Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

LOGICAL REASONING, DATA ANALYSIS & INTERPRETATION

Direction(1-5) : In this question two/three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be

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true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
1. Statements : All snakes are reptiles. Some reptiles are turtles.
No turtle is a bird.
Conclusion I. : All reptiles being birds is a possibility.
ha
Conclusion II.: No snake is a turtle.
1) Both Conclusions I and II follow
2) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 3) Only Conclusion II follows

2.

E
4) Either Conclusion I or II follows
Statements : All plants are trees.
All weeds are shrubs.
5) Only Conclusion I follows
Some trees are weeds.
d
Conclusion I. : At least some trees are shrubs.
Conclusion II. : All plants being shrubs is a possibility.
1) Either Conclusion I or II follows
ee

2) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 3) Only Conclusion II follows

4) Both Conclusions I and II follow 5) Only Conclusion I follows
3. Statements : All apartments are houses. No apartment is a motel.
Conclusion I. : Some houses being motels is a possibility.
C
Conclusion II. : No house is a motel.
1) Either Conclusion I or II follows 2) Only Conclusion I follows
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 4) Only Conclusion II follows
Sr

5) Both Conclusions I and II follow

4. Statements : Some drinks are juices. All juices are beverages.
No beverage is a solid.
Conclusion I. : Some drinks are beverages.
Conclusion II. : All drinks are beverages.
1) Both Conclusions I and II follow
2) Only Conclusion I follows 3) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
C
4) Either Conclusion I or II follows 5) Only Conclusion II follows
5. Statements : Some drinks are juices. All juices are beverages.
No beverage is a solid.
Conclusion I. : No juice is a solid.
Conclusion II. : No drink is a solid.
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows
3) Either Conclusion I or II follows
4) Both Conclusions I and II follow
5) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
Direction(6-7) : Study the given information carefully to answer the given question:
Anupama starts from point K which is 8 m to the east of Point B. From point
K she walks 10 m to the north, takes a right turn and then walks for 5 m. Finally
she takes a right turn, walks for 3 m and stops at point M.
Animesh starts from Point P which is 4 m to the north of Point B. From Point
P he walks 5 m to the west, takes a right turn and walks for 3 m. Finally he takes
a right turn, walks for 13 m and stops at point X.
6. In which direction is Point K with respect to Point P ?
1) South-East 2) South-West 3) West 4) North-West 5) North

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

7. What is the distance between point M and Point X ?

1) 8m 2) 11 m 3) 3m 4) 10m 5) 5m
Direction(8-13) : Study the following information and answer the question :
Seven Friends, namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S attend different language
classes namely French, English, Spanish, Sanskrit, Chinese, German and
Japanese. Classes starts from Monday to Sunday in a same week.
M attends a class on Friday. Only two people attend classes between M and
the one who is learning Sanskrit. R attends a class immediately before P. Neither
R nor P is learning Sanskrit. Only one person attends a class between R and the
one who is learning Spanish. The one who is learning Spanish does not have a
class on Monday. N attends a class immediately before the one who is learning

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French. M is not learning French. Only one person has a class between R and Q.
O is learning German. Only two people have classes between O and the one who
is learning Chinese. Q is not learning Japanese.
8. Which of the following language does Q attend ?
1) Other than those given as options 2) Chinese

9.
3) Sanskrit
ha 4) English 5) Spanish
As per the given arrangement Q is related to Chinese and R is related to Japanese
in a certain way. To which of the following is P related to in the same way ?

10.
1) Spanish
3) Sanskrit

E
2) Other than those given as options
4) English 5) French
Four of the following five form a group as per the given arrangement. Which of the
d
following does not belong to that group ?
1) P-Friday 2) M-Saturday 3) N-Thursday 4) Q-Tuesday 5) S-Sunday
ee

11. On which of the following days does P have a class ?

1) Monday 2) Thursday 3) Tuesday 4) Sunday 5) Wednesday
12. Which of the following pairs represent those who have language classes immediately
C
before and immediately after N ?
1) Q, M 2) P, M 3) Other than those given as options
4) Q, R 5) R, P
Sr

