the following are aims of UML?
1. To model system using OO concepts
2. To provide a process for software development
3. To support small-scale and large-scale analysis and design
4. To provide an insight into implementation mechanism
a) a, c b) a, b c) a, b, d d) a, c, d
218. Towards end of the design phase, ___________ should be allocated to source code components.
a) Use cases b) Relationships c) Models d) Classes
219. What do you think is the first step you should take in designing any project?
a) Design a prototype b) Create the test cases
c) Define problem domain and produce problem statement d) Draw up a plan for entire project
220. Which of the following best describes what the problem domain is?
a) Kinds of resources available to development team
b) Surroundings in which system operate
c) Set of all functionality required of a system
d) List of technical details needed to implement project
221. If you are finding hard to identify the name of class and to write definition for it. What thing you should
do?
a) Ignore class completely
b) Do more analysis to get a better understanding of what is involved in the class
c) Write a definition for the class even if it is not very good
d) Make it a friend class of some other main class
222. Which of the following statements are true of use cases and use case models?
1. Functionality of a use-case has to be complete from start to finish
2. Use case provide developers with classes and operations
3. Use cases outline functionality of the system
4. Use case models can be used to test the system
a) a, b, c b) a, b, c, d c) a, c, d d) a, c
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d) Uses experimental software to better understand user requirements
229. software re-engineering actually means reverse engineers re-engineering is a type of software
maintenance elements of software architecture of a computing systems include
a. software components
b. class diagrams
c. connectors expressing relationships between software components
d. E-R diagram
1) a, b 2) a, c 3) a, c, d 4) a, b, c, d
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239. Adaptive Maintenance is
a) To improve the system in some way by changing its basic functionality
b) The maintenance due to changes in the environment
c) The correction of undiscovered system errors
d) None of the above
240. Which of the following activities involves choosing a system structure capable of satisfying the
requirement
Specification?
a) Requirements Analysis b) Design c) Coding d) Testing
241. Reliability in a software system can be achieved using the following strategies, EXCEPT
a) Fault avoidance b) Fault tolerance c) Fault detection d) Fault rectification
243. Identify the true statements about using a process for software development.
a) Processes usually divide software development into phases
b) Processes provide guidelines for what to do at each phase of development
c) Processes are used o
1) a and c 2) a and b 3) a, b and d 4) a, c and d
246. What is the primary purpose of the first stage of software analysis and design?
a) Determining system deployment b) Writing code
c) Capturing requirements d) Building GUIs
248. The analysis phase takes an ______ approach to the system, ignoring its inner workings whereas the
design phase takes an _____ approach, making decisions on how the model will be implemented in code
a) White box & Black box b) Black box & White box
c) Top-Down & Bottom-Up d) Bottom-Up & Top-Down
249. The goal of ________ is to obtain a clear understanding of the system and its shortcomings and to
determine opportunities for improvement
a) Feasibility study b) Systems analysis c) Systems definition d) Systems study
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251. The __________ phase of the systems life cycle contains periodic evaluations and updates of the system
preliminary
a) Investigation b) Systems analysis c) Systems implementation d) Systems maintenance
252. During the ______ phase, the application is verified against the requirements
a) Analysis b) Design c) Testing d) Implementation
253. The type of software maintenance which is done to add new features to the product is called
a) Corrective Maintenance b) Adaptive Maintenance
c) Regressive Maintenance d) Perfective Maintenance
254. Because of the cascade from one phase to another, the model of software development process is known
as
a) Evolutionary model b) Formal model c) Waterfall model d) None of the above
257. ________ means to build a model that can be modified before the actual system is installed
a) Maintenance b) Prototyping c) Implementation d) None of the above
259. DFD gives idea about flow of ________ & flowchart gives idea of the flow of ____________
a) Processes, decisions b) Control, data c) Logic, control d) Data, control
261. Notations used to specify the external characteristics, architectural structure, and processing details of a
software system include I. Data Flow Diagrams II. HIPO diagrams III. Structure Charts
a) I and II Only b) III Only c) I, II and III d) None of the above
264. Using __________ a programmer can detail the logic of the program
a) Pseudo code b) Software c) Context diagram d) Data flow diagram
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c) Data interchange is not represented d) It clearly separates various modules of the
software
267. Typographical errors and/or incorrect use of the programming language is referred to as
a) Logic errors b) Syntax errors c) Run time errors d) A bug
269. Changes made to the software to accommodate changes to its environment is called
a) Perfective maintenance b) Regressive maintenance
c) Adaptive maintenance d) Corrective maintenance
270. Major changes made to software after long periods is also called software reengineering or
a) Perfective maintenance b) Regressive maintenance
c) Adaptive maintenance d) Corrective maintenance
271. Function Point Count is dependent on
a) Platform & Technology b) Team Size
c) H/W & Software Resources d) Features & Functionalities
272. In COCOMO terminology a project with mixed level of staff experience & part familiarity with the system
being developed is categorized as
a) Organic b) Semidetached c) Embedded d) Application
273. In COCOMO terminology a project with software being strongly coupled to complex hardware & stringent
regulations on operating procedures is categorized as
a) Organic b) Semidetached c) Embedded d) Application
274. The value of COCOMO cost driver attribute for higher than average Programmer Ability will be
a) Greater than 1 b) Equal to 1 c) Less than 1 d) None of these
275. ____ And ____ are graphical notations which are used to illustrate the project schedule.
