Chapterwise Multichoice Objective Questions: cHAPTER - 1
Chapterwise Multichoice Objective Questions: cHAPTER - 1
1260
cHAPTERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1261
Q. 9. In a mildly water scarce area, the drip irrigation could be preferred for
growing:
(a) wheat (b) fodder
(c) rice (d) fruits and vegetables.
Q. 10. The most suitable water for irrigation is :
(a) C 1-S 1 (b) C 2-S 2
(c) C 4--S l (d) C 1-S 4.
Q. 11. Addition of gypsum to thefrrigation water is recommended to overcome dif-
ficulties posed by :
(a) highly saline irrigation supplies -
(b) irrigation supplies containing high quantities of sodium
(c) irrigation supplies containing heavy sediment
(d) all of the above.
Q. 12. The electrical conductivity of medium saline water (C 2) at 25°C is of the
order of:
(a) 50 to 100 µntcm (b) 100-250 µntcm
':(c) 250 to 750 µntcm (d) 750-1500 µntcm.
Q. 13. The Sodium Absorption Ratio of an irrigation water is 8. This water will be
called :
(a) low sodium water (b) medium sodium water
(c) high sodium~water (d) none of the above.
Q. 14. High sodium content in irrigation water is :
(a) generally good ·
(b) generally bad
(c) generally good, but bad for a few crops
(d) generally bad, but good .for a few crops.
c---cQ~-~15. Salinity-in- irrigation wate10 is measured by--: -- --- ---- __ _
(a) SAR value (b) Electrical-conductivity value
(c) pH-value (d) none of the above.
Q. 16. The time required to irrigate a strip of area 0.203 hectare by a stream dis-
charge of 0.043 cumec, to provide an average depth of 6.35 cm to the field,
is : (assume average rate of infiltration to be 5 cmlh)
(a) 2.75 hour (b) 1.35 hour
(c) 1.5 hour _ (d) 1.90 hour. (Calcutta University)
Q. 17. -If the concentration of Na, Ca, and Mg in a water sample are -345, 60 and
18 mg/1, respectively, then the Sodiam Absorption Ratio (SAR) of this water
will be : · ·
(a) 5 (b) 10.
-~--- (c) 39 --"- -"-- (ef) _55.
CHAPTER2
Q. 18. With_ the increase in supplied irrigation water, the yield of crops:
(a) increases continuously
1 ·1
(b) decreases continuously I
(c) increases up to a certain limit, and then becomes constant
(ti) increases up to a certain limit, and the~ decreases.
ii,' 1262 IR.RIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 19. The most expected crops in a hot arid district of Rajasthan State in India,
in. the month of September, are:
(a) Rice and Sugarcane (b) Bazra and Maize
(c) Wheatand Maize (d) Tobacco and Cotton.
Q. 20. The maximum irrigation requirement of Rice crop is exhibited by its :
(a) maximum delta value (b) maximum duty value -
(c) minimum duty value (d) none of the above.
Q. 21. The crop among the following, which is expected to have the maximum duty,
is
(a) Wheat (b) Rice
(c) Sugarcane (d) Cotton.
Q. 22. Kor-Watering is the irrigation water supplied to a crt>p :
(a) at the time of its sowing
·(b) just before bar.vesting
( c) about three weeks after sowing
(d) about three weeks before harvesting.
Q. 23._ The duty of irrigation water for a given crop is maximum :
(a) on the field
(b) at the.head of the main canal
(c) at the head of the water-course
(d) none of them.
Q. 24. The important Govt. reference made to the 'duty for a crop,' is usually re-
lated to its duty :
(a) on the field
(b) at the head of the main .canal
(c) at the head of the water course
(d) none of them.
Q. 25. The duty at the end point of a canal minor,-where the·Gort control usually
ceases, is called : ·
(a) duty on field {b) outlet duty
(c) flow duty (d) storage duty.
Q. 26. The first important watering of crpps is u~u~lly called :
(a) paleo watering (b) kor-watering
· (c) crop-watering (d) ·ai1 of the above.
Q. 27. The crop sequence, which cannot serve any useful purpose ill 'Crop rotation',
is :
(a) Wheat-Juar-Gram (b) Rice-Gram-Rice
(c) Cotton-wheat-Gram (d) Rice-Wheat-Cotton.
Q. 28. The optimum depth of kor watering for rice is about :
(a) 25 cm · · · · · ~b) 19 cm
Q. 39. The moisture held by a well drained soil against gravity drainage, by the
force of surface tension between the soil grains and water drops; is called :
(a) field capacity water (b) hygroscopic water
(c) capillary water (d) water of adhesion.
Q. 40. Permanent wilting poilit moisture content for a crop represents the :
(a) hygroscopic water (b) capillary water
(c) field capacity water (d) none of the above.
Q. 41. Available moisture for a crop is equal to :
(a) field capacity moisture content-Wilting point moisture content
(b) field capacity moisture content-hygroscopic moisture content.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above.
Q. 42•. The optimum moisture content (m.c.) which is retained in the root zone of a
soil, before applying irrigation water, is :
(a-) equal to : (the field capacity m.c.-wilting point m.c.)
(b) less than : (the field capacity m.c.-wilting point m.c.)
(c) more than : (the field capacity m.c.-wilting point m.c.)
· (d) may be more or less than : (the field capacity m.c.-wilting point m.c.)
depending upon the crop grown. ·
Q. 43. Irrigation water is usually applied.to the fields, when the available moisture
in the root zone of the crop, gets depleted by :
(a) 0-10% · (b) 10---25%
(c) 50---80% (d) 100%.
Q. 44. Frequency ofirrigation is dependent upon the type of :
(a) soil and crop (b) soil and climate
(c) soil, crop, and climate (d) soil, crop, climate, and fertilizer.
Q. 45.* A soil has a field capacity of 25%, permanent wilting point of 15%, and
·· - specific weight of 14.7-kN/m3.-If the root zone depth-of theccgrown crop is 90
cm, then its available moisture holding capacity is
(a) 10 cm . (b) 13.5 cm
(c) 16.67 cm (d) 20 cm.
Q. 46. After how many days will you recommend supplying irrigation water to a
crop haVing 0.8 m root zone depth, and grown in a soil having field capacity
=
of 30%, permanent wilting 15%, and density of soil =
1•.5 gm/cc ? The
consumptive use for the crop is 5 mm/day, and only 60% of available moisture
is permitted to be availed.
(a) 9 days (b) 15 days
(c) 21 days (d) 40 days.
Q. 47.* If the irrigation efficiency at a 10 ·hectare field is 80%, and the conveyance
· losses from the canal outlet is 10%, then the volume of water required at the
canal outlet, for supplying 10 cm water-depth in the field, will be-equal to;
(a) 10,390 kL (b) 7200 kL
(c) 13,900 kL (d) 1,39,000 k1:--.
Q. 48. The A (hi m) for a crop, having quantity duty D (in ha/M. cum), and base
period B (in days) is given by :
(a) Li= 8.64B (b) Li= 864B
D .D
(c) Li= ~
1
(d) Li=
10
:°.
*Hints are given at the end of the chapter; for solving starred questions.
CBAPTERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1265
Q. 49. The ratio of the water st~red in the root zone during irrigation, to the water
needed in the root zone prior to irrigation, is called :
(a) efficiency of water use
(b) efficiency of water storage
(c) efficiency of water application
(d) efficiency of water .conveyance.
Q. 50. If the irrigation water applied to a field penetrates uniformly throughout,
then the water distribution efficiency is :
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 0.5
(d) none of thf'.m, as more data is required to ascertain it. ·
Q. 51. The efficiency of water application does not depend upon :
(a) climatic conditions
( b) type of the soil
(c) :method of application
(d) geometry of the conveyance system.
Q. 52. The efficiency of water conveyance does not depend upon :
(a) climatic conditions
(b) geometry bf the conveyance system.
(c) nature of the boundary of the conveyance system
(d) method of application of water.
Q. 53. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Rice-Kharif (b) Wheat-Rabi
(c) Barley-Kharif (d) Potatoe-Rabi.
CHAPTER3
Q. 54. If the intensity of irrigation for Kharif is 45% and that for Rabi is 60%;
then the annual intensity of irrigation, is :
(a) 60% (b) 100%
(c) 105% (d) none of them.
Q. 55.* If in a certain irrigation project, and in a given year, 72% and 56% of the
culturable command ·remained unirrigated in Kharif and Rabi seaso.ns,
respectively; then the intensity of irrigation for that year and for that project,
would be:
(a) 36% (b) 64%
(c) 72% (d) ·128%.
Q. 56. The gross· irrigated area cannot exceed the cultivable commanded area :
(a) Correct (b) Incorrect.
Q. 57.* The area, on whicli crops are grown in a particular season, is called :
(a) culturable commanded area (CCA)
-- -.. -- ( b) gross sown area ( c) ·net ·sowti area - - - - -- ____ -.:_,_···-··--·---- -
(d) none of the above.
Q. 58. * The CCA for a particular State is 5 Mha; out of which, 4.5 Mha is being
sown in Rabi season and 2.5 Mha in Kharif season. These areas are being
irrigated to the extent of 90% and 80%, respectively. The annual intensity of
irrigation for this State is :
(a) 80.7% (b) 85%
(c) 100% (d) 121%.
1266 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 59. In plain areas, the irrigation canals are usually aligned along :
(a) ridge lines (b) contour lines
(c) valley lines (d) across the contours.
Q. 60. A ridge canal is also called a :
(a) watershed canal (b) contour canal
(c) side slope canal (d) 'none of the above.
Q. 61. The canal, which may frequently encounter cross-drainage WOJ:'.kS, will be a:
(a) watershed canal (b) contour canal
(c) side slope canal (d) none of these.
Q. 62. In- a hilly dist~ict, where watershed line is very high as compared to the
head-works, which type of alignment you would recommend for a proposed
canal, if cross-drainage is to be avoided :
(a) canal along the ridge lint:
(b) canal along the contour line
(c) =canal across the contour lines
(d) none of them.
Q. 63. The canal, which can irrigate only on one side, is a :
(a) watershed canal (b) contour canal
(c) side slope canal (d) none of them.
Q. 64. The capacity of an irrigation canal is 'ilsually controlled by :
(a) average kharif demand
(b) average rabi demand
(c) kor demand of rabi crops
(d) kor demand of kharif crops.
Q. 65. The optimum kor water depth for a kharif crop is 19 cm with an allowed
kor water period of 3 weeks, the outlet discharge factor for this crop will be:
(a) 955 ha/cumec (b) 782 ha/cumec ___________ _
(c) 860 fia/cumec - -- - (df noI1e--o-ftb.~~~--------- - - -
Q. 66.* If the discharge required for different crops grown in a field is 0.4 cumecs,
and the capacity factor and time factor are 0.8 and 0.5, the design discharge
for the distributary will be :
(a) 0.80 cumecs (b) 0.16 cumecs
(c) 1 cumecs (d) 1.24 cumecs.
Q. 67. * An irrigation canal is to be designed to deliver 6.25 cumecs to meet the peak
Rabi demand of a total of 5100 hectares of cropped area. The estimated canal
losses are 25% of the head discharge. The duty on capacity of this canal will
be:
(a) 816 ha/cumec (b) 1020 ha/cumec
(c) 653 ha/cumec (d) 612 ha/cumec.
·- ··Q~ 68~ 'Duty. on capacitY'-1s-&lso-Ca11e(J ·:~- ~ ---- ·- -· - --
(a) outlet duty (b) capacity factor
(c) full supply coefficient (d) ·quantity duty.
Q. 69. * The 8000 hectares of gross commanded area of an irrigation project includes
20% of reserved forests, usar lands, roads, etc. The pastures and fallow lands
are 10%. If the intensity of irrigation is 50%, the area to be irrigated is :
(a) 4000 hectares (b) 3200 hectares
(c) 2800 hectares (d) none of them.
CHAPTERWISE MULTICHOICEOBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1267
Q. 70. The discharge carried by a minor distributary is usually less than :
(a) 0.5 cumecs (b) 1 cumecs
(c) 2.5 cumecs (cf) none of them.
Q. 71. The discharge carried by a major distriblitary, is usually up to :
. (a) 5 cumecs (b) 10 cumecs
(c) 30 cumecs (cf) 50 cumecs.
Q. 72. Earthen irrigation canals, when aligned curvilinear in plan, must be on gentle
curves. This adopted curve radius, should be :
(a) more for canal carrying.more discharge
(b) less for canal carrying more d\scharge
(c) equal for all discharges.. ·
Q. 73. The canal which is not supposed to do any irrigation is called :
(a) main canal (b) water course
(c) m~jor distributary (cf) minor distributary.
Q. 74. Unlined irrigation canals, when aligned on curvilinear routes in plan, will
have to be pitched on :
(a) '.bQth sides (b) concave side only
(c) convex side only (b) none of the above.
CHAPTER4 I;
Q. 75. The bed of an alluvial channel along the flow will always be :
(a) flat (b). wavy I!
(c) duned and rippled (cf) all of the above are possible.
Q. 76. The bed form, which is not expected in an alluvial channel with sediment
motion, is :
(a) rippled ( b) meandered
(c) duned (cf) anti duned.
- -- ··--
a
~-Q: 77. The bed of an alluvial channel carrying silted water at high velocity is
expected to be : ' ·
(a) rippled (b) duned
(c) flat (cf) wavy.
Q. 78. The anti-dunes develop on beds of alluvial streams, when Froude number is: i
I
I
I
(a) 0 · (b) 0.5
(c) 1 (cf) 1.2 ..
Q. 79.* The critical shear stress 't, at which incipient motion of sediment takes place,
is proportional to : ·
(a) WI (b) d
(c) d 2 where d is grain size (UPSC Engg. Services)
Q. 80.* In order to ensure that no scourjI_!g__!!l_lces place_ in the_J>ed_9f_1:LchanneLof
--~-bea· slope an
·s, -coiiStructecriii incoherent alluvium of size 'd' cm, the flow
velocity should be restricted to :
(a) 4.85 · d 112 • s-
116
a s
(b) 4.85. 112 • 116 - ·
(cf) 0.48·d ·~ •
112 116 112 116
(c) 0.48 d • S
Q. 81. * Manning's rugosity coefficient is proportional to :
(a} WI . Cb) d
(c) dll6 (cf) dV3
(e) d312 ; where dis representative grain dia of bed surface.
1268 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 82. The finer sediment which does not originate from the stream bed, but
originates from the catchment area, is best called as the :
(a) bed load (b) suspended load
(c) wash load (d) none of these.
Q. 83. The force exerted by the flowing water on the sediment particles to-cause
their motion, is called :
(a) buoyant force (b) tractive force
( c) kinematic force (d) eddy force.
Q. 84. The minimum size of sediment that may remain stable in an alluvial channel,
carrying discharge intensity q, with hydraulic radius R, and bottom slope S,
is :
,_ -v -v
..
2 2
(c) 'tc -'tc· 1- .
sin <!>
2
,
(d) 'tc ='tc·
sin <I>
1+ . 2
SID 0 SID 8
where<!>= angle of repose of soil
-8 = tan~ 1 (*)
Q. 88. The Lacey's and Kennedy's empirical silt theories for designing irrigation
channels in Indian non-cohesive alluvial soils, are meant to ensure :
(a) no scouring in the channel
(b) ilo silti~g from out of the sedimented water eqtering the channel from
the headworks · ,
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
CflAPTERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1269
J°·
Q. 89. * The critical velocity V0 = 0.55 · m · 64, as suggested by Kennedy for design
of trapezoidal irrigation channels, is :
(a) the maximum permissible velodty
(b) the minimum permissible velocity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above.
Q. 90. Critical velocity Ratio for use in Kennedy's theory, is :
(a) less than I (b) more than I
(c) equal to I (d) all of the above.
Q. 91. The Garret's diagrams are based on :
(a) Lacey's theory (b) Khosla's theory
(c) Bligh's theory (d) Kennedy's theory.
Q. 92. The critical velocity ratio was introduced in Kennedy's equation of critical
velocity to take into account the effect of :
(a) channel cross-section (b) climatic conditions
(c) silt grade (d) roughness of bed.
Q. 93. Thi; most important shape parameter in sediment analysis ~s :
(a)' sphericity (b) shape factor · ·
(c) roundness (d) form factor.
Q. 94. Lacey's silt factor is proportional to :
(a) -ftI (b) ·d
2
(c) d ; where dis the grain size.
(U.~.S.C.; Engg. Services)
Q. 95. In .mechanics of sediment transport, the parameter E= !l.
p (where Tl is eddy
viscosity and p is density) is called :
(a) kinematic viscosity (b) absolute viscosity
(c) eddy kinematic viscosity (d) none 0f the-above. -. ·--- .
Q. 96. In sediment analysis, the parameter which indicates the amount of wear the
grain particle has undergone during relative movement of silt and water, is
(a) sphericity (b) shape factor
(c) roundness (d) form factor.
Q. 97. The wetted perimeter P of a stable _channel is proportional to :
· (a) Q (b) {Q
2
(c) Q ; where Q is the discharge
(U.P.S.C.; Engg. Services)
Q. 98. The units of Shield's Entrainment function are :
(a) Newton/sq m (b) metre
(c) kg/m/sec (d) ·no dimensions.
--Q. 99. The cross-section of natural silt transporth_1g <:llannels tend to !!ave the sh11pe
of : - --- ·~-----
Q. 101. For all homogeneous fluids, the value of Von-Karman Universal Constant,.
is:
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 0.4 (d) 0.8.
Q. 102. The boµndary shear stress, 'to in an open channel is given by :
2
(a) 1f (b) y RS
CHAPTERS
Q, 124. A lined alluvial canal is best designed on the basis of :
(a) Lacey's formula (b) Kennedy's formula
(c) Manning's formula (d) Continuity equation.
Q. 125. Lining of irrigation channels :
(a) increases water logging (b) increases channel cross section
(c) increases command area (d) increases-cchances:of breaching.
Q. 126. * An irrigation canal is lined along its 20 m perimeter @ Rs. 40 ·per m 2 of
lining. The lining has resulted in net water saving @ 3 cumecs per M-m2 of
lined area, whereas each cumec of water increases the annual crop yield by
Rs. 4 lakh. Assuming the life of lining as 40 years, and the saving in main·
tenance cost to be balanced by the interest on investment, the benefit cost .·
ratio for the project is : ,'
(a) 1.2 (b) 1.0
(c) 0.83 (d) none of thei;n.
I
CHAPTERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1273
Q. 127. The--!_ransmission loss of valuable water in an ordinary alluvial irrigation
canal in a North Indian State, in cµmecs per million sq m of wetted area, is
of the order of :
(a) 0.5-0.6 (b) 2.5-3.5
(c) 25-35 (d) 250-350.
. Q. 128. A triangular lined canal. section with corners rounded by a -radius--equal to
the full supply depth of 4 m, is likely to have its hydraulic radius, as :
(a) 4 m
(b) 3 m
(c) 2m
(d) cannot be ascertained, as side slopes are not given.
Q. 129. * A standard triangular lined channel section with 1.5 H : 1 V side slopes has
a capacity of 26 cumecs and full supply depth of 2.5 m. The lining material
for the channel would be safe for withstanding mean velocity of :
(a) 1.8 mis (b) 2.0 mis
(c) 2.2 mis (d) none of them.
Q. 130. Safety ladders are provided in large irrigation canals, to :
(a) enable the fish to pass from one place to another
(b) enable the cattle to cross the canal
(c) enable the swimmers to get out of the canal
(d) provide safe exit to avoid accidental drowning.
Q. 131. The main advantage offered by Bentonite layer lining in an irrigation canal
is that :
(a) seepage loss is reduced
(b) cross-sectional area of the channel is reduced
(c) cost of land acquired is reduced
---- _ :-Cd) earthwork ~~c~v~ti~n_i_s reduced.
Q. 132. The free-board in lined canals is measured between :
(a) FSL and top of lining
(b) FSL and top of canal bank
( c) top of lining and top of. canal bank
(d) none of them.
133. The minimum recommended free-board for lined canals carrying discharge
of more than 10 cumecs is
(a) 0.3 m (b) 0~6 m
(c) 0.75 m (d) 1.2 m.
Q. 134. Under-drainage arrangements in canals are necessarily required in :
(a) unlined canals
(b) lined canals
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) lined canals constructed on sandy soils alone.
Q. 135. When elaborate under-drainage arrangements can not be provided, and the
soil strata is sandy, the preferred material for canal lining, would be :
(a) cement concrete lining
(b) soil cement lining
(c) brick lining
(d) shotcrete lining.
1274 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
CHAPTER6
Q. 138. A land is said to be water-logged, when :
(a) the land is necessarily submerged under standing water
(b) there is a flowing water over the land
(c) the pH value of the soil becomes as high as 8.5
(d) the soil pores in the root zone get saturated with water, either by the
· actual watertable or by its capillary fringe.
Q. 139. Water-logging of cropped land leads to reduced crop yields, due to :
(a) ill-aeration of root zone, causing lack of oxygen to plants
(b) growth of water-loving plants interfering with the sown crop
(c) surrounding of the root zone by the resultant saFne water, which extracts
the good water from plant roots by osmosis
(d) all of the above.
Q. 140. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :
(a) intensive irrigation should be avoided in areas susceptible to water-log-
ging
(b) extensive irrigation should -be -adopte& in -areas-susceptible-to cwater log-
ging
(c) lift irrigation can help alleviate water-logging susceptibilities.
(d) none of the above.
Q. 141. Which one of the followings does not contribute to wate.r logging?
(a) inadequate drainage
(b) seepage from unlined canals
(c) frequent flooding •
(d) excessive tapping of ground water.
Q. 142. Which one of the followings, is not a remedial measure for water logging?
(a) good drainage for irrigated land
(b) conjunctive use of water in the basin
(c) _Jining_of_canals _and water courses . - - -- - . . - -
·---------·--------- ---,
CHAPTER 7
250 Objective questions on this chapter are given in author's another
book, titled "Hydrology and Water Resources Engineering", which
deals with the subject matter in greater details than given in this book.
Students are advised to refer to that volume to be well versed with
the subject on 'Hydrology', which in itself, is a full subject, other than --
from 'Irrigation'.
CHAPTERS
Q. 154. Ghaggar river which appears and disappears in Rajasthan State of India
can be classified as a '
(a) meandering river (b) deltaic river
(c) virgin river (d) "none of the above.
Q. 155. The quantum of river discharge, which is large enough in magnitude as well
as in frequency, so as to _cause controlling effect on the river course and
cross-section, is known as :
- r (a) design discharge (b) median discharge
(c) maximum flood discharge
(d) dominant ciischarge.
Q. 156. The ratio of dominant discharge for a river to the peak discharge for that
river, is of the order of :
(a) 3/16 (b) 9/16
(c) 13/16 (d) 3/2.
Q. 157. The 'meander length' for an alluvial river is :
(a) the total channel length along its looped course
(b) the total channel length minus the direct straight length
(c) the axial length of one meander·
(d) the looped lengt..l1-ofone meander _-
(e) none of the above.
Q. l58. The 'meander belt' for an ailuvial river is :
(a) the total river width between embankments
(b) the width between the outer edges of fully developed meander loop,
measured perpendicular to river axis
(c) the same as meander width
(d) both (b) and (c).
