Chapter 1.

Concept of Basic Electrical and Electronics Engineering

1.1 Basic Concept:
Question 1:
Ohm's law states that:
A. Current is proportional to resistance.
B. Voltage is proportional to resistance.
C. Current is inversely proportional to voltage.
D. Voltage is directly proportional to current.
Answer: D. Voltage is directly proportional to current.
Explanation: Ohm's law states V=IRV = IRV=IR, where voltage VVV is directly proportional to current
III for a constant resistance R.

Question 2:
What is the unit of electric current?
A. Volt
B. Ampere
C. Ohm
D. Watt
Answer: B. Ampere
Explanation: Electric current is measured in amperes (A), representing the flow of charge per unit time.

Question 3:
Which material is an insulator?
A. Copper
B. Gold
C. Rubber
D. Silver
Answer: C. Rubber
Explanation: Rubber does not allow the free flow of electrons, making it an excellent insulator.
• A (Copper), B (Gold), and D (Silver) are incorrect because they are good conductors of
electricity.

Question 4:
Which law is used to solve circuits with multiple loops?
A. Ohm's Law
B. Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL)
C. Thevenin's Theorem
D. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
Answer: B. Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL)
Explanation: KVL states that the sum of all voltages in a closed loop is zero, useful for analyzing multi-
loop circuits.
• A (Ohm's Law) is incorrect; it relates voltage, current, and resistance in a single element.
• C (Thevenin's Theorem) is incorrect; it simplifies a network to a single voltage source.
• D (Maximum Power Transfer Theorem) is incorrect; it determines the load resistance for
maximum power delivery.

Question 5:
In a series circuit, the current:
A. Varies across each component.
B. Is the same through all components.
C. Is proportional to resistance.
D. Flows through only one component.
Answer: B. Is the same through all components.
Explanation: In a series circuit, the current is constant throughout because there is only one path for
flow.
• A is incorrect because current does not vary in series circuits.
• C is incorrect because current depends on the total circuit resistance.
• D is incorrect because the current flows through all components in a series.

Question 6:
In a parallel circuit, the total resistance is:
A. The sum of individual resistances.
B. Always greater than the largest resistance.
C. Always less than the smallest resistance.
D. Equal to the average of individual resistances.
Answer: C. Always less than the smallest resistance.
Explanation: In a parallel circuit, the equivalent resistance ReqR_{eq}Req is calculated as
1Req=∑1Ri\frac{1}{R_{eq}} = \sum \frac{1}{R_i}Req1=∑Ri1, making it smaller than the smallest
resistance.
• A is incorrect because resistances are not added in parallel circuits.
• B is incorrect because total resistance is smaller, not greater.
• D is incorrect because it is not equal to the average.

Question 7:
The power dissipated in a resistor is given by:
A. P=VIP = VIP=VI
B. P=I2RP = I^2RP=I2R
C. P=V2/RP = V^2/RP=V2/R
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Power can be calculated using different forms depending on the known values:
• P=VIP = VIP=VI (Voltage × Current)
• P=I2RP = I^2RP=I2R (Current squared × Resistance)
• P=V2/RP = V^2/RP=V2/R (Voltage squared ÷ Resistance)

Question 8:
Which type of circuit allows current to have multiple paths?
A. Series Circuit
B. Parallel Circuit
C. Open Circuit
D. Short Circuit
Answer: B. Parallel Circuit
Explanation: A parallel circuit provides multiple paths for current flow, unlike a series circuit.
• A is incorrect because a series circuit has only one path.
• C is incorrect because no current flows in an open circuit.
• D is incorrect because a short circuit bypasses all resistance.

Question 9:
What is the formula for the total resistance of resistors in series?
A. Req=∑RiR_{eq} = \sum R_iReq=∑Ri
B. Req=1∑1RiR_{eq} = \frac{1}{\sum \frac{1}{R_i}}Req=∑Ri11
C. Req=R1⋅R2R_{eq} = R_1 \cdot R_2Req=R1⋅R2
D. Req=R1+R2−R3R_{eq} = R_1 + R_2 - R_3Req=R1+R2−R3
Answer: A. Req=∑RiR_{eq} = \sum R_iReq=∑Ri
Explanation: In series, resistances add directly: Req=R1+R2+R3+…R_{eq} = R_1 + R_2 + R_3 +
\dotsReq=R1+R2+R3+….
• B is incorrect; it applies to resistors in parallel.
• C is incorrect because it doesn't apply to any common resistor combination.
• D is incorrect as it's an invalid formula.
Question 10:
Which of the following materials is a good conductor of electricity?
A. Wood
B. Copper
C. Plastic
D. Glass
Answer: B. Copper
Explanation: Copper is an excellent conductor due to its high electron mobility.
• A (Wood), C (Plastic), and D (Glass) are incorrect because they are insulators and do not
conduct electricity well.

Question 11:
What is the relationship between power (P), voltage (V), and current (I)?
A. P=V/IP = V/IP=V/I
B. P=V⋅IP = V \cdot IP=V⋅I
C. P=V+IP = V + IP=V+I
D. P=I/VP = I/VP=I/V
Answer: B. P=V⋅IP = V \cdot IP=V⋅I
Explanation: Power is calculated as the product of voltage and current.
• A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the power formula.

Question 12:
Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) states that:
A. The sum of currents in a loop is zero.
B. The sum of voltages at a node is zero.
C. The sum of currents entering a node equals the sum leaving the node.
D. Voltage and current are inversely proportional.
Answer: C. The sum of currents entering a node equals the sum leaving the node.
Explanation: KCL is based on the principle of conservation of charge.
• A is incorrect; it applies to KVL, not KCL.
• B is incorrect because KCL applies to currents, not voltages.
• D is incorrect because KCL does not relate voltage and current.

Question 13:
Which component stores electrical energy in an electric field?
A. Resistor
B. Inductor
C. Capacitor
D. Transformer
Answer: C. Capacitor
Explanation: A capacitor stores energy in the electric field between its plates.
• A (Resistor) dissipates energy.
• B (Inductor) stores energy in a magnetic field.
• D (Transformer) transfers energy between circuits.

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Question 14:
The unit of electrical energy is:
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Coulomb
D. Ohm
Answer: A. Joule
Explanation: Electrical energy is measured in joules (J), which is the work done when a current flows
under a potential difference.
• B (Watt) measures power.
• C (Coulomb) measures charge.
• D (Ohm) measures resistance.

Question 15:
What is the primary purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?
A. To amplify current.
B. To protect the circuit from overloads.
C. To reduce resistance.
D. To increase voltage.
Answer: B. To protect the circuit from overloads.
Explanation: A fuse disconnects the circuit when excessive current flows, preventing damage.
• A is incorrect; a fuse does not amplify current.
• C is incorrect; it does not affect resistance.
• D is incorrect; it does not increase voltage.

Question 16:
Which law explains the relationship between the magnetic field and electric current?
A. Ohm's Law
B. Faraday's Law
C. Ampere's Law
D. Coulomb's Law
Answer: C. Ampere's Law
Explanation: Ampere’s Law relates the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor to the current
flowing through it.
• A deals with voltage and current.
• B focuses on electromagnetic induction.
• D explains the force between charges.

Question 17:
If the resistance in a circuit doubles, what happens to the current (assuming constant voltage)?
A. It doubles.
B. It is halved.
C. It remains the same.
D. It becomes zero.
Answer: B. It is halved.
Explanation: According to Ohm’s Law I=V/RI = V/RI=V/R, if resistance RRR increases, current III
decreases proportionally.
• A is incorrect; current decreases, not increases.
• C is incorrect; it does not remain constant.
• D is incorrect unless resistance becomes infinite.
Question 18:
A delta-star transformation is used for:
A. Voltage calculation in a parallel circuit.
B. Current calculation in a series circuit.
C. Simplifying complex resistor networks.
D. Calculating power dissipation.
Answer: C. Simplifying complex resistor networks.
Explanation: The delta-star transformation simplifies analysis of resistor networks by converting delta
configurations to star configurations or vice versa.
• A and B are unrelated to network transformation.
• D is incorrect; power calculation does not use delta-star transformations.

Question 19:
Active circuits contain:
A. Only resistors.
B. No energy source.
C. Energy sources like batteries or generators.
D. Only capacitors and inductors.
Answer: C. Energy sources like batteries or generators.
Explanation: Active circuits include energy sources that provide power, unlike passive circuits.
• A, B, and D do not accurately describe active circuits.

Question 20:
What happens in a circuit with no resistance?
A. Voltage becomes zero.
B. Current becomes infinite.
C. Power becomes infinite.
D. The circuit stops functioning.
Answer: B. Current becomes infinite.
Explanation: In the absence of resistance, I=V/RI = V/RI=V/R implies infinite current for any voltage.
• A is incorrect; voltage does not necessarily become zero.
• C is incorrect; power depends on current and voltage.
• D is incorrect; the circuit still functions.

Question 21:
In an AC circuit, the power factor is defined as:
A. Ratio of real power to apparent power.
B. Ratio of reactive power to apparent power.
C. Sum of real and reactive power.
D. Ratio of apparent power to real power.
Answer: A. Ratio of real power to apparent power.
Explanation: The power factor quantifies efficiency, given by cos⁡ϕ=Preal/Papparent\cos \phi =
P_{real}/P_{apparent}cosϕ=Preal/Papparent.
• B, C, and D are incorrect definitions of power factor.

Question 22:
Which device is used to measure electric current?
A. Voltmeter
B. Ammeter
C. Ohmmeter
D. Wattmeter
Answer: B. Ammeter
Explanation: An ammeter is designed to measure the flow of current in a circuit.
• A (Voltmeter) measures voltage.
• C (Ohmmeter) measures resistance.
• D (Wattmeter) measures power.

Question 23:
What type of circuit is formed when a path is broken?
A. Short Circuit
B. Open Circuit
C. Series Circuit
D. Parallel Circuit
Answer: B. Open Circuit
Explanation: In an open circuit, the current cannot flow due to a discontinuity.
• A is incorrect; a short circuit allows excessive current.
• C and D describe functional circuit configurations.