a) Bar chart and DFD b) ERD and Bar chart
c) Class diagram and activity networks d) Bar char and activity networks
276. According to Putnam the staffing pattern of a software project follows the Rayleigh-Norden curve and
peaks during the _____________
a) Detailed design b) Coding & Unit testing c) Integration Testing d) System
Testing
279. Risks arising out of frequent change requests are best mitigated by
a) User characterization b) Strong SCM c) Multisource estimations d) Prescheduling key
personnel
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280. Automated SCM tools help solve problem of
a) Inconsistencies of SCIs b) Concurrent access to SCI
c) Instability of development environment d) All of these options
281. As per SEI CMM organizations which do not have any KPAs present & stable are considered at
a) Level 1 b) Level 2 c) Level 3 d) Level 4
281. In which of the following phases of use-case driven process do you think use cases have a role?
a. requirement capture
b. analysis
c. design
d. implementation
e. test
1) a, b, c 2) a, b, c, d 3) b, d 4) a, b, c, e
283. Analysis takes place from ___________ perspective and design takes place from __________ perspective
a) User, user b) User, developer c) Developer, user d) Developer, developer
284. The ____________ phase of SDLC aims at ensuring software product is as per requirements.
a) Design b) Development c) Testing d) Deployment
285. Polymorphism ____________
a) Organizes abstraction
b) Builds a bridge between user and developer
c) Delivers a system in a series of versions
d) works with encapsulation and inheritance to simplify flow of control
289. Which is an iterative process through which the requirements are translated to "blueprint" for
constructing software
a) Testing b) Requirement analysis c) Design d) Maintenance
290. What manifests in the patterns of choices made among alternative ways of expressing an algorithm is
a) A data flow diagram b) Coding style c) A data dictionary d) A flow chart
292. Which of the following types of test plans is most likely to arise from requirement specification process?
a) System integration testing plan b) Acceptance test plan
c) Sub-system integration test plan d) Module test plan
295. Pick up one of the testing methods given below that is part of white-box testing
a) Euivalence partitioning b) Boundary value analysis c) Basis and testing d) Debugging
296. Following are the different steps that is to be followed in design methodology arrange them in an order.
a) First level factoring b) factoring of input
c) Restate the problem d) Identifying the input and output
1) a, b, c, d 2) c, d, a, b 3) a, d, c, b 4) a, c, b ,d
300. Which of the following factors of a Software Product may not contribute much directly to its
maintainability?
a) Understandability b) Flexibility c) Security d) Testability
301. During Requirements Phase recording interface requirements of a software system does not include which
of the following interfaces
a) User Interfaces b) Software Interfaces c) Hardware Interfaces d) Module Interfaces
302. External Entities in a Context Diagram may be A) People B) Other Software Systems C) Hardware D)
Databases
a) Only A & D b) Only B & C c) Only A, B & D d) A,B, C & D
304. A system developed to give end users a concrete impression of the system capabilities is called
a) Semantics b) Model c) Prototype d) Abstraction
305. Planning the solution to a programming problem using a structured technique is called program
a) Coding b) Compiling c) Modeling d) Design
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306. Conception & planning out of externally observable characteristics of a software is called
a) External Design b) User Interface Design c) Both a and b options d) None of the above
307. A way of indicating the desired effect without establishing the actual mechanism
a) Procedural Abstraction b) Data Abstraction c) Control Abstraction d) None of the above
308. The number & complexity of interconnections between two modules is an indicator of
a) Modularity b) Cohesion c) Coupling d) Abstraction
309. The method of deriving the structure chart from the DFD is called
a) Factoring b) Factor Analysis c) Transform Analysis d) All of the above
311. A programmer must follow the rules for coding a particular programming language. These rules are called:
a) Pseudo code b) Iteration c) Syntax d) Documentation
313. Changes made to the software to extend it beyond its original functionality is called
a) Perfective maintenance b) Regressive maintenance
c) Adaptive maintenance d) Corrective maintenance
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c. Another system
d. A printer
1. A, B, C 2. A, B, C, D 3. A, B, D 4. A, C
329. Checklists, grid charts, and decision tables are all tools used in the __________ step
a) Preliminary investigation b) Systems analysis
c) Systems development d) Systems implementation
330. The present system is studied in depth during the __________ phase of the systems life cycle.
a) Preliminary investigation b) Systems analysis c) Systems design d) Systems development
331. The SDLC Model most suitable for small projects with clear requirements is
a) Spiral Model b) Incremental Model c) Waterfall Model d) Prototyping Model
332. The SDLC Model most suitable for small projects with unclear requirements is but not many technical risks
is
a) Spiral Model b) Incremental Model c) Waterfall Model d) Prototyping Model
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333. Arrange the following Requirements sub phases in the correct order
a. Documentation b. Analysis c. Validation d. Elicitation
a) A, B, C, D b) D, B, A, C c) D, C, A, B d) B, A, D C
335. The requirement engineering process has the following stages, except
a) Feasibility study b) Requirement analysis
c) Implementation d) Requirement definition
338. If two modules pass a data structure across their interface they exhibit
a) Stamp Coupling b) Data Coupling c) Content Coupling d) Control Coupling
339. The strength of relationship between which of the following elements of a module is examined to evaluate
module cohesion
a) Function declarations, function definitions& calls b) Variable declarations
c) Data definitions d) All of the above
340. The graphical tool commonly used to represent the system architecture is called
a) Context Diagram b) Structure Chart c) Architectural Plan d) Event Table
341. The value of COCOMO cost driver attribute for lower than average Reliability requirement will be
a) Greater than 1 b) Equal to 1 c) Less than 1 d) None of these
344. Your Answer: The Software Life Cycle covers activities from
a) Feasibility Study to Installation b) Requirements Phase to Testing
c) Requirements Phase to Maintenance d) Project Initiation to Software Retirement
345. Any activity designed to keep programs in working condition, error free, and up-to-date, is referred to as
_______
a) Maintenance b) Testing c) Debugging d) Coding
346. During the __________ phase of the systems life cycle, the new hardware and software are acquired and
tested
a) Design b) Development c) Implementation d) Maintenance
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347. E-R diagrams are used in
a) Database design b) Data Dictionary compilation
c) Architectural design d) Functional Design
350. Using the name of a sequence of instructions in place of the sequence of instructions is an example of
a) Procedural Abstraction b) Data Abstraction c) Control Abstraction d) None of the above
351. Providing a logical reference to the data object without concern for the underlying representation is
a) Procedural Abstraction b) Data Abstraction c) Control Abstraction d) None of the above
352. A module whose all elements exhibit relationship which involves both data and control flow is said to be
____________ cohesive
a) Sequentially b) Communicational c) Temporally d) Procedurally
353. The afferent branch of the DFD ends at the
a) Most Abstract Input b) Most Abstract Output
c) Middle of the central transform d) All of the above
354. I. Object-oriented software development creates better programs but is less efficient to use II. Object-
oriented software development is more efficient than traditional methods. III. OOP is a process that organizes a
program into objects that contain both data and the processing operations necessary to perform a task
a) I and II are correct b) II and III are correct c) I and III are correct d) I, II and III are
correct
362. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to Testing & Debugging
a) Testing includes debugging b) Debugging includes retesting
c) Testing only establishes presence of defects d) Debugging repairs the program defects
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363. Purely black box testing would be used at which of the following levels?