13. Who amongst the following people is learning Japanese ?

1) M 2) N 3) R 4) Cannot be determined 5) S
Direction(14-18) : Study the following information to answer the given question ;
Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on separate floors of an 8-floor
building but not necessarily in the same order. Ground floor is numbered 1. first
floor is numbered 2 and so on until the topmost floor is numbered 8.
Only two people live below the floor on which G lives. Only one person lives
C
between G and A.
H lives on an odd numbered floor but not on floor number 7.
Only two people live between H and B. B does not live on the topmost floor.
A does not live on the lowermost floor.
C lives immediately below D. Neither C nor E lives on floor number 6.
14. Who among the following people lives on floor number 5 ?
1) E 2) D 3) C 4) B 5) A
15. How many people live between the floors on which A and D live ?
1) Three 2) None 3) One 4) Two 5) More than three
16. On which of the following floor numbers does D live ?
1) 8 2) 7 3) 4 4) 1 5) 5
17. Which of the following is true with respect to F as per the given information ?
1) Only three people live between F and B
2) Only three people live above F 3) None of the given options is true
4) F lives on the floor number 6 5) F lives immediately above D

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

18. Who lives on the floor immediately below G ?

1) C 2) B 3) F 4) E 5) D
Direction(19-21) : Read the following Information and the sentences (A), (B), (C),
(D), (E) and (F) given below it carefully and answer the question :
Township ABC has seen very few takers. 45% flats are lying unsold ever
since its construction. Prices should be cut by 30% per sq. feet in order to match
the ongoing market price of Rs. 6800 per sq. feet. This would bring the buyers
back and deal with this slump in sales.
(A) Market price of the flats are controlled by the government which cannot be
altered by independent authorities.
(B) At present flats are being sold at more than Rs. 8000 per sq. feet
(C) The township ABC is located far from the main city and has poor transport
facilities for the same

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(D) In order to recover the investments made by the builders, they must make a
profit of minimum Rs. 1000 per sq feet per flat sold
(E) No buyer is willing to pay a price more than the ongoing market rate
(F) There have been numerous complaints about poor construction material and
apathy of builders towards the same by people already residing in the township.
19. Which of the statement/s weakens the premise that lack of buyers is only because
1) Only D
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of the price of the flats ?
2) Both A and B 3) Only A 4) Both C and F 5) Both A and E
20. Which of the given statements can be concluded from the facts/ information
given in the statement ?
21.
1) C 2) D

E 3) E 4) B 5) A
Which of the following may prove that 30% price cut may not be a feasible step to
be taken by the builder ?
d
1) Only E 2) Both E and B 3) Only B
4) Both A and B 5) Only D
Direction(22-27) : Study the following information to answer the given question :
ee

Eight persons namely - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are seated in a straight line

but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing south while some
are facing north.
NOTE:
C
Same direction means that if one person is facing north then the other person
also faces north and vice versa.
Opposite direction means that if one person is facing north then the other person
Sr

faces south and vice versa.

T faces south. Only three people sit to the left of T. Only two people sit between T and Q.
U sits third to the right of W. W is an immediate neighbour of neither T nor Q.
W does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line.
Both the immediate neighbours of S face north. S is not an immediate neighbour
of W. Only one person sits between S and P.
P faces same direction as W. Immediate neighbours of Q face opposite directions
(i.e. if one neighbour faces north then the other one faces south and vice versa).
C
Persons sitting at extreme ends face opposite directions. R faces a direction
opposite to S.
22. What is the position of U with respect to Q?
1) Fourth to the right 2) Second to the right
3) Fifth to the left 4) Third to the left 5) Second to the left
23. How many persons are seated between T and P?
1) One 2) More than four 3) Two 4) Four 5) Three
24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group?
1) W 2) T 3) R 4) P 5) U
25. Who amongst the following people sits to immediate left of R?
1) T 2) P 3) W 4) Q 5) S
26. Which of the following statement is true about V with respect to the given
arrangement?
1) R sits second to right of V 2) Only one person sits to the right of V
3) Only two people sit between V and Q
4) U is one of the immediate neighbours of V
5) None of the given options is true

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

27. Which of the following pair represents persons seated at the two extreme ends of
the line ?
1) P, U 2) R, S 3) R, T 4) P, V 5) Q, R
Direction (28-29) : Read the given information carefully and answer the given
question.
Each of the six persons, H, I, J, K, L and M has travelled to different number
of countries. J has travelled to more number of countries than only K and L. I has
travelled to more number of countries than M but less than H. L is not the person
who has travelled to the least number of countries. The one who has travelled to
the second highest number of countries has travelled to 10 countries. The one
who has travelled to the least number of countries has travelled to only 4 countries.

