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Jee Adv p2 - Phase Test 1 (A)

The document is an examination paper for the FIITJEE Phase Test (JEE-Advanced) covering Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, scheduled for August 11, 2024. It includes detailed instructions for candidates regarding the examination process, OMR sheet filling, and marking schemes for different question types. The paper consists of multiple choice questions and numerical problems across three sections, with specific marking criteria outlined for each part.

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Maanvi Son8
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
232 views22 pages

Jee Adv p2 - Phase Test 1 (A)

The document is an examination paper for the FIITJEE Phase Test (JEE-Advanced) covering Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, scheduled for August 11, 2024. It includes detailed instructions for candidates regarding the examination process, OMR sheet filling, and marking schemes for different question types. The paper consists of multiple choice questions and numerical problems across three sections, with specific marking criteria outlined for each part.

Uploaded by

Maanvi Son8
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Pattern - CPT-1 PHASE - 1 PAPER - 2


BATCHES – TWO YEAR CRP2426-A-LOT-PT-1

CONDUCTION DATE: 11-08-2024


Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & C in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For Only One Part.


(i) Part-A (01-04) – Contains four (04) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer.
Each question carries +3 marks for the correct answer and -1 marks for the wrong answer.

(ii) Part-A (05-10) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions with partial marking, which have ONE or
MORE THEN ONE correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will
result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result
in −1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(iii) Part-C (01-08) contains eight (08) Numerical based questions with Single Digit Integers, as an answer,
(Ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive). Each question carries +3 marks for the correct answer and the
-1 marks for the wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

www.facebook.com/FIITJEENOIDAOFFICIAL @fiitjee_Noida F Website:www.fiitjeenoida.com


IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 2

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If a1 and a 2 are two non-collinear unit vectors and if | a1 + a2 |= 3, then the value of
(a1 − a2 )  (2a1 + a2 ) is:
3 1
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D) 1
2 2

2. A particle initially at rest is released from A as


shown in figure. The approximate variation of
direction of resultant acceleration as particle
moves from A to B is:
(A) clockwise
(B) anticlockwise
(C) direction does not changes
(D) fluctuating direction

3. A rod of length L pivoted at one end, is rotated with a uniform angular velocity in a horizontal
plane. Let T1 & T2 be the tensions at the point L/4 and 3L/4 away from the pivoted ends.
(A) T1 > T2
(B) T2 > T1
(C) T1 = T2
(D) The relation between T1 & T2 depends on whether the rod rotates clockwise or anticlockwise.

4. A point moves in x-y plane according to the law x = 4 sin 6t and y = 4(1 – cos 6t). The distance
traversed by the particle in 4 seconds is: (x and y are in meters)
(A) 96 m (B) 48 m
(C) 24 m (D) 108 m

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.
x t3
5. A particle moves along positive branch of the curve y = where x = , x and y are measured in
2 3
metres and t in seconds, then
1
(A) the velocity of particle at t = 1 s is ˆi + ˆj
2
1ˆ ˆ
(B) the velocity of particle at t = 1 s is i + j
2
(C) the acceleration of particle at t = 1 s is 2iˆ + ˆj
(D) the acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is ˆi + 2jˆ

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

www.facebook.com/FIITJEENOIDAOFFICIAL @fiitjee_Noida F Website:www.fiitjeenoida.com


IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 3

6. In the arrangement shown, coefficient of friction for all the


surfaces is  and blocks are moving with constant speeds,
then:
(A) T1 =  mg
(B) F = 3 mg
(C) T1 = 2 mg
(D) F = 5mg

7. Two particles are thrown from the same point in the


same vertical plane, as shown in figure simultaneously.
Then indicate the correct statements:
(A) Time of flight of B is less than that of A.
(B) Projection speed of B is greater than that of A.

(C) Horizontal component of velocity for B is greater than that of A.


(D) The vertical component of velocities of both A and B are always equal throughout the duration
for which both the particles in air.