a) Unit testing b) Module testing c) Integration Testing d) Acceptance Testing
373. The collection of computer programs, procedures, rules and associated document and data is called --------
-----------------
a) Software b) Hardware c) Both d) None
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379. The first step in the project planning is:
a) Size of the product b) Select team organizational mode
c) Determine the Project constraints d) Establish objectives and scope
380.
383. What is “Customer must have at least a Pentium machine to access this software” in context of Software
Requirements,
a) Assumption b) Objective c) Business Problem d) All of the above
384. For a Leave Application System, an "Employee" can use the system to request for leaves and a “Manager
can approve/reject the leaves. The data will be stored within a “Leave database" as part of this system. In this
scenario, identify the valid actors from the following for this system.’
1) Employee 2) Manager 3) Leave Database 4) Leave Application System
a) None of the above b) i, ii c) iii, IV d) All of the above
385. A timing constraint placed on the system or the use of a specific language during development, is an
example of
a) Functional requirements b) Non-functional requirements
c) Requirements definition d) None of the above
389. The _______ phase of the systems life cycle contains periodic evaluations and updates of the system
a) Preliminary investigation b) Systems analysis
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c) Systems implementation d) Systems maintenance
340. ________ provides the maximum number of test cases that will be required to guarantee that every
statement in program has been executed at least once.
a) Independent Program paths b) Cyclamate complexity
c) Graph Matrices d) None of the above
345. Effective risk management plan needs to address which of these issues?
a) Risk avoidance b) Risk monitoring c) Contingency planning d) All of the above
350. A software engineer is measuring the quality of a software system. He is concerned with the ‘reliability’
and the "validity' of his measurements. Which of the following is true?
a) Reliability refers to the extent to which the measurement represents the actual quality of the system and
validity refers to the consistency of the quality measurements
b) Reliability refers to the consistency of her quality measurements and validity refers to the extent to which
the measurement represents the actual quality of the system.
c) Reliability refers to the accuracy of her quality measurements and validity refers to the extent to which the
measurement follows a quality standard.
d) Reliability refers to the concurrency of her quality measurements and validity refers to the extent to which
the measurements are consistent with established norms.
351. Quality attributes are the overall factors that affect
a) Run-time behaviour b) System design c) User experience d) All of the above
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352. Testing is a
a) Process of executing a program with intent of finding an error b) Process of removing error
c) Process of testing software d) All of the above
357. Modules X and Y operate on the same input and output data. The cohesion is said to be
a) Sequential b) Communicational c) Procedural d) Logical
360. While gathering the requirements on OO way (using RUP UML), the very first thing we should do it
a) Start gathering functional requirements
b) List down all the Users of the System (called as Actors)
c) Start gathering non-functional requirements
d) Create Test plan
Top of Form
366. Software Engineering is concerned with_______.
a) Process b) Methods c) Tools d) All of the above
368. Which factor among the following has least effect on the testability of a software?
a) Decomposability b) Efficiency c) Understand ability d) Observability
369. Identification of inputs which cause anomalous behaviour in the outputs indicating the existence of
defects is
a) Static Testing b) White Box Testing c) Black Box Testing d) Interface testing
370. In unit testing which of the following is the strongest testing strategy?
a) Statement coverage b) Branch Coverage c) Condition Coverage d) Path coverage
371. Selection of test paths according to definition& usage of different variables in the program is called
a) Path coverage testing b) Condition Coverage testing
c) Data Flow Testing d) Branch Coverage Testing
373. Which version of COCOMO develops estimates for large projects as sum of estimates of its various
subsystems by considering the differences in the complexities of its various sub systems?
a) Basic COCOMO b) Intermediate COCOMO c) Complete COCOMO d) None of the above
375. Ability of a software to perform stated function under stated condition for a stated period of time
a) Efficiency b) Robustness c) Reliability d) Correctness
376. Among the following types which is the most undesirable form of coupling
a) Stamp Coupling b) Common Coupling c) Content Coupling d) Control Coupling
378. All of the following are control structures used in structured programming, EXCEPT
a) Iteration b) Selection c) Sequence d) Go to
379. In _____, the tester can analyse the code and use knowledge about the structure of a component to derive
test data
a) Black box b) White box c) Stress testing d) None of the above
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380. What are the components of a thin client model in Client/Server architecture?