Q. 159. For a meandering alluvial river, the ratio of its 'channel length' to 'direct
axial length' is always :
(a) 1 (b) > 1
(c) < 1
(d) may be less or more than 1, depending upon the_r_iver, __
Q. 160. In a meandering river, the ratio of 'arcual channel length' to 'direct axial
length', is called :
(a) tortuosity (b) inverse of tortuosity
(c) cut off ratio (d) none of these.
Q. 161. Tortuosity in a meandering river, is :
(a) 1 {b) < 1
(c) > 1 (d) none of these.
l~I
'.11
,''I
1:
Q. 189. Which one of the following effects produced by a Cut off in an alluvild river,
is Iiot an advantage to navigation : · .
(a) shortened route and elimination of sharp bends
(b) shortened travel time, particularly at low and moderate river stages
(c) increased water depth at low river stages
(d) lowering of the flood stages and flood periods.
CHAPTER9
Q. 190. Barrages constructed across alluyial rivers help_ in : _
(a) controlling floods (b) restoring river regime
(c) ensuring monsoon storage (d) _all of them.
Q. 191. Which one among the following is a correct choice in relation to a weir?
(a) it is helpful in diverting excess water to a river from a canal
(b) it does not cause any heading up of water on its upstream side
(c) it stores water by raised counter-balanced gates
(d) it increases the chances of floods in the upstream areas
(e) none of them.
Q. 192. If two canals are taken off from both the flanks of a river at the site of a
diversion headwork, then the number of undersluices and divide walls, will
respectively, be :
(a) 1 and 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 1 (d) 2 and'2.
Q. 193. Pinpoint the incorrect statement :
(a) the old Okhla barrage near Delhi has recently been replaced by a new
weir
(b) the cost of a barrage is usually higher than that of a weir
(c) a weir can pond up additional water on its upstream side, by using shut-
~ oo~~ -
(d) a barrage does not increase the susceptibility of flo?ding in upstream
areas
(e) none of them.
Q. 194. In a barrage project, a divide wall is provided to :
(a) separate the lower crest 'undersluice side' from the higher crest 'weir
side'
(b) separate the higher crest 'undersluice side' from the lower crest 'weir
side'
(c) keep the cross-currents away from the barrage body
(d) serve none of the above purposes.
Q. 195. A canal headworks has nothing to do with a :
_c __ ,_oc "-' :__-{a)' weir c -- - " -- =- - - -""'-(b}'guide-oaiilC=- ---- -- ---- --- -
(c) head regulator (d) safety ladder.
Q. 196. In a diversion headworks project, the canal head regulator is usually aligned:
(a) parallel to the barrage axis
(b) perpendicular to the divide wall
(c) parallel to the divide wall
(d) none of them.
CHAPTER WISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QuESTIONS 1281
'I
Q. 197. The choice among the following, which does not control the discharging
. capacity to be provided for the undersluices, is :
(a) that it should be at least double .the canal discharge
(b) that it should be about 10 to 15% of maximum flood discharge
(c) that it should be able to pass winter freshets and low floods. _ __ ___ ..... -
(d) that it should be equal to the dominant discharge of the river
(e) none of them.
/
(c) more cross-drainage works are required on the resulting canal network
(d) all of the above.
. .
1282 IRRIGATION ENGINEER.ING AND HYDRAULIC STRucnJ~
CHAPTER 10
Q. 205. If y 1 and y2 , are water depths upstream and downstream of a hydraulic ju
respectively, 1the loss of energy due to hydraulic jump is : ~
4 3;
(a) (y2-Y1) /4Y1Y2 (b) (y2-Y1) 4Y1Y2
2 •
(c) (y2 -y1) 14Y1Y1 (d) (y2 -y1)/4Y1Y2-
Q. 206. A hydraulic jump involves;
(a) subcritical flow (b) super critical flow
( c) critical flow (d) all of the above.
Q. 207. A hydraulic jump ensures. :
(a) change of subcritkal flow to super critical flow
(b) change of super critical flow to subcritical flow
(c) change of subcritical flow to critical flow
(d) change of super critical flow to critical flow.
Q.: 208. The phenomenon of hydraulic jump leads to :
(a) evolution of energy
(b) dissipation of energy
(c) sometimes (a) and sometimes (b)
(d) none of these.
Q. 209. If a vertical line is drawn on the specific energy curve, corresponding toa,
particular value of specific energy, then the two depth values are obtaine~ .
which are known as : ·
(a) initial and sequent depths (b) alternate depths
(c) conjugate depth_s (d) 'all of these.
Q. 210. The sequent depth is always :
(a) less than the alternate .subcritical depth
(b) more than_the.alternate_supcritical d.epth_
(c) equal to the alternate subcritical depth
(d) none of the above.
Q. 211. The formula connecting initial depth (y 1) with sequent depth (y2) in a'
hydraulic jump, is 'ven as :·
-Yi Yi 2:i_
(a) Y2 =1+ 4+ gy1
'1
2 2
-y1 Y1 !L.
(c) y =-+ -+
2 2 4 gyl
where q is the discharge intensity in the channel '
the section of the hydraulic jump.
· · - Q. 212; The hydraulic jump that develops usually .in !i!lr_rlilges .and canal hea
regulators, is of the type : - · --· -··-[
(a) strong jump (b) steady jump
(c) oscillating and weak jump (d) 'undular jump.
Q. 213. The formation of a hydraulic jump on a sloping glacis, as compared to ·
on a horizontal floor, is always :
I
(a) more definite and more efficient
(b) more definite and less efficient
(c) less definite and more efficient
(d) less definite and less efficient.
. CHAPTERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1283
CHAPTER 11
Q. 214. The safety of a hydraulic structure founded on pervious foundation can be
ensured : ·
''
(a) by providing sufficient length of its concrete floor ·1
(c) it refers to the uplift force caused by seeping water on the floor of the
hydraulic structure
(d) none of the above.
·I
Q. 216. While designing the downstream floor thickness of a weir, the ordinate of
the uplift pressure at a point is 2.8 m. If the relative density of concrete is
taken to be 2.4, then the minimum thickness of the floor to be provided for
resisting uplift pressure, without accounting safety factor, is :
(a) 1.16 m (b) 2 m
(c) 0.8 m (d) none of them.
Q. 217.* While designing the floor thickness of a weir in its upstream length, the
average head causing uplift is 2.8 m. The provided floor thickness here, with
suitable factor of safety, could best be :
(a) 2 m (b) 2.5 m
(c) 0.8 m (d) 4.5 m.
Q. 218. The critical exit gradient suggested in Khosla's theory of design of weirs and
barrages, is :
(a) less for more porous soils (b) more for more porous soils
(c) equal for all kinds of soils (d) none of them.
Q. 219.* Khosla's safe exit gradient for desi'gn of weirs will be the lowest for the soil
type:
(a) fine sand (b) coarse sand
(c) shingle and gravels (d) none of them.
Q. 220. Point out the incorrect statement in relation to the design of weirs and bar-
rages :
(a) Bligh's safe hydraulic gradient is the same as the Khosla's safe exit gradient
(b) the first streamline below a barrage section follows the bottom profile
of the section
_(c). eq\lip9ten_tial li_ne~ are the lines joining the points of equal residual
-- seepage head
(d) none of them.
Q. 221. Which one of the following factors, is not to be considered in the design of
1
',j
1284 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 222. Bligh's theory, as applied to the design of weirs and barrages on permeable
foundations, account for :
(a) hydrostatic forces only
(b) hydrodynamic forces only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of them.
Q ..223. Retrogression is :
(a) the back water effect of a weir
(b) the raising of the river -bed upstream of the weir, during initial years of
its construction
(c) the lowering of the river bed downstream of the weir, during initial years
of its construction
(d) none of them.
Q. 224. According to Khosla's theory of independent variables for seepage below a
hydraulic structure, the exit gradient, in the absence of a downstream sheet
pile, is :
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) oo (d) none of them.
Q. 225. The value of Khosla's critical exit gradient for usually met alluvial sandy
soils of our country, is about :
(a) 0 :.(15') 1
(c) oo
Q. 226. The value of Khosla's safe exit gradient for usually met alluvial river soils
· of o.ur country is : · ·
(a) 0 (b) .1
1 1
(c) oo (d) 4to6.
.J
CHAPTERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1285
Q. 229. The critical e~it gradient, as applicable to barrages, is expressed by :
(a) W (1 ~J (Ss - 1),
where w = uni~weightofwater
n =porosity of soil .
S= specific gravity of soil grains
. G-
(c) h-t1 (d) 1.33 (-G-
h J
~:
. where h =ordinate of hydraulic gradient line
above the top of the floor I '
Q. 236. For the head regulator, the most severe condition of uplift pressure on the
floor occurs when :
(a) the flow in the river is at flood level and canal is running at full supply
depth
(b) the canal runs dry and the river flow is at high flood level
(c) the canal runs at full supply depth and the river flow is at ponffleveT
(d) the canal runs dry and the river flow is at pond level. (GATE 1992)
CHAPTER
-- -- 12 -
.I
I
11
ciW"fERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1287
4. An, Inglis fall, also called a Baffie fall, can be recommended for all discharges,
24
Q. provided :
(a) the fall is more than 1.5 m
(b) the fall is undrowned
( c) the fall is either flumed or unflumed
(d) all of the above.
\"'
Q 245. The energy dissipation in a Sarda type canal drop is caused by :
' (a) hydraulic jump (b) friction blocks
(c) water pool (d) baffle wall.
Q. 246. !he best energy dissipation on the down-stream side ·or a canal drop;is-caused .
m:
(a) Sarda type fall (b) Glacis fall
(c) Ogee fall (d) Montague fall.
Q. 241. A baffie wall and a water pool to dissipate energy, was introduced as an
improvement, in a : ·
(a) Glacis fall (b) Montague fall
(c) Inglis fall (d) none of the above; -
Q. 248. A meter fall of 1.8 m height is to be constructed on a canal carrying a dis-
charge of 50 cumecs. The type of fall that you may recommend will be :
(a) Glacis fall (b) Montague fall
(c) Inglis fall (d) none of the above.
Q. 249. The energy dissipation in an Inglis fall is caused by :
(a) a pool of water (b). a hydraulic jump
(c) .neither (a) nor (b) (d) both (a) and (b).
Q. 250. The length of the water cistern to b~ provided in a Sarda type. fall, is : i
Q. 254. A trapezoidal crest in a Sarda type canal fall is preferred and used in com- I j
Q. 255. A cylinder fall, popularly known as syphon well drop, is suitable. and'
economical for :
(a) low discharges and low drops
(b) low discharges and high drops
(c) high discharges and low drops
(d) high discharges and high drops. -------. --~ --
Q. 256. In a baffle fall, the hydraulic. jump forms, on :
(a) the sloping glacis (b) the horizontal baffle platform
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) none of the above.
Q. 257. A baffle wall, as a sort of alow weir, is constructed in a baffl£ type {.>anal
· fall at the end of the baffle platform and before the water cistern, inorder to
head up water to its upstream side to :
(a) ensure formation of hydraulic jump to dissipate energy
(b) withstand actual impact of the high velocity jet to dissipate energy
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above.
CHAPTER-13
Q. 258. The canal regulator, which is constructed at a diversion headworks, is called
a :
(a) cross regulator · (b) distributary head regulator
(c) canal module (d) none of the above.
Q. 259. The gated regulator,,which is constructed in the parent canal near the site
of an offtaking canal, is called a : _
(a) canal head regulator (b) distributary head regulator
(c) cross regulator (d) none of the above.
Q. 260 .. A cross regUlator helps in
(a) increasing supply In the~parentchannel downstream
. (b) increasing supply in the .offtaking channel
(c) incre~sing water depth fo the parent canal, upstream
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) all (a), (b) and (c) above.
Q. 261. Point out the choice among the following, which is not a function of a dis-
tributary head regulator : ·
(a) it serves as a meter for measuring discharge in the offtaking canal
(b) it serves to control silt entry into the offtaking canal
(c) it helps in controlling and regulating supplies in the entire downstream
canal network.
(d) it helps in controlling supplies in the offtaking canal.
(e) none of the above.
Q. 262. Khosla's theory oflnd.ependent variables is used in the design of :
(a) weirs and barrages (b) cross regulators and head regulators
. (c) modules (d) both (a) and (b) above
(e) all (a), (b) and (c) above.
Q; 263. The channel constructed to bypass the excess w11ter entering a canal, is called
a: '
(a) canal module (b) canal siphQn
(c) canal escape (d) canal regulator.
CHAPTER.WISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE. QUESTIONS 1289
Q. 264. The crest level of a distributary head regulator is usually kept :
(a) the same as the upstream bed level of the parent canaJ
(b) the. same as the crest level of the cross-regulator .at the site.
(c) 0.3 to LO m higher than the upstream bed level of the parent canal
(d) none of the above.
Q. 265. The regulator constructed on a major distribufaij~iiearits junctfon -witli a
minor distributary, will be called a : ·
(a) distributary head regulator
(b) cross-regulator
(c) regulating .head
(cl) n01re ofthe above.
Q. 266. l'he::a~rangement made in a canal network, which acts as its safety valve, is:
(a) cattle crossing (b) canal ladder
(c) canal escape (cl) canal module.
-(2. 267. The arrangement provided in a canal to help the cattle safely cross the canal,
is called a :
(a) canal ladder (b) canal crossing
(c) cattle crossing (cl) all of the above.
Q. 268. Point out the correct statement :
(a) bed bars are constructed in canals at the toe of the canal lining, to prevent
slippage o,f lining. ~
(b) cattle crossings, besides their usual function of helping the cattle to cross
the canal, also provide safety t'o those who are swept away by currents.
(c) a canal escape helps in supplying irrigation water to the downstream
water courses
(d) none of the above.
Q. 269. Canal modules help in :
- (a) modulating and varying tlie canal discharge -=
(b) releasing desired quantity of water into the water courses
(c) releasing desired quantity of water i.nto the minors
(cl) all of the above.
Q. 270. Canal outlets are also called :
(a) canal escapes (b) canal modules
(c) canal offtakes (cl) canal openings.
Q. 271. The type of irrigation module, which makes .equitable distribution of water
more difficult, is a :
(a) non~modular outlet (b) se:mi-module
(c) rigid module (cl) none o~ them.
Q. 272. A good frngation module is the one, which :
----= (a) draws heavy silt from the canal _c_:_·_. - = - : - ·_-~~--·----'=-"'-
(b) draws clear water from the ·canal
(c) draws fair share of silt from the canal
(cl) none of the above.
Q. 273. If the rate of change.,of discharge from an. i_!'rigation outlet is equal to the
rate of cl1ange of discharge in the distributacy, tllen the outlet is called :
(a) flexible (b) proportional
(c) sensitive (cl) none of these.
1290 IRRIGATION ENGINE.BRING AND HYDRAULIC.STRUCTURES
.Q. 274. The rate of change of discharge through an irrigation outlet becomes equal
to the rate of change of water depth in the .channel, when its :
(a) flexibility is I (b) sensitiVity is 1
(c) setting is I (d) sensitivity is zero.
Q. 275. If the sensitivity of an irrigation module is i• then 50~
variation in canal
water depth will cause x% variation in outlet discharge, where x is :
(a) 100% (b) 50%
(c) 25% (d) 12.5%.
Q. 276. A fully modular canal outlet has its :
(a) sensitivity = I, and flexibility = I
(b) sensitivity = 1, and flexibility ;: 0
(c) sensitivity = 0, and flexibility = I
(d) sensitivity = 0, and flexibility = 0.
Q. 277. An irrigation outlet is said to be proportional, when its :
(a) sensitivity = I (b) flexibility = I
(c) setting = I .. (d) all of the above.
Q. 278. If. the percentage rise/fall in the outlet discharge of a canal distributary is
more than the percentage rise/fall of discharge in the distributary, then the
outlet is :
(a) super sensitive (b) sub sensitive
(c) hyper proportional (d) sub proportional.
Q. 279. An irrigation, outlet fixed at a height of 0.4 y above the canal DBL, where
y is the full supply depth in the canal, will have its. setting equal to :
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.6 ·
(c) 0.2 (d) none of these.
Q. 280. An irrigation outlet is said to be proportional, when its :
(a) setting = outlet index/channel index
(b) setting = channel index/outlet index
(c) setting = channel index x outlet index
(d) none of the above.
Q. 281. For a wide trapezoidal channel, the channel index is :
(a) 2/3 · (b) 513 '
(c) 1/3 (d) none of thei:n.
Q. 282. ~ free pipe outlet is a :
(a) rigid module (b) flexible module
(c) non-modular module. (d) all of the above.
Q. 283. The type of irrigation module, which is usually considered as the best in our
country, is :
--(a)- Adjustable orifiee semi module
(b) Punjab open flume outlet
(c) Khanna's rigid module
(d) Kennedy's gauge module.
Q. 284. The only irrigation semi module, through which the discharge is not propor-
tional to ...fH, where H is the head causing flow through the µiodule, is :
(a) kennedy's gauge outlet· (b) open flume outlet
(c) free pipe outlet (d) adjustable orifice semi module.
caAPTERWISE MUL TICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1291
CHAPTER 14
Q. 285. The hydraulic structure which is constructed at the junction of a canal and
a, drain to dispose of drainage without disturbing canal supplies, is known
as a;
(a) cattle crossing (b) canal module
(c) canal regulator (d) canal crossing.
Q. 286. The ty~e of canal alignment, which involves maximum cross-drainage works,
is a :
(a) ridge canal (b) contour canal
(c) side slope canal (d) all of the above.
Q. 287. The irrigation structure which is constructed at the crossing of a canal and
a drain, to .avoid. the mixing of their respective discharges, is :
(a) an aqueduct (b) a Super passage
(c) a level crossing (b) (a) and (b) both
\ · (e) (a), (b) and (c) all.
1
Q. 28~. When an irrigation ~anal is taken over a drainage channel, the crossing is
, called : ·
(a) an aqueduct (b) a super passage
(c) a level crossing (d) none of them.
Q~ 289. An irrigation canal, freely flowing under a drainage channel, is specifically
called a :
(a) canal junction (b) canal crossing
(c) canal siphon (d) super passage.
Q. 290. An irrigation canal flowing freely above a drainage, which in turn is flowing
u.nder pressur.e, is specifically, called a :
(a) canal siphon (b) canal aqueduct
_ ,_ - (c) .siphon aqueduct -- - . - (d) super- passage. -=··
Q. 291. The crossing arrangement, preferably made at the junction of a huge canal
and a river stream carrying short lived-high flood discharge at almost equal
bed levels, is a :
(a) super passage (b) aqueduct
(c) levelcrossing (d) canal siphon.
Q. 292. The drainage water is sometimes allowed to join the canal water to augment
canal supplies, through a hydraulic structure, calle.d a :
(a) canal outlet (b) canal inlet
(c) module (d) level crossing.
Q. 293. The DBL of a canal and the HFi of a drain at their crossing point are,
respectively, 216 m and 214 m. The adoptecl cross-drainage work here, will
be a:. ___ ·-------'=·-___:=_·_ _ _ _ _
(a) super passage (b) siphon
(c) aqueduct (d) siphon aqueduct.
Q. 294. Pinpoint the correct statement in relation to the relative merits of the two
cross-drainage works : '·
(a) a super passage is preferred to an aqueduct
(b) a canal-syphon is preferred to a super-passage
(c) a super passage is preferred to a canal syphon
(d) a siphon aqueduct is inferior to a canal siphon, and is seldom used.
l292 -- IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 295. A cross-drainage work is called a siphon, when it carries the canal water : .
(a) below the drainage under pressure
(b) below the drainage at atmospheric pres~ure ..
(c) above the drainage at atmospheric pressure
(d) none of the above.
·-
Q. 296. In a syphon aqueduct, the worst condition of uplift on the roof occurs, when:
(a) the canal and drainage are flowing full . ·
(b) the canal is flowing full and there is .no drainage discharge
(c) the canal is empty and drainage is flowing full
(d) none of the above. -
Q. 297. * In an aqueduct provided with a pucca bottom floor, the uplift will occur :
(a) on the roof slab -
(b) on the bottom floor
(c) on both the roof slab as well as the bottom floor
(d) no where, since the flow is free in the canal as well as in the drainage
channel.
\
Q. 298.* In a syphon aqueduct, the worst condition of uplift on the floor.occurs, when:
(a) the canal is full and the drainage empty, with watertable at drainage bed
(b) the canal is empty and the drainage full, with watertable at drainage bed
(c) the canal and drainage both full
(d) the canal is full and drainage empty, with watertable below the floor.
Q. 299. Point out the incorrect statement·:
(a) aqueducts and super passages are usually not provided with pµcca bottom
floors
(b) aqueduct syphons and canal syphons ar.e usually provided with pucca
bottom floors ·
Jc2. _in__a_J~v~J f[Qssing, a _cross regulator .is. provided on-the-canal -below ·the·
crossing
(d) canals or drainage channels are usually flumed to affecteconomy at the
sites of crossings, wherein the contraction transitions are not to be steeper
than 22f° and the expansion transitions not to be steeper than 30 °.
· (e) none of the above.
Q. 300. The head loss through a siphon barrel is usually given by Unwin's formula,
by neglecting velocity of approach, as :
·Q. 302. The following data is available at the proposed site of a canal crossing :
Item Drain Canal
B.L. (m) 252.2 248.0
FSL/HFL (m) 253.2 253.0
1
· Discharge 2 400
(cumecs)
The most appropriate and economical cross-drainage_ work at the above site
will be·~
(a) an aqueduct (b) a super passage
(c) a syphon aqueduct (d) · a syphon.
CHAPTER 15
Q. 303. Culverts are all th.J>Se road bridges, .whose spans are up to :
(a) 6 m (b) 8 m
(c) 10 m (d) 12 m.
Q. 304. * A road bridge is proposed to be constructed across an alluvial stream. The
design discharge at the bridge site is estimated to be 2500 m3/s. It is decided
to adOJ>t a total effective waterway equal to 300 m for this bridge, as against
the regime width of 237.S m, due to afflux considerations. If the HFL at the
site is at RL 214.0 m, then the RL of the open foundation can be suggested
at:
(a) 206.6 m (b) 207.2 m
(c) 208.5 m (d) 210.2. m.
Q. 305. The relation between Scour depth (R) and Regime scour depth (Re) for an·
alluvial river, having regime width (W) and contracted width (BJ, is given
~: .
Q. 309. A bridge culvert is to be constructed across a proposed lined canal. The afflu~
at this site for a contracted canal llidth, can be computed by :
(a) Unwin's formula (b) Broad-crested weir formula
(c) Orifice formula (d) Molesworth formula.
Q. 310. While going to Tirupati Tirumala Devasthanam from Madras, highway road
is found to be lowered at several places, over which natural· drainage flow
during rainy season. Such dips in the· roads, are called :
(a) freeways · (b) road dips
(c) causeways (d) broadways.
CHAPTER 16
Q. 311. An irrigation project is classified as a major project, when the culturable
command involved in the project, is more than :
(a) 2,000 hectares (b) 5,000 hectares
(c) 10,000 hectares (d) none of .the above.
Q. 312. A minor irrigation scheme, involves command area, equal to or less than :
(a) 100 hectares (b) 500 .hectares
(c) 1000 hectares (if) 2000 hectares.
Q. 313. Energy is required in the utilisation of :
(a) ground water (b) surface. water
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above ..
Q. 314. In an underground profile, the zone of aeration does not include :
(a) soil water (b) capillary water
(c) ground water (d) none of them.