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28. If it is given that J has travelled to 3 countries less than the number of countries
travelled by I, then how many countries has M possibly travelled ?
1) 12 2) 8 3) 5 4) 6 5) 11
29. Who amongst the following people has possibly traveled to 13 countries ?
1) K 2) L 3) I 4) J 5) H
Direction(30-35) : Study the given information carefully and answer the given
question.
ha
Eight people namely - L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular
table at equal distances between each other, but not necessarily in the same
order.

E
Some of the people are facing the centre while some face outside
(i.e. in a direction opposite to the centre).
d
Note:
Facing the same direction means if one person faces the centre then the other
person also faces the centre and vice versa.
Facing the opposite directions means if one person faces the centre then the
ee

other person faces outside and vice versa

Immediate neighbours face the same direction means if one neighbour faces the
centre then the other neighbour also faces the centre and vice versa.
C
Immediate neighbours face the opposite directions means if one neighbour faces
the centre then the other neighbour faces outside and vice versa.
O sits third to the right of L. Both O and L face the same direction. Only three
Sr

people sit between P and M. P is neither an immediate neighbour of L nor O. M

faces outside. R sits to the immediate left of M. Q sits to the immediate right of N.
Neither L nor O is an immediate neighbour of N. Both the immediate neighbour of
M face the opposite directions. S sits second to the right of R. Both R and Q face
the same direction as S. P faces a direction opposite to that of N.
30. Who amongst the following people sits exactly between M and the one who sits
second to the left of P ?
C
1) L 2) N 3) O 4) Q 5) R
31. Who is sitting to immediate left of S ?
1) O 2) Q 3) P 4) N 5) L
32. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that
group ?
1) N 2) L 3) R 4) S 5) Q
33. How many people in the given arrangement face the centre ?
1) Five 2) Three 3) Two 4) Four 5) One
34. Which of the following is true regarding Q as per the given seating arrangement ?
1) Only three people sit between Q and R.
2) Q sits second to the left of P. 3) Q faces outside.
4) Q sits second to right of O
5) None of the given statements is true.
35. What is N’s position with respect to P ?
1) Immediate left 2) Fourth to the right
3) Third to the right 4) Immediate right 5) Second to the left

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

Direction(36-40) : Study the given information carefully and answer the given
question :
When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words
and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement:
(All the numbers are two digit numbers)
Input : 46 span rote 62 79 into main 13 39 deal
Step I : 79 46 role 62 into main 13 39 deal span
StepII : 62 79 46 into main 13 39 deal span role
Step III : 46 62 79 into 13 39 deal span role main

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Step IV : 39 46 62 79 13 deal span role main into
Step V : 13 39 46 62 79 span role main into deal
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is
obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the appropriate steps for the
given input.
ha
Input : 11 east 56 vent kind 35 over 27 71 bowl
36. How many elements are there between “35” and “kind” in the last step ?

37.
1) Two 2) Four 3) Three

E4) One 5) None

Which of the following represent the two consecutive elements to the immediate
right of “over” in the second last step ?
d
1) 11, bowl 2) 71, 11 3) kind, east 4) bowl, vent 5) vent, kind
38. What is the position of “bowl” from the right of ‘71’ in the second step ?
1) Seventh 2) Second 3) Fifth 4) Sixth 5) Third
ee

39. In step III. which element/s appears exactly between ‘27 and ‘over’ ?
1) Both ‘kind’ and ‘71’ 2) Only ‘kind’ 3) Both ‘bowl’ and ‘vent’
C
4) Only ‘11’ 5) only ‘71’
40. Which is the third element to the left of the ninth element from the left in the
first step ?
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1) over 2) east 3) bowl 4) 35 5) 27

Direction(41-45) : Refer to the graph and answer the given question:
Data related to number of e-mails received and number of e-mails read by
5 customer care executives (A, B, C, D, E) on Monday

Number of received e-mails

C
Number of read e-mails
400
Number of e-mails (received

350
300
and read)

250
200
150
100
50
0
A B C D E
Customer care executives

Note: No pending e-mails from previous days were read on Monday Only the e-
mails received on that particular day were read.
41. What is the difference between number of unread e-mails by A and that by E ?
1) 100 2) 90 3) 80 4) 85 5)95