a) Client (Presentation) –Server (Data Management, Application Processing)
b) Client (Application Processing) – Server (Data Management)
c) Client (Data Management) –Server (Application Processing)
d) Client (Application Processing) – Server- Client (Data Management)
385. Enough time will be left at the end of the project to uncover errors that were made
Because we rushed through the ____________ process. The moral is: Don’t rush
Through it! ____________ is worth the effort. (Clue: both the blanks to be filled by
The same word)
a) Coding b) Design c) Testing d) None of the above
388. Testing
a) Installs guilt b) Is punishment c) Is to find errors d) None of the above
390. The sooner you begin ___________, the longer it will take to get done.
a) Coding b) Testing c) Design d) None of the above
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c) Requirements, Test case design, Analysis, Design
d) None of the above
393. A software quality assurance activity that is performed by software engineers
a) Coding b) Formal technical reviews c) Design d) None of the above
397. Which of the following is not a factor in the failure of a systems development Project?
a) Inadequate user involvement b) Failure of systems integration
c) Size of the company d) Continuation of a project that should have been
cancelled
398. “The probability of failure free operation of a computer program in a specified Environment for a specified
time” is the definition for
a) Quality b) Reliability c) Operability d) None of the above
399. The four icons used in building Data Flow Diagram are
a) Flow, Source, Store, Process b) Flow, Process, Source, Store
c) Flow, Process, Source/Destination, Store d) Source, Process, Destination, Store
400. Which of the following is (are) not a tool for Application Prototyping?
a) Application generates b) Third generation language
c) Screen generators d) Report generators
401. All of the following tools are used for process description except
a) Structured English b) Decision tables c) Pseudo code d) Data Dictionaries
402. Which of the following activities does not belong to the Implementation phase of the SDLC?
a) File conversion b) Program testing c) User training d) All of the above
403. Which of the following is not true of the conversion phase of the development life Cycle?
a) The user and systems personnel must work closely together
b) Steps must be taken to phase out the old system
c) Documentation should be emphasized
d) The non-machine components of the system should be considered
405. Which is the first phase of the Waterfall software process model?
a) Design b) Prototype c) Testing d) Requirement
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406. What is the purpose of use cases in UML?
a) Requirements of capture
b) Define how the software system will be used
c) Describe what the user expects to do with the system
d) Make clear what the stakeholders needs are
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414. Following is the SCM audit tool
a) Requirement metrics b) PERT charts c) Source Code d) Design Document
415. Validate that the functions meet started requirements or not is called as __________________________
a) Unit testing b) System testing c) Integration Testing d) Acceptance Testing
416. What do you mean by incremental testing?
a) White box testing b) Black box testing c) Top-down testing d) Independent testing
417. Verification should be performed for ______________________
a) Requirements b) Design c) Code construction d) All of the above
418. Validation is mostly used to determine the __________________ of the final software/program.
a) Correctness b) Consistency c) Completeness d) Quality
423. Resource planning, audit planning, estimation, scheduling are the some of the tasks carried out
in_________
a) Initiation phase b) System design phase c) Definition phase d) Evaluation phase
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429. Which are the four primary standards of ISO 9000?
a) ISO 9000, ISO 9001, ISO 9004, ISO 10010 b) ISO 9000, ISO 9001, ISO 9006, ISO 10011
c) ISO 9000, ISO 9001, ISO 9004, ISO 10011 d) ISO 9000, ISO 9001, ISO 9004, ISO 10054
430. Cost of quality includes ____________________
a) Preventive, Corrective & control b) Preventive, detective & control
c) Preventive, appraisal & failure d) None of the above
433. ______________ is used to perform structured analysis and to document the result.
a) DFD b) UML c) COCOMO d) None of the above
436. As series of definable, repeatable and measurable tasks leading to useful result is called ____________
a) Program b) Process c) Activity d) Controller
441. If a linear process models all steps come after finishing of a step then that model called________________
a) Spiral b) Prototype c) Water fall model d) None of the above
442. Cyclamate Complexity method comes under which of the following testing method?
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a) White box b) Black box c) Green box d) Yellow box
443. Which of the following provides the foundation for team development?
a) Motivation b) Organizational development
c) Conflict management d) Individual development
445. Estimation for the satisfaction of the identified user needs is known as _____________
a) Feasibility study b) Requirements evolution
c) Requirements capture d) None of the above
446. Translating the algorithm into a programming language occurs at the ______________ step of the SDLC
a) Debugging b) Coding c) Testing and Documentation d) Algorithm Development
448. The ___________________ determines whether the project should go forward or not
a) Feasibility assessment b) Opportunity identification
c) System evaluation d) Program specification
449. Actual programming of software code is done during the ________________ step in the SDLC
a) Maintenance and Evaluation b) Design
c) Analysis d) Development and Documentation
453. ________________ is the chain of activities that determines the duration of the project
a) Object points b) LOC c) Lines of code d) Critical path
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455. In object-orientation, polymorphism means _____________________
a) There can be many objects in the design
b) Methods can be changed in many ways
c) Many ways can be instantiated of a class
d) Objects can implement the same method in many ways
458. Which of the following is not a section in the standard for SQA plans recommended by IEEE?
a) Documentation b) Reviews and audits c) Test d) Budget
459. Which of the following tasks is not part of software configuration management?
a) Change control b) Reporting c) Statistical quality control d) Version control
460. How many steps are in the program development life cycle (PDLC)?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 10
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466. Testing is done with the objective of ______________________.
a) Finding new errors in the software b) Correcting errors in the software
c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above
467. If a software had 5 failures in 100 tests during 10 days of testing (Assume 10 tests Per day), what would be
a good estimate of the reliability of the software over the Next week? (Assume 5 working days in a week)
a) 0.0275 b) 0.5987 c) 0.0769 d) 0.9500
471. Assuming that the tests are representative of the operational situation, then calculate the Reliability of a
software system that has had 10 failures in 200 test cases.
a) 0.95 b) 0.9 c) 0.1 d) 1
475. Which testing methods are used by end-users who actually test software before they use it?
a) White Box testing b) Alpha and Beta testing c) Black box testing d) Trial and Error testing
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477. The project plan should be regularly revised during the project.
a) Yes b) No
c) It cannot be changed, it is to be followed d) It is made only once at the start of project
479. Bar charts and activity networks are graphical notation which are used to illustrate the
a) Project Plan b) Project dependencies c) Project Schedule d) Project Risk Analysis
484. The data items that are exchanged between the different functions are represented as___
a) Design phase b) DFDs c) ER Diagram d) Data Structures
485. Which of these terms apply to identify quality standards and how to satisfy them?
a) Quality projections b) Quality management c) Quality overview d) Quality planning
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a) All activities of the performing organization that determines policies and responsibilities of a project
b) Performance quality control
c) Error detection
d) None of the above
490. Important distinction between the spiral model and other software process model is
a) Explicit consideration of planning next phase
b) Explicit consideration of Validation
c) Explicit consideration of Risk Assessment and Reduction
d) Explicit consideration of Objective setting
493. Which lifecycle model would you use for developing a commercial web site that requires About 8 months
of effort from a team of 6 people?