Q. 315. Ground water is found to occur in the geological formation, which is :
(a) porous (b) permeable
(c) both (a) and (b) · (d) none of the above.
Q. 316. The. property of ,a geological formation, which ·represents its water ·storage
· capacity, is :
(a) permeability (b) porosity
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these.
Q. 317. The zone of aeration in a ground prome consists of:
(a) capillary fringe (b) soil water zone
(c) intermediate zone· · (d) all of them.
Q. 318. The zone of aeration in a ground profile does not include :
(a) capillary zone (b) soil water zone
(c) intermediate zone (d) saturation zone.
Q. 319. The area in our country, which is i,nigated by ground water, as a fraction of
· the total irrigated area, is approximately equal to :
(a) l . (b) 1
2 - - - --- - . . .. . 3
(c) 1 (d) i·
Q. 320. The rate of flow of water through ground strata, _can be estimated by :
(a) Manning's formula (b) Strickler's formula
(c) Dupuit's formula (d) Darcy's formula.
Q. 321. Darcy's law is valid, when the flow is :
(c) laminar (b) turbulent
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these.
I
!1
CHAPTER 17
Q.· 361. Aswan dam on Nile river in Egypt was perhaps the first modern dam of the
world. Its construction was completed in the year :
(a) 1664. (b) 1798
(c) 1902 (d). 1931.
Q. 362. The only modern dam among the following, which has failed, is :
(a) Koyna dam in India
(b) Vega de Tera dam in spain
(c) Mauvoisin dam in Switzerland
(d) Trinity dam in California, USA.
Q. 363. Earthen dams are :
-----(a)- rigid dams (b) non rigid dams
(c) overflow dams (d) diversion dams.
Q. 364. When sand and gravel foundation strata is available at a proposed dam site
of moderate height, the dam may be of the type : .·
(a) earthen dam or rockfill dam
(b) masonry gravity dam
(c) double arch dam
(d) concrete gravity dam.
Q. 365. The prominent modern dam, which has changed its name several times, is :
(a) Nagarjuna sagar dam (b) Hoover dam
(c) Bhakra dam (d) Idduki dam.
Q. 366,_The-highest-concrete-gravity dam of the world is Grand-Dixence dain is Swit---
zerland, whose height is :
(a) 325 m (b) 317 m
(c) 285 m (d) 272 m.
Q. 367. The only arch dam of our country is Idduki dam across Periyar -river in
Kerala State, whose height is :
(a) 81 m (b) 143 m
· (c) 149 m (d) 169 m.
CHAPTER WISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1299
Q. 368. The highest concrete gravity dam of India; which is also the 2nd highest such
· dam of the world, is :
(a) 285 m in height (b) 256 m in height
(c) 226 m in height (d) 206 m in height.
Q. 369. Bhakra dam of our country is located in the .State of :
(a) Punjab (b) Himachal PiadeSh ___ - ---~ -----
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh.
Q. 370. * The highest stone masonry gravity dam of India as well as of the world, is:
(a) Ramganga dam (b) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
(c) Hirakud dam (d) Mettur dam. ·
CHAPTER 18
Q. 371. A dam reservoir, not provided with gate controls on its spillway and other
sluices, is called a :
(a) detention basin (b) storage reservoir
( c) retarding basin (d) all of these.
Q. 372. A dam reservoir, catering to flood control, irrigation, and water supply, al-
though basically designed for irrigation alone, is .a :
(a) multipurpose reservoir (b) ·single purpose reservoir
(c) distribution reservoir (d) none of the above.
Q. 373. A hydel power project has been envisaged to serve the water. supply and
irrigation needs of the area at its inception stage. The dam reservoir, so con-
structed, will be known as :
(a) multipurpose reservoir (b) single purpose reservoir
(c) both (a) and (b) above (d) none of the above.
Q. 374. The 'surcharge storage' in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored
between: ·
(a) minimum and maximum reservoir levels
(b) minimum and normal reservoir levels
(c) normal and maximum reservoir levels
(d) none of the above.
Q. 375. The 'useful storage' in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored between:
· (a) minimum and maximum reservoir levels
(b) minimum and normal reservoir levels
(c) normal and maximum reservoir levels
(d) none of the above.
Q. 376. The 'dead storage' in a dam reservoir, is the available volume for collection
of silt and sediment, between :
(a) bed level of the reservoir and minimum reservoir level
(b) bed level of the reservoir and the_ _si!tJ~\/~J j11 tl:Je res~yoir_-'-
(c) bed level of the reserVoir and the normal pool level
(d) none of the above.
Q. 377. 'Bank storage' in a dam reservoir :
(a) increases the computed reservoir capacity
(b) decreases the computed reservoir capacity
(c) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases the computed reservoir
capacity
(d) has no effect on computed reservoir capacity.
1300 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 378. The water stored in a reservoir below the minimum pool level is called :
(af' valley storage (b) bank storage
(c) surcharge storage (d) dead storage.
Q. 379. For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is equal to :
(a) useful storage + valley storage
(b) useful storage+ surcharge storage.- valley storage- .------------
(c) useful storage + surcharge storage + valley storage
(d) useful storage - valley storage.
Q. 380. The volume V of water stored in a reservoir in a depth y above a given
datum, can be easily represented -by an equation of the type·:
(a) V =[a+ Py+ r.lJ where a, p, y are constants
3
(b) V=[ay+py2+JY ]+K K is reservoir capac,ity
up to given datum
(c) neither (a) nor (b).
(d) both (a) and (b).
Q. 381. Average yield of a storage reservoir is the arithmetic average of its :
(a) firm yields over a long-period' ·· -- -
(b) secondary yields over a long period
(c) firm and secondary yields over a long period
(d) none of the above.
Q. 382. If A 1 and A2 are surveyed and known areas at a reservoir site at elevations
of E 1 and E 2, respectively ; then the area, A, at any intermediate elevation
E, is foterpolated as :
E-E1 ( -JA.)
(a) -{,4 =if;+ E2 - E1 -YA; - .A1)
Q. 394. As the height of a proposed dam is increased, the cost per unit of storage :
(a) increases
( b) decreases
(c) initially increases and then decreases
(d) initially decreases and then increases.
Q. 395. "Economical height of a_Dam" is that height, for which the :
(a) cost per unit of storage is minimum
(b) benefit cost ratio is maximum
(c) net benefits are maximum
(d), none of the above.
Q.' 396.* If 20% of the reservoir capacity is earmarked for dead storage in a storage
reservoir of 30 M cum; and the average annual silt deposition in the reservoir
is 0.1 M- cum, then the useful life of the reservoir will start reducing after :
(a) 60 years (b) 120 years
(c) 240 years (d) 300 years.
Q. 397. The appropriate value of the estimated average life of a dam reservoir is :
(a) 25 years (b) 50 years
(c) 75 years (d) none of these.
CHAPTER 19
Q. 398. The vertical component of the earthquake wave, which produces adverse ef-
fects on the stability of a dam, is, when it is acting in;
(a) upward direction (b) downward direction
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of them. _
Q. 399. The horizontal component of an earthquake wave, producing instability in a
dam is the one, which acts :
(a) towards the reservoir (b) towards the dam
(c) both (a) and (b} c (d) norie of the above.
Q. 400. The vertical downward earthquake acceleration, av= 0:1g,- acting on a
gravity dam, will :
(a) increase the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
(b) decrease the resisting weight of the_ dam by 10%
(c) increase the uplift by 10%
(d) none of the above.
Q. 401. A gravity dam is subjected to hydro dynamic pressure, caused by :
(a) the rising waters of the reservoir when a flood wave enters into it
(b) the rising waves in the reservoir due to high winds
(c) the increase in water pressure, momentarily caused by the horizontal
earthquake, acting towards the. reservoir.
(d) the iriciease- In-water pressure, momentarily caused by the horizontal
earthquake, acting towards the dam.
Q. 402. In a concrete gravity dam with a vertical upstream face, the stabilising force
is provided by the : · ·
(a) weight of the dam
_(b) the water supported against the upstream slope
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above.
CHAPTERWISEMULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1303
Q. 403. In a concrete gravity dam, with a sloping upstream face, the resisting force
is provided by the :
(a) weight of the dam
(b) weight of the water supported on the upstream slope.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these.
Q. 404. The· factor among the following, which does not try to destabilise a masonry
gravity dam, is :
(a) water seeping below the foundation of the dam
(b) generation of waves by high winds
(c) deposition of silt in dead storage zone of the reservoir
(d) water standing against the downstream face of the dam
(e) water standing against .the upstream face of the dam.
Q. 405*. The horizontal destabilising force caused by the formation of waves in a
storage reservoir having a fetch of 40 km, due to high wind of 160 km/h, is
about:
(a) 30 kN (b) 60 kN
(e) 90 kN (d) 130 kN.
Q. 406*. According to IS 6512-1984, the wind set up in a reservoir having maximum
fetch of F km, and average reservoir !fepth along this fetch length as D m,
as caused by the wind velocity of V km/h, is given by :
V2 F V2 F
(a) 62000D (b) D
V2 F V2 F
(c) 6200 D (d) 620 D
Q. 407*. A reservoir, extending 20 km upstream and having a design wind velocity of·
100 kmth, should be provided with a free-board of :
(af 1.2 m -· - - (6) 1.6 m - - "' ____ ~c:-c------- -
(c) 2.5 m (d) 3 m.
Q. 408. Development of tensile stresses in a concrete or masonry gravity dam are
usually not allowed, because it may lead to development of tension cracks,
ultimately causing failure of the structure, by :
(a) excessive seepage
(b) excessive tensile stresses
(c) excessive compressive stresses
(d) none of the above.
Q. 409. The bottom portion of a concrete or a masonry gravity dam is usually
stepped, in order to :
(a) increase the overturning resistance of the dam
(b) increase the shear _stre_ngt)l ~qh_f?, b~-~ of the dam ~'.:c.--'=-'--" _
(c) decrease the shear stress at the base of the dam
(d) none of the above.
Q. 410. The governing compressive stress in a concrete gravity dam,-which should
not be allowed to exceed the permissible value of about 3000 kN/m2, while
analysing full reservoir case, is :
(a) the vertical maximum stress at the toe
(b) the major principal stress at the toe
( c) the shear stress at the toe
(d) none of the above.
1304 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 411. The two dir,nensional stability analysis of gravity dams proves b~tter for U-
shaped valleys than for V-shaped valleys, because the transverse joints in the
dam body are generally :
(a) not grouted in U-shaped valleys, but are keyed together in V-shaped valleys
(b) not grouted in V-shaped valleys, but are keyed together in U-sl!<lP~\'a_l-
leys.
Q. 412. The small openings made in the huge body of a concrete gravity dam, such
, as sluices and inspection galleries, can be assumed to be causing only local
effects without any appreciable effect on the distribution of stresses, as per
-the principle of :
(a) Laplace (b) · St. Venant
(c) Reynold (d) St. Francis.
Q. 413. For usuaU values of permissible compressive stress and specific gravity of
concrete, a high concrete gravity dam is· the one, whose height exceeds :
(a) 48 m (b) 70 m
(c) 88 m (d) none of these.
Q. 414*. An elementary triangular concrete· gravity dam, supporting 60 m height of
reservoir water and full uplift, should have a minimum base width equal to:
(a) 36 m (b) 39 m
(c) 51 m (d) 61 in.
Q. 415. Inorder to economise on the provided section of a concrete gravity dam, at-
tempts are made to reduce the uplift, by :
(a) providing drainage gallery to collect seepage water
(b) constructing cut-off UI)der upstream face
(t) pressure grouting in dam foundation
(d) constructing drainage channels between the dam and its foundation
(e) all of the above methods.
Q. 416. Transverse joints in -concrete gravity dams are the :
(a) horizontal construction joints at each lift height
(b) vertical construction joints of full height and width
(c) diagonal construction joints for torsion
(d) none of the above.
Q. 417. Leakage through the transverse joints in a gravity dam is prevented by :
(a) shear keys (b) key ways
(c) water stops (d) .none of these.
Q. 418. Shear key is several times provided between the bottom of a masonry or
concrete gravity dam and its foundation, to increase the frictional resistance
of the dam against sliding. This key is usually provided :
(a) near the toe (b) near the heel
(c) near the individual semns in the bed rock
(d) none of the above.
CHAPTER20
Q. 419. Point out the correct statement with reference to earthen dams :
(a) these dams are very costly as compared to other types
(b) they are less susceptible to failure as compared to rigid dams
(c) they can be constructed almost on every type of foundation
(d) highly skilled labour is generally not required.
CHAPTERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1305
· Q. 420. The most preferred type of an earthen dam section is the one, in which the:
(a) entire embankment is made of one type of soil
(b) inner embankment is made of highly porous soil, surrounded by the outer
shell of highly impervious soil, both separated by transition filter material
of mediocre permeability _________________ ._
(c) inner embankment is made of highly impervious soil surrounded by the
outer shell of highly pervious soil, both separated by transition filter
material of mediocre permeability
(d) none of the above.
Q. 421. When seepage takes place through the body of an earthen dam, it leads to :
(a) development of pore pressures in the dam body
(b) reduction in the shear strength of the dam
(c) reduction in the developed shear stresses in the dam
(d) (a) and (b) both
(e) (a), (b) and (c) all.
Q. 422. The most preferred soil for the central impervious core of a zoned embank-
ment type of an earthen dam, is
(a) highly impervious clay (b) 'highly pervious gravel
(c) coarse sand (d) clay mixed with fine sand.
Q. 423. Pure clayey soils are generally not preferred for the central impervious cores.·
of zoned type of earthen dams, because :
(a) clays are highly impervious
(b) clays are highly pervious
(c) clays are susceptible to cracking
(d) none of the above.
Q. 424. During the construction of an earthen dam by hydraulic fill method, develOpment-
_____ - of pore pressures become important in the : - ---
(a) central impervious core (b) pervious outer shell
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above.
Q. 425. The process of laying and compacting earth in layers by power rollers under
Optimum Moisture Conditions (OMC) for -construction of earthen dams, is
known as: -
(a) rolled fill method (b) hydraulic fill method
(c) OMC method (d) none of the above.
Q. 426. Coordination between field and design engineers to ensure continuous field
observations and modifications in design during construction, is more impor-
tantly required in case of :
(a) concrete gravity dams (b) masonry gravity dams
--~-- (c) arch dams -{d) earthen dams. ___________ _
Q. 427. When the. water level standing against an earthen embankment, suddenly
falls down, then there is an iminent risk of sliding f11ilure, to_ the :
(a) upstream slope (b) downstream slope
(c) both (a) and (b) - (d) none of these.
Q. 428. When the reservoir is· full, the slope which is most likely to slide, is :
(a) the upstream slope (b) the downstream slope
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of them.
1306 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
CHAPTER21
Q. 434. The 'safety valve' of a dam is its :
(a) drainage gallery (b) inspection gallery
(c) spillway (d') outlet sluices.
Q. 435. A ungated spillway starts functioning, as soon as the water level in the reser-
voir, crosses the :
(a) maximum reservoir level
(b) minimum reservoir level
( c) maximum conservation level
(d') none of the above.
-Q; 436. The top line of an ogee spillway ;whi~h is -k~pt at RL equal to the full reservoir
level, is precisely called :
(a) the crest (b) the apex ofthe crest
( c) the corbel (d') the chute.
Q. 437. When the gated sluices are provided through the body of a dam spillway, then
the ogee spillway structure shall normally be of :
(a) corbel type (b) non corbel type
(c) either (a) or (b) (d') none of these.
CHAPTER WISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1307
Q. 438. The effective length of an ogee spillway will be different from it" actual length,
in case of:
(a) gated spillway
(b) ungated spillway
(c) both gated as well as ungated spillway
(d) none of these.
Q. 439. Which one of the following spillways is least suited to earthen dams ?
(a) ogee spillway (b) side channel spillway
(c) chute spillway (d) shaft spillway.
Q. 440. The spillway, which can be adopted with ease on gravity as well as earthen
dams, is :
(a) ogee spillway
(b) chute spillway
(c) both ogee as well as chute spillway
(d) none of these.
Q. 441. The famous Bhakra dam of our country haS been provided with :
(a) trough spillway (b) ogee spillway
(c) shaft spillway (d) "syphon spillway.
Q. 442. Hydraulic Jµmp is widely used for dissipation of energy in :
(a) ogee spillways (b) trough spillways
(c) side channel spillways (d) all of these.
Q. 443. The surplus reservoir water, after spilling over the spillway crest, flows on
the chute:
(a) parallelto the crest in a· trough spillway
(b) parallel to the crest in a side channel spillway
(c) perpendicular to-the crest in-a: side channel spillway
(d) obliquely to the crest in a chute spillway.
Q. 444. When the crest of an ogee spiilway is designed to be in accordance with the
lower nappe of a free falling water jet over a duly ventilated sharp crested
weir, then theoretically :
(a) the pressure on the spillway crest will always be zero (i.e. atmospheric
pressure)
(b) the pressure on the spillway crest will be zero at design head only
(c) the pressure on the spillway crest will always be negative
(d) the pressure on the spillway er.est will always be positive.
Q. 445. If the operating head on an ogee spillway is more than the design head, then:
(a) the pressure on the crest will be zero
~--· ·---- -(b) -tfie pressure-·ontlitf c-rest-wilr-1re--negative~c::au-strrg·-=c-aVitati-on~~:=_ ____ _
(;dJ~K(t}
where the coefficients K and n for a vertical
upstream spillway would, respectively, be :
(a) 2.0 and 1.85 (b) -0.5 and 1.85 ·
(c) 2.0 and 0.85 (cl) 0.5 and 0.85.
where (x, y) are the coordinates on the crest profile
with crest appex as· ori_gi~·-
a
Q. 451. The portion of chute.spilhvay, whicli is known as its control structure,
is :
(a) low ogee weir
(b) chute channel
(c) approach channel leading the water from the reservoir to the ogee weir.
(d) stilling basin at its bottom.
Q. 452. The spillway, which can be called as an 'overflow spillway', is essentially :
(a) an ogee spillway (b) shaft spillway
(c) chute spillway (cl) syphon spillway.
Q. 453. The spillway, which may sometimes be called a 'waste weir', is :
(a) an ogee spillway (b) a trough spillway . ·
(c) a shaft spillway (cl) all of the above.
__ Q.A54.c The...spillways-involving-'-weir-type ·spills, giving increased discfiarge with· tlie--
increase in reservoir level, are : ·
(a) ogee spillways (b) .chute spillways .
· (c) side channel spillways (cl) all of these.
Q. 455. A shaft spillway is located :
(a) inside the body of a gravity dam
(b) inside the upstream reservoir
(c) inside the downstream reservoir
(cl) on side flanks of the main dam.
CHAPTERWISEMULTICHOICEOBJECTIVEQUESTIONS 1309
Q. 456. The syphons installed within a gravity dam, to spill the sutplus reservoir · · ·
water, are known as :
(a) hooded type syphon spillway
(b) tilted outlet type syphon spillway
(c) both (a) and (b) ·
(d) none of these.
Q. 457. The syphons installed over overflow dams, constitute what are known as :
(a) tilted outlet type of syphon spillways
(b) hooded type of syphon spillways
( c) discharge carriers
(d) baby syphons.
Q. 458. Syphons installed over an overflow spillway will :
(a) decrease the effectiveness of the spillway
(b) increase the effectiveness of the spillway
(c) not affect the effectiveness of the spillway
(d) all the above are possible.
Q. 459. The only spillway among the following, through which the discharge does not
increase as fast as it increases in all others, is :
(a) chute spillway (b) side channel spillway
(c) ogee spillway (d) shaft spillway.
Q. 460. The only spillway among the following, through which the discharge is almost
at its capacity rate, even from the start of its functioning, is :
(a). chute spillway ·. (b) side channel spillway
(c) ogee spillway (d) syphon spillway.
Q. 461 *· An air vent is provided at F.R.L. to break the syphoning action at that level,
in a:
(a) hooded type of syphon spillway
(b) tilted outlet type of syphon spillway
(c) saddle syphon spillway
(d) all of the above.
Q. 462. The energy dissipation at the toe of a spillway is affected basically by the use
of hydraulic jump, in : ·
(a) a roller bucket
(b) a ski-jump bucke~
(c) a sloping apron taken below the downstream river bed
(d) none of the above.
Q. 463. The most ideal condition for energy dissipation in the design of spillways is
the one, when :
(a) the tail water rating curve lies above· the'-jump:ratin:~ctirve--at aH dis---
charges
(b) the tail water rating curve coincides with the jump rating curve at all
discharges
(c) the tail water rating curve lies below the jump rating curve at all dis-
charges
(d) the tail water rating curve either lies above or below the jump rating
curve, depending upon the discharge.
1310 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 464. When the tail water depths in the river, downstream of a spillway are quite
low, such that the tail water curve, at all discharges, lies below the post jump
depth curve, then the energy dissipation can be affected best by :
(a) a roller bucket (b) a ski-jump bucket
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) none of them.
Q. 465. Energy dissipation arrangements made at the bottom of an overfall spillway,
usually depend upon the relative positions of tail water curve (T. W.C.) and
jump height curve (J.H.C.) and also on Incoming Froude number. Such posi-
tions and suggested arrangements are given below in a haphazard manner,
and you have to match them properly :
(A) T.W.C. coinciding with J.H.C. (i) ski-jump bucket at higher
at all discharges incoming Froude number
(> 9); and sloping apron below
the dis river bed at lower froude
numbers (4.5 to 9)
(B) T.W.C. lying below the J.H:C. (ii) a single horizontal apron at toe
at all discharges of the spillway at dis river bed
(C) T.W.C. lying above the J.H.C. (iii) a roller bucket at higher
at all discharges Froude numbers, and sloping
apron above the dis river bed
at lower values of F
(D) T.W.C. lying above the J.H.C. (iv) a sloping apron partly below
at low discharges, and below and partly above the dis river
the J.H.C. at high discharges, bed.
and vice versa .
. Q. 466. A troublesome and oscillating hydraulic jump is usually formed in flows,
involving the incoming Frolide number in the range of 2.5-4.5, which nor-
mally is met in cases of :
1a) weirs and barrages (b) overflow spillways of dams
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of them.
Q. 467. A very steady and stable hydraulic jump is usually formed in flows, involving
the approaching Froude number in the range of 4.5-9.0, which normally is
met in cases of :
(a) weirs and barrages (b) overflow spillways of dams
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of them.
Q. 468. In case of very high overflow spillways, the approaching Froude number of
the flow at the toe of the spillway may exceed 9.0, bringing the hydraulic
jump to be in the category of a '$trong jump'. In such a case, the energy
dissipation arrangement preferably made at the toe of the spillway, may con-
sists of:
_ _ _Ja), bucket ty_Q_~_c:liss!p~to_r:__:_, ___ , _______ ----- - -
··---- (b) USBR stilling basin
(c) Indian standard stilling basin
(d) none of the above.
Q. 469. Standard USBR stilling basin II is useful for energy dissipation at the bottom
of an overflow structure, if the approaching Froude number is :
·(a) less than 4.5
(b) more than 4.5.