8. Two balls are thrown from an inclined plane at angle of projection  with the plane, one up the
incline and other down the incline as shown in figure (T stands for total time of flight):

v0
vt1
v0

h1 h2

vt 2
 R1 R2
 

v 02 sin2  2v 0 sin 
(A) h1 = h2 = (B) T1 = T2 =
2g cos  g cos 
(C) R2 − R1 = g(sin )T12 (D) v t2 = v t1

9. Two particles are projected with speed 4 m/s and 3 m/s


simultaneously from same point as shown in the figure.
Then:
(A) Their relative velocity is along vertical direction.
(B) Their relative acceleration is non-zero and it is along
vertical direction.
(C) They will hit the surface simultaneously.
(D) Their relative velocity is constant and has magnitude 1.4 m/s.

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 4

10. Which of the following statement is/are correct?


(A) Average speed of a particle in a given time period is never less than magnitude of average
velocity.
dv dv
(B) It is possible to have situations in which  0, but = 0.
dt dt
dv dv
(C) It is possible to have situations in which  0, but = 0.
dt dt
(D) The average velocity of a particle is zero in a time interval. It is possible that the
instantaneous velocity is never zero in the interval.

(PART – C)
(Integer Type)
Part-C (01-08) contains Eight (08) Numerical based questions with Single Digit Integer, as answer,
(Ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive). Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks
for wrong answer.

1. The velocity time graph for two particles (1 and


2) moving along X axis is shown in figure.
At time t = 0, both were at origin. During first 4
second of motion what is maximum separation (in
meter) between the particles?

2. The sum of the magnitudes of two forces acting at a point is 18 N and the magnitude of their
resultant is 12 N. If the resultant is at 90° with the force of smaller magnitude, what is magnitudes
of force (in N) which is smaller?

3. A particle of mass 3 kg moves under a force of 4 i + 8 j + 10k  newton. If the particle starts from
 
rest and was at the origin initially what are its new x co-ordinates (in meter) after 3s?

4. Pulleys shown in the system of the figure are massless


and frictionless. Threads are inextensible. Mass of
blocks A, B and C are m1 = 2 kg, m2 = 4 kg and m3 =
2.75 kg, respectively. Calculate acceleration (in m/s2) of
block C.

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

www.facebook.com/FIITJEENOIDAOFFICIAL @fiitjee_Noida F Website:www.fiitjeenoida.com


IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 5

5. Consider a particle initially moving with a velocity of 5 m/s starts decelerating at a constant rate of
2 m/s2. Find the distance (in meter) travelled in the 2nd second.

6. The displacement of a body as a function of time is given by s = (3t 2 + 4t + 7) m. Calculate the


magnitude of its instantaneous acceleration (in m/s2) at t = 1 s.

7. A ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a tower with velocity of 30 ms –1. During its motion, at a
particular point, horizontal and vertical velocities become equal in magnitude. Determine the time
(in sec) elapsed to reach this point.

8. A small disc A slides down with initial velocity equal to zero from the top of a smooth hill of height
H = 4 meter having a horizontal portion. What must be height (in meter) of the horizontal portion h
to ensure the maximum distance s covered by the disc?

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

www.facebook.com/FIITJEENOIDAOFFICIAL @fiitjee_Noida F Website:www.fiitjeenoida.com


IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 6

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
(PART – A)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Among the halides of group-1 metals, the one with highest lattice energy and the one with lowest
lattice energy are respectively.
(A) LiCl and CsF (B) LiF and CsI
(C) CsF and Lil (D) LiF and CsF

2. MnO2 + 4HCl ⎯⎯
→MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
Choose the correct statement:
(A) The molecular mass and equivalent mass of HCl is same in the reaction
(B) It is an intramolecular redox reaction
(C) The n-factor of Cl2 is 2
(D) Mn is oxidized from +2 to +4 oxidation state

3. Which molecule has the largest ONO bond angle?


(A) KNO2 (B) NaNO3
(C) NO2BF4 (D) NO2

4. H2O2 is used as a radical generator due to


(A) strong O – H bond (B) weak O – O bond
(C) easy decomposition to H2O and O2 (D) high dielectric constant

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5. An aqueous solution of glucose (C6H12O6 ) contains 1 mole of glucose in 1.8 L solution . Thus,
(A) It is 10% (w/v)aqueous solution
(B) Its density is 0.1 g L-1
(C) solution contains 3.33  10 20 glucose molecules per mL
(D) solution contains 24 g-atoms of constituting elements

6. The planar shape of N(SiH3 )3 is explained by the


(A) type of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen
(B) additional d − p overlap along the N-Si bond
(C) higher electronegativity of nitrogen
(D) higher electronegativity of silicon