a) Opportunistic b) Waterfall c) Incremental d) Spiral
494. Which of the following s/w development life cycle shows high amount of risk analysis?
a) Water fall model b) Spiral model c) V-shaped model d) Incremental model
495. Deliverables are usually milestones but milestones need not be deliverables
a) True b) False c) May be true d) None of the above
496. Design phase will usually be____________________
a) Bottom-up b) Top-down c) Random d) Centre fringing
497. The execution of every possible test case is called as ____________________
a) Static analysis b) Dynamic testing c) Structural testing d) Exhaustive testing
498. Configuration Management is not related with
a) Controlling changes to the source code
b) Choice of hardware configuration for an application
c) Controlling documentation for an application
d) Maintaining versions of software
499. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) The project schedule is usually represented a set of charts showing the work.
b) The project schedule is usually represented as a set of charts showing the activities Dependencies and
staff allocations
c) The project schedule is usually represented as a set of charts showing the work breakdown and activities
dependencies
d) The project schedule is usually represented as a set of charts showing the work Breakdown, activities
dependencies and staff allocations
500. Which is true about regression testing?
a) Regression testing is carried out if the system underline is an upgraded or corrected Version
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b) Regression testing checks that there is no side effect after changes
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
507. Which function is used to convert white to black and black to white?
a) Convert b) Invert c) Insert d) None of above
519. Which of the following software development life cycle shows high amount of risk analysis?
a) Water fall model b) Spiral model c) V – Shaped model d) Incremental model
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d) None of the above
527. Just as the entry point to a C program is the function main(), the entry point to a Windows program is
________.(Win Main() )
528. The three main Windows libraries are _______, __________ & ___________. (Kernel.32, User32, GDI32)
532. Post Quit Message () function posts the __________ message. (WM_QUIT)
533. Get Message () function retrieves a message from the _____________. (Message queue)
534. Get Message () returns_____, when it retrieve WM_QUIT message form the message queue. (0)
537. TA program can call its own window procedure by using the _________ function. (Send Message)
538. Dispatch Message () function passes the MSG structure back to __________. (Windows)
539. The very first message that a window procedure receives is ___________. (WM_CREATE)
540. Register Class () associates a window procedure to the __________. (window class)
541. Window messages are defined in both windows’ and __________ header files. (winuser.h)
542. Everything that happens to a window is relayed to the __________ in the form of message. (Window
Procedure)
543. __________ API is used for sub classing. (Set Window Long() )
544. __________ API is used for character translation of keystrokes. (Translate Message() )
546. Message __________ occurs when the user clicks an item on the menu bar or presses a menu
key.(WM_INITMENU)
547. __________ API is used to kill a modal dialog box. (End Dialog() )
548. _________, _________ and ___________ are windows resources defined in a .Res file.
(Any three of these –ICON / CURSOR / STRINGTABLE / DIALOG / MENU / BITMAP)
549._________ API is used to set the text of an edit control. (Set Window Text() )
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(Any two from Brush / Pen / Region / Font / Palette / Bitmap)
551. When there is no message in the queue, Peek Message () function returns ____.
a) True b) False
552. System keystrokes are generated for keys typed in combination with the ____ key. (Alt)
553. System keystroke messages are _________ and ________. (WM_SYSKEYDOWN, WM_SYSKEYUP)
554. The virtual key code is stored in the _________ parameter of the WM_KEYDOWN message. (wParam)
555. The repeat count field is stored in the _________ parameter of the keystroke messages. (lParam)
556. _________ Function is used for checking the type of information available in clipboard.
(Is Clipboard Format Available ())
558. _________ Function is used to clear the clipboard. (Empty Clipboard ())
559. Window messages are defined in both windows. h and __________ header files. (winuser. h
560. _________, _________ and ___________ are windows resources defined in a .Res file. (Any three of these
-ICON / CURSOR / STRINGTABLE / DIALOG / MENU / BITMAP)
562. Get Message () returns_____, when it retrieve WM_QUIT message form the messagqueue. (0)
(window class)
563. Window messages are defined in both windows.h and __________ header files. (winuser.h)
564. Message __________ occurs when the user clicks an item on the menu bar or presses a menu key.
(WM_INITMENU)
565. The repeat count field is stored in the _________ parameter of the keystroke messages. (lParam)
568. Which one of the following is correct list of prescriptive process model?
a) Waterfall, Incremental, Spiral, b) Waterfall, V-shaped, Prototyping
c) Prototyping, Spiral, Adaptive S/w development d) Waterfall, Incremental, V-shaped
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570. Risk analysis and 4gl RAD prototyping is added to the waterfall model to form a -------- model
a) Spiral b) Prototyping c) V-shaped d) RAD
571. ------ model is a variant of the Waterfall model, which also emphasizes the verification and validation
a) Waterfall b) Prototyping c) Incremental d) V-shaped
573. Stakeholders are asked to rank / prioritise requirements & discuss conflicts in priority in ------- stage of
requirement engineering.
a) Conflict resolution b) Elaboration c) Specification d) Negotiation
575. Product requirements, Organizational requirements, & External requirements are example of
a) Domain requirements b) Non-functional requirements
c) Functional requirements d) None of the above
576. Which of the following models collectively form the design model?
a) Data design, Architectural design, Interface Design, Component Design
b) Data design, Architectural design, System design, Program design
c) Architectural design, Interface Design, Functional design, Class design
d) None of the above
577. Cohesion is --
a) Qualitative indication of the degree to which a module focuses on just one thing
b) Qualitative indication of the degree to which a module is connected to other modules & to outside
world
c) Both 1 & 2
d) None of the above
579. Coupling is --
a) Qualitative indication of the degree to which a module focuses on just one thing
b) Qualitative indication of the degree to which a module is connected to other modules & to outside
world
c) Both 1 & 2
d) None of the above
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580. Validation process checks –
a) Whether we are building the right product b) Whether we are building the product
c) Whether we are building the product right d) Whether we are testing the product
581. Smoke testing is an ----- testing approach, which is used when software is being developed
a) Unit testing b) Regression testing c) Integration testing d)Acceptance testing
584. ---- provides the maximum number of test cases that will be required to guarantee that every statement in
program has been executed at least once.