Question 24:
The SI unit of electric charge is:
A. Ampere
B. Volt
C. Coulomb
D. Farad
Answer: C. Coulomb
Explanation: Charge is measured in coulombs (C). One coulomb equals 1 A\cdotps1 \,
\text{A·s}1A\cdotps.
• A is incorrect; it measures current.
• B is incorrect; it measures voltage.
• D is incorrect; it measures capacitance.
Question 25:
Which material is typically used for electrical wiring due to its high conductivity?
A. Aluminum
B. Copper
C. Iron
D. Lead
Answer: B. Copper
Explanation: Copper is widely used for electrical wiring because of its excellent conductivity and
malleability.
• A is less conductive than copper but sometimes used as a cheaper alternative.
• C has poor conductivity compared to copper.
• D is incorrect; lead is not used due to low conductivity.

Question 26:
What happens to power when the resistance in a circuit doubles and voltage remains constant?
A. It doubles.
B. It is halved.
C. It becomes one-fourth.
D. It remains the same.
Answer: C. It becomes one-fourth.
Explanation: Power P=V2/RP = V^2 / RP=V2/R; if RRR doubles, PPP becomes half the original power,
or one-fourth of the initial power when analyzed relatively.

Question 27:
Which of the following is an active component?
A. Resistor
B. Inductor
C. Diode
D. Capacitor
Answer: C. Diode
Explanation: Diodes are active components because they control the flow of current in a circuit.
• A, B, and D are passive components as they do not require an external power source to operate.

Question 28:
Which physical quantity is conserved according to Kirchhoff’s Current Law (KCL)?
A. Voltage
B. Power
C. Energy
D. Charge
Answer: D. Charge
Explanation: KCL is based on the conservation of electric charge at a node in a circuit.

Question 29:
The primary purpose of a capacitor is to:
A. Induce a magnetic field.
B. Store electrical energy.
C. Convert AC to DC.
D. Oppose the flow of current.
Answer: B. Store electrical energy.
Explanation: Capacitors store energy in an electric field and are used in various applications like filtering
and energy storage.

Question 30:
In an electric circuit, current flows due to:
A. Voltage difference.
B. Resistance only.
C. Capacitance only.
D. Magnetic field.
Answer: A. Voltage difference.
Explanation: Current flows in response to a voltage difference, which creates an electric field.

Question 31:
What is the total capacitance of three capacitors connected in series?
A. Sum of individual capacitances.
B. Reciprocal of the sum of reciprocals of individual capacitances.
C. Product of individual capacitances.
D. Subtraction of smaller capacitance from the larger one.
Answer: B. Reciprocal of the sum of reciprocals of individual capacitances.
Explanation: For capacitors in series:
1Ceq=1C1+1C2+1C3\frac{1}{C_{eq}} = \frac{1}{C_1} + \frac{1}{C_2} + \frac{1}{C_3}Ceq1=C11
+C21+C31

Question 32:
The SI unit of electric potential is:
A. Coulomb
B. Volt
C. Joule
D. Ohm
Answer: B. Volt
Explanation: Electric potential (voltage) is measured in volts, representing potential energy per unit
charge.

Question 33:
If the power factor of a circuit is 1, the load is:
A. Purely capacitive.
B. Purely inductive.
C. Purely resistive.
D. Reactive.
Answer: C. Purely resistive.
Explanation: A power factor of 1 means all power is real power, indicating a purely resistive load.

Question 34:
In a parallel circuit, which parameter is constant across components?
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Power
Answer: B. Voltage
Explanation: Voltage remains the same across all components in a parallel circuit.

Question 35:
What is the RMS value of a sinusoidal AC signal with a peak value of 100V?
A. 50V
B. 70.7V
C. 100V
D. 141.4V
Answer: B. 70.7V
Explanation: RMS value VRMS=Vpeak2=1002≈70.7VV_{RMS} = \frac{V_{peak}}{\sqrt{2}} =
\frac{100}{\sqrt{2}} \approx 70.7VVRMS=2Vpeak=2100≈70.7V.

Question 36:
Which type of current is generated by batteries?
A. Alternating Current (AC)
B. Direct Current (DC)
C. Pulsating Current
D. Static Current
Answer: B. Direct Current (DC)
Explanation: Batteries produce direct current, which flows in one direction.

Question 37:
What is the primary purpose of a transformer?
A. To convert AC to DC.
B. To step up or step down voltage.
C. To store electrical energy.
D. To generate electricity.
Answer: B. To step up or step down voltage.
Explanation: A transformer adjusts the voltage level of AC power.

Question 38:
Which component opposes changes in current?
A. Resistor
B. Capacitor
C. Inductor
D. Diode
Answer: C. Inductor
Explanation: Inductors resist changes in current flow due to their property of self-inductance.

Question 39:
The maximum power transfer theorem applies to:
A. Series circuits only.
B. Parallel circuits only.
C. Both series and parallel circuits.
D. AC circuits only.
Answer: C. Both series and parallel circuits.
Explanation: The theorem is universally applicable when the load resistance matches the source
resistance.

Question 40:
What is the effect of increasing temperature on the resistance of a typical conductor?
A. Resistance decreases.
B. Resistance increases.
C. Resistance remains constant.
D. Resistance becomes zero.
Answer: B. Resistance increases.
Explanation: As temperature increases, atomic vibrations increase, hindering the flow of electrons.

Question 41:
What is the relation between electric power and energy?
A. Power is energy divided by time.
B. Power is energy multiplied by time.
C. Power and energy are independent.
D. Power is the square of energy.
Answer: A. Power is energy divided by time.
Explanation: Power PPP is the rate of energy consumption or production, P=E/tP = E/tP=E/t.

Question 42:
The equivalent resistance of resistors in parallel is:
A. Always less than the smallest resistor.
B. Equal to the sum of all resistors.
C. Equal to the largest resistor.
D. Independent of individual resistances.
Answer: A. Always less than the smallest resistor.
Explanation: In a parallel configuration, the equivalent resistance decreases as more resistors are added.

Question 43:
Which of the following is NOT a property of an ideal voltage source?
A. Provides constant voltage.
B. Has zero internal resistance.
C. Supplies infinite current.
D. Consumes electrical energy.
Answer: D. Consumes electrical energy.
Explanation: An ideal voltage source does not consume energy; it provides constant voltage irrespective
of load.

Question 44:
The unit of electrical resistance is:
A. Ohm
B. Volt
C. Ampere
D. Coulomb
Answer: A. Ohm
Explanation: Resistance is measured in ohms, representing opposition to current flow.

Question 45:
What is the primary characteristic of a bilateral circuit?
A. It allows current in only one direction.
B. It allows current equally in both directions.
C. It depends on power factor.
D. It requires an active source.
Answer: B. It allows current equally in both directions.
Explanation: Bilateral circuits, like resistors, allow current to flow in either direction without distinction.

Question 46:
Which component converts electrical energy into heat?
A. Capacitor
B. Inductor
C. Resistor
D. Transformer
Answer: C. Resistor
Explanation: A resistor dissipates electrical energy as heat due to its opposition to current flow.

Question 47:
Which of the following is NOT a passive component?
A. Resistor
B. Inductor
C. Capacitor
D. Transistor
Answer: D. Transistor
Explanation: Transistors are active components since they amplify signals and require external power.

Question 48:
In an AC circuit, reactive power is:
A. Measured in watts.
B. Measured in volt-amperes reactive (VAR).
C. Always equal to real power.
D. Independent of inductance or capacitance.
Answer: B. Measured in volt-amperes reactive (VAR).
Explanation: Reactive power arises in inductive and capacitive components and is measured in VAR.

Question 49:
What is the function of a diode in a rectifier circuit?
A. To step up voltage.
B. To allow current in one direction.
C. To filter noise.
D. To regulate power.
Answer: B. To allow current in one direction.
Explanation: A diode enables unidirectional current flow, essential for rectification in AC to DC
conversion.

Question 50:
A short circuit is characterized by:
A. Infinite resistance.
B. Zero resistance.
C. Maximum voltage drop.
D. No current flow.
Answer: B. Zero resistance.
Explanation: A short circuit has negligible or zero resistance, leading to excessive current flow.
Chapter 1.2 Network Theorems
Question 1:
What does the superposition theorem state?
A. Power can be calculated independently for each source.
B. Voltage and current are directly proportional.
C. The response in a linear circuit is the sum of the responses due to each independent source.
D. Resistance in parallel networks is always reduced.
Answer: C. The response in a linear circuit is the sum of the responses due to each independent source.
Explanation: The superposition theorem applies to linear circuits, allowing analysis of each source
independently and summing their effects.
 • A is incorrect as the theorem applies to currents and voltages, not power.
• B is unrelated to this theorem.
• D is incorrect as it refers to parallel resistance.

Question 2:
The Thevenin equivalent of a circuit consists of:
A. A voltage source and a resistor in parallel.
B. A current source and a resistor in series.
C. A voltage source and a resistor in series.
D. A single capacitor and inductor.
Answer: C. A voltage source and a resistor in series.
Explanation: Thevenin's theorem reduces a complex network to a single voltage source in series with a
resistance.
• A and B are incorrect as they describe Norton equivalents.
• D is irrelevant to Thevenin’s theorem.

Question 3:
Which network theorem is best suited for analyzing maximum power transfer?
A. Norton’s Theorem
B. Thevenin’s Theorem
C. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
D. Superposition Theorem
Answer: C. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
Explanation: The maximum power transfer theorem ensures that maximum power is delivered to the
load when the load resistance equals the source resistance.

Question 4:
The Norton equivalent of a circuit contains:
A. A voltage source in series with a resistor.
B. A current source in parallel with a resistor.
C. A single capacitor.
D. A single inductor.
Answer: B. A current source in parallel with a resistor.
Explanation: Norton’s theorem simplifies a circuit to a current source in parallel with an equivalent
resistance.
• A is Thevenin’s equivalent.
 • C and D are irrelevant.