CHAPTER WISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1311
Q. 470. Standard stilling basin provided at the toe of a dam spillway for energy dis-
sipation, is usually provided with auxiliary devices, like chute blocks and
dentated sills, for the basic purpose of reducing the length of the stilling basin
from about:
(a) 6y 2 to 4y2 (b) 4Y2 to 2y2
(c) 6y2 to 2y 2 (d) 3y 2 to Yi-
where y 2 is the post jump depth
Q. 471. The device which does not help in energy dissipation at the bottom of a
hydraulic structure, over which water spills, is :
- - (a) chute block (b) dentated sill··
(c) morning glory (d) none of them.
Q. 472. In a/fixed roller of a spillway gate, the rollers are attached to the :
(a) gate (b) groove guide
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) none of them.
Q. 473. In vertical stoney spillway gate, the rollers are placed between the :
(a) gate and the u/s groove guide
(b) gate and the d/s groove guide
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of them.
Q. 474. The spillway gate, which when lowered, can not be seen from a distance, is
of the type :
(a) sliding gate (b) roller gate
(c) tainter gate (d) USBR drum gate.
Q. 475*. An ogee spillway of a concrete gravity dam having FRL of 325.0 m and MWL
of 340.0 m, is provided with vertical gates between piers erected on the
spillway. The effective length of the spillway is 60 m. The discharge through
this spillway when gates are opened µpto actual reservoir level of 331.0 m,
will be : ------- - ·
(a) 850 cumecs (b) 1700 cumecs
(c) 2800 cumecs (d) none of them.
CHAPTER22
Q. 476*. A 2 m diameter sluiceway at RL 300.0 m, is provided through a concrete
· overflow dam section to release water to the downstream, where tail water
level is not more than 275.0 m. Tlie discharge through this outlet, when the
water level in the reservoir is at FRL of 330;0 m, is of the order of :
(a) 20 cumecs (b) 40 cumecs
(c) 50 cumecs (d) 80 cumecs.
Q. 477*. A 4 m diameter tunnel has been constructed through an earthen dam, with
- -- - - · a--beU -mouth-entry;--The-water-Ievekon~ U/s--an-d-Dls siCles-'of'the-=-aairi-'-are-at- "-·
RL 226 m.and 210 m, respectively. The discharge through this outlet will be
of the order of :
(a) 64 cumecs (b) 104 cumecs
(c) 170 cumecs (d) 216 cumecs.
Q. 478. A trash rack is not required at the entrance of a :
(a) syphon spillway (b) drum gate installation
(c) morning glory spillway (d) high head gate installation.
1312 . IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 479. 'i'b.e outlet provided in a ~am body, to release water for downstream water
demand, is known as :
(a) spillway (b) sluiceway
(c) under-sluice (d) waterway.
Q. 480. Bar screens, used to cover dam outlets to prevent entry of debris or ice into
the sluiceway conduits, are called : - ----·-
. (a) gate controlled ports (b) projecting collars
(c) trash racks (d) none of these.
Q. 481. Which of the following statement is false ?
(a) water can be withdrawn from any selected level of reservoir using dry
intake towers
(b) Intake towers have to be designed for worst combination of hydrostatic,
wind, earthquake, and wave forces
(c) Dry intake towers are lighter in construction as compared to wet intake
towers
(d) none of the above.
Q. 482. A sluiceway conduit passing through an earthen dam has a length equal to
L; and it has x projecting collars-each having projected length equal to x.
The increased length of seepage path in this case is given by :
(a) L+2nx (b) L+nx
(c) 2nx (d) none of them.
Q. 483. Projecting collars are provided on sides of a rectangular tunnel of length tL),
made through an earthen da~, to increase the seepage path. Their projection
length (X) and numbers (N) are decided, as to provide increased seepage path
equal to 2NX, where 2NX should generally be :
(a) greater than 4L (b) greater than 2L
_ ( c) greater than L (d) none of the above.
CHAPTER23
Q. 484. The flow through Penstocks and Pressure conduits is, generally :
(a) laminar (b) turbulent .
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these.
Q. 485. The head lost ifi the flow of water"through a penstock pipe of given length:
(a) increases with the increase in flow velocity
(b) decreases with the increase in flow velocity
(c) decreases with the increase in the roughness of the pipe surface
(d) decreases with time.
=Qc-4.86.,.Hoop's_reinfotcementJs-providedcin cement-concretepressure pipes, in order-
to counteract the;
(a) water hammer pressur1;;
(b) internal water pressure
(c) stresses caused by external backfills
(d) both (a) and (b)
(e) (a), (b) and (c) all.
CHAPTERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1313
Q. 487. When a gate valve, .installed in a pressure pipe, is suddenly closed, water
hammer pressure is caused on the 'pipe shell, in the portion : ·
(a) downstream of the valve (b) upstream of the valve
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none ofthe above.
Q. 488. Which of the following types of pressure conduits is preferably used for large
~&? -
(a) .P.C.C. pipes (b) Cast iron pipes
(c) Prestressed concrete pipes (d) Asb.estos pipes.
CHAPTER24
Q. 489. A hydropower plant, developed at the site of a drop in an irrigation canal,
is of the type :
(a) runoff river plant (b) storage plant
(c) pumped storage plant (d) tidal plant.
Q. 490. A nuclear power development scheme is essentially a :
(a) thermal power scheme (b) hydropower scheme
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (d) both (a) as well as-(b).
Q. 491. Fossil fuels are used in :
(a) a nuclear power plant (b) an ordinary thermal power plant
(c) a hydro power plant. (d) none of them.
Q. 492. Major hydropower generation in India is from :
(a) runoff river plants (b) storage plants
(c) pumped storage plants (d) tidal plants:
Q. 493. A run off river plant for hydro power generation is essentially a :
(a) high head scheme (b) low head scheme
(c) medium head scheme (d) any of these.
Q. 494. A storage hydro plant essentially involves :
- (a) a barrage or a weir - (b) a·dam · ·
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b).
Q. 495. The natural highwater falls may be used for generation of :
(a) hydro-power (b) water-power
(c) both (a) and (b) (cl) neither (a) nor (b).
Q. 496. The power plant among the following, which is a storage plant; is :
(a) Rance power station in France, located on sea
(b) Ganguwal power house, located on Nangal hydel channel in India
(c) Sarda power house, located on Sarda Canal in U.P. in India.
(d) none of these.
Q. 497. The only statement, which is incorrect in regarci to hydropower, is :
(a) the system efficiency of a hydroplant is quite high
(b) the -installation cost o:F-a=-hydroplantcis-veryc:high~·~~
( c) the running cost of a hydro power plant is very low
(d) the hydraulic turbines takes a lot of time in being put off a!l~ on.
Q. 498. Identify the correct statement in regard to ,hydropower :
(a) hydropower stations are generally labour oriented
(b) Gestation period for hydro-power plant is usually small
(c) the hydro generators give high efficiency over a wide range of load
(d) in a hydropower scheme, the firm power is usually high, as compared
to total power.
1314 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND aYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 499. The minimum power, which a hydro-power plant can generate throughout
the year, is called :
(a) power plant capacity (b) power plant load
(c) firm power (cf) water power.
Q. 500. 400 cumecs of water is being released from a dam storage to meet the
downstream demand, through the turbines of the connected hydroplant:The
effective head of water acting on the turbines is 50 m. The efficiency of the
hydroplant is 0.8. The electrical po.wer generated from this plant, would he:
(a) 1,56,800 MW (b) 156.8 MkW
(c) 156.8 MW _ (cf) none of these ..
Q. 501. If the peak load for a power plant equals the plant capacity, then the ratio of
the capacity factor to load factor will be :
(a) 1 (h) 0
(c) <1 (cf) >l
(e) - 1 (j) none of these.
Q. 502*. If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW
during a given week, and the energy produced is 58,80,000 kwh, the capacity
factor for the plant for the week, will be :
(a) 35% (b) 50%
(c) 70% (cf) none of these.
Q. 5{)3*. The load factor for the data given in the above question will be :
(a) 0.3:: (b) 0.50
(c) 0.70 (cf) none of these.
Q. 504*. The utilisation factor for the data given in Q. 502, will be :
(a) 0.35 (b) 0.50
(c) 0.70 (cf) none of these.
Q. 505. Pondage requirement in a hydropower plant includes the need :
(a) to balance the varying demand
(b) to compensate for wastage and spillage
(c) to balance short time fluctuations in the flow
(cf) all of these.
Q. 506. A Pelton's turbine is a :
(a) velocity turbine (b) reaction turbine
(c) pressure turbine
(
(cf) none of these.
Q. 507. An impulse turbine, like a pelt~:m's wheel, is used for :
(a) low heads and high discharges
(b) high heads and low discharges
(c) low heads and low discharges
(cf) high heads and high discharges.
Q. 508. An impulse turbine, like a Pelton's turbine, is :
--·-··~(a),.'!!l_.Qgen .body ex.p_Qs_e.d_toc..atmosphere_,,_,·,c.. c.c--'--'°''''=""-"''·- -----·--·
(b) a closed body not exposed to atmosphere
(c) a partially open and partially closed body
(cf) none of these.
Q. 509. In a reaction turbine, like a Franc~s turbine or Kaplan turbine,
(a) the potential head of water is totally changed into kinetic head
(b) the potential head of water is partially changed into kinetic head
(c) the potential head of water is not at all changed into kinetic head
(d) all of the above are possible.
CBAPTERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS DJS
Q. 510. In a Francis turbine, the water
(a) flows out openly
(b) flows out through a closed draft tube
(c) both (a) and (b), depending upon the type
(cf) neither (a) nor (b).
Q. 511*. You have to select tur~ines for a hydropower plant, having 150-iriheador--
stored water behind the dam. The water in the reservoir is clear, and load
on the power house is not likely to fluctuate much. Which type of turbines
will you generally recommend?
(a) Pelton's turbines (b) Francis turbines
(c) Kaplan turbines (d) Any of them.
Q. 512. You have to select turbines for a hydropower plant, working on 150 m head.
The water is sandy and load on the plant is highly variable. Which type of
turbines will you generally recommend ?
(a) Pelton's turbines (b) Francis turbines
(c) Kaplan turbines (d) Any of them will do.
Q. 513. If two identical pumps, each capable to deliver a discharge Q against a head
H, are connected :
(a) in parallel, the resulting discharge is 2Q against a head H
(b) in parallel, the resulting discharge is Q against a head of 2H
(c) in series, the resulting discharge is 2Q against a head H
(cf) in series, the resulting discharge is Q agairist a head 2H.
CHAPTER25
Q. 514. The minimum depth of water required for safe and economi.cal navigation
is:
(a) I m (b) 2.0 m
(c) 2.7 m (d) 4.2 m
-Q~ 515 The-transit time taken by a barge tow, moVing upsfream iri a naVigable river,
increases, if :
(a) the flow velocity is more (b) the flow velocity is iess.
Q. 516. Inorder to improve the navigability in a river, the cutoffs are :
(a) encouraged (b) discouraged.
Q. 517. The belt conveyor forming an essential part of a ladder dredger, used for
excavating river sand deposits, is used for :
(a) excavation of sand
(b) transporting excavated sand to the surface, over small distances
(c) transporting excavated sand to the surface, over large distances
(d) none of these.
Q. 518. The dredger which excavates sand deposits of a river, and discharges the
excavated material with water over long-distances7cis-ca!leda : _
(a) ladder dredger (b) suction dredger
(c) dipper dredger (d) none of these.
Q. 519. Lock and dam constructions for creation of a series of slack water pools
along a river, for promoting its navigability, is adopted only when :
(a) ti'ie river is perennial
(b) the river carries heavy sediment load
( c) the available water in the river is quite 1ess
(if) none of the above.
1316 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
CHAPTER26
Q. 523. The depth of water stored in an irrigation tank, rarely exceeds :
(a) 4 m · (b) 8 Iil
(c) 12 m (cl) none of them.
Q. 524. The storage created on the upstream side of a smaller stream by construction
of low earthen bonds, is technically known as :
(a) a reservoir (b) a tank
(c) a lake (cl) ·none of these.
Q. 525. The usuai arrangement made in a tank-bond scheme to spill the surplus ex-
cess water, is known as a :
(a) tank spillway (b) tank sluice
( c) ta~k weir (cl) ·none of these.
Q. 526. The provision of suitable breaching sections become more important in ir-
rigation tanks, which are .:
(a) isolated (b) in groups
--, -:-c -Ec)--both: fa-)· and'(b} (cl) none of th~~-
Q. 527. The cubic metres of water that can be stored in an irrigation tank between
FTL (Full Tank Level) and .Sill level of the lowest supply sluice,_ is known
as:
(a) the gross capacity (b) effective capacity
( c) the specific capacity (cl) none of the above.
Q. 528. If A 1 represents the area of a tank bed at bottom, and A 2 at FTL, then the
storage capacity of this tank of height H, is given as :
(a) H[Ai +A2 +°'1Ai A2] (b) .~[Ai +A2 + .VAi A2]
(c) ~[A 1 +A2 +°'1A 1 A 2 J
__:_:...::_·_-.::..: :..::
......:___.:_......:. .
(cl) none of them.
- -- - -- - __:.: -_ -_
- ---~·-·_
. -
Q. 529. The top -level of a tank weir in a tank bond scheme, is kept at :
(a) MTL (b) FTL
(c) either (a) or (b) (cl) none of these.
Q. 530. The capacity of an irrigation tank is sometimes increased by installing a tern·
porary stone wall over the top of the tank weir. This fixture is known is :
1
(a) saddle (b) dam stones
(c) breast wall (cl) divide wall.
CIIAPTERWISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1317
Q. 531. The discharge through the sluice of a small irrigation tank is usually con-
trolled by a :
(a) dam stone (b) plug
(c) shutter gate (d) none of these.
Q. 532. The mostly adopted earthen section for tank bunds is of the type__=-----~-
(a) homogeneous embankment type
(b) zoned embankment type
(c) diaphragm type
(d) none of the ~1J9v~.
Q. 533*. The discharging capacity of a masonry waste weir of 50 m length and 1 m
width provided in an earthen bund, for passing a flood with 0.8 m water
depth over its crest, will be :
(a) 12.25 cumecs (b) 25.4 cumecs
(c) 59.4 cumecs (d) 65.8 cumecs.
CHAPTER27
Q. 534. An arch dam, looks like a single arch, in :
(a) plan · (b) front elevation
(c) side elevation (d) none of them.
Q. 535. An arch dam behaves as :
(a) a cantilever vertical retaining wall, standing up from.its base
(b) an arch, transferring loads at the two ends by horizontal arch action
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above.
Q. 536. A non-vertical arch dam is known as a :
(a) buttress dam (b) double curvature arch dam
(c) shell aich dam - -~ (ii) both-(b)anO- (cTal:Joye:·----
Q. 537. Arch dams are suitable in locations where the canyon slope, factor (length of
arch at top/height of dam) is :
(a) less than 8 (b) greater than 16 _
(U.P.S.C. Engg. Services)
Q. 538. The most economical type of arch dam in general is of :
(a) constant radius type (b) variable radius type
(c) constant angle type (d) none of these.
Q. 539. A constant angle arch dam, when compared to constant radius arch dam,
utilises concrete quantity of about :
(a) 43% (b) 130%
( c) 230~ _ =- (cl) n~ne__~~}~~~.:___ _
_c_:_ _ -'--'- ___
- - -
Q. 540. Amongst the following types of dam sections, the thinnest and most econonii-
cal section is expected for a : _
- (a) Constant angle arch dam (b) shell-arch darn
(c) _constant radius arch darn (d) concrete gravity darn.
Q. 541. Which of the following forces is the least important in the design of arch dams?
(a) reservoir water force (b) uplift pressure
(c) temperature stresses (d) ice load
( e) yield stresses_.
r
I
1318 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
(a) constant centre arch dam (b) constant angle arch dam
(c) variable angle arch dam (d') none of the above.
Q. 543. The most economical central angle of the arch· rings in an arch dam, is :
(a) 123°-34' (b) 133°-34'
(c) 143°-34' (d'). 153°-34'.
Q. 544. The most economical central angle of the arch rings of an arch dam, can be
adopted only at orie place, preferably at mid height in an arch dam of the
type:
(a) constant angle arch dam (b) constant radius arch dam
(c) both (a) and (b) above (d') none of the above.
Q. 545. In an arch dam, the 'extrodos curves' refer to the arch rings corresponding
to the :
(a) upstream face of the dam
(b) downstream face of the dam
(c) either (a) or (b)
(cf) none of the above.
Q. 546. A V-shaped valley with stronger foundations can suggest the choice of an
arch dam of the type :
(a) constant radius arch dam
(b) variable radius arch dam
(c) constant angle arc_h dam
(d') none -of the above.
Q. 547. The type of an arch dam, which generally requires 'overhangs at abutments',
is of:
(a) constant radius type (b) variable radius type
i
(c) constant angle type (cf) none of the above.
Q. 54K.The most accurate- method• to. design arch dams is based upon : ·
(a) the thin cylinder theory (b) the theory of elastic arches
(c) the trial load method (d') all of the above. -- .
Q. 549. Which among the following is not an assumption of the 'Trial Load Analysis'
method of design of arch dams· ?
(a) plane sections normal to the axis remain plane after flexure
(b) any horizontal arch ring is independent of the arch rings below and above
(c) modulus of elasticity of concrete and rock foundation is equal for com-
pression and tension
(d) stresses are proportional to stra111~.
Q. 550. The thin cylinder theory for designing arch dams, ignores :
(a) temperature stresses (b) ice pressures
(c) yjeldstre_s_s~~ _. (d') all of the above.
Q. 551. The only force considered in the design of arch dams by thin cylinder theory
is :
(a) water pressure (b) yield stresses
( c) shrinkage stresses (d') none of them.
Q. 552'. The temperature stresses, producing worst effects in the design of arch dams,
are caused by : '
(a) rise of temperatures (b) fall of temperatures
(c) both (a) and (b) (d') none of the above.
'
'I CHAPTER WISE MULTI CHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1'3 19
I Q. 553. The stresses due to rib-shortening become quite important in the case vf :
(a) long thin arch dams (b) thick arch dams of small angle
(c) both (a) and (b) above (d) none of the above.
Q. 554. While designing a freely supported deck type of a buttress dam, the chosen
spacing between buttresses is usuaily increa~ed to achieve economy, from
about 4.5 to 15 m or so, with the : ·· - -- ---··
(a) decrease in dam height from about 45 m to about 15 m
(b) increase in dam height from about 15 m to about 45 rn.
Q. 555. The load from the deck of a buttress dam is transmitted to the foundations,
throu-gli -the : -
(a) corbels (b) buttresses
(c) lateral braces (d) none of them.
Q. 556. Which of the following components in a buttress dam are responsible for
transmission of load from the sloping deck slab to the buttresses?
(a) corbels (b) lateral braces
(c) counterforts (d) none of them.
Q. 557. The most suitable foundation for buttress dams is :
(a) pile foundation (b) well foundation
(c) mat foundation (d) none of them.
Q. 558. The lateral braces are provided between buttresses in a buttress dam, to :
(a) transfer the load from the deck to the foundation
(b) transfer the load from the deck to the buttresses
(c) provide resistance against buckling of buttresses
(d) none of the above.
Q. 559. No reinforcement is necessary in the :
·· (a) fixed deck buttress dam
(b) simple deck buttress darn
· · (c) caii tilever deck buttress dam
(d) massive head buttress dam.
Q. 560. Which of the following dam is also known as Ambursen dam?
(a) multiple arch buttress dam
(b) mushroom head buttress dam
(c) massive head buttress dam
(d) free deck buttress dam.
Q. 561. Which of the following component of a buttress dam is also called a counter-
fort?
(a) corbel (b) buttress
( c) lateral brace (d) sloping deck.
\
Q. 562. Which of the following is incorrect about buttress dam?
----- ·-···· (a) it requires lessconstruction·material-than a-solid-grnv-it-ycdam-of thee same
height
(b) it is less susceptible to deliberate damage or sabot_age _ _ ...
(c) Ice pressure is not significant, because ice slides over the sloping deck
(d) the factor of safety is usually greater than for a gravity dam.
Q. 563. Multiple dome buttress dam is a type of :
(a) rigid buttress dam (b) deck slab buttress dam
(c) bulk head buttress dam (d) none of the above.
1320 . IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 564. In a simple deck slab buttress dam of a given height, the buttress spacing
can be increased by :
(a) increasing the upstream slope
(b) decreasing the upstream slope
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of these. ·--· ·----~--
Q. 56~. The buttresses of a.free deck buttress dam are provided @ 'x' m clear spac-
ing, and buttress thickness is proposed to be 't' m. The buttress section can
then be designed like the section of a concrete gravity dam, by considering the
effective unit weight of _water =
sur<;harge factor(S) x .actual unit weight of
water (Yw)· The value of this surcharge factor is given as :
(a) S=x+t (b) S=x+t
x t
(c) S=(x+t) (d) none of these.
. 1+t
Q. 566. Multiple arch dams are generally used. for :
(a) high heights (b) k>w heights
(c) medium heights (d) all of the above.
136. (c) . 137. (d) . . 138 . (d) 139. (d) 140. (d)
141. (d) 142. (d) 143. (e) 144. (c) 145. (d)
146. (c) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (d) 150. (a)
151. (a) 152. (b)· 153. (c) 154. (c) 155. (d)
156. (b) 157. (c) 158. (d) 159; (b) . J@,._(Q)______ ...
161. (c) . 162. (a) 163. (b) 164. (a) 165. (d)
166. (b) 167. (b) 168. (b) 169. (b) 170. (c)
171. (a) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (c)
176. (a) 177. (a) 178. (c) 179. (b) . 180. (d)
181. (c) 182. (c) 183. (b) 184. (d) 185. (e)
186. (a) 187. (c) 188. (e) 189. (d) 190. (b)
191. (d) 192. (d) 193. (a) 194. (a) 195. (d)
196. (c) 197. (d) 198. (c) 199. (b) 200. (c)
201.. (b) 202. (b) 203. (b) 204. (d) 205. (b)
206. (d) 207. (b) . 208. (b) 209. (b) 210. (a)
2U: (a) ' 212: (c) .. 213. (b) . 214. (d) 215. (b)
216. (b) 217. (c) 218. (a) 2.19. (a) 220. (a)
221. (d) 222. (a) 223. (c) 224. (c) 225. (b)
226. (d) 227. (b) . 228. (c) 229. (a) 230 .. (b)'
231. ~b) 232. (d) 233. (c)· 234. (d) 235. (d)
236. (b) ' 237. (c) 238. (c) 239. (c) . 240. (c)
241. (c) 242. (b) 243. (d) 244. (d) 245. (c)
246. (d) 247. (a) 248. (c) 249. (d) 250. (b)
251. (a) 252. (b) 253. (e) 254. (b) 255. (b)
256. (b) 257. (c) 258. (d) 259. (c) 260. (d)
261. (c) 262. (d) 263. (c) 264. (c) 265. (b)
266. (c) . - 267. (c) .. 268 . (d) .. - 269. (b) 270. (b)
271. (a) 272. (c) 273. (b) 274. (b) 275. (c)
276. (d) 277. (b) 278. (c) 279. (b) 280. (a)
281. (b) 282. (b) 283. (a) 284. (b) 285. (d)
286. (b) 287. (d) 288. (a) 289. (d) 290. (c)
291. (c) 292. (b) 293. (c) 294. (c) 295. (a)
296. (c) 297. (b) 298. (a) 299. (e} 300. (b)
301. (a) 302. (d) 303. (b) '304. (a) 305. (a)
306. (b) 307. (d) 308. (d) 309. (d) 310. (c)
311. (c) 312. (d) 313. (a) 314. (c) 315. (c)
316 .. (b) 317. (d) . 318; (d) . 3.19 . (a) 320. (d)
321. (a) . 322. (b) 323. (d) 324. (c) 325. (d)
326. (<i)' -327.:; (a) · -•-~328.,- (c) ·.•. 329. (b}- '"·330. (b)
331. (d) 332. (c) 333. (b) 334. (b) 335. (d)
336. (a) 337. (c) 338 •. (c) 339. (a) 340. (d)
341. (b) 342. (c) 343. (c) 344. (a) 345. (a)
346. (b) 347. (c) 348. (b) 349. (a) 350 .. (b)
. 35L (b). . 352 . (d) 353. (d) 354. (b) 355. (a)
356. (b) 357. (a) 358. (b) 359. (c) 360. (e)
361. (c) 362. (b) 363 .. (b) 364. (a) 365. (b)
T
!