a) Independent Program paths b) Cyclamate complexity
c) Graph Matrices d) None of the above
586. Consider the following data for the effort spent on various tasks in project
a) Coding - 120
Self-code walk-thru - 04
Code review - 06
Rework (Bug fixing) - 37
Training - 02
Tool Development - 10
Testing - 35
Preparing check list - 01
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b) Framework that helps to make reasonable estimates of resources, cost and schedule
c) Only the list of risks identified
d) None of the above
607. What manifests in the patterns of choices made among alternatives ways of expressing
a) An algorithm is b) A data flow diagram
c) Coding style d) A data dictionary
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614. Find the activity which is not part of version management
a) Controlled change b) Storage management c) Coding standard
619. Doing what is said one would do, is the definition for
a) Reliability b) Quality c) Software plan
622. Which of the following types of test plans is most likely to arise from the Requirements specification
process?
a) System integration test plan b) Acceptance test plan
c) Sub-system integration test plan d) Module test plan
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635. Differentiate between Decision Tree and Decision Table.
636. Give the coding guidelines.
637. Give the debugging approaches.
638. Why Software doesn’t wear out.
639. Explain about Dos and Don’ts of good coding style.
640. Give the contents of SRS document.
641. Explain briefly about SEI CMM.
642. What is feasibility study? Explain about various aspects of feasibility.
643. Define normalization and explain about first three normal forms.
644. What is changeover? What are the types of changeover?
645. Differentiate between Black Box and White Box testing
646. Explain about Interview as a Fact Finding technique
647. What are the various factors that influence software cost-estimation?
648. Write a short note on structured charts.
649. Explain about the various concepts of a system.
650. Give Salient features of CASE tools.
651. Explain about various stages of software Development according to classical life cycle.
668. Model the data processing which might take place in an electronic mail system that can Send and receive
messages from remote computers.
669. Discuss the advantages of incremental model as compared to water fall model.
670. Can a program be correct and still not be reliable? Explain
671. Discuss how you would approach the top-down design of a software system.
672. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using the "ant bugging" technique to Provide built-in
debugging assistance to uncover errors.
673. Discuss at least three reasons that would highlight the importance of software Maintenance.
674. Compare and contrast the white-box and black-box testing methods.
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675. Discuss the importance of documentation in software development.
676. Discuss the pros and cons of the COCOMO model for cost estimation
677. Make a structure chart for the following:
678. Given an array of integers, arrange them in ascending order using quick sort method.
679. Develop a software review checklist for use by the designer and the implementer.
What issues are important to each of these roles?
680. Develop a high-level data flow diagram and a structure chart for an airline reservation System.
681. Develop an architecture and also flow diagrams (up to 2 levels) for the following:
“Consider the automation of the transaction at the registration counter of a post-office. A Scanner is
provided to capture the "from" and "to" addresses from the envelop. The clerk uses your software to
issue receipts to the customers. This is expected to reduce the
Waiting time at the counter.”
Suppose that a 50-KDSI (Thousands of delivered source instructions) application
Program can be purchased for Rs. 2,000,000/-. Assuming that your in-house programmers Cost Rs.30, 000/-
per programmer month (including overheads), would it be more cost Effective to buy the product or to build
it?
A Manager decides to use the reports of code inspections as an input to the staff
Appraisal process. These reports show who made and who discovered program errors. Is
This ethical managerial behaviour? Would it be ethical if the staff were informed in advance?
That this would happen? What difference might it make to the inspection process?
682. Derive a set of test cases for a code which sorts arrays of integers. Draw a flow graph for an algorithm of
your choice and derive its cyclamate complexities
A university intends to procure an integrated student management system holding all Details of registered
students including personal information, courses taken, and Examination marks achieved. The alternative
approaches to be adopted are either Buy a database management system and develop an in-house system
based on this database.
a) Buy a system from another university and modify it to local requirements
b) Join a consortium of other universities, establish a common set of requirements and
c) Contract a software home to develop a single system for all of the universities in the Consortium.
Identify two possible risks in each of these strategies.
683. Consider the error messages produced by MS-DOS or UNIX or WINDOWS operating System. Suggest how
they might be improved.
684. Develop at least two levels of procedural abstraction for implementing the savings bank Transactions in a
banking system.
685. Draw a flow graph for the following and find its cycloramic complexity: Given 1000numbers, arrange them
in ascending order using any one of the sorting methods.
686. Design test cases for the following problem: Given a quadratic equation, solve it to find the roots.
687. Oxford College of Commerce is an undergraduate college. The college receives sufficiently large number of
application for admission to FY, SY and TY B. Com. Classes.
689. The college has decided to computerize its admission procedure. The standard admission
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Procedure requires adhering to the norms set by concerned government agencies, the University and the
college administration. The procedure also involves disbursing admission Forms at a cost, collecting duly
completed forms, preparing merit lists and admitting the Students as per norms, notifying student,
collecting fees, preparing and submitting reports to concerned authorities.
By carefully studying the case you are required to solve the following:
a) Draw a context level and first level DFD b) Identify the various reports required
690. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using the "antibugging" technique to provide built-in
debugging assistance to uncover errors.
691. Contract a software home to develop a single system for all of the universities in the Consortium. Identify
two possible risks in each of these strategies.
692. Draw a flow graph for the following and find its cyclomatic complexity: Given 1000numbers, arrange them
in ascending order using any one of the sorting methods.