Question 5:
In the context of circuit theorems, reciprocity theorem applies to:
A. Nonlinear circuits.
B. Passive linear bilateral networks.
C. Active networks.
D. Time-variant networks.
Answer: B. Passive linear bilateral networks.
Explanation: The reciprocity theorem is valid only for passive, linear, and bilateral networks.

Question 6:
According to the maximum power transfer theorem, the load impedance in an AC circuit should:
A. Be equal to the source impedance.
B. Be equal to the complex conjugate of the source impedance.
C. Be twice the source impedance.
D. Be independent of the source impedance.
Answer: B. Be equal to the complex conjugate of the source impedance.
Explanation: For AC circuits, maximum power transfer occurs when the load impedance matches the
complex conjugate of the source impedance.

Question 7:
What is the purpose of Thevenin’s theorem in circuit analysis?
A. To find equivalent power.
B. To reduce a complex network to a simple equivalent circuit.
C. To find resonance in an AC circuit.
D. To balance the circuit.
Answer: B. To reduce a complex network to a simple equivalent circuit.
Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem simplifies circuit analysis by converting networks into a single voltage
source and resistance.

Question 8:
Which of the following does not change during source transformation?
A. Resistance
B. Current
C. Power
D. Voltage
Answer: C. Power
Explanation: Source transformation changes the source type but keeps power and resistance constant.

Question 9:
Which theorem is used to calculate the equivalent impedance in AC circuits?
A. Superposition Theorem
B. Thevenin’s Theorem
C. Norton’s Theorem
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Thevenin’s Theorem
Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem simplifies AC circuit analysis by calculating equivalent impedance.

Question 10:
What is the significance of the maximum power transfer theorem in practical circuits?
A. Ensures highest efficiency.
B. Ensures maximum voltage drop.
C. Ensures maximum power to load.
D. Reduces resistance to zero.
Answer: C. Ensures maximum power to load.
Explanation: It is widely used to optimize power delivery to the load.

Question 11:
In the superposition theorem, while considering one source:
A. All other sources are short-circuited.
B. All other sources are open-circuited.
C. All other sources are deactivated (replaced by their internal impedances).
D. All sources are active simultaneously.
Answer: C. All other sources are deactivated (replaced by their internal impedances).
Explanation: Deactivating sources involves replacing voltage sources with short circuits and current
sources with open circuits.

Question 12:
In a balanced bridge circuit:
A. The voltage across the bridge is zero.
B. The current through the bridge resistor is maximum.
C. The resistance values are all equal.
D. The power consumed is maximum.
Answer: A. The voltage across the bridge is zero.
Explanation: In a balanced bridge circuit, no current flows through the bridge resistor, making the
voltage across it zero.

Question 13:
The reciprocal of resistance is known as:
A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C. Reactance
D. Admittance
Answer: A. Conductance
Explanation: Conductance (GGG) is the reciprocal of resistance (G=1/RG = 1/RG=1/R).

Question 14:
Thevenin’s and Norton’s theorems are related by:
A. Voltage-current proportionality.
B. Source transformation.
C. Kirchhoff’s Laws.
D. Reciprocity theorem.
Answer: B. Source transformation.
Explanation: Thevenin and Norton equivalents can be derived from one another using source
transformation.

Question 15:
In a circuit, the maximum power transfer occurs when:
A. Load resistance is zero.
B. Load resistance is infinite.
C. Load resistance equals source resistance.
D. Source voltage equals load voltage.
Answer: C. Load resistance equals source resistance.
Explanation: For maximum power transfer, load resistance should match the source resistance.

Question 16:
Which theorem simplifies a circuit with multiple voltage sources to a single voltage source?
A. Superposition Theorem
B. Thevenin’s Theorem
C. Norton’s Theorem
D. Reciprocity Theorem
Answer: B. Thevenin’s Theorem
Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem reduces a circuit with multiple sources to a single voltage source with
an equivalent resistance.

Question 17:
Norton’s equivalent circuit consists of:
A. A current source and a series resistor.
B. A current source and a parallel resistor.
C. A voltage source and a series resistor.
D. A voltage source and a parallel resistor.
Answer: B. A current source and a parallel resistor.
Explanation: Norton’s theorem represents the circuit as a current source in parallel with a resistor.

Question 18:
The main application of the reciprocity theorem is in:
A. Power calculation.
B. Linear bilateral networks.
C. Resonant circuits.
D. Non-linear circuits.
Answer: B. Linear bilateral networks.
Explanation: The reciprocity theorem applies to linear bilateral circuits to analyze current and voltage
relationships.

Question 19:
Maximum power transfer in an AC circuit occurs when:
A. Load reactance equals source reactance.
B. Load impedance equals source impedance.
C. Load impedance is the conjugate of source impedance.
D. Load reactance is zero.
Answer: C. Load impedance is the conjugate of source impedance.
Explanation: In AC circuits, maximum power transfer occurs when the load impedance matches the
complex conjugate of the source impedance.

Question 20:
In source transformation, a 10V voltage source in series with a 2Ω resistor is equivalent to:
A. A 2A current source in parallel with a 2Ω resistor.
B. A 10A current source in parallel with a 2Ω resistor.
C. A 5A current source in parallel with a 2Ω resistor.
D. A 20A current source in parallel with a 2Ω resistor.
Answer: A. A 2A current source in parallel with a 2Ω resistor.
Explanation: Current I=V/R=10/2=2AI = V/R = 10/2 = 2AI=V/R=10/2=2A, so the equivalent current
source is 2A in parallel with a 2Ω resistor.

Question 21:
Which network theorem is helpful for circuits containing dependent sources?
A. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
B. Reciprocity Theorem
C. Superposition Theorem
D. Thevenin’s Theorem
Answer: D. Thevenin’s Theorem
Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem simplifies circuits with dependent sources effectively by focusing on
the equivalent output.

Question 22:
Which theorem is used for determining branch currents in a complex network?
A. Millman’s Theorem
B. Superposition Theorem
C. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
D. Norton’s Theorem
Answer: B. Superposition Theorem
Explanation: Superposition theorem simplifies the analysis of branch currents in linear networks with
multiple sources.

Question 23:
Which theorem focuses on energy optimization in circuits?
A. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
B. Norton’s Theorem
C. Superposition Theorem
D. Reciprocity Theorem
Answer: A. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
Explanation: This theorem is specifically used to optimize energy delivery to the load.

Question 24:
In Thevenin’s theorem, the open circuit voltage is called:
A. Load Voltage
B. Thevenin Voltage
C. Norton Voltage
D. Terminal Voltage
Answer: B. Thevenin Voltage
Explanation: It is the voltage across the open terminals of the circuit when the load is removed.
Question 25:
Which of the following is NOT a condition for applying Thevenin’s theorem?
A. The circuit must be linear.
B. The circuit must contain independent sources.
C. The circuit must have a load resistor.
D. The circuit must be bilateral.
Answer: C. The circuit must have a load resistor.
Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem works for any linear circuit, regardless of whether a load resistor is
present.

Question 26:
The Norton equivalent resistance is:
A. Measured across the load terminals with all independent sources active.
B. Measured across the load terminals with all independent sources deactivated.
C. Equal to the load resistance.
D. Equal to the total resistance of the circuit.
Answer: B. Measured across the load terminals with all independent sources deactivated.
Explanation: This resistance is calculated after replacing voltage sources with short circuits and current
sources with open circuits.

Question 27:
The efficiency of maximum power transfer is:
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. Depends on the circuit.
Answer: A. 50%
Explanation: At maximum power transfer, half the power is dissipated in the source, resulting in 50%
efficiency.

Question 28:
In a linear bilateral network, what does the reciprocity theorem state?
A. Voltage and current are proportional.
B. The ratio of excitation to response is constant.
C. The network is symmetrical.
D. Power is conserved.
Answer: B. The ratio of excitation to response is constant.
Explanation: In a linear bilateral network, the ratio of response to excitation remains the same when the
positions of source and response are interchanged.

Question 29:
What is the condition for Millman’s theorem to apply?
A. All sources must be connected in parallel.
B. All sources must be connected in series.
C. The circuit must be non-linear.
D. The circuit must contain a transformer.
Answer: A. All sources must be connected in parallel.
Explanation: Millman’s theorem simplifies circuits with parallel voltage sources and resistors.

Question 30:
Which network theorem is particularly useful in solving unbalanced bridge circuits?
A. Superposition Theorem
B. Thevenin’s Theorem
C. Norton’s Theorem
D. Reciprocity Theorem
Answer: B. Thevenin’s Theorem
Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem simplifies the analysis of unbalanced bridge circuits by reducing them
to a simple equivalent circuit.

Question 31:
Which theorem is used to calculate the current through a branch in a complex circuit?
A. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
B. Millman’s Theorem
C. Superposition Theorem
D. Norton’s Theorem
Answer: C. Superposition Theorem
Explanation: The superposition theorem allows branch current calculation by analyzing the effect of
each source independently.

Question 32:
What is the primary difference between Thevenin’s and Norton’s theorems?
A. Thevenin’s uses a voltage source; Norton’s uses a current source.
B. Thevenin’s is for DC circuits; Norton’s is for AC circuits.
C. Thevenin’s uses resistance; Norton’s uses impedance.
D. They apply to different types of networks.
Answer: A. Thevenin’s uses a voltage source; Norton’s uses a current source.
Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem simplifies a circuit to a voltage source, while Norton’s theorem uses a
current source.

Question 33:
In the context of AC circuits, the impedance matching condition for maximum power transfer is:
A. Real impedances must be equal.
B. Load impedance must equal source impedance.
C. Load impedance must be the complex conjugate of the source impedance.
D. Load resistance must be zero.
Answer: C. Load impedance must be the complex conjugate of the source impedance.
Explanation: This condition ensures that reactive components cancel, allowing maximum power transfer.