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

www.facebook.com/FIITJEENOIDAOFFICIAL @fiitjee_Noida F Website:www.fiitjeenoida.com


IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 7

7. Following represents equation of state for n moles of real gas


 n2 a 
 p + 2  ( V − nb ) = nRT
 V 
Select the correct statements.
n2a
(A) Constant ‘a’ is directly proportional to the force of attraction between gas molecules and
V2
is also called internal pressure
(B) ‘a’ is expressed in atm L2 mol-2, ‘b’ is expressed in L mol-1
 Pb 
(C) At high pressure, compressibility factor is  1 +
 RT 
(D) At low pressure PV < nRT

8. The species that DO (ES) NOT contain peroxide bond is/are:


(A) PbO 2 (B) H2 O 2
(C) MnO 2 (D) BaO 2

9. Choose correct statement(s) regarding the following structure


F

C
H H
H
(A) The C – H bond contains more than 25% s-character
(B) The C – F bond contains less than 25% s-character
(C) The angle HCH is greater than 109o28’
(D) The C – F bond is more polar than C - H bond

10. 8 gm of oxygen (O2) has the same number of molecules as in :


(A) 11 gm CO2 (B) 22 gm CO2
(C) 7 gm CO (D) 14 gm CO

(PART – C)
(Integer Type)
Part-C (01-08) contains Eight (08) Numerical based questions with Single Digit Integer, as answer,
(Ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive). Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks
for wrong answer.

1. 1.0 g H2 and 5.00 g He are confined to a volume of 5.0 L at 20 0C. What is the partial pressure of
He (in atm)? [convert answer to nearest integer]

2. How many of the following have incomplete duplet or octet on central atom ?
+ −
BeCl2 ,BH3 ,NH4+ ,H+ ,H− ,CH3 ,CH3 ,CH2 ,NH2− ,CO32−

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

www.facebook.com/FIITJEENOIDAOFFICIAL @fiitjee_Noida F Website:www.fiitjeenoida.com


IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 8

3. X 2 − is isoelectronic of 10 Ne. 1.6g of X 2 − has 0.1 mole X 2 − . Calculate the number of neutrons in
X2 − .

4. NaOH, KOH, Ca(OH)2, Be(OH)2, Ba(OH)2 and Sr(OH)2


How many of the above compound(s) is/are more soluble than Mg(OH) 2 in water?

5. 10 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon was burnt completely in 80 mL of O 2 at NTP. The remaining gas


occupied 70 mL at NTP. The volume becomes 50 mL on treatment with KOH solution. If the molar
x
mass of the hydrocarbon is x g mol–1, what is the value of ?
4

6. The radial wave function of an atomic orbtial of hydrogen atom is given below
3/2
1 Z Zr
r =   ( 2 − u) e−u/2 , where u =
2 2  a0  a0
Z = Atomic number of hydrogen and r = radial distance
a0 = Radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom
If the radial node of the orbtial is found at a distance na 0 from the nucleus, what is the value of ‘n’?

7. The sum of the number of nodal planes present in *2p and 2p
*
orbital is

8. What is the electronegativity of an element in Mulliken scale if it’s first ionization energy is 3.7 eV
and electron affinity is 2.3 eV.

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

www.facebook.com/FIITJEENOIDAOFFICIAL @fiitjee_Noida F Website:www.fiitjeenoida.com


IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 9

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Let k = 1, then 2 sin2k + 4 sin4k + 6 sin6k + … + 180 sin180k is equal to


(A) 90 cos k (B) 90 tan 89
(C) 90 tan k (D) 90 cot 89

2. cot  + tan  = x, sec  – cos  = y , then


( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2/3 2/3 2/3 2/3
(A) xy2 − x2 y =1 (B) x2 y − xy2 =1
(C) x2/3 + y2/3 = 1 (D) none of these


3. If A > 0, B > 0 and A + B = , then the maximum value of tan A tan B is
3
1
(A) (B) 1
3
1
(C) 3 (D)
3

4. If the equations of the three sides of a triangle are 2x + 3y = 1, 3x – 2y+6=0 and x+y = 1, then the
orthocentre of the triangle lies on the line
(A) 13x + 13 y = 1 (B) 169x + 26y = –178
(C) 169x + y = 0 (D) none of these

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)