366. (c) 367. (d) 368. (c) 369. (b) 370. (b)
371. (c) 372. (b) 373. (a) 374. (c) 375. (b)
376. (a) 377. (a) 378. (d) 379. (b) 380. (b)
381. (c) 382. (a) 383. (b) 384. (c) 385. (c)
386. (a) 387. (b) 388. (c) 389. (b) 390. (bJ
391. (a) 392. (a) 393. (c) 394. (d) 395. (a)
396. (a) 397. (c) 398. (b) 399. (a) 400. (b)
401. (c) 402. (a) 403. (c) 404. (d) 405. (d)
406. (a) 407. (c) 408. (c) 409. (b)_ - _4J_Q, (b)
41( (a) 412. (b) 413. (c) 414. (d) 415. (e)
416. (b) 417. (c) 418. (b) 419. (c) 420. (c)
421. (d) 422. (d) 423. (c) 424. (a) 425. (a)
426. (d) 427. (a) 428. (b) 429. (c) 430. (d)
431. (c) 432. (b) 433. (c) 434. (c) 435. (c)
436. (b) 437. (b) 438. (a) 439. (a) 440. (b)
441. (a) 442. (d) 443. (b) 444. (b) 445. (b)
446. (a) 447. (b) 448. (d) 449. (a) 450. (a)
451. (a) 452. (a) 453. (b) 454. (d) 455. (b)
456. (b) 457. (b) 458. (b) 459. (d) 460. (d)
461. (d) 462. (c) 463. (b) 464. (b)
465. A (ii)
(B) (i)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv)
466. (a) 467. (b) 468. (a) 469. (b) 470. (a)
471. (c) 472. (a) 473. (b) 474. (d) 475. (b)
479. __(~) . - 477. (c) _ ··--· 478. (b)
~-
479. (b) .---_ 480. (c-) - - --
481. (c) 482. (c) 483. (a) 484. (b) 485. (a)
486. (d) 487. (b) 488. (c) - 489. (a) - 490. (a)
491. (b) 492. (b) 493. (b) 494. (b). 495. (c)
496. (d) 497. (d) - 498. (c) . - 499. (c) - 500. (c)
501. (a) 502. (a) 503. (b) 504. (c) 505. (d)
506. (a) 507. (b) 508. (a) 509. (b) 510. (b)
511. (b) 512. (a) 513. (a) 514. (c) 515. (b)
516. (a) 517. (b) 518. (b) 519. (c) 520. (d)
521. (d) 522. (b) 523. (c) 524. (b) 525. (c)
526. (b) 527. (b) 528. (c) 529. (b) 530. (b)
531. (b) 532. (a) 533. (c) 534. (a) 535. (b)
- _536. __(t:[lc_ __-_5]7,_::__c_(ql '---'-- ~38, . _(l'.)_ ;__ __ 539. (a)_ __ C~-'-.540. (b}
541. (b) 542. (a) 543. (b) 544. (b) 545. (a)
546. (c) 547. (c) 548. (c) 549. (b) 550. (d)
551. (a) 552. (b) 553. (b) 554. (b) 555. (b)
556. (a) 557. (c) 558. (c) 559. (d) 560. (d)
561. (b) 562. (b) 563. (a) 564. (a) 565. (Q)
566. (a).
CHAPTER WISE MULTI CHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1323
HINTS FOR SOLVING STARRED QUESTIONS
Q.16. Follow example 1.1, and compute·:
From eqn (1.1)
= 0.4
0. = 0 .5 cumecs
8
Design discharge for distributary
_ Required discharge for crops
- Time factor
... (Since.channelruns.for -lesser daysctha:n:the 'crop·oays~~ the· required channel
discharge should be more)
_ 6.25 cumecs _
- _ - 8.33 cumecs
0 75
Area irrigated = 5100 hectares
CHAPTER WISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1325
Duty on capacity.
= Area to be irrigated during base period
Design full supply discharge at its head during peak demand
5100
= 8.33 = 612
. ha/cumecs.
. . . Ans.
Q.69.' G.CA=8000ha
CCA = GCA - Reserved forests, etc; = 8000 - ·1600 = 6400 ha
Pastures and fallow lands are included in CCA, and hence not to be subtracted.
Area under irrigation
= CCA x In. oflrr. = 6400 x 0.5 = 3200 hectares. Ans.
Q. 79. 0.056
or 'ta = d. Ans.
Q. 80. For non-scouring
d< 11 RS
d
or Rmax= llS ... (i)
213 112
V=_!_
. N·R •S
But· N=_!_d116
24
V= 24 . R213. sl/'J.
dl/6
vmax = dl/6
24 . If:!!. . sv2
. max
=~ .i2!3-l/6 . 8 112-213
(11) 213
= 4.85 d1 12 • s- 116 where dis in m
When d is in cm i.e. dcm' then
d= dcm
100
Q. 85. Such channels are designed only for non-scouring. Hence, they must carry
clear waters only. Ans.
Q. 86. For 1.5 H : 1 V,
1
tan e =2'. =- -
x 1.5
sin 0= 0.554
't/
'tc
= '1 1_ sin~ e =
sin <!>
'1 i -( ?.5540
srn 37
J
2
0.75y·RS:s;0.39l ·Y·ud
0 391
or Rs:;; · d
llx0.75
or RSS.
2~
or R< d
- 21s· Ans.
Q. 89. If the actual velocity in the channel exceeds the optimum velocity (V0 ), then
scouring may occur ; and if the actual velocity .is lesser .than the optimum
. _v~locity CY0), fuen silting may occur. TJJ.is optimum velocity, thus, represents
·- both maximum as well as minimum velocity.
Q. 104 When a canal has afixed configuration (i.e. its bed slope and cross-section do
& Q.108. not change with time) due to its no~-erodible surface, such as in a lined canal,
then the channel is called in permanent regime. Besides no scouring, usually,
there is no silting in such channels, because higher velocities are permitted,
due to their inerodible surface. Hence, the silt amount leaving the channel is
almost the same as the silt amount entering the channel. Such channels, whose
boundaries are fixed and rigid, are called rigid boundary canals, and Lacey's
theory is not applicable to them. The resistance offered to the flowing water
in such a channel, is a functlon of the nature of the boundary surface alone.
On the other hand, when the canals are constructed in erodible strata, their
boundaries tend to change continuously with the flow of watei: in_tht:!m. Su.ch ___
- chann'el's.ccate eviCieriUycailed-mobife-boundary canals. The material forming
the boundaries of such channels are mostly loose soils, easily susceptible to
erosion by flowing water. In such canals, higher veloeities are usually not
permissible, because this would lead to excessive scouring. Lower values of .I
velocities will not be able to keep the entire silt load into suspension, which
may lead to silting in them. Due to such scouring and silting of sediment, the
sediment load transport at different sections along the channel, will usually be
different. Silting and scouring may also result in modification of channel
CHAPTER WISE MULTICHOICE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1327
cross-section. The resistance offered to the flow of water in such channels
depends on two factors. viz :
(i) nature of the surface of boundaries, and
(ii) condition of the bed and banks of the channel.
Such channels need be designed for no-nsilting and non-scouring velocity.
u:)'
Rivers and unlined alluvial canals are examples ofmobile~boundary__C<@Jl_J1e}o;"_
13
~)'
13
Q. 109. Sc om depth = 1.35 = 1.35 = 2.64 m. Ans.
Q. 114. p = b + 15. y ;
with tH : 1V slopes, which are generally at-
tained in a regime canal, irrespective of
Qandf
=22+15 x2.5=27.59m
p = 4.75 .JQ = 27 .59
2
Q= (
2
J. ;:J=_ 33.~~ : :_s =34 cumecs.
3
Ans.
QA =QB . . . . -
Q. 115. Given
[ fA>fB
Now since,
v
=(Qf_)l/6
140
and P=4.75'1Q
VA> VB
PA=PB
Since Q is same, AA <AB
siriceR=~
p --
RA < RB or RB > RA
i.e. channel B has more hydraulic radius for the same wetted perimeter, and
this happens only when the channel has more depth (deeper channels are more
hydraulically efficient).
.. YB>YA·
Hence, choice (b) is the correct choice. Ans.
1328 IRRIGATION ENGINEERING AND HYDRAULIC STRUCTURES
Q. 122. By the geometry ofFig. 29.1, it can be seen that the points, B, B', etc. willJie
on the bank slope line; only when the berm equals (n 2 - n1) di.
where d1 is the depth of cutting, which will vary accord-
ing to ground level.
Bank top
Fig. 29.1
"i
Q. 123. It can be seen from Fig. 29.2 that when ch,annel attains regime, H : 1 V side
Fig. 29..2
slopes will be formed, thereby increasing the initial berm width AB to A'B,
where
A'B=A'A+AB=0.5y+y= I.5y. Ans.
Q. 126. Assume I km length
~:
~
e = o.588 I
I .
v
.-
I
I
1
A = y2 (8 +cot 8) I
I . I
1
Electrical Exchangeable
Si. pH
Classification Conductivity (EC) Sodium
No. value
ir.; micro-mholcm Percentage (ESP)
R =047(QJl/3'
.. f
= o.47 csooo) 113'(~~cs~~~f= l)-,;'8.64'"
=L5 x (1.5 x 8.04- 5)
. = 10.6 m = 10 m (sa~). Ans.
Q.178. Waterway required '
= 1.2 X 4.75 · .JQmax •
where 1.2 is safety ,factor of Lacey's regime width
,1.:
R = 1 35 (t_)113 =(2500J2;3
Q. 304.
.
=5.55m
f l 300
(assumef == 1)
K=C·'d2 ~
v
where v represents the property of fluid passing through
the porous medium
C and d represents the properrie-s -of-porous
medium only.
The compor1:ent of permeability which represents only the properties of the
porous media, is called intrinsic or specific permeability, and represented
by K0,
-where K 0 = Cd2
Its units are m 2 or darcy,
_where 1 darcy = 9.87 x 10- 13 m2.
The coefficient K0 is generally used, when water/fluid temperature varies
considerably or where more than one fluid is involved. However, in ground
water flow, the temperature variation is small, and only water is involved as
the flowing fluid, only K is considered.
2
Q. 340. A is defined as volume of water (m 3) released from an aquifer of 1 m area
and full depth d, per m fall of piezometric head. Its units will, thus, be
m 3/m 2/m; i.e. dimensionless.
Q. 344. Specific yield and storage coefficient are related to a given aquifer and not to
a given well.
Q. 348. Since Specific yield + Specific retention = Porosity, the specific yield,
evidently, is less than porosity.
Q. 370. Ramganga dam, although 128 m high, is earthen and rockfill dam. Nagarjuna
:-.,- Sagaf'datrFis t2S-m-high~:Hirakud dam-is-59 m-high,-and-Mettur dam is 70 m
high ; they are all stone masonry gravity dams.
Q. 396. Dead storage = 0.2 x 30 = 6 M. cum·
Time during which 6 M. cum is filled by sediment
6
·-; @O.l M.cum/yr=-
.
01
=60years. Ans.
1t 2 ?
A=4X2 =3.14m-
Cd = Coefficient of discharge "'0.62 for free 0vcrfall
Q = 0.62x 3.14 · £x 9.81x30
= 4 7.23 cumecs
say 50 cumecs (nearest appropriate choice given). Ans.
Q. 477. Q =Cd· A· '12glil
=0.8x4n~16.62x 16=164cumecs
"' 170 cumecs (nearestappropri~te choice). Ans.
To countercheck, let us see the absolute maximum discharge. which
computes to be 204. 8 cumecs at Cd= 1. In any case, even if al.1 losses are
neglected, Q cannot exceed 204.8 cumecs, and hence the last choice is
certainly incorrect, other choices at (a) and (b) are giving very low·coefficient
of discharge. such as
2 8
i:.
= 0.3 and
2 ~)~~8 = 0.5. which arc tot1 low for
submerged bell mouthed pipe flows.
Q. 502. From eqn. [ 17 .6 (a)] :
Capacity factor (C.F.)
= Average load
Plant capacity
. (], _ Energy produced
where, aveia 0 doad- . T' . h.
· 1me m
= 58,80,000 kW
7x24
= 35000kW= 35 MW-
35MW
·c.F.=iooMw=0.35. Ans.
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
1.1 The percentage of earth covered by oceans is about
(a) 31% (b) 51% (c) 71% (d) 97%
1.2 The percentage of total quantity of water in the world that is saline is about
(a) 71% (b) 33% (c) 67% (d) 97%
1.3 The percentage of total quantity of fresh water in the world available in the liquid form
is about
(a) 30% (b) 70% (c) 11% (d) 51%
1.4 If the average annual rainfall and evaporation over land masses and oceans of the earth
are considered it would be found that
(a) over the land mass the annual evaporation is the same as the annual precipitation
(b) about 9% more water evaporates from the oceans than what falls back on them as
precipitation
(c) over the ocean about 19% more rain falls than what is evaporated
(d) over the oceans about 19% more water evaporates than what falls back on them as
precipitation.
1.5 Considering the ratio of annual precipitation to runoff = r0 for all the continents on the
earth,
(a) Asia has the largest value of the ratio r0.
(b) Europe has the smallest value of r0.
(c) Africa has the smallest value of r0.
(d) Australia has the smallest value of r0.
1.6 In the hydrological cycle the average residence time of water in the global
(a) atmospheric moisture is larger than that in the global rivers
(b) oceans is smaller than that of the global groundwater
(c) rivers is larger than that of the global groundwater
(d) oceans is larger than that of the global groundwater.
1.7 A watershed has an area of 300 ha. Due to a 10 cm rainfall event over the watershed a
stream flow is generated and at the outlet of the watershed it lasts for 10 hours. Assum-
ing a runoff/rainfall ratio of 0.20 for this event, the average stream flow rate at the outlet
in this period of 10 hours is
(a) 1.33 m3/s (b) 16.7 m3/s (c) 100 m3/minute (d) 60,000 m3/h
1.8 Rainfall of intensity of 20 mm/h occurred over a watershed of area 100 ha for a duration
of 6 h. measured direct runoff volume in the stream draining the watershed was found to
be 30,000 m3. The precipitation not available to runoff in this case is
(a) 9 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 17.5 mm (d) 5 mm
1.9 A catchment of area 120 km2 has three distinct zones as below:
2.17 Plot the three-year and the five-year moving means for the data of Problem 2.15. Com-
ment on the effect of increase in the period of the moving mean. Is there any apparent
trend in the data?
2.18 On the basis of isopluvial maps the 50 year-24 hour maximum rainfall at Bangalore is
found to be 16.0 cm. Determine the probability of a 24 h rainfall of magnitude 16.0 cm
occurring at Bangalore:
(a) Once in ten successive years.
(b) Twice in ten successive years.
(c) At least once in ten successive years.
2.19 A one-day rainfall of 20.0 cm at a place X was found to have a period of 100 years.
Calculate the probability that a one-day rainfall of magnitude equal to or larger than
20.0 cm:
(a) Will not occur at station X during the next 50 years.
(b) Will occur in the next year.
2.20 When long records are not available, records at two or more stations are combined to get
one long record for the purposes of recurrence interval calculation. This method is known
as Station-year method.
The number of times a storm of intensity 6 cm/h was equalled or exceeded in three
different rain gauge stations in a region were 4, 2 and 5 for periods of records of 36, 25
and 48 years. Find the recurrence interval of the 6 cm/h storm in that area by the station
year method.
2.21 Annual precipitation values at a place having 70 years of record can be tabulated as
follows:
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
2.1 A tropical cyclone is a
(a) low-pressure zone that occurs in the northern hemisphere only
(b) high-pressure zone with high winds
(c) zone of low pressure with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
(d) zone of low pressure with anticlockwise winds in the northern hemisphere.
2.2 A tropical cyclone in the northern hemisphere is a zone of
(a) low pressure with clockwise wind
(b) low pressure with anticlockwise wind
(c) high pressure with clockwise wind
(d) high pressure with anticlockwise wind.
Precipitation #%
2.3 Orographic precipitation occurs due to air masses being lifted to higher altitudes by
(a) the density difference of air masses
(b) a frontal action
(c) the presence of mountain barriers
(d) extratropical cyclones.
2.4 The average annual rainfall over the whole of India is estimated as
(a) 189 cm (b) 319 cm (c) 89 cm (d) 117 cm.
2.5 Variability of annual rainfall in India is
(a) least in regions of scanty rainfall (b) largest in regions of high rainfall
(c) least in regions of high rainfall (d) largest in coastal areas.
2.6 The standard Symons type raingauge has a collecting area of diameter
(a) 12.7 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 5.08 cm (d) 25.4 cm.
2.7 The standard recording raingauge adopted in India is of
(a) weighing bucket type (b) natural siphon type
(c) tipping bucket type (d) telemetry type
2.8 The following recording raingauges does not produce the mass curve of precipitation as
record:
(a) Symons raingauge (b) tipping-bucket type gauge
(c) weighing-bucket type gauge (d) natural siphon gauge.
2.9 When specific information about the density of snowfall is not available, the water equiva-
lent of snowfall is taken as
(a) 50% (b) 30% (c) 10% (d) 90%
2.10 The normal annual rainfall at stations A, B and C situated in meteorologically
homogeneous region are 175 cm, 180 cm and 150 cm respectively. In the year 2000,
station B was inoperative and stations A and C recorded annual precipitations of 150 cm
and 135 cm respectively. The annual rainfall at station B in that year could be estimated
to be nearly
(a) 150 cm (b) 143 cm (c) 158 cm (d) 168 cm
2.11 The monthly rainfall at a place A during September 1982 was recorded as 55 mm above
normal. Here the term normal means
(a) the rainfall in the same month in the previous year
(b) the rainfall was normally expected based on previous months data
(c) the average rainfall computed from past 12 months record
(d) The average monthly rainfall for September computed from a specific 30 years of
past record.
2.12 The Double mass curve technique is adopted to
(a) check the consistency of raingauge records
(b) to find the average rainfall over a number of years
(c) to find the number of rainguages required
(d) to estimate the missing rainfall data
2.13 The mass curve of rainfall of a storm is a plot of
(a) rainfall depths for various equal durations plotted in decreasing order
(b) rainfall intensity vs time in chronological order
(c) accumulated rainfall intensity vs time
(d) accumulated precipitation vs time in chronological order.
2.14 A plot between rainfall intensity vs time is called as
(a) hydrograph (b) mass curve (c) hyetograph (d) isohyet
2.15 A hyetograph is a plot of
(a) Cumulative rainfall vs time (b) rainfall intensity vs time
(c) rainfall depth vs duration (d) discharge vs time
#& Engineering Hydrology
If the direct runoff produced by the storm is measured at the outlet of the watershed as
0.340 Mm3, estimate the j-index of the storm and duration of rainfall excess.
3.19 The mass curve of an isolated storm over a watershed is given below.
Time from 0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0
start (h)
Cummulative
rainfall (cm) 0 0.25 0.50 1.10 1.60 2.60 3.50 5.70 6.50 7.30 7.70
If the storm produced a direct runoff of 3.5 cm at the outlet of the watershed, estimate the
j-index of the storm and duration of rainfall excess.
3.20 In a 140-min storm the following rates of rainfall were observed in successive 20-min
intervals: 6.0, 6.0, 18.0, 13.0, 2.0, 2.0 and 12.0 mm/h. Assuming the j-index value as
3.0 mm/h and an initial loss of 0.8 mm, determine the total rainfall, net runoff and
W-index for the storm.
3.21 The mass curve of rainfall of duration 100 min is given below. If the catchment had an
initial loss of 0.6 cm and a j-index of 0.6 cm/h, calculate the total surface runoff from
the catchment.
3.22 An isolated 3-h storm occurred over a basin in the following fashion:
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
3.1 If ew and ea are the saturated vapour pressures of the water surface and air respectively,
the Daltons law for evaporation EL in unit time is given by EL =
(a) (ew ea) (b) K ew ea (c) K (ew ea) (d) K (ew + ea)
3.2 The average pan coefficient for the standard US Weather Bureau class A pan is
(a) 0.85 (b) 0.70 (c) 0.90 (d) 0.20
3.3 A canal is 80 km long and has an average surface width of 15 m. If the evaporation
measured in a class A pan is 0.5 cm/day, the volume of water evaporated in a month of
30 days is (in m3)
(a) 12600 (b) 18000 (c) 180000 (d) 126000
3.4 The ISI standard pan evaporimeter is the
(a) same as the US class A pan
(b) has an average pan coefficient value of 0.60
100 Engineering Hydrology
(c) has less evaporation than a US class A pan
(d) has more evaporation than a US class A pan.
3.5 The chemical that is found to be most suitable as water evaporation inhibitor is
(a) ethyl alcohol (b) methyl alcohol
(c) cetyl alcohol (d) butyl alcohol.
3.6 Wind speed is measured with
(a) a wind vane (b) a heliometer
(c) Stevenson box (d) anemometer
3.7 If the wind velocity at a height of 2 m above ground is 5.0 kmph, its value at a height of
9 m above ground can be expected to be in km/h about
(a) 9.0 (b) 6.2 (c) 2.3 (d) 10.6
3.8 Evapotranspiration is confined
(a) to daylight hours (b) night-time only
(c) land surfaces only (d) none of these.
3.9 Lysimeter is used to measure
(a) infiltration (b) evaporation (c) evapotranspiration (d) vapour pressure.
3.10 The highest value of annual evapotranspiration in India is at Rajkot, Gujarat. Here the
annual PET is about
(a) 150 cm (b) 150 mm (c) 210 cm (d) 310 cm.
3.11 Interception losses
(a) include evaporation, through flow and stemflow
(b) consists of only evaporation loss
(c) includes evaporation and transpiration losses
(d) consists of only stemflow.
3.12 The infiltration capacity of a soil was measured under fairly identical general conditions
by a flooding type infiltrometer as ff and by a rainfall simulator as fr. One can expect
(a) ff = fr (b) ff > fr (c) ff < fr (d) no fixed pattern.