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

42. Out of the e-mails received by B, 40% are from female customers. Out of these If-
36 e-mails were unread, how many e-mails received from male customers were
read ?
1) 132 2) 142 3)148 4) 144 5) 138
43. What is the average number of unread e-mails by B and C ?
1) 110 2)105 3) 95 4) 115 5)100
44. If the number of e-malls received by F was 20% more than that by E and number
at e-mails read by F was 76 less than that by D, what percent of F’s received e-
mails were unread ?
1) 70 2) 75 3) 60 4) 65 5) 80

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45. Number of e-mails received by B is what percent more than that received by E ?
2 4 2 2 4
1) 14 2) 12 3) 16 4) 20 5)18
7 7 7 7 7
Direction (46-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
ha
The given pie chart-1 shows the number of pilgrims in 5 compartments.

Total Number Of Pilgrims

E
d
C5, 24% C1, 32%
ee

C4, 20%
C
C2, 16%
Sr

C3, 8%

The given pie chart-2 shows the percentage distribution of the female
pilgrims in 5 compartments.
female pilgrims
C
C5
20% C1
30%
C4
22% C2
18%
C3
10%

Note:
Total number of pilgrims (male and female) in all compartments = 1200
Total number of female pilgrims in all compartments = 500
46. What is the ratio of the number of male pilgrims in C1 and C3 compartments
together to the number of female pilgrims in C2 and C4 together?
1) 7: 5 2) 5: 3 3) 3: 1 4) 8: 9 5) 11: 9

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

47. The number of male pilgrims in C3 and C5 together is what percent of the total
number of pilgrims in C2 and C5 together?
1) 38.95% 2) 48.75% 3) 50.12% 4) 52.45% 5) 62.25%
48. What is the difference between the total number of female pilgrims in C1, C4 and
C5 together and the total number of male pilgrims in C2, C3 and C4 together?
1) 82 2) 88 3) 94 4) 72 5) 68
49. The number of female pilgrims in C3 and C5 together is what percent less than
the number of female pilgrims in C2 and C4?
1) 15% 2) 25% 3) 33.3% 4) 45% 5) 50%
50. If the number of male pilgrims in C6 is 20% more than the number of male
pilgrims in C4 and the number of female pilgrims in C6 is 40% more than the

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number of female pilgrims in C5 compartment, then what is the total number of
pilgrims in C6?
1) 159 2) 244 3) 296 4) 315 5) 354
Direction (51-55): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
question.
The table given below shows the data of the total funds of 4 different companies
ha
and funds donated by each company to 3 different NGOs.
Note: The Sum of the percentage distribution in each company is 100
The ratio between the total funds of company W to Y is 4: 5.
Some values are missing.

E
Total funds (Rs.) % donated to NGO % donated to NGO % donated to
d
A B NGO C
W 12000 32% --- 24%
ee

X ---- 64% 16% Rs.1905

Y ---- 33% ---- 27%
Z 13500 ---- 52% ----
C
51. If the funds donated to NGO B by company W was distributed to orphan child and
elder people in the respective ratio of 9:7, then find the difference between the
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funds donated to elder people of NGO B and the total funds of company X.
1) 6587 2) 7635 3) 6782 4) 7215 5) 8452
2 th
52. If the total funds of company X are part of their actual funds and it is only of
5
their actual funds, then total funds donated to NGO A and B by company X is
C
what percentage of their actual funds?
1) 37 2) 29 3) 32 4) 41 5) 47
53. If 20% of the funds donated to NGO B by company Y was utilised in women’s
development and the rest was for rural development then find the ratio between
funds utilised in women’s development by NGO B and funds donated by company
Z to NGO B.
1) 11: 133 2) 7: 9 3) 14: 71 4) 1: 27 5) 20: 117
54. If the funds donated by company Z to NGO A and NGO C were in the ratio of 4:5,
then find the funds donated to NGO C was what percent of the total funds of
company Z?
1) 26.67 2) 33.33 3) 66.67 4) 25 5) 73.25
55. If another company V has funds which was 30% more than that of company Y and
company V donated 30%, 25% and 45% to NGO A, B and C respectively. Then find
the sum of funds donated to NGO C by company V and the funds donated by
company X to NGO A.
1) 12588 2) 14871 3) 15640 4) 7568 5) 14567

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

Direction (56-60): Refer the graph and answer the given question.
The given Bar graph shows the percentage distribution of number of ios mobiles
sold by five different shopkeepers out of total number of ios mobiles sold by five
shopkeepers together, the number of Android mobiles and difference between the
number of Android and ios mobiles.