This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5. A diagonal of rhombus ABCD is member of both the families of lines


( x + y − 1) +  ( 2x + 3y − 2) = 0 and ( x − y + 2) +  ( 2x − 3y + 5) = 0 and one of the vertices of
the rhombus is ( 3,2 ) . Then
9 2
(A) diagonals intersect at  , − 
5 5
 9 2
(B) diagonals intersect at  − , 
 5 5
(C) equation of one of the diagonal is 2y + x + 1 = 0
(D) Equation of one of the diagonal is 2y + x − 1 = 0

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

www.facebook.com/FIITJEENOIDAOFFICIAL @fiitjee_Noida F Website:www.fiitjeenoida.com


IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 10

6. If the equation ax2 − 6xy + y2 + bx + cy + d = 0 represents pair of straight lines whose slopes
are m and m2 then value of a is/are
(A) a = −8 (B) a = 8
(C) a = 27 (D) a = −27

7. Two finite sets have m and n elements. The number of elements in the power set of first set is 48
more than the total number of elements in the power set of the second set. Then,
(A) m + n = 11 (B) m − n = 2
(C) 2m + n = 16 (D) 2m − n = 10

1
8.   x  R then  can be
sin x + cos6 x
6

(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

2
9. Let a,b,c are respectively the sines and p,q,r are respectively the cosines of ,  + and
3
4
+ then
3
(A) The value of a + b + c is dependent on 
(B) The value of a + b + c = 0
(C) The value of ap + bq + rc is dependent on 
(D) The value of ap + bq + rc is zero

10. Consider the circles


C1 = x2 + y2 − 2x − 4y − 4 = 0 and
C2 = x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y + 4 = 0
and the line L = x + 2y + 2 = 0, then
(A) L is the radical axis of C1 and C2
(B) L is the common tangent of C1 and C2
(C) L is the common chord of C1 and C2
(D) L is perpendicular to the line joining centres of C1 and C2

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 11

(PART – C)
(Integer Type)
Part-C (01-08) contains Eight (08) Numerical based questions with Single Digit Integer, as answer,
(Ranging from 0 to 9 both inclusive). Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks
for wrong answer.

1. If a + b = 3 – cos4 and a – b = 4sin2, then ab is always less than equal to

2. An investigator interviewed 100 students to determine the performance of three drinks milk, coffee
and tea. The investigator reported that 10 students take all three drinks milk, coffee and tea; 20
students take milk and coffee, 30 students take coffee and tea, 25 students take milk and tea, 12
students take milk only, 5 students take coffee only and 8 students take tea only. Then, the
k
number of students who did not take any of the three drinks, is k , then is
5

3. If the lengths of external and internal common tangent to two circles x2 + y2 + 14x − 4y + 28 = 0
+
and x2 + y2 − 14x + 4y − 28 = 0 are  and  the value of must be
2

( x − 2 )( 2x − 3 ) ( x − 6 )
2 3

4. The number of integral values of x satisfying  0 is


( x + 5)
4

5. The length of the common chord of the circle x2 + y2 + 5x + 7y + 9 = 0 and x2 + y2 + 7x + 5y + 9 = 0


is

6. The number of integral values of m for which the x-coordinate of the point of intersection of the lines
3x + 4y = 9 and y = mx + 1 is also an integer

2 sin  1 1 − cos2 1  
7. If = and = , ,    0,  , then tan (  + 2 ) is equal to
1 + cos 2 7 2 10  2

8. If log4 x + log4 y = 2 and log2 ( ( x + y ) x ) = 5 then x − y is equal to

Space for rough work

FIITJEE Tower, C-56A/26, Institutional Area,Sec-62, Noida-201307. Ph: 0120-4754800/ 9650037427/7825895321/9650037480


FIITJEE Ltd, 1st Floor, Hotel Building, Wegmans Business Park, KP-III, Surajpur Kasna Rd, Greater Noida-201308 Ph: 9599596524 / 9871113448

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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 12

FIITJEE COMMON TEST


BATCH – CTY 2426 A LOT
JEEA – PAPER - 2
PHASE - 1
ANSWERS
Conduction Date: 11-08-2024
SSE
ECCT
TIIO
ONN-- II:: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. A
5. AC 6. AD 7. BCD 8. ABC
9. AD 10. ABD