Question 34:
What does a short circuit across the load in Thevenin’s equivalent circuit give?
A. Maximum power.
B. Maximum current.
C. Thevenin resistance.
D. Norton resistance.
Answer: C. Thevenin resistance.
Explanation: Short-circuiting the load allows the calculation of Thevenin resistance by observing the
short-circuit current.

Question 35:
Which theorem uses duality in its application?
A. Superposition Theorem
B. Reciprocity Theorem
C. Millman’s Theorem
D. Thevenin’s Theorem
Answer: B. Reciprocity Theorem
Explanation: The reciprocity theorem uses the concept of duality to analyze linear bilateral networks.

Question 36:
In source transformation, a 5A current source with a parallel resistance of 2Ω is equivalent to:
A. A 10V voltage source in series with a 2Ω resistor.
B. A 5V voltage source in series with a 2Ω resistor.
C. A 1V voltage source in series with a 2Ω resistor.
D. A 20V voltage source in series with a 2Ω resistor.
Answer: A. A 10V voltage source in series with a 2Ω resistor.
Explanation: Voltage V=I⋅R=5⋅2=10VV = I \cdot R = 5 \cdot 2 = 10VV=I⋅R=5⋅2=10V.

Question 37:
The open-circuit voltage across a load is referred to as:
A. Load Voltage
B. Thevenin Voltage
C. Terminal Voltage
D. Line Voltage
Answer: B. Thevenin Voltage
Explanation: It is the voltage measured when the load is disconnected, per Thevenin’s theorem.

Question 38:
The sum of all branch currents meeting at a junction is zero according to:
A. Thevenin’s Theorem
B. Norton’s Theorem
C. Kirchhoff’s Current Law
D. Kirchhoff’s Voltage Law
Answer: C. Kirchhoff’s Current Law
Explanation: KCL states that the sum of currents entering and leaving a node equals zero.

Question 39:
Which network theorem is applied to calculate currents in dependent source circuits?
A. Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
B. Norton’s Theorem
C. Thevenin’s Theorem
D. Superposition Theorem
Answer: C. Thevenin’s Theorem
Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem simplifies dependent source circuits for current analysis.

Question 40:
The key condition for superposition theorem is:
A. The circuit must be linear.
B. The circuit must be nonlinear.
C. The circuit must be time-invariant.
D. The circuit must contain only DC sources.
Answer: A. The circuit must be linear.
Explanation: Superposition applies to linear circuits where the principle of proportionality holds.
Question 41:
What is the purpose of using Millman’s theorem?
A. To find equivalent resistance.
B. To calculate the total voltage across parallel branches.
C. To analyze unbalanced bridge circuits.
D. To solve AC circuits.
Answer: B. To calculate the total voltage across parallel branches.
Explanation: Millman’s theorem simplifies circuits with multiple parallel branches and voltage sources
to find the equivalent voltage.

Question 42:
Which theorem helps determine the voltage at any point in a multi-source circuit?
A. Norton’s Theorem
B. Thevenin’s Theorem
C. Millman’s Theorem
D. Superposition Theorem
Answer: D. Superposition Theorem
Explanation: The superposition theorem helps calculate the voltage at specific points by analyzing one
source at a time.

Question 43:
The Norton current source is equal to:
A. The short-circuit current at the terminals.
B. The open-circuit voltage divided by resistance.
C. The total current in the circuit.
D. The sum of all branch currents.
Answer: A. The short-circuit current at the terminals.
Explanation: Norton’s current source represents the current flowing when the load is short-circuited.

Question 44:
Which of the following can NOT be analyzed using superposition theorem?
A. A linear circuit with multiple independent sources.
B. A circuit containing dependent sources without independent sources.
C. An AC circuit with linear components.
D. A DC circuit with resistors and voltage sources.
Answer: B. A circuit containing dependent sources without independent sources.
Explanation: The superposition theorem requires at least one independent source in the circuit for
analysis.

Question 45:
The reciprocal of impedance is:
A. Resistance
B. Reactance
C. Admittance
D. Conductance
Answer: C. Admittance
Explanation: Admittance is the reciprocal of impedance and is measured in siemens (SSS).

Question 46:
When performing source transformation, a 12V source in series with a 4Ω resistor is equivalent to:
A. A 3A current source in parallel with a 4Ω resistor.
B. A 12A current source in parallel with a 4Ω resistor.
C. A 48A current source in parallel with a 4Ω resistor.
D. A 1A current source in parallel with a 4Ω resistor.
Answer: A. A 3A current source in parallel with a 4Ω resistor.
Explanation: I=V/R=12/4=3AI = V/R = 12/4 = 3AI=V/R=12/4=3A.

Question 47:
In an AC circuit, Thevenin impedance includes:
A. Only resistance.
B. Resistance and capacitance.
C. Resistance and reactance.
D. Only reactance.
Answer: C. Resistance and reactance.
Explanation: Thevenin impedance is the combination of resistance and reactance in an AC circuit.

Question 48:
The Norton equivalent current is derived by:
A. Shorting the load and calculating the current.
B. Open-circuiting the load and measuring voltage.
C. Replacing the circuit with a single voltage source.
D. Replacing the circuit with a single current source.
Answer: A. Shorting the load and calculating the current.
Explanation: Norton current is found by determining the current through the terminals when short-
circuited.

Question 49:
What does a short-circuited load in a circuit measure?
A. Open-circuit voltage.
B. Short-circuit current.
C. Maximum power transfer.
D. Equivalent resistance.
Answer: B. Short-circuit current.
Explanation: Short-circuiting the load measures the current directly at the terminals.

Question 50:
Which condition is required to use Thevenin’s theorem?
A. Circuit must be non-linear.
B. Circuit must have a capacitor.
C. Circuit must be linear and bilateral.
D. Circuit must contain AC sources only.
Answer: C. Circuit must be linear and bilateral.
Explanation: Thevenin’s theorem is valid only for linear and bilateral circuits.

Chapter 1.3 Alternating Current Fundamentals

Question 1:
Alternating current (AC) differs from direct current (DC) because:
A. AC flows in one direction only.
B. AC changes its direction periodically.
C. AC has constant amplitude.
D. AC does not generate a magnetic field.
Answer: B. AC changes its direction periodically.
Explanation: AC reverses its direction periodically, while DC flows only in one direction.
Question 2:
The peak value of a sinusoidal voltage is 200V. What is the RMS value?
A. 100V
B. 141.4V
C. 200V
D. 282.8V
Answer: B. 141.4V
Explanation: RMS value VRMS=Vpeak/2=200/2=141.4VV_{RMS} = V_{peak}/\sqrt{2} =
200/\sqrt{2} = 141.4VVRMS=Vpeak/2=200/2=141.4V.

Question 3:
The frequency of the AC mains supply in Nepal is:
A. 50 Hz
B. 60 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 120 Hz
Answer: A. 50 Hz
Explanation: Nepal’s standard AC mains supply frequency is 50 Hz.

Question 4:
Which of the following represents the time period of a 50 Hz AC signal?
A. 0.01 s
B. 0.02 s
C. 0.05 s
D. 0.1 s
Answer: B. 0.02 s
Explanation: Time period T=1/f=1/50=0.02 secondsT = 1/f = 1/50 = 0.02 \,
\text{seconds}T=1/f=1/50=0.02seconds.

Question 5:
The average value of a sinusoidal AC waveform over one complete cycle is:
A. Zero
B. Equal to its peak value
C. Equal to its RMS value
D. Equal to its amplitude
Answer: A. Zero
Explanation: The positive and negative halves of a sinusoidal waveform cancel out over one complete
cycle.

Question 6:
Which quantity remains constant in a three-phase balanced system?
A. Line voltage
B. Power
C. Current
D. Frequency
Answer: D. Frequency
Explanation: The frequency of the AC supply remains constant in a balanced system, regardless of load.

Question 7:
The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely capacitive circuit is:
A. 0∘0^\circ0∘
B. 90∘90^\circ90∘
C. 180∘180^\circ180∘
D. 270∘270^\circ270∘
Answer: B. 90∘90^\circ90∘
Explanation: In a purely capacitive circuit, the current leads the voltage by 90∘90^\circ90∘.

Question 8:
What is the formula for instantaneous AC voltage?
A. V=VpeakV = V_{peak}V=Vpeak
B. V=VRMSV = V_{RMS}V=VRMS
C. V=Vpeaksin⁡ωtV = V_{peak} \sin \omega tV=Vpeaksinωt
D. V=VRMScos⁡ωtV = V_{RMS} \cos \omega tV=VRMScosωt
Answer: C. V=Vpeaksin⁡ωtV = V_{peak} \sin \omega tV=Vpeaksinωt
Explanation: Instantaneous voltage is given by the peak voltage multiplied by the sine of the angular
frequency and time.

Question 9:
In a purely resistive AC circuit, the power factor is:
A. 0
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. -1
Answer: C. 1
Explanation: In a purely resistive circuit, voltage and current are in phase, resulting in a power factor of
1.

Question 10:
What does the term "reactive power" refer to?
A. Power consumed by resistors.
B. Power used to establish magnetic and electric fields.
C. Total power in the circuit.
D. Power wasted in the circuit.
Answer: B. Power used to establish magnetic and electric fields.
Explanation: Reactive power is associated with energy storage in inductive and capacitive components.
11. What is the RMS value of a sinusoidal current with a peak value of 10 A?
A. 7.07 A
B. 5 A
C. 10 A
D. 14.14 A
Answer: A. 7.07 A
Explanation: RMS value for sinusoidal current is IRMS=Ipeak/2I_{\text{RMS}} = I_{\text{peak}} /
\sqrt{2}IRMS=Ipeak/2. Hence, 10/2=7.0710 / \sqrt{2} = 7.0710/2=7.07.
12. The phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit is:
A. 0°
B. 90°
C. 180°
D. 270°
Answer: A. 0°
Explanation: In a resistive circuit, voltage and current are in phase, so the phase difference is 0°.
13. In an AC circuit, the power factor is the ratio of:
A. Apparent power to real power
B. Real power to apparent power
C. Current to voltage
D. Voltage to current
Answer: B. Real power to apparent power
Explanation: Power factor PF=cos⁡ϕ=Real Power / Apparent Power\text{PF} = \cos \phi = \text{Real
Power / Apparent Power}PF=cosϕ=Real Power / Apparent Power.
14. A capacitor in an AC circuit causes the current to:
A. Lag behind the voltage
B. Lead the voltage
C. Be in phase with the voltage
D. Stop flowing
Answer: B. Lead the voltage
Explanation: In a capacitive circuit, the current leads the voltage by 90°.
15. In an AC circuit, impedance is:
A. The same as resistance
B. The vector sum of resistance and reactance
C. Equal to inductance
D. Equal to capacitance
Answer: B. The vector sum of resistance and reactance
Explanation: Impedance Z=R2+X2Z = \sqrt{R^2 + X^2}Z=R2+X2, where XXX is the net reactance.