Percentage distribution of number of ios mobiles sold

Number of Android mobiles sold
Number of (android mobiles - ios mobiles)

150 150 150

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125
90
60x 50x
36x 35x 30x
18% 30% 25% 15%
12%
ha
A B C D E
56. Out of total mobiles (ios + android) sold by D, 45% of mobiles contain the latest

E
version of OS. If 8/15th of ios mobiles sold by D contain the latest version of OS,
then the number of android mobiles sold by D which do not contain latest version
OS is what percent of ios mobiles sold by B?
d
1) 30.52% 2) 52.55% 3) 29.84% 4) 32.52% 5) 42.67%
57. Find the difference between average number of ios mobiles sold by B and E, and
average number of android mobiles sold by A and C?
ee

1) 105 2) 150 3) 120 4) 175 5) 200

58. Find the ratio of total number of mobiles (android + ios) sold by D to that of B?
1) 6:7 2) 6:11 3) 7:9 4) 10:13 5) 11:9
C
59. If the number of stock android mobiles sold by C is 300 more than the number of
ios mobiles sold by E and A together, then find the sum of android and stock
Sr

android mobiles sold by C?

1) 2350 2) 1000 3) 1400 4) 1800 5) 2100
60. If the number of mobiles (ios + android) sold by F is 40% more than that by A and
the ratio of number of ios and android mobiles sold by F is 4:5, then find the
number of ios mobiles sold by F?
1) 616 2) 462 3) 770 4) 924 5) 670
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
C
Direction (61-70): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.
Biomass is plant or animal material used for energy production (electricity or
heat), or in various industrial processes as raw substance for a range of products. It
can be purposely grown energy crops, wood or forest residues, waste from food crops,
horticulture (yard waste), food processing (corn cobs), animal farming, or human
waste from sewage plants. Burning plant-derived biomass releases CO2, but it has
still been classified as a renewable energy source in the EU and UN legal frameworks
because photosynthesis cycles the CO2 back into new crops. In some cases, this
recycling of CO 2 from plants to atmosphere and back into plants can even be
CO2 negative, as a relatively large portion of the CO2 is moved to the soil during each
cycle. Coffering with biomass has increased in coal power plants, because it makes it
possible to release less CO 2 without the cost associated with building new
infrastructure. Co-firing is not without issues however, often an upgrade of the
biomass is most beneficial. Upgrading to higher grade fuels can be achieved by different
methods, broadly classified as thermal, chemical, or biochemical

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

Historically, humans have harnessed biomass-derived energy since the time

when people began burning wood fuel. Even in 2019, biomass is the only source of
fuel for domestic use in many developing countries. All biomass is biologically-
produced matter based in carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. The estimated biomass
production in the world is approximately 100 billion metric tons of carbon per
year, about half in the ocean and half on land. Wood and residues from wood, for
example spruce, birch, eucalyptus, willow, oil palm, remains the largest biomass
energy source today. It is used directly as a fuel or processed into pellet fuel or
other forms of fuels. Biomass also includes plant or animal matter that can be
converted into fuel, fibres or industrial chemicals. There are numerous types of
plants, including corn, switchgrass, miscanthus, hemp, sorghum, sugarcane,

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and bamboo. The main waste energy feed stocks are wood waste, agricultural
waste, municipal solid waste, manufacturing waste, and landfill gas. Sewage
sludge is another source of biomass. There is ongoing research involving algae or
algae-derived biomass. Other biomass feed stocks are enzymes or bacteria from
various sources, grown in cell cultures or hydroponics.
Based on the source of biomass, bio fuels are classified broadly into two major
ha
categories as First and Second generation bio fuels. First-generation bio fuels are
derived from food sources, such as sugarcane and corn starch. Sugars present in
this biomass are fermented to produce bio ethanol, an alcohol fuel which serve as
an additive to gasoline, or in a fuel cell to produce electricity. Second-generation

E
bio fuels utilize non-food-based biomass sources such as perennial energy crops,
and agricultural/municipal waste. There is huge potential for second generation
d
bio fuels but the resources are currently under-utilized.
61. Choose the word / group of words which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as
the word RESIDUE given in bold as used in the passage
ee