693. Design test cases for the following problem: Given a quadratic equation, solve it to find the roots.
695. Prepare Context diagram for the saving bank deposit and withdrawal system in a nationalized bank. Also
draw the first level DFD for the same.
696. Rational College of Commerce is an undergraduate College. The college receives sufficiently large number
of applications for admission to FY, SY and TY. B com classes.
The college has decided to computerize its admission program. The standard admission Procedure requires
adhering to the norms set by concerned government agencies, the University and the college
administration. The procedure also involves disbursing admission Forms at a cost, collecting duly
completed forms, preparing merit list and admitting students
As per norms, notifying students, collecting fees, preparing and submitting reports to the concerned
authorities
You are required to identify:
(i)Entities:
a) Processes b) Data flows c) Data Stores
691. Which SDLC Model is best suited when only part/some of the requirements are known at the beginning
a) Waterfall Model b) Incremental Model c) Prototype Model d) Spiral Model
692. In case of Bank, what will be the relationship between "Opening of Account" use case and "Deposit" Use
case?
a) Uses b) Extends c) Includes d) None of the above
693. _______is an entity that is extemal to the system & directly interacts with the system and deriving some
benefits from the interaction.
a) Actor b) Use case c) Class d) Relationship
695. Equivalence Petitioning is a test case generation technique, for_______ kind of Testing Technique.
a) Static Testing b) White Box Testing c) Black Box Testing d) Red Box Testing
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696. In the Project Management Triangle. Which parameter is most important?
a) Time b) Scope c) Cost d) All of the above are equally important
699. Which one of the following is the process of factoring the design module?
a) Software re-engineering b) Configuration management
c) Software maintenance d) software Refactoring
700. Which of the following process is not part of Project Risk Management?
a) Risk Identification b) Effort estimation
c) Risk Analysis d) Risk Response Development
703. Which of the following are objectives for formal technical reviews?
704. Allow senior staff members to correct errors Uncover errors in software work products
705. Assess programmer productivity determining who introduced an error into a program
708. Software risk impact assessment should focus on consequences affecting ______
a) Planning resources oost & schedule b) Marketability oost & personnel
c) Business, technology & process d) Performance support, oost & schedule
710. To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements or not.
This is known as static process.
a) Validation b) Quality Assurance c) Verification d) Quality Control
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a) That is unlikely to be completed on sdtedule b) That is unlikely to cause a failure
c) That is likely to be fault-free c) That is likely to be liked by the users
712. To test a function, the programmer has to write a passes it test data.
a) Stub b) Proxy c) Driver d) None of the above
714. When a new testing tool is purchased.it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
715. Pick up IEEE the best definition of software engineering?
a) Set of computer programs. Procedures and possibly associated document conoemed with the operation of
data processing.
b) Software engineering is Design Coding Development
c) Software engineering implement a single independent function
d) Software engineering is the establishment and use of sound engineering practice in order to produce
economical and reliable software that will perform n efficiently on real machine
717. The identification of stakeholders and user classes in requirements engineering is carried out in
a) Elicitation b) Analysis c) Verification d) Specification
718. Which among the following gives a chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests?
a) Test incident report b) Test log c) Test summary report d) None of the above
721. Formal Reviews of an individual product used to evaluate correctness based on its input criteria are
a) Inspections b) Checkpoint review c) Testing d) Walkthrough
722. Which of the below listed processes is not part of Project Planning
a) Identify Constraints b) Identify Algorithms c) Identify Risks d) Identify Milestones
724. Risk analysis and 4gI RAD prototyping is added to the waterfall model to form a model.
a) Spiral b) Prototyping c) V-shaped d) RAD
725. Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process model for software
development?
a) Inception phase b) Elaboration phase c) Consumption phase d) Validation phase
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726. Which of the following is not one of Hookers core principles of software engineering practice?
a) All design should be as simple as possible, but no simpler
b) A software system exists only to provide value to its users.
c) Pareto principle (20% of any product requires 80% of the effort)
d) Remember that you produce others will consume
727. Which of the following is valid reason(s) for collecting customer feedback concerning delivered software?
a) Allows developers to make changes to the delivered increment
b) Delivery schedule can be revised to reflect changes
c) Developers can identify dwanges to incorporate into next increment
d) All of the above
728. Which of the following is not generally considered a player in the software process?
a) Customers b) End-users c) Sales people d) Project managers
733. Whatmanifestsinthepatternsofchoicesmadeamongalternativeswaysofexpressinganalgorithmis
a) A data flow diagram b) Coding style c) A data dictionary
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Agile Software Development
1. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions b) Working software c) Customer collaboration
d) Responding to change e) All of the mentioned
7. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True b) False
9. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development (ASD)?
a) Analysis, design, coding b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative
development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning
10. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs today than worry about
features that might be needed in the future.
a) True b) False
UML – 1
1. Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view?
a) Collaboration b) Use case c) State chart d) Activity
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2. What type of core-relationship is represented by the symbol in the figure below?
5. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modelled system at a specific time?
a) Sequence Diagram b) Collaboration Diagram c) Class Diagram d) Object Diagram
7. Structure diagrams emphasize the things that must be present in the system being modelled.
a) True b) False
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UML – 2
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3. Which UML diagram is shown below?
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5. Which UML diagram’s symbols are shown below?
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7. Which UML diagram is shown below?