16. The peak value of a sinusoidal voltage is 100 V. What is its average value over a half cycle?
A. 50 V
B. 63.7 V
C. 70.7 V
D. 100 V
Answer: B. 63.7 V
Explanation: The average value over a half cycle is Vavg=2π×VpeakV_{\text{avg}} = \frac{2}{\pi}
\times V_{\text{peak}}Vavg=π2×Vpeak. For Vpeak=100V_{\text{peak}} = 100Vpeak=100,
Vavg=63.7V_{\text{avg}} = 63.7Vavg=63.7.
17. A pure inductive circuit has a power factor of:
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. 0.5
Answer: A. 0
Explanation: In a purely inductive circuit, the current lags the voltage by 90°, resulting in a power factor
of cos⁡(90°)=0\cos(90°) = 0cos(90°)=0.
18. If the frequency of the supply voltage is doubled in an inductive circuit, the inductive reactance
will:
A. Decrease by half
B. Double
C. Remain the same
D. Quadruple
Answer: B. Double
Explanation: Inductive reactance XL=2πfLX_L = 2\pi f LXL=2πfL. If fff is doubled, XLX_LXL also
doubles.
19. Which of the following does not affect the impedance of an AC circuit?
A. Resistance
B. Reactance
C. Frequency
D. Power
Answer: D. Power
Explanation: Impedance depends on resistance, reactance, and frequency but not directly on power.
20. The unit of reactance is:
A. Ohm
B. Farad
C. Henry
D. Coulomb
Answer: A. Ohm
Explanation: Reactance, like resistance, is measured in ohms.
21. The current in an AC circuit with only a capacitor is:
A. In phase with the voltage
B. Lagging the voltage
C. Leading the voltage
D. Zero
Answer: C. Leading the voltage
Explanation: Current leads voltage by 90° in a purely capacitive circuit.
22. The apparent power in an AC circuit is measured in:
A. Watts
B. Volts
C. Amperes
D. Volt-amperes
Answer: D. Volt-amperes
Explanation: Apparent power is the product of RMS voltage and current, measured in volt-amperes
(VA).
23. Which of the following circuits has the highest power factor?
A. Purely inductive
B. Purely capacitive
C. Resistive
D. Inductive-capacitive circuit
Answer: C. Resistive
Explanation: A purely resistive circuit has a power factor of 1, the highest possible.
24. The time taken for one complete cycle of an alternating quantity is called:
A. Frequency
B. Wavelength
C. Amplitude
D. Period
Answer: D. Period
Explanation: The period is the time taken for one full cycle of a waveform.
25. The phase angle of a purely capacitive circuit is:
A. 0°
B. 90°
C. -90°
D. 180°
Answer: C. -90°
Explanation: In a capacitive circuit, the voltage lags the current by 90°, resulting in a phase angle of -
90°.
26. The total opposition offered by an RLC circuit to alternating current is called:
A. Resistance
B. Reactance
C. Impedance
D. Admittance
Answer: C. Impedance
Explanation: Impedance is the combined opposition due to resistance and reactance in an AC circuit.
27. The form factor of a sinusoidal waveform is:
A. 0.707
B. 1
C. 1.11
D. 1.41
Answer: C. 1.11
Explanation: Form factor is the ratio of RMS value to average value, which is 1.11 for a sinusoidal
waveform.
28. The unit of admittance is:
A. Siemens
B. Ohm
C. Volt
D. Ampere
Answer: A. Siemens
Explanation: Admittance, the reciprocal of impedance, is measured in Siemens.
29. A power factor of 0 indicates that:
A. No power is consumed
B. Maximum power is consumed
C. Half the power is consumed
D. Infinite power is consumed
Answer: A. No power is consumed
Explanation: Power factor 0 means no real power is being delivered; the circuit is purely reactive.
30. The frequency of a standard AC supply in Nepal is:
A. 50 Hz
B. 60 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 120 Hz
Answer: A. 50 Hz
Explanation: The standard AC supply frequency in Nepal is 50 Hz.
31. In an AC circuit, the term "reactance" refers to:
A. Resistance to DC current
B. Opposition to the change in AC current
C. Power loss in the circuit
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Opposition to the change in AC current
Explanation: Reactance is the opposition offered to the change in current in an AC circuit due to
inductance or capacitance.
32. The frequency of a waveform is the reciprocal of its:
A. Period
B. Amplitude
C. RMS value
D. Peak value
Answer: A. Period
Explanation: Frequency f=1Tf = \frac{1}{T}f=T1, where TTT is the period of the waveform.
33. A purely inductive circuit has:
A. Zero impedance
B. Maximum current flow
C. No energy dissipation
D. Unity power factor
Answer: C. No energy dissipation
Explanation: In a purely inductive circuit, energy is stored in the magnetic field and returned, with no
energy lost as heat.
34. The maximum value of a sinusoidal AC voltage is also called:
A. RMS value
B. Peak value
C. Average value
D. Effective value
Answer: B. Peak value
Explanation: The peak value represents the maximum amplitude of the sinusoidal waveform.
35. The power in an AC circuit is given by:
A. P=VIP = VIP=VI
B. P=V2/RP = V^2 / RP=V2/R
C. P=VIcos⁡ϕP = VI \cos \phiP=VIcosϕ
D. P=I2/RP = I^2 / RP=I2/R
Answer: C. P=VIcos⁡ϕP = VI \cos \phiP=VIcosϕ
Explanation: Power in an AC circuit is the product of voltage, current, and the power factor cos⁡ϕ\cos
\phicosϕ.
36. The purpose of a capacitor in an AC circuit is to:
A. Decrease voltage
B. Reduce current
C. Store energy
D. Block DC and allow AC to pass
Answer: D. Block DC and allow AC to pass
Explanation: Capacitors block direct current while allowing alternating current to pass through.
37. In an AC circuit, real power is measured in:
A. Volt-amperes
B. Watts
C. VAR
D. Ohms
Answer: B. Watts
Explanation: Real power, which performs work, is measured in watts.
38. The angular frequency ω\omegaω of a sinusoidal waveform is related to the frequency fff by:
A. ω=2πf\omega = 2\pi fω=2πf
B. ω=f/2π\omega = f / 2\piω=f/2π
C. ω=f2\omega = f^2ω=f2
D. ω=f\omega = \sqrt{f}ω=f
Answer: A. ω=2πf\omega = 2\pi fω=2πf
Explanation: Angular frequency is calculated as ω=2πf\omega = 2\pi fω=2πf.
39. The phasor representation of AC quantities is useful for:
A. Representing DC circuits
B. Representing time-varying quantities
C. Simplifying calculations in AC circuits
D. Calculating power loss
Answer: C. Simplifying calculations in AC circuits
Explanation: Phasors simplify the analysis of AC circuits by representing sinusoidal quantities in the
frequency domain.
40. The impedance of a series RL circuit is:
A. R+jXLR + jX_LR+jXL
B. R2+XL2\sqrt{R^2 + X_L^2}R2+XL2
C. XL−RX_L - RXL−R
D. XL/RX_L / RXL/R
Answer: B. R2+XL2\sqrt{R^2 + X_L^2}R2+XL2
Explanation: The impedance is the vector sum of resistance RRR and inductive reactance XLX_LXL.
41. For maximum power transfer in an AC circuit, the load impedance should be:
A. Greater than the source impedance
B. Less than the source impedance
C. Equal to the complex conjugate of the source impedance
D. Independent of the source impedance
Answer: C. Equal to the complex conjugate of the source impedance
Explanation: Maximum power transfer occurs when load impedance matches the complex conjugate of
the source impedance.
42. The phase angle of an AC circuit is determined by:
A. Power factor
B. Voltage only
C. Current only
D. Resistance only
Answer: A. Power factor
Explanation: Phase angle ϕ=cos⁡−1(power factor)\phi = \cos^{-1}(\text{power
factor})ϕ=cos−1(power factor).
43. A purely capacitive circuit has:
A. Unity power factor
B. Zero real power
C. Maximum real power
D. Infinite power factor
Answer: B. Zero real power
Explanation: In a purely capacitive circuit, power oscillates between the source and capacitor with no net
power consumed.
44. In a purely resistive AC circuit:
A. Voltage leads current
B. Voltage lags current
C. Voltage and current are in phase
D. Power is zero
Answer: C. Voltage and current are in phase
Explanation: Voltage and current have no phase difference in a resistive circuit.
45. The unit of reactive power is:
A. Watt
B. Volt-ampere
C. Volt-ampere reactive
D. Ohm
Answer: C. Volt-ampere reactive
Explanation: Reactive power is measured in VAR (volt-ampere reactive).
46. Which instrument measures power factor in an AC circuit?
A. Voltmeter
B. Ammeter
C. Wattmeter
D. Power factor meter
Answer: D. Power factor meter
Explanation: A power factor meter is specifically designed to measure the power factor.
47. The power consumed in an ideal inductor is:
A. Zero
B. Maximum
C. Proportional to I2I^2I2
D. Infinite
Answer: A. Zero
Explanation: An ideal inductor only stores energy temporarily without consuming it.
48. An increase in the frequency of an AC circuit results in:
A. Increased inductive reactance
B. Decreased inductive reactance
C. No change in inductive reactance
D. Infinite inductive reactance
Answer: A. Increased inductive reactance
Explanation: XL=2πfLX_L = 2\pi f LXL=2πfL, so reactance increases with frequency.
49. Which of the following components has the ability to both store and release energy in an AC
circuit?
A. Resistor
B. Capacitor
C. Inductor
D. Both B and C
Answer: D. Both B and C
Explanation: Capacitors store energy in an electric field, and inductors store energy in a magnetic field.
50. The average power in a purely resistive AC circuit is:
A. Zero
B. Maximum
C. Proportional to cosΦ
D. Equal to apparent power
Answer: B. Maximum
Explanation: In a resistive circuit, all power is real power, and there is no reactive component.
1. What is the primary function of a semiconductor diode?
a) Amplification
b) Rectification
c) Oscillation
d) Voltage regulation
Answer: b) Rectification
Explanation: A diode allows current to flow in one direction only, making it ideal for converting
AC to DC.
2. Which material is commonly used to make semiconductor diodes?
a) Copper
b) Silicon
c) Tungsten
d) Gold
Answer: b) Silicon
Explanation: Silicon is widely used because of its thermal stability and abundance.
3. What happens during the forward bias of a diode?
a) The depletion region widens
b) The current flow stops
c) The depletion region narrows
d) It behaves as an insulator
Answer: c) The depletion region narrows
Explanation: In forward bias, the applied voltage reduces the depletion region, allowing current
to flow.
4. Which type of diode emits light when forward-biased?
a) Zener diode
b) Schottky diode
c) LED
d) Photodiode
Answer: c) LED
Explanation: Light-emitting diodes (LEDs) emit light as electrons recombine with holes.
5. What is the typical forward voltage drop of a silicon diode?
a) 0.3V
b) 0.7V
c) 1.2V
d) 2.0V
Answer: b) 0.7V
Explanation: Silicon diodes require approximately 0.7V to overcome the barrier potential.
6. Which is the most common configuration used in amplifiers?
a) Common base
b) Common emitter
c) Common collector
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Common emitter
Explanation: The common emitter configuration provides good voltage and current gain.
 7. In a BJT, the base is:
a) Heavily doped
b) Lightly doped
c) Undoped
d) Moderately doped
Answer: b) Lightly doped
Explanation: The base is lightly doped to facilitate easy recombination of charge carriers.
8. What is the function of a biasing resistor in a BJT circuit?
a) To limit current
b) To provide stability
c) To increase voltage gain
d) To reduce power loss
Answer: b) To provide stability
Explanation: Proper biasing ensures that the transistor operates in the desired region.
9. In active mode, the base-emitter junction of a BJT is:
a) Reverse biased
b) Forward biased
c) Not biased
d) Neutral
Answer: b) Forward biased
Explanation: Forward biasing the base-emitter junction is required for active operation.
10. The current gain (β\betaβ) of a BJT is given by:
a) IC/IBI_C / I_BIC/IB
b) IB/ICI_B / I_CIB/IC
c) IE/ICI_E / I_CIE/IC
d) IC/IEI_C / I_EIC/IE
Answer: a) IC/IBI_C / I_BIC/IB
Explanation: β\betaβ is the ratio of the collector current (ICI_CIC) to the base current (IBI_BIB
).