PART – C
1. 4 2. 5 3. 6 4. 6
5. 2 6. 6 7. 3 8. 2

SSE
ECCT
TIIO
ONN -- IIII:: C
CHHE
EMMIISST
TRRY
Y
PART – A
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B
5. ACD 6. AB 7. ABCD 8. AC
9. ABCD 10. AC

PART – C
1. 6 2. 5 3. 8 4. 5
5. 7 6. 2 7. 5 8. 3

SSE
ECCT
TIIO
ONN-- IIIIII:: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B
5. AD 6. BD 7. BC 8. CD
9. BD 10. AD

PART – C
1. 1 2. 4 3. 9 4. 3
5. 6 6. 2 7. 1 8. 0

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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 13

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


SSE
ECCT
TIIO
ONN-- II:: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
1. C
Sol. Since | a1 + a2 |= 3, and if angle between them is , then ( 3)2 = 12 + 12 + 2.1. 1 cos  i.e.,  =
60°.
(a1 − a2 )  (2a1 + a2 ) = 2a12 + (a1  a2 ) − (2a1  a2 ) − a22
= 2a12 − (a1  a2 ) − a22
1 1
= 2 − 1.1 −1=
2 2
2. A
Sol. When particle is at point A acceleration g
Point B acceleration is towards O.
 acceleration varies as i.e., clockwise.

3. A
Sol. Considering an element of length dx at distance x from axis
of friction.
m
 dm =   dx
L
 at x = L, T = 0 (T for tension)
T x
m 2
 −  dT =  x dx
0 L
L
x
−m2  x 2 
 T=  
L  2 L
−m2 2 m2 2
 T= (x − L2 ) = (L − x 2 )
2L 2L
 T1 > T2
4. A
Distance ds = (dx) + (dy)
2 2
Sol.
2 2
 dy   dx 
ds =   +   dt
 dt   dt 
ds = (24 sin 6t)2 + (24 cos 6t)2 dt
4
s = 24  dt = 96 m.
0
5. AC
vx a
Sol. vy = ,ay = x
2 2
dx
vx = =t 2
dt
dv
ax = x = 2t
dt
6. AD
Sol. The free body diagram of blocks A and B is as shown below:

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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 14

N1 = mg …(i)
N2 = 2mg + N1 = 3mg …(ii)
f2 = N1 = mg …(iii)
f1 = N2 = 3mg …(iv)
T1 = f2 = mg …(v)
F = f1 + f2 + T1 = 5mg …(vi)

7. BCD
Sol. Both A and B have same hmax. Hence,
(uA sin A )2 (uB sin B )2
=
2g 2g
 uAsin A = uB sin B  (uy)A = (uy)B
Hence, option ‘d’ is correct.
2(vertical velocity of projection)
Again time of flight =
g
Hence, time of flight of A is equal to that of B. Hence ‘a’ is wrong.
Since range of A is less than that of B and time of flight of A and B are equal, therefore
(ux)A < (ux)B.
Hence, ‘C’ is correct.

Speed of projection = (ux )2 + (uy )2


Since, uy is same for both and (ux)A < (ux)B, therefore, speed of projection of A is less than that of
B. Hence, ‘B’ is correct.
8. ABC
(v 0 sin  )2
Sol. h1 max = = h2 max  (A) is correct
2g cos 
2v sin 
T1 = 0 = T2  (B) is correct
g cos 
1
R1 = (v 0 cos  )T1 −g sin T12
2
1
R2 = (v 0 cos )T2 + g sin T22
2
 (R2 − R1 ) = gsin T12
 (C) is correct.
v t1 & vt2 are the velocities of the particles at their maximum heights. Let the particles reach their
maximum heights at time t1 and t2 respectively. Hence
0 = (v0sin ) – (g cos )t1
 v t1 = v0 cos  + (g sin )t1
v t2 = v0 cos  + (g sin )t 2
 v t1  v t2
9. AD
Sol. So, velocity of first particle = 3cos 37o ˆi + 3 sin37o ˆj
12 ˆ 9 ˆ
i+ j =
5 5
Velocity of second particle = 4cos53 i + 4 sin53o ˆj

12 ˆ 16 ˆ
= i+ j
5 5

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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 15

So, relative horizontal velocity is zero. So their relative velocity is vertical only. Since both
particles are moving under gravity, so their relative acceleration is zero.
16 9 7
Their relative velocity = − = = 1.4 m/s.
5 5 5
10. ABD
Total distance
Sol. Average speed =
Total time
displacement
Average velocity =
time
 distance > displacement
 Average speed > | Average velocity |
dv
= tangential acceleration
dt
dv
= net acceleration
dt
→ In uniform circular motion
dv dv
= 0, 0 A
dt dt
→ In circular motion from point A to point A again
Average velocity = 0
Instantaneously velocity  0 (at any time)
PART – C1. 4
Sol.