1) proportion 2) fragment 3) sediment 4) fraction 5) None

62. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word HARNESS given in
bold as used in the passage.
1) Prevent 2) tackle 3) polish 4) refine 5) None
C
63. Choose the word which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word NUMEROUS given
in bold as used in the passage.
Sr

1) overflow 2) unlimited 3) remnant 4) surplus 5) scanty

64. Choose the word / group of words which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as
the word FERMENTED given in bold as used in the passage.
1) brewed 2) soaked 3) squeezed 4) chopped 5) None
65. Why Bio mass classified as a renewable source of fuel
1) Because it is available abundantly in many areas
2) Co2 released by burning biomass can be cleansed by industrial process
3) Photosynthesis cycles the co2 back into new crops
C
4) Bio mass fuels are easily combustible 5) None of the given options
66. Which of the following is an appropriate title for the passage.
1) Advantages of Bio Mass 2) Evolution of Bio Mass usage
3) Bio Mass, an alternative source of energy
4) Recycling of Bio Mass 5) None of the above
67. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage
1) Bio mass is used as a Raw substance in various industrial processes
2) EU and UN monopolizes Bio Mass Production Process
3) Bio Mass Industries are environmental friendly
4) Bio Mass is not a renewable source of energy.
5) None of the above
68. Which of the following conclusions could be made about Bio Mass ?
1) Bio Mass products can be utilized in various industrial processes effectively
2) Bio Mass products can be synthesized artificially
3) Bio Mass products boost up the economy of EU and UN
4) There is a huge potential from utilization of second generation Bio Mass fuels
5) None of the above

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

69. Which of the following elements constitute Bio Mass substances

1) Carbon, Hydrogen, 2) Carbon,hydrogen, and oxygen
3) Carbon , nitrogen , oxygen 4) Nitrogen, carbon, hydrogen
5) None of the above
70. Which of the following areas are under research
1) Algae and algae derived bio mass
2) Therapeutic uses of biomass products
3) Effective recycling of bio mass products
4) Synthesis of bio mass products industrially 5) None of the above.
Direction (71-75): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), and (D) are given in bold. If

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two of these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will make
the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer. If
all the words are appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
71. This rising health (A) of Indian professionals is definitely benefitting the host (B)
ha
countries but it is becoming a growing cause for concern (C) for the economic
exodus (D) of India.
1) A-C 2) B-C 3) A-D 4) All Correct 5) C-D
72.

E
Lack of defecation (A) and sanitation facilities (B) causes open toilets (C) in
rural and urban pill areas (D) of India, like many developing countries.
d
1) A-D 2) B-D 3) C-D 4) A-C 5) All Correct
73. A 1995 report claimed (A) 114 Indian cities were dumping untreated (B) sewage
and directly (C) cremated bodies partially (D) into the Ganges River.
ee

1) A-B 2) B-C 3) C-D 4) A-C 5) All Correct

74. Let us assume (A) that the average (B) rate of agriculture and government sectors
(C) in the next two years will be the simple growth (D) of what they were in the
C
past three years.
1) B-D 2) A-D 3) C-D 4) A-B 5) All Correct
Sr

75. This will eventually make them urge (A) for enticing professional opportunities
(B) with higher earnings (C) within the country, thereby dropping their eligible
(D) for migration.
1) B-C 2) A-D 3) A-C 4) A-B 5) All Correct
Directions (76-79): In the following questions two columns are given containing
three sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and
C and in the second column the sentences/Phrases are D, E, and F. A sentence/
C
phrase from the first column may or may not connect with another sentence/
phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which
the sentences/phrases can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence.
76. COLUMN I
A) I also know that we fickle, inconsistent humans
B) ‘This man is incongruous, inconsistent and
C) Gavin Rae took his shooting opportunity reasonably
COLUMN II
D) users are perplexingly inconsistent as between their attitudes and their
behaviour.
E) come equipped with varying abilities to perceive flavours.
F) unreliable and is the latest saviour for the opposition.
1) B-D 2) C-D 3) A-E and C-F 4) B-F 5) B-E

10
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

77. COLUMN I
A) The System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR)
said
B) Winds at transport level are likely to reduce from evening of November 13,
C) A few locations in Delhi witnessed PM10 as the major pollutant,
COLUMN II
D) leading to less transport of pollutants from the upwind region to Delhi.
E) air quality is likely to remain in the “severe” category on Saturday.
F) which could be due to increase in relative humidity locally.
1) A-E & B-F 2) C-D 3) A-F 4) A-E, B-D &C-F 5) B-E

r’s
78. COLUMN I
A) The number of people around the world forced to abandon
B) an increase fuelled in particular by conflicts in Africa,
C) The UN High Commissioner for Refugees said the number of displaced people
COLUMN II
D) their homes likely increased to more than 84 million in the first half of this
year.
ha
E) most of them within their own countries - was up from 82.4 million at the end
of 2020.