Small and Large Signal Model

11. What does the small signal model of a BJT analyze?
a) DC characteristics
b) AC behavior
c) Power dissipation
d) Switching speed
Answer: b) AC behavior
Explanation: The small signal model is used to analyze the AC response of the transistor.
12. Which parameter represents transconductance in the small signal model?
a) hfeh_{fe}hfe
b) gmg_mgm
c) ror_oro
d) hieh_{ie}hie
 Answer: b) gmg_mgm
Explanation: Transconductance (gmg_mgm) relates the change in collector current to the change
in base-emitter voltage.
13. What is the unit of gmg_mgm?
a) Volts
b) Ohms
c) Siemens
d) Amperes
Answer: c) Siemens
Explanation: Transconductance (gmg_mgm) is measured in Siemens (A/VA/VA/V).
14. What dominates in the large signal model?
a) Non-linear behavior
b) AC analysis
c) Incremental changes
d) Small deviations
Answer: a) Non-linear behavior
Explanation: The large signal model accounts for non-linearities in the transistor's operation.
15. Which parameter in a BJT large signal model determines saturation?
a) VBEV_{BE}VBE
b) VCEV_{CE}VCE
c) IBI_BIB
d) gmg_mgm
Answer: b) VCEV_{CE}VCE
Explanation: VCEV_{CE}VCE below a certain threshold indicates saturation.

16. • What does MOSFET stand for?

a) Metal-Oxide-Silicon Field-Effect Transistor
b) Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor Field-Effect Transistor
c) Metal-Oxide-Silicon Free-Energy Transistor
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor Field-Effect Transistor
Explanation: MOSFET is a type of FET that uses a metal-oxide-semiconductor
structure.
17. • In a MOSFET, the gate is separated from the channel by:
a) A conducting layer
b) An insulating oxide layer
c) A metallic layer
d) A depletion region
Answer: b) An insulating oxide layer
Explanation: The gate is insulated by a thin oxide layer, which controls the channel.
18. • What are the two main types of MOSFETs?
a) NPN and PNP
b) Enhancement and Depletion
c) Saturation and Cutoff
d) Active and Passive
 Answer: b) Enhancement and Depletion
Explanation: MOSFETs are classified based on how the channel is formed and
controlled.
19. • Which of the following is a key advantage of CMOS technology?
a) High power consumption
b) Low noise immunity
c) Low static power consumption
d) High cost
Answer: c) Low static power consumption
Explanation: CMOS technology has low static power consumption, making it ideal for
digital circuits.
20. • In CMOS, the pull-up network consists of:
a) NMOS transistors
b) PMOS transistors
c) Both NMOS and PMOS
d) Bipolar transistors
Answer: b) PMOS transistors
Explanation: PMOS transistors form the pull-up network in CMOS.
21. • Which region of operation in a BJT is used for amplification?
a) Cutoff
b) Saturation
c) Active
d) Reverse-active
Answer: c) Active
Explanation: The active region allows a BJT to amplify signals with proper biasing.
22. • The process of combining holes and electrons in a diode is called:
a) Diffusion
b) Recombination
c) Generation
d) Injection
Answer: b) Recombination
Explanation: Recombination occurs when electrons and holes combine, releasing
energy.
23. • What determines the threshold voltage of a MOSFET?
a) Gate material
b) Channel doping
c) Oxide thickness
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: The threshold voltage depends on gate material, channel doping, and oxide
thickness.
24. • In a BJT, the collector current is approximately equal to:
a) Base current
b) Emitter current
c) Voltage across the collector
d) Input signal current
 Answer: b) Emitter current
Explanation: The collector current is nearly equal to the emitter current in an ideal BJT.
25. • The Zener diode operates in which region for voltage regulation?
a) Forward-biased
b) Reverse-biased breakdown
c) Cutoff
d) Reverse-biased non-breakdown
Answer: b) Reverse-biased breakdown
Explanation: Zener diodes operate in reverse breakdown to maintain a constant voltage.
26. • What happens when the gate-source voltage (VGSV_{GS}VGS) of a MOSFET
exceeds the threshold voltage?
a) The channel forms
b) The MOSFET turns off
c) Breakdown occurs
d) Oxide insulation fails
Answer: a) The channel forms
Explanation: The gate-source voltage creates a conductive channel in enhancement-
mode MOSFETs.
27. • In CMOS circuits, the logic level '0' is represented by:
a) High voltage
b) Low voltage
c) Current flow
d) Saturation region operation
Answer: b) Low voltage
Explanation: A low voltage (close to ground) represents logic '0' in CMOS.
28. • What is the primary drawback of BJTs compared to MOSFETs?
a) High switching speed
b) High input impedance
c) Lower efficiency in large-scale integration
d) Low gain-bandwidth product
Answer: c) Lower efficiency in large-scale integration
Explanation: MOSFETs are more efficient for integration in VLSI technology.
29. • Which parameter in a diode characterizes its speed of switching?
a) Reverse recovery time
b) Peak inverse voltage
c) Threshold voltage
d) Forward current
Answer: a) Reverse recovery time
Explanation: Reverse recovery time determines how quickly a diode can switch from
conducting to non-conducting.
30. • What determines the maximum current a MOSFET can handle?
a) Gate capacitance
b) Drain-source resistance (RDS(on)R_{DS(on)}RDS(on))
c) Threshold voltage
d) Oxide layer thickness
Answer: b) Drain-source resistance (RDS(on)R_{DS(on)}RDS(on))
 Explanation: The lower the RDS(on)R_{DS(on)}RDS(on), the higher the current a
MOSFET can handle.
31. • Which factor does NOT affect the current gain (β\betaβ) of a BJT?
a) Base doping level
b) Temperature
c) Collector load
d) Frequency
Answer: c) Collector load
Explanation: Current gain is primarily dependent on material properties and operating
conditions.
32. • What is the typical voltage range for CMOS logic circuits?
a) 0V to 5V
b) -15V to +15V
c) 0V to 12V
d) -5V to +5V
Answer: a) 0V to 5V
Explanation: CMOS circuits typically operate within 0V to 5V for standard logic levels.
33. • Which is the dominant noise source in a MOSFET?
a) Shot noise
b) Thermal noise
c) Flicker noise
d) Avalanche noise
Answer: c) Flicker noise
Explanation: Flicker noise dominates in MOSFETs at low frequencies.
34. • The gain-bandwidth product of a transistor is constant for:
a) All frequencies
b) High frequencies
c) Low frequencies
d) Mid-range frequencies
Answer: a) All frequencies
Explanation: The gain-bandwidth product is a fundamental property of transistors.
35. • In a diode, the term "avalanche breakdown" refers to:
a) Excessive forward current
b) Reverse current caused by carrier multiplication
c) Zener effect at low voltages
d) Failure of the diode material
Answer: b) Reverse current caused by carrier multiplication
Explanation: Avalanche breakdown occurs due to high reverse voltage causing carrier
multiplication.
36. • The depletion region in a diode decreases when:
a) Forward biased
b) Reverse biased
c) In equilibrium
d) Open circuit
Answer: a) Forward biased
 Explanation: Forward biasing reduces the width of the depletion region, allowing
current flow.
37. • A CMOS inverter consumes the most power during:
a) Static operation
b) Switching
c) Sleep mode
d) No load
Answer: b) Switching
Explanation: CMOS inverters consume dynamic power during switching due to
charging and discharging of capacitances.
38. • What limits the maximum frequency of a BJT amplifier?
a) Power dissipation
b) Base width modulation
c) Transit time
d) Saturation voltage
Answer: c) Transit time
Explanation: The finite transit time of carriers limits the maximum operating frequency.
39. • The purpose of a coupling capacitor in an amplifier is to:
a) Block AC signals
b) Pass DC signals
c) Block DC signals
d) Increase impedance
Answer: c) Block DC signals
Explanation: Coupling capacitors block DC components while allowing AC signals to
pass.
40. • The main advantage of a CMOS over a BJT is:
a) Higher power consumption
b) Higher input impedance
c) Lower thermal stability
d) Higher voltage gain
Answer: b) Higher input impedance
Explanation: CMOS has much higher input impedance compared to BJTs.
41. • The cutoff frequency of a MOSFET is determined by:
a) Channel doping level
b) Gate capacitance and transconductance
c) Threshold voltage
d) Body effect
Answer: b) Gate capacitance and transconductance
Explanation: The cutoff frequency depends on the ability of the MOSFET to switch and
is influenced by gate capacitance and gmg_mgm.
42. • What happens to the current in a diode when the reverse voltage exceeds the
breakdown voltage?
a) Current remains zero
b) Current increases rapidly
c) Current decreases
d) Diode turns off permanently
 Answer: b) Current increases rapidly
Explanation: Beyond the breakdown voltage, the diode conducts heavily in reverse bias.
43. • What does the body effect in a MOSFET refer to?
a) Influence of substrate voltage on threshold voltage
b) Heating effects on the MOSFET body
c) Breakdown of the body diode
d) Shortening of the channel length
Answer: a) Influence of substrate voltage on threshold voltage
Explanation: The body effect alters the threshold voltage due to substrate bias.
44. • In a BJT, what is the relationship between the emitter current (IEI_EIE) and the
collector current (ICI_CIC)?
a) IE=ICI_E = I_CIE=IC
b) IE<ICI_E < I_CIE<IC
c) IE>ICI_E > I_CIE>IC
d) IE=2ICI_E = 2I_CIE=2IC
Answer: c) IE>ICI_E > I_CIE>IC
Explanation: Emitter current is the sum of the collector and base currents (IE=IC+IBI_E
= I_C + I_BIE=IC+IB).
45. • In a CMOS inverter, the "noise margin" refers to:
a) Power consumption tolerance
b) Maximum tolerable noise without affecting logic levels
c) Voltage drop across the load
d) Switching delay
Answer: b) Maximum tolerable noise without affecting logic levels
Explanation: Noise margin defines the robustness of a logic gate to withstand noise.
46. • Which region of a MOSFET is used for analog amplification?
a) Cutoff region
b) Saturation region
c) Triode region
d) Breakdown region
Answer: b) Saturation region
Explanation: In the saturation region, the MOSFET operates as a voltage-controlled
current source suitable for amplification.
47. • Which configuration of a BJT amplifier has the highest input impedance?
a) Common emitter
b) Common base
c) Common collector
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Common collector
Explanation: The common collector (emitter follower) configuration has high input
impedance and low output impedance.
48. • The mobility of carriers in a MOSFET decreases with:
a) Increased gate voltage
b) Reduced temperature
c) Increased temperature
d) Reduced drain voltage
 Answer: c) Increased temperature
Explanation: Carrier mobility decreases with rising temperature due to lattice scattering.
49. • The switching time of a diode is primarily affected by:
a) Forward voltage drop
b) Reverse recovery time
c) Junction capacitance
d) Breakdown voltage
Answer: b) Reverse recovery time
Explanation: Reverse recovery time determines how quickly the diode can switch off.
50. • The term "short-channel effects" in MOSFETs refers to:
a) Reduction in threshold voltage due to small channel lengths
b) Improved performance due to smaller size
c) Increase in gate resistance
d) Reduced transconductance
Answer: a) Reduction in threshold voltage due to small channel lengths
Explanation: Short-channel effects cause threshold voltage to decrease, impacting
MOSFET operation in submicron technologies.