3.13 A watershed 600 ha in area experienced a rainfall of uniform intensity 2.0 cm/h for
duration of 8 hours. If the resulting surface runoff is measured as 0.6 Mm3, the average
infiltration capacity during the storm is
(a) 1.5 cm/h (b) 0.75 cm/h (c) 1.0 cm/h (d) 2.0 cm/h
3.14 In a small catchment the infiltration rate was observed to be 10 cm/h at the beginning of
the rain and it decreased exponentially to an equilibrium value of 1.0 cm/h at the end of
9 hours of rain. If a total of 18 cm of water infiltered during 9 hours interval, the value of
the decay constant Kh in Hortons infiltration equation in (h1) units is
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.0 (d) 2.0
3.15 In Hortons infiltration equation fitted to data from a soil, the initial infiltration capacity
is 10 mm/h, final infiltration capacity is 5 mm/h and the exponential decay constant is
0.5 h1. Assuming the infiltration takes place at capacity rates, the total infiltration depth
for a uniform storm of duration 8 hours is
(a) 40 mm (b) 60 mm (c) 80 mm (d) 90 mm
3.16 The rainfall on five successive days on a catchment was 2, 6, 9, 5 and 3 cm. If the j-index
for the storm can be assumed to be 3 cm/day, the total direct runoff from the catchment is
(a) 20 cm (b) 11 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 22 cm
3.17 A 6-h storm had 6 cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 3.0 cm. If the j-index
remains at the same value the runoff due to 12 cm of rainfall in 9 h in the catchment is
(a) 9.0 cm (b) 4.5 cm (c) 6.0 cm (d) 7.5 cm
3.18 For a basin, in a given period Dt, there is no change in the groundwater and soil water
status. If P = precipitation, R = total runoff, E = Evapotranspiration and DS = increase in
the surface water storage in the basin, the hydrological water budget equation states
(a) P = R E ± DS (b) R = P + E DS (c) P = R + E + DS (d) None of these
Streamflow Measurement 137
4.15 During a flood the water surface at a section in a river was found to increase at a rate of
11.2 cm/h. The slope of the river is 1/3600 and the normal discharge for the river stage
read from a steady-flow rating curve was 160 m3/s . If the velocity of the flood wave can
be assumed as 2.0 m/s, determine the actual discharge.
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
4.1 The science and practice of water flow measurement is known as
(a) Hypsometry (b) Hydro-meteorology
(c) Fluvimetry (d) Hydrometry
4.2 The following is not a direct stream flow determination technique
(a) Dilution method (b) Ultrasonic method
(c) Area-velocity method (d) Slope-area method
4.3 A stilling well is required when the stage measurement is made by employing a
(a) bubble gauge (b) float gauge recorder
(c) vertical staff gauge (d) inclined staff gauge
4.4 In a river carrying a discharge of 142 m3/s, the stage at a station A was 3.6 m and the
water surface slope was 1 in 6000. If during a flood the stage at A was 3.6 m and the
water surface slope was 1/3000, the flood discharge (in m3/s) was approximately
(a) 100 (b) 284 (c) 71 (d) 200
4.5 In a triangular channel the top width and depth of flow were 2.0 m and 0.9 m respec-
tively. Velocity measurements on the centre line at 18 cm and 72 cm below water surface
indicated velocities of 0.60 m/s and 0.40 m/s respectively. The discharge in the channel
(in m3/s) is
(a) 0.90 (b) 1.80 (c) 0.45 (d) none of these.
4.6 In the moving-boat method of stream-flow measurement, the essential measurements
are:
(a) the velocity recorded by the current meter, the depths and the speed of the boat.
(b) the velocity and direction of the current meter, the depths and the time interval
between depth readings
(c) the depth, time interval between readings, speed of the boat and velocity of the
stream
(d) the velocity and direction of the current meter and the speed of the boat.
4.7 Which of the following instruments in not connected with stream flow measurement
(a) hygrometer (b) Echo-depth recorder
(c) Electro-magnetic flow meter (d) Sounding weight
4.8 The surface velocity at any vertical section of a stream is
(a) not of any use in stream flow measurement
(b) smaller than the mean velocity in that vertical
(c) larger than the mean velocity in that vertical section
(d) equal to the velocity in that vertical at 0.6 times the depth.
4.9 If a gauging section is having shifting control due to backwater effects, then
(a) a loop rating curve results
(b) the section is useless for stream-gauging purposes
(c) the discharge is determined by area-velocity methods
(d) a secondary gauge downstream of the section is needed.
4.10 The stage discharge relation in a river during the passage of a flood wave is measured. If
QR = discharge at a stage when the water surface was rising and QF = discharge at the
same stage when the water surface was falling, then
(a) QF = QR (b) QR > QF
(c) QR < QF (d) QR/QF = constant at all stages
138 Engineering Hydrology
4.11 A large irrigation canal can be approximated as a wide rectangular channel and Man-
nings formula is applicable to describe the flow in it. If the gauge (G) is related to
discharge (Q) as
Q = Cr(G a)b
where a = gauge height at zero discharge, the value of b is
(a) 1.67 (b) 1.50 (c) 2.50 (d) 0.67
4.12 The dilution method of stream gauging is ideally suited for measuring discharges in
(a) a large alluvial river
(b) flood flow in a mountain stream
(c) steady flow in a small turbulent stream
(d) a stretch of a river having heavy industrial pollution loads.
4.13 A 400 g/l solution of common salt was discharged into a stream at a constant rate of 45
l/s. At a downstream section where the salt solution is known to have completely mixed
with the stream flow the equilibrium concentration was read as 120 ppm. If a back-
ground concentration of 20 ppm is applicable, the discharge in the stream can be esti-
mated to be, in m3/s, as
(a) 150 (b) 180 (c) 117 (d) 889
4.14 In the gulp method of stream gauging by dilution technique, 60 litres of chemical X with
concentration of 250 g/litre is introduced suddenly in to the stream at a section. At a
downstream monitoring section the concentration profile of chemical X that crossed the
section was found to be a triangle with a base of 10 hours and a peak of 0.10 ppm. The
discharge in the stream can be estimated to be about
(a) 83 m3/s (b) 180 m3/s (c) 15000 m3/s (d) 833 m3/s
4.15 The slope-area method is extensively used in
(a) development of rating curve
(b) estimation of flood discharge based on high-water marks
(c) cases where shifting control exists.
(d) cases where backwater effect is present.
4.16 For a given stream the rating curve applicable to a section is available. To determine the
discharge in this stream, the following-data are needed
(a) current meter readings at various verticals at the section
(b) slope of the water surface at the section
(c) stage at the section
(d) surface velocity at various sections.
4.17 During a flood in a wide rectangular channel it is found that at a section the depth of
flow increases by 50% and at this depth the water-surface slope is half its original value
in a given interval of time. This marks an approximate change in the discharge of
(a) 33% (b) +39% (c) +20% (d) no change.
4.18 In a river the discharge was 173 m3/s, the water surface slope was 1 in 6000 and the stage
at the station X was 10.00 m. If during a flood, the stage at station X was 10.00 and the
water surface slope was 1/2000, the flood discharge was approximately
(a) 100 m3/s (b) 519 m3/s (c) 300 m3/s (d) 371 m3/s
4.19 During a flood, the water surface at a section was found to decrease at a rate of 10 cm/h.
The slope of the river is 1/3600. Assuming the velocity of the flood wave as 2 m/s, the
actual discharge in the stream can be estimated as
(a) 2.5% larger than the normal discharge
(b) 5% smaller than the normal discharge
(c) 2.5% smaller than the normal discharge
(d) Same as the normal discharge
where normal discharge is the discharge at a given stage under steady, uniform flow.
192 Engineering Hydrology
If the average reservoir area can be assumed to be 30 km2, estimate the change in the
storage requirement necessitated by this additional data. Assume the runoff coefficient
of the area flooded by the reservoir as equal to 0.4.
5.19 Following is the stream flow record of a stream and covers a critical 2 year period. What
is the minimum size of the reservoir required on this stream to provide a constant down-
stream flow of 0.07 cumecs? Use Sequent Peak Algorithm.
Day 0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40
Runoff volume
(Mm3) 0 9.6 5.4 2.3 3.5 2.3 2.2 1.4 6.4 12.4 10.9
5.22 A reservoir is located in a region where the normal annual precipitation is 160 cm and
the normal annual US class A pan evaporation is 200 cm. The average area of reservoir
water surface is 75 km2. If under conditions of 35% of the rainfall on the land occupied
by the reservoir runoff into the stream, estimate the net annual increase or decrease in
the stream flow as result of the reservoir. Assume evaporation pan coefficient = 0.70.
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
5.1 A mean annual runoff of 1 m3/s from a catchment of area 31.54 km2 represents an
effective rainfall of
(a) 100 cm (b) 1.0 cm (e) 100 mm (d) 3.17 cm
5.2 Direct runoff is made up of
(a) Surface runoff, prompt interflow and channel precipitation
(b) Surface runoff, infiltration and evapotranspiration
(c) Overland flow and infiltration
(d) Rainfall and evaporation
Runoff 193
5.3 A hydrograph is a plot of
(a) rainfall intensity against time (b) stream discharge against time
(c) cumulative rainfall against time (d) cumulative runoff against time
5.4 The term base flow denotes
(a) delayed groundwater flow reaching a stream
(b) delayed groundwater and snowmelt reaching a stream
(c) delayed groundwater and interflow
(d) the annual minimum flow in a stream
5.5 Virgin flow is
(a) the flow in the river downstream of a gauging station
(b) the flow in the river upstream of a gauging station
(c) the flow unaffected by works of man
(d) the flow that would exist in the stream if there were no abstractions to the precipi-
tation
5.6 The water year in India starts from the first day of
(a) January (b) April (c) June (d) September
5.7 An ephemeral stream
(a) is one which always carries some flow
(b) does not have any base flow contribution
(c) is one which has limited contribution of groundwater in wet season
(d) is one which carries only snow-melt water.
5.8 An intermittent stream
(a) has water table above the stream bed throughout the year
(b) has only flash flows in response to storms
(c) has flows in the stream during wet season due to contribution of groundwater.
(d) does not have any contribution of ground water at any time
5.9 Khoslas formula for monthly runoff Rm due to a monthly rainfall Pm is Rm = Pm Lm
where Lm is
(a) a constant
(b) monthly loss and depends on the mean monthly catchment temperature
(c) a monthly loss coefficient depending on the antecedent precipitation index
(d) a monthly loss depending on the infiltration characteristics of the catchment
5.10 The flow-duration curve is a plot of
(a) accumulated flow against time
(b) discharge against time in chronological order
(c) the base flow against the percentage of times the flow is exceeded
(d) the stream discharge against the percentage of times the flow is equalled or ex-
ceeded.
5.11 In a flowmass curve study the demand line drawn from a ridge in the curve did not
interest the mass curve again. This represents that
(a) the reservoir was not full at the beginning
(b) the storage was not adequate
(c) the demand cannot be met by the inflow as the reservoir will not refill
(d) the reservoir is wasting water by spill.
5.12 If in a flowmass curve, a demand line drawn tangent to the lowest point in a valley of
the curve does not intersect the mass curve at an earlier time period, it represents that
(a) the storage is inadequate
(b) the reservoir will not be full at the start of the dry period
(c) the reservoir is full at the beginning of the dry period
(d) the reservoir is wasting later by spill.
194 Engineering Hydrology
5.13 The flow-mass curve is an integral curve of
(a) the hydrograph (b) the hyetograph
(c) the flow duration curve (d) the S-curve.
5.14 The total rainfall in a catchment of area 1200 km2 during a 6-h storm is 16 cm while the
surface runoff due to the storm is 1.2 ´ 108 m3. The f index is
(a) 0.1 cm/h (b) 1.0 cm/h
(c) 0.2 cm/h (d) cannot be estimated with the given data.
5.15 In India, a meteorological subdivision is considered to be affected by moderate drought
if it receives a total seasonal rainfall which is
(a) less than 25% of normal value
(b) between 25% and 49% of normal value
(c) between 50% and 74% of normal value
(d) between 75% and 99% of normal value
5.16 An area is classified as a drought prone area if the probability P of occurrence of a
drought is
(a) 0.4 < P £ 1.0 (b) 0.2 £ P £ 0.40
(c) 0.1 £ P < 0.20 (d) 0.0 < P < 0.20
5.17 In the standard SCS-CN method of modelling runoff due to daily rainfall, the maximum
daily rainfall that would not produce runoff in a watershed with CN = 50 is about
(a) 65 mm (b) 35 mm (c) 50 mm (d) 25 mm
5.18 In the standard SCS-CN method, if CN = 73 the runoff volume for a one day rainfall of
100 mm is about
(a) 38 mm (b) 2 mm (c) 56 mm (d) 81 mm
242 Engineering Hydrology
6.34 The IUH of a catchment is triangular in shape with a base of 36 h and peak of 20 m3/s
occurring at 8 hours from the start. Derive the 2-h unit hydrograph for this catchment.
6.35 The coordinates of the IUH of a catchment are as below:
Time (h) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
Ordinates
(m3/s) 0 11 37 60 71 75 72 60 45 33 21 12 6 0
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
6.1 The recession limb of a flood hydrograph can be expressed with positive values of coef-
ficients, as Qt/Q0 =
at 2
at
(a) K cat (b) a Kt (c) aat (d) e
6.2 For a given storm, other factors remaining same,
(a) basins having low drainage density give smaller peaks in flood hydrographs
(b) basins with larger drainage densities give smaller flood peaks
(c) low drainage density basins give shorter time bases of hydrographs
(d) the flood peak is independent of the drainage density.
6.3 Base-flow separation is performed
(a) on a unit hydrograph to get the direct-runoff hydrograph
(b) on a flood hydrograph to obtain the magnitude of effective rainfall
(c) on flood hydrographs to obtain the rainfall hyetograph
(d) on hydrographs of effluent streams only.
6.4 A direct-runoff hydrograph due to a storm was found to be triangular in shape with a
peak of 150 m3/s, time from start of effective storm to peak of 24 h and a total time base
of 72 h. The duration of the storm in this case was
(a) < 24 h (b) between 24 to 72 h
(c) 72 h (d) > 72 h.
6.5 A unit hydrograph has one unit of
(a) peak discharge (b) rainfall duration
(c) direct runoff (d) the time base of direct runoff.
6.6 The basic assumptions of the unit-hydrograph theory are
(a) nonlinear response and time invariance
(b) time invariance and linear response
(c) linear response and linear time variance
(d) nonlinear time variance and linear response.
6.7 The D-hour unit hydrograph of a catchment may be obtained by dividing the ordinates
of a single peak direct runoff hydrograph (DRH) due to a storm of D hour duration by
the
(a) Total runoff volume (in cm) (b) Direct runoff volume (in cm)
(c) Duration of DRH (d) Total rainfall (in cm)
6.8 A storm hydrograph was due to 3 h of effective rainfall. It contained 6 cm of direct
runoff. The ordinates of DRH of this storm
(a) when divided by 3 give the ordinates of a 6-h unit hydrograph
(b) when divided by 6 give the ordinates of a 3-h unit hydrograph
Hydrographs 243
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
7.1 A culvert is designed for a peak flow Qp on the basis of the rational formula. If a storm
of the same intensity as used in the design but of duration twice larger occurs the result-
ing peak discharge will be
(a) Qp (b) 2 Qp (c) Qp/2 (d) Q 2p
7.2 A watershed of area 90 ha has a runoff coefficient of 0.4. A storm of duration larger than
the time of concentration of the watershed and of intensity 4.5 cm/h creates a peak
discharge of
(a) 11.3 m3/s (b) 0.45 m3/s (c) 450 m3/s (d) 4.5 m3/s
7.3 A rectangular parking lot, with direction of overland flow parallel to the larger side, has
a time of concentration of 25 minutes. For the purpose of design of drainage, four rain-
fall patterns as below are to be considered.
A = 35 mm/h for 15 minutes, B = 45 mm/h for 10 minutes,
C = 10 mm/h for 60 minutes, D = 15 mm/h for 25 minutes,
The greatest peak rate of runoff is expected in the storm
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
7.4 For an annual flood series arranged in decreasing order of magnitude, the return period
for a magnitude listed at position m in a total of N entries, by Weibull formula is
(a) m/N (b) m/(N + 1) (c) (N + 1)/m (d) N/(m + 1).
7.5 The probability that a hundred year flood may not occur at all during the 50 year life of
a project is
(a) 0.395 (b) 0.001 (c) 0.605 (d) 0.133
7.6 The probability of a flood, equal to or greater than 1000 year flood, occurring next year is
(a) 0.0001 (b) 0.001 (c) 0.386 (d) 0.632
Floods %'
7.7 The probability of a flood equal to or greater than 50 year flood, occurring at least one in
next 50 years is
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.636 (c) 0.364 (d) 1.0
7.8 The general equation for hydrological frequency analysis states that xT = value of a
variate with a return period of T years is given by xT =
(a) x Ks (b) x /Ks (c) Ks (d) x + Ks
7.9 For a return period of 100 years the Gumbels reduced variate yT is
(a) 0.0001 (b) 0.001 (c) 0.386 (d) 0.632
7.10 An annual flood series contains 100 years of flood data. For a return period of 200 years
the Gumbels reduced variate can be taken as
(a) 5.296 (b) 4.600 (c) 1.2835 (d) 0.517
7.11 To estimate the flood magnitude with a return period of T years by the LogPearson
Type III method, the following data pertaining to annual flood series is sufficient
(a) Mean, standard deviation and coefficient of skew of discharge data
(b) Mean and standard deviation of the log of discharge and the number of years of data
(c) Mean, standard deviation and coefficient of skew of log of discharge data
(d) Mean and standard deviation of the log of discharges
7.12 If the recurrence interval of an event is TA in annual series and Tp in partial duration
series, then
(a) TA is always smaller than Tp
(b) Difference between TA and Tp is negligible for TA < 5 years
(c) Difference between TA and Tp is negligible for TA > 10 years
(d) Difference between TA and Tp is not negligible till TA > 100 years
7.13 The term mean annual flood denotes
(a) Mean floods in partial-duration series
(b) Mean of annual flood flow series
(c) A flood with a recurrence interval of 2.33 years
(d) A flood with a recurrence interval of N/2 years, where N = number of years of record.
7.14 The use of unit hydrographs for estimating floods is generally limited to catchments of
size less than
(a) 5000 km2 (b) 500 km2 (c) 106 km2 (d) 5000 ha
7.15 The probable maximum flood is
(a) The standard project flood of an extremely large river
(b) A flood adopted in the design of all kinds of spillways
(c) An extremely large but physically possible flood in the region
(d) The maximum possible flood that can occur anywhere in the country
7.16 The standard project flood is
(a) Smaller than probable maximum flood in the region
(b) The same as the design flood used for all small hydraulic structures
(c) Larger than the probable maximum flood by a factor implying factor of safety
(d) The same as the probable maximum flood
7.17 A hydraulic structure has been designed for a 50 year flood. The probability that exactly
one flood of the design capacity will occur in the 75 year life of the structure is
(a) 0.02 (b) 0.220 (c) 0.336 (d) 0.780
7.18 The return period that a designer must use in the estimation of a flood for a hydraulic
structure, if he is willing to accept 20% risk that a flood of that or higher magnitude will
occur in the next 10 years is
(a) 95 years (b) 75 years (c) 45 years (d) 25 years
7.19 A hydraulic structure with a life of 30 years is designed for a 30 year flood. The risk of
failure of the structure during its life is
(a) 0.033 (b) 0.638 (c) 0.362 (d) 1.00
7.20 A bridge is designed for a 50 year flood. The probability that only one flood of the
design capacity or higher will occur in the 75 years life of the bridge is
(a) 0.020 (b) 0.220 (c) 0.786 (d) 0.336
318 Engineering Hydrology
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
8.1 The hydrologic flood-routing methods use
(a) Equation of continuity only (b) Both momentum and continuity equations
(c) Energy equation only (d) Equation of motion only
8.2 The hydraulic methods of flood routing use
(a) Equation of continuity only
(b) Both the equation of motion and equation of continuity
(c) Energy equation only
(b) Equation of motion only
8.3 The St Venant equations for unsteady open-channel flow are
(a) continuity and momentum equations
(b) momentum equation in two different forms
(c) momentum and energy equations
(d) energy and continuity equations.
8.4 The prism storage in a river reach during the passage of a flood wave is
(a) a constant (b) a function of inflow and outflow
(c) function of inflow only (d) function of outflow only
8.5 The wedge storage in a river reach during the passage of a flood wave is
(a) a constant (b) negative during rising phase
(c) positive during rising phase (d) positive during falling phase
8.6 In routing a flood through a reach the point of intersection of inflow and outflow
hydrographs coincides with the peak of outflow hydrograph
(a) in all cases of flood routing
(b) when the inflow is into a reservoir with an uncontrolled outlet
(c) in channel routing only
(d) in all cases of reservoir routing.
8.7 Which of the following is a proper reservoir-routing equation?
1 æ Q1 D t ö æ Q2 D t ö
(a) (I1 I2) Dt + ç S1 + ÷ø = çè S2 - ÷
2 è 2 2 ø
æ 2 S1 ö æ 2 S2 ö
(b) (I1 + I2) Dt + ç - Q1 ÷ = ç + Q2 ÷
è tD ø è t D ø
1 æ Q2 D t ö æ Q1 D t ö
(c) (I1 + I2) Dt + çè S2 - ÷ø = çè S1 + ÷
2 2 2 ø
æ 2 S1 ö æ 2 S2 ö
(d) (I1 + I2) + ç - Q1 ÷ = ç + Q2 ÷
è Dt ø è Dt ø
8.8 The Muskingum method of flood routing is a
(a) form of reservoir routing method
(b) hydraulic routing method
(c) complete numerical solution of St Venant equations
(d) hydrologic channel-routing method.
8.9 The Muskingum method of flood routing assumes the storage S is related to inflow rate
I and outflow rate Q of a reach as S =
(a) K[xI (1 x)Q] (b) K[xQ+ (1 x)I]
(c) K[xI + (1 x)Q] (d) Kx[I (1 x)Q]
8.10 The Muskingum method of flood routing gives Q2 = C0I2 + C1I1 + C2Q1. The coeffi-
cients in this equation will have values such that
(a) C0 + C1 = C2 (b) C0 C1 C2 = 1
(c) C0 + C1 + C2 = 0 (d) C0 + C1 + C2 = 1.
Flood Routing 319
8.11 The Muskingum channel routing equation is written for the outflow from the reach Q in
terms of the inflow I and coefficients C0, C1 and C2 as
(a) Q2 = C0 I0 + C1Q1 + C2I2 (b) Q2 = C0I2 + C1I1 + C2Q2
(c) Q2 = C0I0 + C1I1 +C2I2 (d) Q2 = C0Q0 + C1Q1 + C2I2
8.12 In the Muskingum method of channel routing the routing equation is written as
Q2 = C0I2 + C1I1 + C2Q1, If the coefficients K = 12 h and x = 0.15 and the time step for
routing Dt = 4 h, the coefficient C0 is
(a) 0.016 (b) 0.048 (c) 0.328 (d) 0.656
8.13 In the Muskingum method of channel routing the weighing factor x can have a value
(a) between 0.5 to 0.5 (b) between 0.0 to 0.5
(c) between 0.0 to 1.0 (d) between 1.0 to +1.0
8.14 In the Muskingum method of channel routing if x = 0.5, it represents an outflow
hydrograph
(a) that has reduced peak
(b) with an amplified peak
(c) that is exactly the same as the inflow hydrograph
(d) with a peak which is exactly half of the inflow peak
8.15 If the storage S, inflow rate I and outflow rate Q for a river reach is written as
S = K [x In + (1 x) Qn]
(a) n = 0 represents storage routing through a reservoir
(b) n = 1 represents the Muskingum method
(c) n = 0 represents the Muskingum method
(d) n = 0 represents a linear channel.