E
F) the UN refugee agency said Thursday.
1) C-D 2) A-E & B-D 3) A-D, B-F & C-E 4) A-F 5) C-F
d
79. COLUMN I
A) If their passage was contentious and unleashed a trail of tumultuous events,
B) On the opening day of winter session of Parliament on Monday,
ee

C) for the repeal amid protests by the opposition parties

COLUMN II
D) the government secured approval of both Houses
C
E) the burial of the three farm sector reform laws was not a quiet affair either.
F) which insisted on a debate.
1) A-E & B-F 2) C-D 3) A-F 4) A-E, B-D &C-F 5) C-E
Sr

Directions (80-84): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
80. The farmer leaders /A/ were asked to submit a detail /B/ critique with their
C
specific objections to /C/ the new laws by Wednesday. /D/ /E/ No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
81. Teachers who have crossed /A/ the age of 55 and those who are close /B/ to
superannuation, and suffering with /C/ diabetes and hypertension. /D/ /E/ No
error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
82. We are making to a provision to /A/ declare marriages for religious /B/ conversion
based on inducements, duress, /C/ fraud and seduction as null and void. /D/ /
E/ No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
83. She stressed on the need to /A/ pursue passion and improving skill /B/ sets that
are important for /C/ the holistic development of students. /D/ /E/ No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
84. Besides the Parliament halls /A/ on the ground floor, there are /B/ offices for
the Prime Minister, /C/ Speaker and Ministers. /D/ /E/ No error
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

11
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

Directions (85-89): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
85. An anti-tank missile is a guided missile primarily designed to hit and destroy
heavily armortanks and other armoured fighting enemy vehicles.
1) destroyed heavily armoured tanks
2) destroy heavy armoured tanks
3) destroy heavily armoured tanks
4) destroys heavier armouring tanks 5) No correction required
86. Skeletal muscles are under voluntary control, they are attached to skeleton by
strong tendons that are direct connected for rough patches of bone.

r’s
1) were directly connected to 2) are directly connected to
3) are direct connected for
4) are connection to directed 5) No correction required
87. Nanotechnology has provided the possibility of delivering drugs to specific cells
using Nano particles with high effectiveness and low side effects.
ha
1) has provided the possible of
3) has providing the possibility
2) has possibility of providing

4) have provided the possible to 5) No correction required

88.
mitigation efforts.
1) was always go to

E
The festival season was always goes to be challenging for the country’s Covid

2) was always going 3) was always go with

d
4) was always going to 5) No corrections required
89. The world’s most influencing central bank, US Federal Reserve, is tightening
monetary policy.
ee

1) influential 2) most influenced 3) most influential

4) more influenced 5) No corrections required
Directions (90-94): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and
C
(E) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the
given question.
Sr

A) Hence “The New Normal” is a video series from The Lily that lends advice to
teens about how to adjust to our new way of life, hosted by Nicole Ellis.
B) In the last month since George Floyd’s death, people across the United States
have started to look more critically.
C) But one of the biggest challenges, we are running into is white people getting
it wrong.
D) Here is why that is happening and how to do better.
C
E) At how we deal with race and incorporate anti-racism into our everyday lives.
90. Which of the following will be the second statement after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) D 4) E 5) C
91. Which of the following will be the first statement after rearrangement?
1) C 2) D 3) B 4) E 5) A
92. Which of the following will be the fifth statement after rearrangement?
1) A 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) E
93. Which of the following will be the fourth statement after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) E 4) C 5) D
94. Which of the following will be the third statement after rearrangement?
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) E
Directions (95-100): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, fits the
blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully?
95. The board meeting has been ____________ to Saturday next.
1) reverse 2) diversify 3) differ 4) deterring 5) deferred