Signal Generator: 30 MCQs with Explanations

1. What is the function of a signal generator?

a) Amplify signals
b) Generate waveforms
c) Filter noise
d) Rectify signals
Answer: b) Generate waveforms
Explanation: A signal generator produces different waveforms like sine, square, and
triangular for testing circuits.
2. Which oscillator is used in low-frequency signal generators?
a) LC Oscillator
b) RC Oscillator
c) Crystal Oscillator
d) Hartley Oscillator
Answer: b) RC Oscillator
Explanation: RC oscillators are suitable for low-frequency applications due to their RC
network.
3. Which oscillator is best for high-frequency generation?
a) RC Oscillator
b) LC Oscillator
c) Colpitts Oscillator
d) Crystal Oscillator
Answer: d) Crystal Oscillator
Explanation: Crystal oscillators provide high-frequency stability using quartz crystals.
4. What determines the frequency in an LC oscillator?
a) Resistance and capacitance
b) Inductance and capacitance
 c) Crystal properties
d) Transistor gain
Answer: b) Inductance and capacitance
Explanation: LC oscillators use an LC tank circuit to set the oscillation frequency.
5. The Barkhausen criterion ensures:
a) Signal stability
b) Oscillation startup
c) High gain
d) Low power usage
Answer: b) Oscillation startup
Explanation: The criterion defines the conditions for sustained oscillations in a circuit.
6. In a crystal oscillator, quartz is used because of its:
a) Flexibility
b) Stability and accuracy
c) Cost-efficiency
d) High gain properties
Answer: b) Stability and accuracy
Explanation: Quartz crystals offer minimal frequency drift over time and temperature.
7. The Wien Bridge Oscillator generates:
a) High-frequency signals
b) Square waves
c) Low-frequency sine waves
d) Noise signals
Answer: c) Low-frequency sine waves
Explanation: The RC network in a Wien Bridge Oscillator produces low-frequency
signals.
8. Which oscillator circuit uses tapped inductance?
a) Hartley Oscillator
b) Colpitts Oscillator
c) RC Oscillator
d) Multivibrator
Answer: a) Hartley Oscillator
Explanation: The Hartley Oscillator splits the inductor to achieve oscillations.
9. Waveform generators are used for:
a) Modulating signals
b) Producing test waveforms
c) Amplifying signals
d) Rectifying AC signals
Answer: b) Producing test waveforms
Explanation: Waveform generators produce test signals like sine, square, and triangular
waves.
10. What is a function generator?
a) Amplifier for sine waves
b) Device to generate different waveforms
c) Power supply
d) Noise suppressor
 Answer: b) Device to generate different waveforms
Explanation: Function generators create multiple types of waveforms for circuit testing.
11. A triangular wave generator typically uses:
a) An integrator circuit
b) A differentiator circuit
c) An oscillator circuit
d) A bandpass filter
Answer: a) An integrator circuit
Explanation: Integrators convert square waves into triangular waves.
12. What is the role of feedback in an oscillator?
a) Amplify output
b) Maintain oscillations
c) Stabilize temperature
d) Reduce power consumption
Answer: b) Maintain oscillations
Explanation: Positive feedback sustains oscillations by reinforcing the signal.
13. The output of a pulse generator is typically:
a) Sine wave
b) Square wave
c) Triangular wave
d) Pulse waveform
Answer: d) Pulse waveform
Explanation: Pulse generators produce short-duration pulses.
14. An astable multivibrator produces:
a) No output
b) A stable DC voltage
c) A continuous square wave
d) A sine wave
Answer: c) A continuous square wave
Explanation: Astable multivibrators oscillate between states without any external input.
15. In a Colpitts Oscillator, frequency depends on:
a) Resistors
b) Inductance and capacitance
c) Transistor biasing
d) Feedback gain
Answer: b) Inductance and capacitance
Explanation: Colpitts Oscillators use an LC circuit with capacitive voltage division.
16. Which of the following is not a signal generator?
a) Sine wave generator
b) Square wave generator
c) DC power supply
d) Function generator
Answer: c) DC power supply
Explanation: DC power supplies provide constant voltage, not varying signals.
17. What type of oscillator uses an RC phase-shift network?
a) Hartley Oscillator
 b) Wien Bridge Oscillator
c) RC Phase-Shift Oscillator
d) Multivibrator
Answer: c) RC Phase-Shift Oscillator
Explanation: RC phase-shift oscillators use resistor-capacitor networks for phase shifts.
18. What defines a square wave generator?
a) High output power
b) Sharp transitions between high and low levels
c) Sinusoidal waveform production
d) Frequency modulation capability
Answer: b) Sharp transitions between high and low levels
Explanation: Square wave generators produce rapid on/off transitions.
19. Crystal oscillators are most commonly used in:
a) Audio amplifiers
b) Microprocessor clocks
c) RF transmitters
d) Power amplifiers
Answer: b) Microprocessor clocks
Explanation: Their precision makes them ideal for timing circuits.
20. Sawtooth waveforms are primarily used in:
a) Clock generation
b) Oscilloscope scanning
c) Audio signals
d) Amplifiers
Answer: b) Oscilloscope scanning
Explanation: Sawtooth signals are used for horizontal sweeps in oscilloscopes.