Separation will be maximum at t = 2 s when V1 = V2.


1 1
Maximum separation = are (OABC) – area (OBC) =  2  (2 + 4) −  2  2 = 4 m.
2 2
2. 5
Sol. Let P be the smaller force, then it is given that
P + Q = 18 …(i)
R= [P2 + Q2 + 2PQ cos ]1/2 = 12 …(ii)
and Q sin  / [P + Q cos ] = tan  = tan 90° = 
i.e., P + Q cos  = 0 …(iii)
Substituting the value of P from equation (i) in (iii),
Q(1 – cos ) = 18 …(iv)
Now, subtracting square of equation (ii) from square of equation (i),
2PQ(1 – cos ) = 182 – 122 = 180 …(v)
Dividing equation (v) by (iv),
2P = 10, i.e., P = 5
Substituting P in equation (i)
Q = 13
So the magnitudes of forces are 5 and 13 units.
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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 16

3. 6
Sol. We know that according to Newton’s laws of motion.
F = ma i.e., a = F /m
But as here F = 4 i + 8 j + 10k and m = 3 kg

a = (1/ 3) [4i + 8 j + 10k] m/s2


Further according to the equation of motion
s = ut + (1/ 2)at 2
s = 0  3 + (1/ 2)(1/ 3)[4i + 8 j + 10k]  32
i.e., s = [6 i + 12 j + 15k]
so the co-ordinates of the particle after 3 s are [6, 12, 15].
4. 6
Sol. Let acceleration of blocks A and B be a and b vertically upwards, respectively. Then according to
geometry of the given figure downwards acceleration of block C will be equal to 2a + 4b. Now
considering the FBDs shown as given below figure.

For block A, ,T1 – m1g = m1a …(i)


For block B, 2T1 – m2g = m2b …(ii)
For pulley F, T1 = 2T2 …(iii)

For block C, m3g – T2 = m3 (2a + 4b)


Solving above equations, T1 = 22 N, T2 = 11 N,
a = 1 ms–2, b = 1 ms–2
Hence, acceleration of block A, a = 1 ms–2 ()
Acceleration of block B, b = 1 ms-2 ()
Acceleration of block C, = (2a + 4b) = 6 ms–2 ()
5. 2
a 2
Sol. Dn = u + (2n − 1) = 5 − [2  2 − 1] = 2 m.
2 2
6. 6
Sol. Given: s = (3t2 + 4t + 7) m. Velocity is the time rate of change of displacement.
ds d
So, | v |= = (3t 2 + 4t + 7) = 6t + 4.
dt dt
At t = 1 s, v = 6 × 1 + 4 = 10 m/s.
Now acceleration is the rate of change of velocity:
dv d
| a |= = (6t + 4) = 6 m/s2
dt dt
7. 3
Sol. Given: v = 30 ms–1
By finding out horizontal and vertical velocities separately and by equating them we can find out
the required time. Also, remember that the horizontal velocity remains the same and the vertical
velocity keeps changing during motion.

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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 17

So, horizontal velocity ux = vx = 30 ms–1 …(i)


Vertical velocity vy = uy + ayt = 0 + gt = 10t …(ii)
Comparing equations (i) and (ii) ; 10 t = 30
 t = 3 s.

8. 2
Sol. In order to obtain the velocity at point B, we apply the law of conservation of energy.
So,Loss in PE = Gain in KE
1
mg (H − h) = mv 2
2
 v = [2g (H − h)]
1 2
Further h= gt
2
 t = (2h / g)

Now, s = v  t = [2g(H − h)]  (2h / g)

or s = [4h(H − h)] …(i)

ds
For maximum value of s, =0
dh
1 H
  4(H − 2h) = 0 or h =
2 [4h (H − h)] 2
H = 2 meter.