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mentioned
6. Exhaustive testing is
a) always possible b) practically possible c) impractical but possible d) impractical and impossible
8. Behavioural testing is
a) White box testing b) Black box testing c) Grey box testing
10. Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software
a) KLOC b) Function Points c) Size of module
3. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model b) Prototyping Model c) RAD Model d) Waterfall Model
6. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design b) Code soon becomes unfix-able & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible d) It scales up well to large projects
10. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model b) Prototyping Model c) RAD Model d) both b & c
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Function Oriented Software Design
1. Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design.
a) It consists of module definitions b) Modules represent data abstraction c) Modules support functional
abstraction
9. A function-oriented design focuses on the entities in the system rather than the data processing activities.
a) True b) False
Project Management
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2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True b) False
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management b) Manager life cycle c) Project Management Life Cycle d) All of the mentioned
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development
project?
a) Travel and training costs
b) Hardware and software costs
c) All of the mentioned
b) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management b) Change management c) Version management d) System management
10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external quality
attribute.
a) True b) False
Project Planning
1. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size b) Planning process c) Project complexity d) Degree of structural uncertainty
3. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements gathering that can
be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD b) CLASS c) FAST d) None of the mentioned
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5. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is known as
a) Association b) Decomposition c) Planning process d) All of the mentioned
7. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates.
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars.
8. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation approach in
their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models
10. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical data and systematic
techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True b) False
6. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases, regardless of application
area, project size, or complexity namely the__________ phase which focuses on what, the_________ phase which
focuses on how and the_________ phase which focuses on change.
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i. support
ii. development
iii. definition
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 1, 3 c) 3, 2, 1 d) 3, 1, 2
7. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report?
a) Communication b) Planning c) Modelling & Construction d) Deployment
8. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another project.
a) True b) False
9. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process framework activities and help
team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk?
a) Re-usability management b) Risk management c) Measurement d) User Reviews
e) Software quality assurance
10. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase. Which one of the following is not one that falls into
such category?
a) Translation b) Correction c) Adaptation d) Prevention
4. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice. What does static perspective do?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted.
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process.
c) It shows the phases of the model over time.
5. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working program.
a) True b) False
6. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system?
a) Transition b) Elaboration c) Construction d) Inception
7. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software engineering?
a) Software Verification b) Software Validation c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution e) Software specification
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9. The longer a fault exists in software
a) the more tedious its removal becomes b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected d) All of the mentioned
11. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.
i. Test
ii. Design
iii. Install
iv. Specification
v. Manufacture
vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3 b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6 c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6 d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
Requirement Engineering
6. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play.
a) True b) False
8. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
a) True b) False
9. Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the
right one.
a) True b) False
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10. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following?
a) Entry level personnel b) Middle level stakeholder c) Managers d) Users of the software
Software Metrics
2. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?
a) Market b) Product c) Technology d) People
7. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA?
a) Number of user Input b) Number of user Inquiries c) Number of external Interfaces d) Number of errors
9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as
a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency) b) Function points analysis c) Control Chart d) All of the mentioned
Software Maintenance – 1
1. Software Maintenance includes
a) Error corrections b) Enhancements of capabilities c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities d) All of the
mentioned
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2. Maintenance is classified into how many categories?
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
3. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls under which category of
software maintenance?
a) Corrective b) Adaptive c) Perfective d) Preventive
7. Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest-all” technique. How many selective retest
techniques are there?
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
8. Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to produce a different output
than its original version?
a) Coverage b) Minimization c) Safe
9. ______________ measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle realistic applications.
a) Efficiency b) Precision c) Generality d) Inclusiveness
10. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?
a) Efficiency b) Precision c) Generality d) Inclusiveness
Software Maintenance – 2
1. The process of generating analysis and design documents is known as
a) Software engineering b) Software re-engineering c) Reverse engineering d) Re-engineering
4. What does ACT stands for in In Boehm model for software maintenance?
a) Actual change track b) Annual change track c) Annual change traffic d) Actual change traffic
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6. What are legacy systems?
a) new systems b) old systems c) under-developed systems d) none of the mentioned
10. How many stages are there in Iterative-enhancement model used during software maintenance?
a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five
2. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding
justifiable change?
a) Baselines b) Source code c) Data model d) None of the mentioned
4. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the
software process?
a) Change control b) Version control c) SCIs d) None of the mentioned
5. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally
not considered during review?
a) Software configuration audit b) Software configuration management c) Baseline d) None of the mentioned
6. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and
linking these to create an executable system?
a) System building b) Release management c) Change management d) Version management
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8. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
a) Configuration item identification b) Risk management c) Release management d) Branch management
9. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in
a) ISO 9000 b) CMM c) CMMI d) All of the mentioned
10. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been
released for customer use?
a) System building b) Release management c) Change management d) Version management
2. Which of the following process is concerned with analysing the costs and benefits of proposed changes?
a) Change management b) Version management c) System building d) Release management
4. Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover
software problems?
a) Agile method b) Parallel compilation method c) Large systems method d) All of the mentioned
10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “The creation of a new code line from a version in an
existing code line”?
a) Branching b) Merging c) Code line d) Mainline
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Risk Management
1. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client b) Investor c) Production team d) Project manager
2. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk b) Project risk c) Business risk d) Programming risk
3. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of organizational management
with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover b) Technology change c) Management change d) Product competition
4. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on which the system is built
is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change b) Product competition c) Requirements change d) None of the mentioned
5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
a) Risk monitoring b) Risk planning c) Risk analysis d) Risk identification
6. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed?
a) People risks b) Technology risks c) Estimation risks d) Organizational risks
7. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the
system?
a) Managerial risks b) Technology risks c) Estimation risks d) Organizational risks
8. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize information
hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time b) Organizational restructuring c) Requirements changes d) None of the
above
9. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies b) Minimization strategies c) Contingency plans d) All of the above
10. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important project management tasks.
a) True b) False
2. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control?
a) Provide for flexible interaction b) Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
c) Show technical internals from the casual user d) Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the
screen
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3. Which of the following is not a user interface design process?
a) User, task, and environment analysis and modelling b) Interface design c) Knowledgeable, frequent users
d) Interface validation
4. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be significant.
a) short-term memory b) shortcuts c) objects that appear on the screen d) all of the mentioned
7. A software engineer designs the user interface by applying an iterative process that draws on predefined design
principles.
a) True b) False
8. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the software?
a) Design model b) user’s model c) mental image d) system image
10. What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system, coupled with all supporting information
that describe system syntax and semantics?
a) Mental image b) interface design c) system image d) interface validation.
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