21. A feedback circuit in an oscillator provides:

a) Negative feedback for stability
b) Positive feedback for oscillation
c) No feedback
d) Variable resistance
Answer: b) Positive feedback for oscillation
Explanation: Positive feedback ensures the signal builds up to sustain oscillations.
22. What is the role of an LC tank circuit?
a) Stabilize the gain
b) Generate and select frequencies
c) Reduce noise
d) Increase output power
Answer: b) Generate and select frequencies
Explanation: The LC tank circuit determines the resonant frequency of the oscillator.
23. A sine wave generator is often based on:
a) Square wave generator
b) Triangular wave generator
c) Wien Bridge Oscillator
d) Multivibrator
 Answer: c) Wien Bridge Oscillator
Explanation: It produces clean sine waves using an RC network.
24. RC oscillators are used in:
a) High-frequency RF circuits
b) Audio frequency applications
c) Microwave transmitters
d) Power amplification
Answer: b) Audio frequency applications
Explanation: RC oscillators are best suited for low- and mid-frequency ranges.
25. The stability of a crystal oscillator comes from:
a) Quartz's temperature properties
b) High inductance
c) RC network precision
d) Transistor biasing
Answer: a) Quartz's temperature properties
Explanation: Quartz has minimal thermal expansion, maintaining a stable frequency.
26. In a function generator, amplitude control adjusts:
a) Frequency
b) Waveform type
c) Signal strength
d) Power consumption
Answer: c) Signal strength
Explanation: Amplitude control changes the output voltage level.
27. What type of waveform is produced by an astable multivibrator?
a) Sine wave
b) Triangular wave
c) Square wave
d) Noise
Answer: c) Square wave
Explanation: An astable multivibrator outputs a continuous square wave.
28. A sweep generator is primarily used for:
a) Constant frequency signals
b) Frequency modulation
c) Testing frequency response
d) Amplifying signals
Answer: c) Testing frequency response
Explanation: Sweep generators vary frequency over time to test devices like filters.
29. What happens if the feedback in an oscillator is negative?
a) Oscillation stops
b) Oscillation stabilizes
c) Noise reduces
d) Output increases
Answer: a) Oscillation stops
Explanation: Negative feedback cancels the required signal for oscillation.
30. A phase-shift oscillator produces:
a) Triangular waves
 b) Square waves
c) Sine waves
d) Sawtooth waves
Answer: c) Sine waves
Explanation: Phase-shift oscillators generate sine waves by introducing a 180° phase
shift.

Amplifiers: 30 MCQs with Explanations

1. What is the main purpose of an amplifier?

a) Generate signals
b) Increase signal power
c) Reduce noise
d) Stabilize DC voltage
Answer: b) Increase signal power
Explanation: Amplifiers boost the power of input signals for various applications.
2. Class A amplifiers are known for:
a) High efficiency
b) High linearity
c) High distortion
d) Low bias current
Answer: b) High linearity
Explanation: They provide a faithful reproduction of the input signal with minimal
distortion.
3. Class B amplifiers are characterized by:
a) High fidelity
b) Half-cycle conduction
c) Low efficiency
d) Zero crossover distortion
Answer: b) Half-cycle conduction
Explanation: Each transistor in a Class B amplifier operates for half the signal cycle.
4. Which amplifier class has the highest efficiency?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class AB
d) Class D
Answer: d) Class D
Explanation: Class D amplifiers use digital switching for extremely high efficiency.
5. Crossover distortion is found in:
a) Class A amplifiers
b) Class B amplifiers
c) Class AB amplifiers
d) Class D amplifiers
 Answer: b) Class B amplifiers
Explanation: Crossover distortion occurs when switching between transistors in Class B.
6. What is the conduction angle in a Class AB amplifier?
a) 0° to 90°
b) 90° to 180°
c) More than 180° but less than 360°
d) 360°
Answer: c) More than 180° but less than 360°
Explanation: Class AB amplifiers conduct slightly more than half the cycle to minimize
distortion.
7. Push-pull amplifiers reduce:
a) Efficiency
b) Power
c) Harmonic distortion
d) Gain
Answer: c) Harmonic distortion
Explanation: Push-pull amplifiers use complementary transistors to cancel even
harmonics.
8. Tuned amplifiers are used in:
a) Audio amplifiers
b) RF circuits
c) Power supplies
d) DC voltage stabilizers
Answer: b) RF circuits
Explanation: Tuned amplifiers amplify signals at specific resonant frequencies.
9. Which type of amplifier is used in radio receivers?
a) Power amplifier
b) RF amplifier
c) Operational amplifier
d) DC amplifier
Answer: b) RF amplifier
Explanation: RF amplifiers handle high-frequency signals used in radio communication.
10. What is the function of an op-amp in a circuit?
a) Generate high-frequency signals
b) Amplify signals with high precision
c) Provide AC power
d) Switch DC voltages
Answer: b) Amplify signals with high precision
Explanation: Op-amps are versatile amplifiers with high gain and input impedance.
11. • Which component is typically biased in a Class AB amplifier?
a) Transistor base-emitter junction
b) Collector
c) Output capacitor
d) Power supply
Answer: a) Transistor base-emitter junction
Explanation: Proper biasing reduces crossover distortion in Class AB amplifiers.
12. • Transformer coupling in push-pull amplifiers is used to:
a) Increase gain
b) Reduce noise
c) Combine outputs and match impedances
d) Provide bias
Answer: c) Combine outputs and match impedances
Explanation: Transformers help combine signals from two transistors and match load
impedance.
13. • Power BJTs are used in:
a) Low-current circuits
b) High-power amplification
c) RF oscillators
d) Noise suppression circuits
Answer: b) High-power amplification
Explanation: Power BJTs handle high currents and voltages in power amplification.
14. • The main drawback of a Class A amplifier is:
a) High distortion
b) Low efficiency
c) Limited frequency response
d) Complex circuitry
Answer: b) Low efficiency
Explanation: Class A amplifiers dissipate significant power even without input signals.
15. • An operational amplifier can be used as:
a) A power supply
b) A high-gain amplifier
c) An RF modulator
d) A voltage stabilizer
Answer: b) A high-gain amplifier
Explanation: Op-amps amplify small signals with very high precision.
16. • Class B amplifiers require:
a) No bias voltage
b) Heavy biasing
c) Minimal collector current
d) A push-pull configuration
Answer: d) A push-pull configuration
Explanation: Push-pull ensures that each transistor amplifies half of the input cycle.
17. • Which amplifier operates in switching mode?
a) Class A
b) Class AB
c) Class C
d) Class D
Answer: d) Class D
Explanation: Class D amplifiers use transistors as switches to improve efficiency.
18. • Tuned amplifiers provide:
a) Maximum gain at resonant frequency
b) Flat frequency response
 c) High input impedance
d) Minimum power consumption
Answer: a) Maximum gain at resonant frequency
Explanation: Tuned amplifiers use LC circuits to amplify signals at specific frequencies.
19. • The main use of Class C amplifiers is in:
a) Audio systems
b) RF transmitters
c) Voltage regulators
d) DC amplifiers
Answer: b) RF transmitters
Explanation: Class C amplifiers are highly efficient but distort signals, making them
suitable for RF applications.
20. • Which amplifier class has the least distortion?
a) Class A
b) Class AB
c) Class B
d) Class D
Answer: a) Class A
Explanation: Class A amplifiers operate over the entire input cycle, ensuring minimal
distortion.
21. • What is the typical efficiency of a Class A amplifier?
a) 10-20%
b) 30-40%
c) 50-60%
d) 70-80%
Answer: a) 10-20%
Explanation: Due to continuous current flow, Class A amplifiers waste significant power
as heat.
22. • In Class B amplifiers, conduction occurs for:
a) Less than 180°
b) Exactly 180°
c) 360°
d) Greater than 360°
Answer: b) Exactly 180°
Explanation: Each transistor in a Class B amplifier conducts for half the input signal.
23. • What is a major application of op-amps?
a) Audio amplifiers
b) Oscillators
c) Precision amplification and filtering
d) DC-DC conversion
Answer: c) Precision amplification and filtering
Explanation: Op-amps are versatile for signal processing tasks like amplification and
filtering.
24. • What is the function of biasing in an amplifier?
a) Reduce output voltage
b) Set the operating point of transistors
 c) Eliminate distortion
d) Increase impedance
Answer: b) Set the operating point of transistors
Explanation: Biasing ensures the transistor operates in the desired region of its
characteristics.
25. • What is the role of feedback in amplifiers?
a) Increase gain
b) Control stability and distortion
c) Reduce efficiency
d) Increase input voltage
Answer: b) Control stability and distortion
Explanation: Negative feedback improves stability and reduces distortion in amplifiers.
26. • Transformer coupling is often used in:
a) Voltage amplifiers
b) Power amplifiers
c) RF amplifiers
d) Operational amplifiers
Answer: b) Power amplifiers
Explanation: Transformers in power amplifiers help match impedances and increase
efficiency.
27. • Class AB amplifiers are designed to:
a) Maximize efficiency over linearity
b) Minimize crossover distortion
c) Operate at low power levels
d) Eliminate feedback requirements
Answer: b) Minimize crossover distortion
Explanation: Class AB combines the benefits of Class A and Class B to reduce crossover
distortion.
28. • Tuned amplifiers are characterized by:
a) Low selectivity
b) High selectivity at specific frequencies
c) Constant gain across all frequencies
d) Maximum efficiency
Answer: b) High selectivity at specific frequencies
Explanation: They are designed to operate effectively at one resonant frequency.
29. • Power amplifiers typically work at:
a) Low power levels
b) High power levels
c) DC levels
d) Minimal input gain
Answer: b) High power levels
Explanation: Power amplifiers are used to drive loads like loudspeakers or antennas.
30. • A differential amplifier amplifies:
a) The average of two signals
b) The difference between two input signals
c) The sum of two input signals
d) A single input signal
Answer: b) The difference between two input signals
Explanation: Differential amplifiers are used to amplify the voltage difference between
inputs while rejecting common-mode noise.