8.16 A linear reservoir is one in which the
(a) volume varies linearly with elevation
(b) storage varies linearly with the outflow rate
(c) storage varies linearly with time
(d) storage varies linearly with the inflow rate.
8.17 An isochrone is a line on the basin map
(a) joining raingauge stations with equal rainfall duration
(b) joining points having equal standard time
(c) connecting points having equal time of travel of the surface runoff to the catchment
outlet
(d) that connects points of equal rainfall depth in a given time interval.
8.18 In the Nash model for IUH given by
1
u(t) = (t/K)n1 (e)t/K
K G(n)
the usual units of u(t), n and K are, respectively;
(a) cm/h, h, h (b) h1, h, h
(c) h1, dimensionless number, h (d) cm/h, dimensionless number, h
8.19 The peak ordinate of the IUH of a catchment was obtained from Nash model as 0.03 cm/
h. If the area of the catchment is 550 km2 the value of the peak ordinate in m3/s is
(a) 16.5 (b) 45.83 (c) 30.78 (d) 183.3
8.20 If the Gamma function G (1.5) = 0.886, the value of G (0.5) is
(a) 0.5907 (b) 1.329 (c) 0.886 (d) 1.772
8.21 In the Nash model for IUH, if MI1 = the first moment of ERH about the time origin
divided by the total effective rainfall and MQ1 = the first moment of DRH about the time
origin divided by the total direct runoff, then
(a) MQ1 MI 1 = nK (b) MI 1 MQ1 = nK 2
(c) MQ1 MI 1 = n (n + 1) K (d) MI 1 MQ1 = 2 nK
Groundwater 371
9.28 The drawdown time data recorded at an observation well situated at a distance of 50 m
from the pumping well is given below:
If the well discharge is 1800 lpm, calculate the transmissibility and storage coefficients
of the aquifer.
9.29 Estimate the discharge of a well pumping water from a confined aquifer of thickness 20
m with the following data:
Distance of observation well from the pumping well = 100 m
Drawdown at the observation well after 4 hours of pumping = 1.5 m
Drawdown at the observation well after 16 hours of pumping = 2.0 m
Storage coefficient, S = 0.0003
9.30 A fully penetrating well in a confined aquifer is being pumped at a constant rate of 2000
Lpm. The aquifer is known to have a storage coefficient of 0.005 and transmissibility of
480 m2/day. Find the drawdown at a distance of 3.0 m from the production well after
(i) one hour and (ii) 8 hours after pumping.
9.31 A fully penetrating well in a confined aquifer is pumped at the rate of 60 m3/h from an
aquifer of storage coefficient and transmissibility 4 ´ 104 and 15 m2/h respectively.
Estimate the drawdown at a distance of 100 m after 8 hours of pumping.
9.32 A fully penetrating confined aquifer is pumped at a constant rate of 100 m3/h. At an
observation well located at 100 m from the pumping well the drawdown where observed
to be 0.65 m and 0.80 m after one and two hours of pumping respectively. Estimate the
formation constants of the aquifier.
9.33 A well in a confined aquifer was pumping a discharge of 40 m3/hour at uniform rate. The
pump was stopped after 300 minutes of running and the recovery of drawdown was
measured. The recovery data is shown below. Estimate the transmissibility of the aquifer.
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS
9.1 A geological formation which is essentially impermeable for flow of water even though
it may contain water in its pores is called
(a) aquifer (b) aquifuge (c) aquitard (d) aquiclude
9.2 An aquifer confined at the bottom but not at the top is called
(a) Semiconfined aquifer (b) unconfined aquifer
(c) confined aquifer (d) perched aquifer
9.3 A stream that provides water to the water table is termed
(a) affluent (b) influent (c) ephemeral (d) effluent
9.4 The surface joining the static water levels in several wells penertating a confined aquifer
represents
(a) water-table surface (b) capillary fringe
(c) piezometric surface of the aquifer (d) cone of depression.
9.5 Flowing artesian wells are expected in areas where
(a) the water table is very close to the land surface (b) the aquifer is confined
(c) the elevation of the piezometric head line is above the elevation of the ground surface
(d) the rainfall is intense
372 Engineering Hydrology
9.6 Water present in artesian aquifers is usually
(a) at sub atmospheric pressure (b) at atmospheric pressure
(c) at 0.5 times the atmospheric pressure (d) above atmospheric pressure
9.7 The volume of water that can be extracted by force of gravity from a unit volume of
aquifer material is called
(a) specific retention (b) specific yield
(c) specific storage (d) specific capacity
9.8 Which of the pairs of terms used in groundwater hydrology are not synonymous?
(a) Permeability and hydraulic conductivity (b) Storage coefficient and storativity
(c) Actual velocity of flow and discharge velocity
(d) Water table aquifer and unconfined aquifer
9.9 The permeability of a soil sample at the standard temperature of 20°C was 0.01 cm/s.
The permeability of the same material at a flow temperature of 10° C is in cm/s
(a) < 0.01 (b) > 0.01
(c) = 0.01 (d) depends upon the porous material
9.10 A soil has a coefficient of permeability of 0.51 cm/s. If the kinematic viscosity of water
is 0.009 cm2/s, the intrinsic permeability in darcys is about
(a) 5.3 ´ 104 (b) 474 (c) 4.7 ´ 107 (d) 4000
9.11 Darcys law is valid in a porous media flow if the Reynolds number is less than unity.
This Reynolds number is defined as
(a) (discharge velocity ´ maximum grain size)/m
(b) (actual velocity ´ average grain size)/n
(c) (discharge velocity ´ average grain size)/n
(d) (discharge velocity ´ pore size)/n
9.12 Two observation wells penetrating into a confined aquifer are located 1.5 km apart in the
direction of flow. Heads of 45 m and 20 m are indicated at these two observation wells.
If the coefficient of permeability of the aquifer is 30 m/day and the porosity is 0.25, the
time of travel of an inert tracer from one well to another is about
(a) 417 days (b) 500 days (c) 750 days (d) 3000 days
9.13 A sand sample was found to have a porosity of 40%. For an aquifer of this material, the
specific yield is
(a) = 40% (b) > 40% (c) < 40% (d) dependent on the clay fraction
9.14 An unconfined aquifer of porosity 35%, permeability 35 m/day and specific yield of
0.15 has an area of 100 km2. The water table falls by 0.20 m during a drought. The
volume of water lost from storage in Mm3 is
(a) 7.0 (b) 3.0 (c) 4.0 (d) 18.0
9.15 The unit of intrinsic permeability is
(a) cm/day (b) m/day (c) darcy/day (d) cm2
9.16 The dimensions of the storage coefficient S are
(a) L3 (b) LT 1 (c) L3/T (d) dimensionless
9.17 The dimensions of the coefficient of transmissibility T are
(a) L2/T (b) L3T 2 (c) L/T 2 (d) dimensionless
9.18 The coefficient of permeability of a sample of aquifer material is found to be 5 m/day in
a laboratory test conducted with water at 10°C. If the kinematic viscosity of water at
various temperatures is as below:
Temp in °C 10 20 30
v(m2/s) 1.30 ´ 106 1.00 ´ 106 0.80 ´ 106
the standard value of the coefficient of permeability of the material, in m/day, is about
(a) 4.0 (b) 5.0 (c) 6.5 (d) 9.0
Groundwater 373
9.19 A stratified unconfined aquifer has three horizontal layers as below
ANSWERS TO OBJECTIVE
QUESTIONS
Chapter 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
1.00 c d a b c d c a c
2.00 d b c d c a b b c
2.10 c d a d c b b d b b
2.20 b a a b c a b
3.00 c b d c c d b d c
3.10 c b b b c d b d c
4.00 d d b d c b a c d
4.10 b a c b a b c b c c
5.00 a a b a c c b c b
5.10 d c b a b c b c a
6.00 c a b a c b b b b
6.10 c b d c a d a d b d
6.20 b a b c b
7.00 a d a c c b b d a
7.10 a c c c a c a c c b
7.20 d
8.00 a b a d c b d d c
8.10 d b a b a b b c d c
8.20 d a
9.00 d b b c c d b c a
9.10 b c c b d d d a c a
9.20 d a a b b a b d b
10.00 d a c b c b b c b
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1. Per capita water demand is defined as the litres of water consumed daily by each person. Naturally it has to be
some average value, over a period of time. Over how much period, the averaging is done here:
(a) 24 hours (b) One year (c) 10 years (d) 35 years
2. Which one of the following practices, causes reduction in the per capita water consumption?
(a) good quality water (b) hotter climate (c) modern living (d) metering system
3. The multiplying factor, as applied to obtain the maximum daily water demand, in relation to the average
i.e. per captia daily demand, is:
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.7
4. The multiplying factor, as applied to obtain the peak hourly demand, in relation to the maximum daily demand
(per hour of course) is:
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.7
5. The multiplying factor, as applied to obtain peak hourly demand, in relation to the average daily demand (per
hour of course), is:
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.7
6. If the average daily water consumption of a city is 24000 cum, the peak hourly demand (of the maximum day of
course) will be :
(a) 1000 cu m/hr (b) 1500 cu m/hr (c) 1800 cu m/hr (d) 2700 cu m/hr
7. The total water requirement of a city is generally assessed on the basis of :
(a) maximum hourly demand (b) maximum daily demand + fire demand
(c) average daily demand + fire demand (d) greater of (a) and (b)
8. The water treatment units may be designed, including 100% reserves, for water demand equal to :
(a) average daily (b) twice of (a) (c) maximum daily (d) twice of (c)
9. Coincident draft in relation to water demand, is based on :
(a) peak hourly demand (b) maximum daily demand (c) maximum daily + fire demand
(d) greater of (a) and (c)
10. The distribution system in water supplies, is designed on the basis of :
(a) average daily demand (b) peak hourly demand (c) coincident draft
(d) greater of (b) and (c)
11. As compared to the geometrical increase method of fore-casting population, the arithmetical increase method
gives :
(a) lesser value (b) higher value (c) equal value
(d) may vary, as it may depend on the population figures
12. The population of a town in three consecutive decades are : 1 lakh, 1.4 lakh, 1.68 lakh, respectively.
The population of this town in the fourth consecutive decade, according to geometric method, would be:
(a) 1.9 lakh (b) 2.184 lakh (c) 2.2 lakh (d) 2.5 lakh
13. The suitable method for forecasting population for a young and a rapidly developing city is:
(a) arithmetic mean method (b) geometric mean method (c) comparative graphical method
(d) none of these
14. The suitable method for forecasting population for an old developed large city, is :
(a) arithmetic mean method (b) geometric mean method (c) comparative graphical method
(d) none of these
15. The growth of population can be conveniently represented by a curve, which is amenable to mathematical
solution. The type of this curve is :
(a) semi-log curve (b) straight line curve (c) logistic curve (d) exponential curve
16. The average domestic water consumption per capita per day for an Indian city, as per IS 1172-1963, may be
taken as :
(a) 135 I/c/d (b) 210 I/c/d (c) 240 I/c/d (d) 270 I/c/d
17. The total water consumption per capita per day, including domestic, commercial, and industrial demands, for
an average Indian city, as per IS code, may be taken as:
(a) 135 I/c/d (b) 210 I/c/d (c) 240 I/c/d (d) 270 I/c/d
18. If the population of a city is 2 lakh, and average water consumption is 200 Icpd, then the capacity of the pipe
mains, should be:
(a) 108 MId (b) 72 MId (c) 60 MId (d) 40MId
19. If the population of a central congested high valued city is 2,00,000, and the fire demand is computed to be
45,000 litres per minute, the formula used for the calculation must have been:
(a) Freeman’s formula (b) National Board of Underwriters formula
(c) Kuichling’s formula (d) Buston’s formula
20. If the average water consumption of a city is 300 Ipcd, and its population is 4,00,000, the maximum hourly
draft of the maximum day will be:
(a) 120 MId (b) 216 MId (c) 324 MId (d) none of these
21. The pipe of mains carrying water from the source to the reservoir are designed for the :
(a) maximum daily draft (b) average daily draft (c) maximum hourly draft of the maximum day
(d) maximum weekly draft
22. Water kisses in water supply system, are assumed as:
(a) 5% (b) 7.5% (c) 15% (d) 25%
CHAPTER 3
23. Which source of water, among the following, is not a surface source?
(a) river (b) well (c) lake (d) ocean
24. Which source of water, among the following, is not a subsurface source?
(a) spring (b) well (c) storage reservoir (d) infiltration gallery
25. The earth’s water circulatory system is known as:
(a) water cycle (b) precipitation cycle (c) hydrological cycle (d) none of them
26. Most of the weather phenomena take place in the :
(a) mesophere (b) stratosphere (c) ionosphere (d) troposhere
27. The average annual rainfall of a country is a figure, which is averaged over a period of :
(a) 10 years (b) 15 years (c) 35 years (d) 100 years
28. A large whirling mass of air, at the centre of which the barometric pressure is low, is known as a :
(a) cyclone (b) tornado (c) anti cyclone (d) none of these
29. The major quantity of rain comes to India, as :
(a) convective precipitation (b) cyclonic precipitation (c) orographic precipitation
(d) none of these
30. Ground water accretion starts during a rain, after satisfying the demand for :
(a) interception (b) depression storage (c) surface detention (d) all of these
31. I.M.D has changed over from Symon’s rain gauge to fibre glass rain gauges or two sizes. The collector areas of
these gauges are :
(a) 1000 cm2 and 500 cm2 (b) 400 cm2 and 200 cm2 (c) 200 cm2 and 100 cm2 (d) none of these
32. The standard recording rain gauge adopted in India, is of the type:
(a) weighing bucket (b) tipping bucket (c) natural siphon (d) telemetry
33. The type of rain gauge, which produces a continuous graphical record as mass curve of rainfall, is known as:
(a) Symon’s gauge (b) storage gauge (c) natural siphon type (d) none of these
34. Natural siphon type gauge is also known as :
(a) floating type (b) weighing type (c) tipping bucket type (d) none of these
35. Out of the following, the only non-recording type of rain gauge, is:
(a) weighing type (b) tipping bucket type (c) Symon’s type (d) none of the above
36. The type of rain gauge, which is installed at hilly and inaccessible areas, is :
(a) tipping bucket type (b) float type (c) weighing type (d) none of these
37. Index of wetness, directly represents in a given year at a given place, the :
(a) extent of rainfall (b) extent of deficiency or rainfall
(c) comparative rainfall with respect to annual average value (d) none of these
38. The dead storage zone in a reservoir is provided for storage of :
(a) water for firm power (b) sand and silt (c) water for water supplies (d) none of these
39. Trap efficiency of a storage reservoir indicates the :
(a) sediment volume trapped in the reservoir (b) sediment volume let out from the reservoir
(c) sediment volume trapped inrelation to the sediment volume entering the reservoir
40. The percentage of the total sediment flow, getting deposited in a reservoir, is called
(a) capacity-inflow ratio (b) sediment coefficient (c) trap efficiency (d) displacement efficiency
41. With the reduction in the reservoir capacity, the quantum of sediment trapped by it :
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) does not get affected
42. The evaporation losses from the surface of a reservoir can be reduced by sprinkling :
(a) DDT (b) acetyl alcohol (c) potassium permanganate (d) none of these
43. Pick up the incorrect statement:
(a) surface run off equals run off minus base flow
(b) the water that seeps into the ground reservoir is called infiltration
(c) the yield of a drainage basin in depth, when multiplied by the basin area, gives us the
yearly available water volume
(d) the coarser sand and silt gets deposited near the face of the dam, and the finer one away from it
(e) none of the above
44. Pick up the incorrect statement:
(a) proper location and the operation of the sluiceways of a reservoir can help in increasing the density
currents, to reduce reservoir silting
(b) about 1/4 to 1/5 of the total reservoir capacity is earmarked for dead storage, in a storage reservior
(c) surface waters are generally soft and less corrosive than the ground waters
(d) none of the above
45. The maximum quantity of water that can be supplied from a reservoir with full guarantee during critical
periods, is called:
(a) reservoir yield (b) design yield (c) secondary yield (d) firm yield
CHAPTER 4
CHAPTER 5
87. The devices, which are installed for drawing water from different water sources, are called :
(a) filters (b) intakes (c) outlets (d) inlets
88. Pick up the incorrect statement, in relation to water supplies :
(a) the intake point should, as far as possible, be located in deep waters
(b) the intake point should be located upstream of the point of sewage disposal
(c) the intake point on the meandering rivers, should preferably be located on the convex banks
(d) none of these
89. Simple submerged intakes may be suitable to :
(a) large water supply projects on rivers (b) small water supply projects on streams
(c) small water supply projects on lakes (d) both (b) and (c)
90. Dry intake towers, when compared to wet intake towers, need:
(a) heavier and costly construction (b) lighter and cheaper construction
(c) practically the same section
91. Pick up the incorrect statement :
(a) dry intake towers are preferred to went intake towers
(b) wet intake towers help in withdrawing water from different levels of a storage reservoir
(c) a medium sized river intake well can preferably be adopted, when the water is withdrawn
from the upstream of a barrage
(d) none of these
92. The intake towers, which remain surrounded by the water from all sides and stand in the river, are called:
(a) wet intake towers (b) valve towers (c) dry intake towers (d) both (a) and (c)
CHAPTER 6
93. Pressure pipes are exclusively used for carrying water supplies, because :
(a) such pipes are closed, and hence not exposed to pollution any- where, enroute
(b) since the water runs under pressure in these pipes, pollution from outside surroundings cannot find
entry, even if some joints are loose
(c) the flow velocity in water supply conduits is generally kept between 0.9 to 1.5 m/s , as an optimum
velocity, depending on the cost of the pipe and the pumping
94. Pick up the incorrect statement :
(a) The inner surface of a water supply pressure pipe offers resistance to the flow, leading to dissipation of
pressure head
(b) In the design of water supply conduits, the frictional loss offered by the pipe length is balanced against
the available water head
(c) the flow velocity in water supply conduits is generally kept between 0.9 to 1.5 m/s, as an optimum
velocity, depending on the cost of the pipe and the pumping
(d) none of the above
95. The formula, which is most appropriate to the design of pressure pipes is :
(a) Darcy Weisbach formula (b) Mannings formula (c) Chezy’s formula (d) Dupuit’s formula
96. The formula, which has absolutely no relevance with the design of water supply conduits, is:
(a) Hazen-William’s formula (b) Thiem’s formula (c) Darcy-Weisbach formula
( d) Modified Darcy Weisbach formula
97. In the design of water supply conduits, the smaller value of the design velocity, if adopted, will :
(a) increase the cost of the pipe (b) reduce the cost of pumping
(c) both(a) and (b) above (d) none of the above
98. In the design of water supply conduits, the smaller value of the design velocity, if adopted, will :
(a) reduce the cost of the pipe (b) reduce the cost of pumping
(c) both(a) and (b) above (d) none of the above
99. The appropriate diameter of a water main for supplying 9 MId of water, with a velocity of 1.5 m/sec, is:
(a) 0.3 m (b) 0.6 m (c) 0.9 m (d) 1.0 m
100. The internal pressure, to which a water supply pipe is subjected to, is:
(a) full hydrostatic pressure when water in the pipe is at rest
(b) pressure head and velocity head in the pipe, when flow at full velocity is taking place
(c) (a) + water hammer pressure (d) (b) + water hammer pressure
101. The hoop tension, needing steel reinforcement along the circumference of a water supply conduit,
is caused by:
(a) internal pressure due to water in the pipe
(b) water hammer pressure (c) pressure due to traffic load (d) both (a) and (b)
102. Pick up the incorrect statement :
(a) water hammer pressure is caused by opening and closing of gates, valves, pumps, etc. situated along a
water main
(b) water hammer pressure is caused only momentarily
(c) the greater main, the greater will be the water hammer pressure developed
(d) none of these
103. Water hammer pressures can be reduced by using :
(a) fast closing valves (b) slow closing valves (c) critically closing time, valves (d) none of these
104.* A C.I., 1 m dia water pipe, is subjected to a water hammer pressure of 8 kg/cm 2 . The maximum static head
on this pipe at its lowest point enroute is 120 m. The suggested thickness of this pipe is :
(a) 10 mm (b) 12 mm (c) 15 mm (d) 25 mm
105. The water supply mains, normally need meticulous design, to withstand:
(a) compressive stresses (b) tensile stresses (c) flexural stresses (d) all of these
106. The maximum pressure, which a pipe can withstand without any leakage, during hydrostatic pressure test, is
called the :
(a) working pressure (b) test pressure (c) design pressure (d) hydrostatic pressure
107. The commonly used material for water mains, which is strong non-corrodable, very very durable
(100 years or so), but heavy and brittle, is :
(a) steel (b) R.C.C. (c) copper (d) cast iron
108. The cast iron water mains are :
(a) vary durable (b) can resist very high pressures (c) liable to corrosion
(d) unaffected in their discharging capacities, over time.