SSE
ECCT
TIIO
ONN -- IIII:: C
CHHE
EMMIISST
TRRY
Y
PART – A
1. B
Sol. Highest lattice energy → LiF
Lowest lattice energy → CsI
2. C
Sol. n-factor of HCl is ½
 Molar mass = 36.5 g mol-1
Eq. Mas = 73 g equ–1
3. C
Sol. NO2BF4 contains NO2+ and BF4− ions. The bond angle in NO2+ is 180o.
4. B
Sol. The O – O bond is non-polar and favours radical formation.
5. ACD
Sol. 1 mole C6H12O6 = 180 g
w 180 g
% =  100 = 10
v 1800 mL
6. AB
Sol. Hybridization of N is sp2 and d - p bond formation takes place between N and Si.
7. ABCD
Sol. At high pressure ‘a’ and at low pressure ‘b’ are neglected.
8. AC
Sol. H2O2 and BaO2 contain peroxide bonds.
9. ABCD
Sol. The electron of C – F bond lie close to F atom.
 The C – F bond contains less than 25% s-character of carbon.
10. AC

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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 18

8 1
Sol. Moles of O2 = =
32 4
11 1
Moles of CO2 = =
44 4
7 1
Moles of CO = =
28 4
PART – C1. 6
1 5
+  0.0821 293
nRT  2 4 
Sol. P= = = 8.419
V 5
1.25
pHe =  8.419 = 6.01 atm
1.75
2. 5
+
Sol. The species are BeCl2, BH3, H+, CH3 ,CH2
3. 8
Sol. The species is O2–.
4. 5
Sol. NaOH, KOH, Ca(OH)2, Ba(OH)2 and Sr(OH)2
5. 7
 y y
Sol. CxHy +  x +  O2 ⎯⎯
→ xCO2 + H2O
 4 2
V(unused O2) + V(CO2) = 70
After treatment with KOH(absorb CO2) the volume becomes 50 mL
 VCO2 = 70 – 50 = 20
V(unused O2) = 70 – 20 = 50 mL
V(Hydrocarbon) = 10 mL
V of CO2 = 10 xmL = 20  x = 2
V of O2 used = 30 mL
 y
or, 10  x + = 30
 4 
y y
x + = 3 or 2 + = 3 or y = 4
4 4
 The hydrocarbon is C2H4
x = 28 or
x
=7
4
6. 2
Sol. At node, r2 = 0, r = 0
3/2
1 Z
   ( 2 − u) e−u/2 = 0
2 2  a0 
Zr
2–u=0,2- =0
a0
r
2- =0
a0
r = 2a0 = na0
n=2
7. 5
Sol.  *2p contains three nodal planes and  *2p contains two nodal planes.
8. 3
Sol. EN = ½|I.E1 + E.A| = ½|3.7 + 2.3| = 3

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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 19

SSE
ECCT
TIIO
ONN-- IIIIII:: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
1. B
Sol. Let y = 2 sin2 + 4 sin4 + … + 178 sin178
 y = 178 sin178 + 176 sin176 + … + 2 sin2
 2y = 180(sin2 + sin4 + … + sin178)
sin89
 y = 90. sin ( 90 ) = 90tan89
sin1
2. B
Sol. Given cot  + tan  = x
sec 2  1
 =x  = x and sec  − cos  = y
tan  sin   cos 
sin2 
 =y
cos 
 x2 y = sec3  and xy2 = tan3 

( x y) ( )
2/3 2/3
 2
− xy2 =1
3. A
 
Sol. Given A + B =  B= −A
3 3
Let k = tan A tan B
 
= tan A  tan  − A 
3 
3 − tan A
= tan A  =k
1 + 3 tan A
 tan2 A + 3 (k − 1) + k = 0
since tan A is real,
3 ( k − 1) − 4k  0
2

 (3k – 1) (k – 3)  0
1 
 k  or k  3, But k cannot be greater that 3, since A + B = .
3 3
1
 Maximum value of tan A tan B is
3
4. B
Sol. Ortho centre is the point of intersection of 2x + 3y = 1 and 3x – 2y + 6 = 0

( 3x + 6 ) −16
Solving them we get 2x + 3 = 1  4x + 9x + 18 = 2  13x = −16  x =
2 13