109. As compared to the cast iron pipes, steel water pipes are :
(a) heavier (b) stronger (c) durable (d) all of these
110. Steel pipes are :
(a) easily affected by acidic and alkaline atmospheric effects
(b) unable to withstand high negative pressures
(c) liable to quick rusting (d) all of the above
111. Match the columns, most appropriately:
Water pipe material Average age of pipe
(a) cast iron (i) 75 years
(b) steel (ii) 100 years
(c) R.C.C (iii) 40 years
(a)-ii (b)-iii (c)i
112. Cast iron pipes, which are cast in horizontal position by ordinary sand moulding process, are called :
(a) Pit cast pipes (b) Delavaud pipes (c) Sand spun pipes (d) none of these
113. Asbestos pipes are made of :
(a) asbestos (b) silica and asbestos (c) asbestos cement (d) none of these
114. Cast iron pipes, made by centrifugal process using metallic moulds, are called :
(a) Pit cast pipes (b) Delavaud pipes (c) Sand spun pipes (d) Mcwane pipes
115. The valve, which is provided in the water distributing pipes at street corners and pipe junctions to control the
flow in the distribution system, is:
(a) reflux valve (b) sluice valve (c) gate valve (d) none of these
116. The valve, which is provided in the water distributing pipes at street corners and pipe junctions to control the
flow in the distribution system, is :
(a) an air valve (b) a sluice valve (c) a scour valve (d) a reflux valve
117. A check valve is also known as a :
(a) relief valve (b) reflux valve (c) blow off valve (d) none of these
118. A sluice valve is also known as :
(a) air-inlet valve (b) scour valve (c) gate valve (d) none of these
119. Pressure-relief valves installed along water mains may be provided for relieving:
(a) air pressure (b) water hammer pressure (c) ice pressure (d) all of these
120. Anchrorages in water pipelines are provided :
(a) at all bends (b) at all steep slopes (c) at other points of unbalanced pressure (d) all of the above
121. Scour valves are provided :
(a) at the street corners to control the flow
(b) at the dead ends to drain out the wastewater
(c) at every summit of the rising main
(d) at the foot of the rising main along the slope, to prevent back running of water
122. A blow off valve is provided in a water distribution system, at :
(a) low points (b) high points (c) junction points (d) all of the above
123. Cast iron pipes having plain ends, are joined by a joint, called :
(a) flanged joint (b) spigot and socket joint (c) dresser coupling (d) none of these
124. Pick up the incorrect statement
(a) sluice valves are provided to allow flow of water only in one direction, thereby preventing back flow
(b) air valves are provided at ‘summits’ along a pipe line, to admit or release air
(c) scour valves are provided at low points to empty a pipe line
(d) gate valves are provided to regulate flow of water through the pipe lines
125. Summits are the points of :
(a) high pressures (b) low pressures (c) equal pressures (d) none of these
CHAPTER 7
126. The pumps required for feeding the treated water into the distribution system, when compared to the pumps
required for feeding the raw water into the treatment plant, are generally of :
(a) higher capacity (b) lower capacity (c) equal capacity (d) none of the above
127. High lift pumps are generally required to feed water into the :
(a) treatment plant (b) distribution system (c) both of them (d) neither of them
128. Low lift pumps are generally required to feed water into the :
(a) the treatment plant (b) the distribution system (c) both of them (d) neither of them
129. Centrifugal pumps are rotodynamic machines of the :
(a) axial flow type (b) radial flow type (c) mixed flow type (d) (b) and (c) both
(e) (a) and (b) both (f) (a) and (c) both (g) none of these
130. Axial flow pumps are of :
(a) rotodynamic type (b) displacement type (c) centrifugal type (d) none of these
131. Examples of the displacement pumps are :
(a) reciprocating pumps (b) centrifugal pumps (c) rotary pumps (d) (a)and (c)both
(e) (a) and (b) both (f) (b) and (c) both (g) none of these
(h) all (a), (b) and (c) above
132. The most commonly adopted pumps in water supplies are:
(a) centrifugal pumps (b) reciprocating pumps (c) hydraulic rams (d) none of these
133. The efficiency of closed impeller type of centrifugal pumps, when compared to that of open impeller types, is:
(a) much high (b) much less (c) almost equal
134. The chances of clogging of the centrifugal pumps are more for type of :
(a) open impellers (b) closed impellers (c) equal for both types (d) no chances at all
135. Closed impeller type of centrifugal pumps are largely used for pumping water supplies, because:
(a) their efficiency is high (b) they do not clog easily (c) both (a) and (b) above (d) none of these
136. Open impeller type of centrifugal pumps are largely used to pump sewage, because :
(a) their efficiency is high (b) they do not clog easily (c) both (a) and (b) above (d) none of them
137. Diffuser type of centrifugal pumps are those centrifugal pumps, which have :
(a) volute type of casing (b) turbine type of casing (c) any of the above two (d) none of these
138. Turbine casing type of centrifugal pumps, when compared to volute casing type of centrifugal pumps, possess
: (a) higher efficiency (b) lower efficiency (c) equal efficiency
139. A bore hole pump is essentially a centrifugal pump of :
(a) single stage (b) double stage (c) multi- stage (d) none of these
140. The driving motor is placed below the pump bowl in a :
(a) turbine pump (b) submergible pump (c) monoblock pump (d) none of these
141. Priming of a pump, involving the filling of the pump casing with water for removing entrapped air, is
essentially required for:
(a) centrifugal pumps installed below the water level (b) centrifugal pumps installed above the water level
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
142. While installing a monoblock centrifugal pump, the inlet pipe drawing water from the sump well of the
ground watertable, is provided with a foot valve, in order to :
(a) prevent water from leaving and emptying the pump casing
(b) prevent backflow of lifted water into the pump
(c) prevent sudden and full loading of the pump motor
(d) none of the above
143. If the sluice valve provided at the outlet end of a monoblock centrifugal pump installation is kept fully open at
the start of the motor, then the chances are :
144. The rated discharge of a centrifugal pump represents the discharge at which the pump efficiency is :
(a) minimum (b) maximum (c) workable (d) none of these
145. The discharge from a given centrifugal pump will vary, depending on the :
(a) lifted head (b) speed of its motor (c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
146*. A single speed centrifugal pump, feeding a small water supply distribution system of a block of house,
works at :
(a) maximum efficiency (b) minimum efficiency (c) reduced efficiency (d) none of the above
147. Axial flow pumps are most-particularly suitable for pumping :
(a) water supplies from tubewells (b) water supplies from treatment plants
(c) raw sewage into the treatment plants (d) storm water from low lying areas into the drains
148. Radial flow centrifugal pumps perform well at specific speeds of the order of :
(a) 100-500 rpm (b) 1000-4000 rpm (c) 4000-7000 rpm (d) above 7000 rpm
149. Mixed flow centrifugal pumps perform well at specific speeds of the order of :
(a) 100-500 rpm (b) 1000-4000 rpm (c) 4000-7000 rpm (d) above 7000 rpm
150. Axial flow rotodynamic pumps perform well at specific speeds of the order of:
(a) 100-500 rpm (b) 1000-4000 rpm (c) 4000-7000 rpm (d) above 7000 rpm
151. Hand pumps make use of :
(a) centrifugal pumping (b) reciprocating pumping (c) rotary pumping (d) none of the above
152. The pump, suitable for lifting water form very deep tubewells of the order of 100 to 150 m deep, is :
(a) submergible pump ( b) jet pump (c) air-lift pump (d) hydraulic ram
153. The pump, which can preferably be used for lifting water from a number of tubewells, simultaneously, is :
(a) bore hole turbine pump (b) rotary pump (c) monoblock centrifugal pump
(d) air-lift pump
154. Jet pumps may preferably be used for :
(a) pumping waters from State tubewells (b) pumping water supplies into the distribution mains
(c) pumping water from small sized domestic bores, where watertable is low
(d) none of the above
155. The only pump among the following, which is not a kinetic energy pump, is :
(a) axial flow pump (b) rotary pump (c) radial flow pump (d) mixed flow pump
156. Reciprocating pumps are used for :
(a) high discharge and high head (b) low discharge and high head (c) high discharge and low head
(d) low discharge and low head
157. Adoption of the economical diameter for water mains, ensures :
(a) the least cost of pipe (b) the least cost of pumping (c) the least cost for pipe and pumping together
(d) none of the above
158. The economical diameter of a pipe, through which a discharge of 0.3 cumes is to be passed, is :
(a) 1.2 m (b) 0.8 m (c) 0.6 m (d) 0.4 m
159. Water is to be lifted from a ground reservoir to an elevated capacity in one hour. The economic diameter of
the rising main may then, be chosen as :
(a) 30 m (b) 45 m (c) 60 m (d) 1 m
160*. Water is to be lifted from a ground reservoir of 4 m depth to an elevated reservoir. The difference in their
water levels is 40 m. one hour, the appropriate H.P. of the centrifugal pump chosen, will be:
(a) 10 H.P (b) 25 H.P (c) 50 H.P (d) 100 H.P
CHAPTER 8
161. Water is said to be contaminated, if it contains:
(a) pathogens (b) undesirable suspended matter, making it unfit for drinking and domestic use
(c) dissolved salts (d) none of the above
162. Pick up the incorrect on:
(a) contaminated water is always polluted (b) polluted water is always contaminated
(c) absolute pure water is not good for health (d) none of the above
163. ‘Safe water’ is the one, which does not contain:
(a) pathogenic bacteria (b) turbidity (c) any taste (d) any colour
164. ‘Wholesome water’ is the one, which does not contain:
(a) pathogenic bacteria (b) suspended matter in quantities harmful to man
(c) dissolved matter in quantities harmful to man (d) all of the above (d) none of the above
165. Polluted water is the one, which :
(a) contains pathogenic bacteria
(b) contains undesirable matter, making it unfit for drinking and domestic use
(c) is contaminated (d) is safe for drinking, but poses problems in special industrial uses
166. Suspended solids should not be present in water, because :
(a) they cause turbidity
(b) they provide absorption sites for biological and chemical agents
(c) they are aesthetically displeasing (a) all of the above
167. The measure of the amount, to which light is adsorbed or scattered by the suspended material in
water, is called :
(a) opacity (b) turbidity (c) celerity (d) diffraction
168. When the mode of measurement of turbidity is the ‘adsorption of light’, the measuring apparatus,
is called a:
(a) Spectrometer (b) Tintometer (c) Turbidimeter (d) Nephelometer
169. Modern turbidimeters, working on the principle of ‘scattering of light’, are, known as :
(a) Spectrometers (b) Optimeters (c) Tintometers (d) Nephelometer
170. The standard turbidity produced by one mg of silicon dioxide (silica) in one litre of
distilled water, is called :
(a) one Jackson turbidity unit (Jtu) (b) one Formazin turbidity unit (Ftu)
(c)one Nephelometry turbidity unit (Ntu) (d) none of the above
171. The modern standard low turbidity, produced by one mg of formazin in one litre of distilled water,
is called :
(a) FTU (b) JTU (c) NTU (d) none of the above
172. The turbidity, which can be seen easily on naked eye, is of the order of :
(a) 1 Jtu (b) 2 Jtu (c) 3 Jtu (d) 5 Jtu
173. The permissible turbidity of 5 Jtu, sometimes, be misguiding, as even a trace of turbidity, may be
sign of serious pollution, as may happen in :
(a) chalk well waters (b) silica-well water (c) sand-well waters (d) none of the above
174. Bayli’s turbidimeter, when compared to Jackson turbid-meter, can preferably be used, to measure:
(a) lower turbidity values (0-5 ppm) (b) higher turbidity values (20-1000ppm)
(c) equal turbidity values (0-2000 ppm) (d) none of the above
175. The suspended solids present in water may give colour to the water, which is known as :
(a) true colour (b) apparent colour (c) colour (d) none of the above
176. Pick up the correct statement (s) :
(a) turbidimeters are frequently used to measure turbidities of raw supplies
(b) turbidimeters are frequently installed on line in treatment plant, to measure turbidities of
sedimented filtered waters
(c) Nephelometers are frequently used to check and measure the turbidities of
final disinfected supplies
(d) all of the above
177. One true colour unit is the colour produced by :
(a) one mg of formazin in one litre of distilled water
(b) one mg of silicon in one litre of distilled water
(c) one mgof ferric silicon in one litre of distilled water
(d) one mg of platinum as chloroplatinate ions in one litre of distilled water
178. The colour of water, contributed by dissolved solids, is :
(a) apparent colour (b) true colour (c) colour (d) (b) and (c) above
179. The true colour of water is measured on :
(a) platinum cobalt scale (b) silica scale (c) nickel scale (d) all of the above
180. The colour if water for domestic supplies, on standard platinum cobalt scale, should not exceed :
(a) 0-5 ppm (b) 5-10 ppm (c) 10-20 ppm (d) 20-50 ppm
181. The specific conductivity of water helps in knowing the extent of :
(a) organic matter (b) inorganic matter (c) dissolved salts (d) none of these
182. With increase in temperature, the specific conductivity of water :
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains unchanged
183. The colour of water can be determined on a instrument, known as :
(a) dionic water tester (b) turbidimeter (c) tintometer (d) none of the above
184. The threshold odour number (TON) for a water sample of 40 ml, diluted to standard 200 ml
mixture, in which odour is just barely detectable to the sense of smell, is :
(a) 8 (b) 5 (c) 50 (d) none of the above
185. pH value of water indicates its :
(a) acidity (b) alkalinity (c) both (a) and (b) above (d) none of these
186.* The most common cause of acidity in water, is :
(a) oxygen (b) hydrogen (c) nitrogen (d) carbon dioxide
187. A water having pH equal to 7, is :
(a) 1 time more acidic (b) 10 times more acidic (c) 100 times more acidic
(d) none of these
188. A water having pH equal to 7, is :
(a) acidic (b) alkaline (c) neutral (d) none of these
189. A water having pH less than 7, is :
(a) acidic (b) alkaline (c) neutral (d) none of these
190. A water having pH less than 7, is :
(a) acidic (b) alkaline (c) neutral (d) none of these
191. A water having pH =, will have hydrogen ion concentration equal to :
(a) 9 moI/I (b) 10-9 moI/I (c) 109 mole/I (d) none of these
192. The product of H ions and OH ions in a stronger acid, is :
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 10-7 (d) 10-14
193. Higher values of pH indicate :
(a) stronger acids (b) stronger alkalis (c) stronger contamination (d) none of the above
194. Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic acid (EDTA) solution is used to determine, by titrating it against
water, the :
(a) hardness of water (b) turbidity of water (c) dissolved oxygen in water
(d) residual chlorine in water
195. A water having pH = 9, will have hydroxyl ion concentration, equal to :
(a) 109 (a) 10-5 (c) 10-9 (d) 105
196. Temporary hardness in water is caused by :
(a) carbonates and bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium
(b) bicarbonates of sodium and potassium
(c) carbonates of calcium and magnesium
(d) dissolved carbon dioxide
197. For a water sample having a total hardness of 200 mg/I as CaCO3, and alkalinity of 250 mg/I as
CaCO3, the carbonate hardness is_______ and non-carbonate hardness is _______
(a) 200 mg/I, 0 mg/I (b) 300 mg/I, 0 mg/I (c) 150 mg/I, 50 mg/I
198. One French degree of hardness equal to :
(a) 1 ppm (b) 10 ppm (c) 14.25 ppm (d) none of the above
199. One British degree of hardness equals to a hardness of :
(a) 1 ppm (b) 10 ppm (c) 14.25 ppm (d) none of the above
200. The most appropriate hardness, equals to a hardness of :
(a) 50 ppm (b) 100 ppm (c) 200 ppm (d) 300 ppm
201. Waters are considered “hard”, if their hardness is of the order of :
(a) 50 ppm (b) 100 ppm (c) 200 ppm (d) 300 ppm
202. Waters are considered ‘soft’, if their hardness does not exceed :
(a) 75 ppm (b) 100 ppm (c)150 ppm (d) 300 ppm
203. Hard water is tastier than soft water, due to the presence of :
(a) sodium (b) calcium (c) carbonates (d) bicarbonates
204*. When fluoride concentration in water exceeds 1.5 mg/I or so, the disease that may be caused, is :
(a) methemoglobinemia (b) fluorosis (c) dental caries in children (d) poliomyelities
205*. Dental caries in children may be caused due to water supplies which are deficient in :
(a) calcium (b) iron (c) fluorides (d) none of these
206. Higher quantities of copper, more than 2.5 mg/I or so, may cause diseases pertaining to :
(a) kidneys (b) lungs (c) lever (d) teeth
207. Blue baby disease may be caused in infants due to drinking waters, containing higher
concentrations of:
(a) intrites (b) nitrates (c) lead (d) arsenic
208. The only metal among the following, which is toxic to human beings, is :
(a) calcium (b) barium (c) iron (d) magnesium
209. The metal which is the most hazardous to human beings, among the following, is
(a) Iron (b) Barium (c) Silver (d) Arsenic
(d) Chromium
210. The only metal among the following, which is not toxic to human beings, is:
(a) Sodium (b) Mercury (c) Lead (d) Cadmium
211. The maximum allowable concentration of iron in water is :
(a) 1.0 ppm (b) 0.05 ppm (c) 0.3 ppm (d) 0.03 ppm
212. The commonly used indicator for measuring iron concen-tration in water is:
(a) erichrome black T (b) 1, 10, phenanthroline (c) phenolphthalein (d) blue litmus
213. The maximum safe permissible limit of chlorides in domestic water supplies is :
(a) 0.5 mg/I (b) 2.5 mg/I (c) 200 mg/I (d) 100 mg/I
214. The maximum safe permissible limit of sulphates n domestic water supplies is :
(a) 100 mg/I (b) 200 mg/I (c) 500 mg/I (d) 1000 mg/I
215. The maximum permissible concentration of sulphates is water to be used for curing and mixing of
concrete is :
(a) 250 mg/I (b) 500 mg/I (c) 1000 mg/I (d) 2000 mg/I
216. Soap is a sodium salt of :
(a) acetic acid (b) steraric acid (c) formic acid (d) oxalic acid
217. A pathogenic organism of unicelluar/ protozoal group is:
(a) escherichia coli (b) salmonella typhi (c) entamoeba hystolytica (d) none of the above
218. The bacteria which survive in the absence of oxygen, are called:
(a) anaerobic (b) aerobic (c) facultative (d) E-coli
219. The bacteria which survive in the presence as well as absence of oxygen, are called :
(a) anaerobic (b) facultative (c) B -coli (d) E-coli
220*. A harmful organism, which may be present in fecal matter, may be:
(a) bacteria-coli (b) escherichia-coli (c) vibrio cholerae (d) none of these
221. Waters required for pulp and paper industry should generally be free from :
(a) iron (b) manganese (c) hardness (d) all of the above
222. Breweries and distilleries preferably require :
(a) hard waters (b) soft waters (c) potable waters (d) none of the above
223. For steel plants, the chloride content of process water, as compared to that of potable water,
should be :
(a) higher (b) lower (c) equal (d) all of these can do
224. The waters to be used for boliers should preferable be :
(a) hard (b) soft (c) potable (d) none of the above
CHAPTER 9
225. The treatments which are generally given to treat raw water supplies, follow the sequence :
(a) screening, sedimentation, disinfection, filtration
(b) screening, sedimentation, filtration, disinfection
(c) screening, sedimentation, disinfection, aeration
(d) screening, sedimentation, coagulation, filtration, disinfection
226. The fine screens are generally not used these days, in water treatment, as the fine suspended
impurities are removed in :
(a) filtration (b) sedimentation (c) aeration (d) disinfection
227. The settling velocity of inorganic particles in a sedimentation tank of a water treatment plant, it
governed by :
(a) Darcy’s law (b) Dupuit’s law (c) Stoke’s law (d) none of the above
228. The settling velocity of inorganic particles of less than 0.1 mm dia, varies with the dia (d), in
proportion to :
(a) 𝑑3 (b) 𝑑2 (c) 𝑑 (d) none of them, as dia does not affect the settling velocity
229. The settling velocity of inorganic particles, larger then 0.1 mm dia, varies with
the dia (𝑑), in proportion to :
(a) 𝑑3 (b) 𝑑2 (c) 𝑑 (d) none of them, as dia (𝑑) does not affect the settling velocity
230. Sedimentation can remove inorganic particles, having specific gravity upto, say:
(a) 2.65 (b) 1.65 (c) 1.2 (d) 1.03
231. Water sedimentation process involves the settling of the impurities in a tank, under the action of :
(a) sun rays (b) gravitational force (c) biological action (d) flow velocity of particles
232. If the temperature of a sedimentation tank is increased, the sedimentation speed will :
(a) get hastened (b) get slowed down (c) not be affected at all
233. A water sedimentation tank, under normal conditions, can remove suspended impurities,up to,say :
(a) 30% (b) 50% (c) 70% (d) 90%
234. Particles intended to be removed in a continuous flow water sedimentation tank, should have
settling velocity :
(a) more than the surface loading of the tank
(b) less than the surface loading of the tank
(c) neither of the above
235. In order to exclude as many fine particles as possible in a continuous flow sedimentation tank, the
surface loading of the tank should, as far as possible, be :
(a) higher (b) lower (c) neither of the two
236. Surface loading or overflow rate of a sedimentation tank, passing a discharge Q, and having
length=L, depth = D, width =b, is given by :
𝑄 𝑄 𝑄
(a) (b) (c) 𝑄. 𝐵. 𝐷 (d)
𝐵.𝐷 𝐵.𝐿 𝐵.𝐷.𝐿
237. The efficiency of sediment removal in a continuous sedimentation tank does not depend upon the :
(a) discharge through the tank (b) width of the tank (c) length of the tank (d) depth of the tank
238. The depth of water sedimentation tanks is decided, only on practical considerations, and may range
between :
(a) 1 to 1.8 m (b) 3 to 4.5 (c) 6 to 8 m (d) none of the above
239. Detention time for a sedimentation tank (continuous flow type), is given for a tank, passing a
discharge=Q, and having length = L, width =B, and depth=H, as :
𝐵𝐿𝐻 𝑄 𝑄
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of the above
𝑄 𝐵.𝐿.𝐻 𝐵.𝐿
240. Flowing through period pf a sedimentation tank, when compared to its detention time, is always :
(a) more (b) less (c) equal (d) none of these
241. When the raw water passes in a sedimentation tank, without being detained for the intended time,
due to the existing currents in the flow, then the flow is said to be :
(a) long-circuited (b) short-circuited (c) disturbed (d) none of these
242. Displacement efficiency of a sedimentation tank is given by:
(a) detention period (b) flowing through period
(𝑎) (𝑏)
(c) (𝑏)
𝑎𝑏𝑜𝑣𝑒 (d)
(𝑎)
𝑎𝑏𝑜𝑣𝑒
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (c)
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c)
36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (d)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b)
56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (b)
66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (b)
76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (a)
86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (d) 90. (a)
91. (b) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (d) 95. (a)
96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (c)
101. (d) 102. (d) 103. (b) 104. (c) 105. (b)
106. (b) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (b) 110. (d)
111. (a)-ii (b)-iii (c)i 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (a)
116. (b) 117. (b) 118. (c) 119. (b) 120. (d)
121. (b) 122. (a) 123. (c) 124. (a) 125. (b)
126. (a) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (d) 130. (a)
131. (d) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (b) 135. (a)
136. (b) 137. (b) 138. (a) 139. (c) 140. (b)
141. (a) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (b) 145. (c)
146. (c) 147. (d) 148. (b) 149. (c) 150. (d)
151. (b) 152. (c) 153. (d) 154. (c) 155. (b)
156. (b) 157. (c) 158. (c) 159. (b) 160. (b)
161. (a) 162. (b) 163. (a) 164. (d) 165. (b)
166. (d) 167. (b) 168. (c) 169. (d) 170. (a)
171. (a) 172. (d) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (b)
176. (d) 177. (d) 178. (d) 179. (a) 180. (c)
181. (c) 182. (b) 183. (c) 184. (b) 185. (c)
186. (d) 187. (b) 188. (c) 189. (b) 190. (a)
191. (b) 192. (d) 193. (b) 194. (a) 195. (b)
196. (a) 197. (a) 198. (b) 199. (c) 200. (b)
201. (d) 202. (a) 203. (d) 204. (b) 205. (c)
206. (b) 207. (b) 208. (b) 209. (c) 210. (a)
211. (c) 212. (b) 213. (c) 214. (b) 215. (b)
216. (b) 217. (c) 218. (a) 219. (b) 220. (c)
221. (d) 222. (a) 223. (b) 224. (b) 225. (b)
226. (b) 227. (c) 228. (b) 229. (c) 230. (c)
231. (b) 232. (a) 233. (c) 234. (a) 235. (b)
236. (b) 237. (d) 238. (b) 239. (a) 240. (b)
241. (b) 242. (d) 243. (b) 244. (b) 245. (c)
246. (c) 247. (b) 248. (c) 249. (b) 250. (c)
251. (d) 252. (b) 253. (b) 254. (a) 255. (c)
256. (d) 257. (a) 258. (d) 259. (c) 260. (a)
261. (a) 262. (b) 263. (b) 264. (d) 265. (c)
266. (a) 267. (c) 268. (b) 269. (a) 270. (a)
271. (d) 272. (c) 273. (a) 274. (c) 275. (a)
276. (a) 277. (c) 273. (a) 274. (c) 275. (a)
276. (a) 277. (b) 278. (c) 279. (d) 280. (b)
281. (c) 282. (d) 283. (c) 284. (a) 285. (a)
286. (a) 287. (d) 288. (d) 289. (c) 290. (b)
291. (d) 292. (b) 293. (a) 294. (b) 295. (a)
296. (b) 297. (b) 298. (d) 299. (c) 300. (c)