  −16   1 −48 + 78 15
 y = 3   + 6 = =
  13  2 13  2 13

 −16 15 
  ,  lies on 169 x + 26y = -178
 13 13 
5. AD
Sol. Let A ( 3,2) ,C (p,q)
So mid point of AC will lie on the diagonal and given diagonal is passing through (1,0 ) and
3 14
( −1,1) p = ,q = −
5 5
6. BD

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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 20

Sol. So m and m2 are the roots of ax2 − 6xy + y2 = 0


7. BC
Sol. According to question, 2m − 2n = 48
This is possible only if m = 6 and n = 4.
8. CD
Sol. P = sin6 x + cos6 x = 1 − 3 sin2 x cos2 x
3
= 1 − sin2 2x
4
1 
So P   ,1
4 
9. BD
 2   4   2   4 
sin  + sin   +  + sin   +  = 0 and sin2 + sin  2 +  + sin  2 + =0
3 
Sol.
 3   3   3  
10. AD
Sol. c1 = x2 + y2 − 2x − 4y − 4 = 0 …………..(i)
and c2 = x + y + 2x + 4y + 4 = 0
2 2
…………..(ii)
 Radical axis is c1 − c 2 = 0
 x + 2y + 2 = 0 which is L= 0
C1 and C 2 are apart of each other
 Radical axis is neither tangent nor chord.
−2 − 2
 Slope of Line joining centres of circles C1 = 0 & C2 = 0 is = 2 = m1 (say)
−1 − 1
1
and slope of L = 0 is − = m2 (say)
2
 m1 m2 = −1
Hence L is perpendicular to the line joining centres of C1 and C2.
PART – C1. 1
3 − cos 4 + 4 sin 2
= (1 + sin 2 )
2
Sol. On adding a =
2
On subtracting b = (1 − sin 2 )  ab = cos 2  1
4 2

2. 4
Sol. Total drinks = 3 (i.e., milk, coffee, tea)
M T

n = 100

15
8
12
10
10 20

Total number of students who take any of the drink is 80.


 The number of students who did not take any of three drink = 100 – 80 = 20
3. 9
Sol. The given circle S1 = x2 + y2 + 14x − 4y + 28 = 0
and S2 = x2 + y2 − 14x + 4y − 28 = 0
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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 21

Centres and radii of circles S1 and S 2 are


C1 ( −7, 2) , r1 = 49 + 4 − 28 = 5
and C2 ( 7, − 2 ) , r2 = 49 + 4 + 28
= 9 respectively

( −7 − 7 ) + ( 2 + 2)
2 2
Here d = C1C2 =

= 212  r1 + r2 = 5 + 9 = 14
 d  r1 + r2
Hence circles don’t touch or cut.
 Length of internal common tangent
Lex = d2 − ( r1 + r2 )
2

= 212 − ( 5 + 9 ) = 212 − 196


2

= 16 = 4 = 
Length of external common tangent
= d2 − (r1 − r2 ) = 14
2

  = 14
  +  = 18
4. 3
Sol. x  ( 2,6 )
5. 6
 −5 7   −7 −5 
Sol. C1  ,  C2  , 
 2 2  2 2 
38 38
r1 = r2 =
2 2
Common chord is y = x, C1 & C2 mirror images of each other in common chord.
 C1C2 ⊥ line (y = x)
r12  AP2 + C1P2
1
C1P = ⊥ distance of C1 from y = x =
2
 AP = 3
 AB = 3 × 2 = 6
6. 2
5
Sol. x=
4m + 3
For x to be integer
3 + 4m = ±, ±5
−2
3 + 4m = 1  m = non integer
4
3 + 4m = -1  m = -1
1
3 + 4m = 5  m = non integer
2
3 + 4m = -5  m = -2
 2 integral value of m.
7. 1
2 sin  1 2 sin  1
Sol. = and =
2 cos  7 2 10
1
tan  =
7
1
sin  =
10
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IT−2026−Two Year CRP2426 (P-2) (PT-1)-(PCM) JEEA 22

1
tan  =
3
1 2
2.
3
tan2 = 3 = 3 =
1 8 4
1−
9 9
1 3 4 + 21
+
tan  + tan2
tan (  + 2 ) = = 7 4 = 28 = 1
1 − tan  tan2 1 − 1 . 3 25
7 4 26
8. 0
Sol. x=y=4

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