12
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

96. He scored very low marks in the exam because of his ___________ knowledge of
the subject.
1) silly 2) deep 3) superficial 4) outward 5) through
97. They talk about supporting each other and a multilateral fight ___________ the
Covid pandemic.
1) against 2) adjacent 3) over 4) across 5) versus
98. The telecom industry as a whole all over the world was not good and India
__________in a similar situation.
1) have 2) has 3) had 4) were 5) was
99. The judge has observed that Nirav Modi conspired to __________ evidence and
intimidate witnesses.

r’s
1) shattering 2) eradicated 3) sabotaged 4) destroying 5) impaired
100. Imran Khan’s latest trip to Sri Lanka was one more instance of ___________of
attitudes.
1) intensify 2) softening 3) flaccid 4) lenient 5) ductile
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
101. S1 is a series of 6 consecutive positive multiples of 3, whose average is 25.5. S2 is
ha
another series of 4 consecutive numbers, whose highest number is 11 more than
the lowest number of S1. What is the sum of S2 ?
1) 116 2) 112 3) 122 4) 110 5) 118

E
102. Nitin invested a certain sum for 2 years in Scheme-A, offering compound interest
(on an annual basis) @10% p.a; and earned an interest of Rs.2520. He invested
d
the amount received from Scheme-A into Scheme-B, offering simple interest @12%,
for ’T’ years. If the interest earned from Scheme-B was Rs.8712, what is the
value of T ?
ee

1) 7 2) 8 3) 4 4)6 5) 5
103. A and B started a business. B’s investment was 1.5 times of that of A. The respective
ratio between the time period for which A invested and that for which B invested
C
was 2:1. If the total investment made by A and B together was Rs.10,000 and the
annual profit earned was Rs.500 less than A’s investment, what was B’s share in
the annual profit ?
Sr

1) Rs. 1200 2) Rs. 1440 3) Rs. 1110 4) Rs. 1650 5) Rs. 1500
104. When a student was selected from a class consisting of 14 boys and a certain
number of girls, the probability of the student being a girl is 3/5. If 2 students
were selected at random from this class, what will be the probability of at least
one boy being selected ?
8 11 13 9 6
C
1) 17 2) 17 3) 4) 5)
17 17 17
105. A’s age 11 years hence will be 25 years less than thrice his present age. The
respective ratio between B’s age 2 years hence and A’s age that time will be 3:2.
If C’s age 9 years hence will be twice of B’s age 9 years ago, what is C’s present
age ? (in years)
1) 33 2) 27 3) 31 4) 29 5) 28
106. A car covers 48 km more than the distance covered by a bus in the same time (T
hours). The speed of the car is 15 km/h more than the speed of the bus, Had the
speed of bus been 80km/h, what would have been the distance covered by it in T
hours ?
1) 256 km 2) 288 km 3) 224 km 4) 272 km 5) 240 km
Direction(107-112):What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given
question
107. 14 17 22 29 40 ?
1) 49 2) 53 3) 59 4) 51 5) 48

13
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

108. 13 15 24 52 ?
1) 115 2) 121 3) 109 4) 117 5) 123
109. 91 100 82 118 ?
1) 38 2) 50 3) 48 4) 46 5) 54
110. 3 8 37 86 151 ?
1) 224 2) 216 3) 212 4) 228 5)220
111. 3 4 12 66 ? 5190
1) 580 2) 560 3) 640 4) 520 5) 480
112. 9 5 6 10.5 ? 60
1) 29 2) 27 3) 23 4) 21 5) 25

r’s
Direction(113-118):What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark. (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
28.09  19.94
113. 22499   ?2
2.01
1) 40 2) 50 3) 80 4) 60 5)30

2) 25
ha
114. (452.04 - 211.95)  ? +33 = 39.07
1) 10 3) 15 4) 30 5) 20

115.
41.95  ? 253.98
5.98
 23.08

E
d
1) 166 2) 173 3) 150 4) 158 5) 141
116. 8.93 x 14.08 - ? + 3.96 = 113.91
1) 48 2) 40 3) 56 4) 16 5) 52
ee

117. 52.04 - ( 63 -31.98)= ?

1) 63 2) 88 3) 76 4) 70 5) 82
C
118. 3
? x 23.92 + 25.09 = 132
1) 64 2) 216 3) 125 4) 343 5) 512
Sr

119. A (working alone) can complete a given task in 32 days. A is 25% more efficient
than B. B started working alone for ‘X’ days and was joined by A. If the entire task
was completed in 25 days, what is the value of X ?
1) 10 2) 12 3) 13 4) 14 5) 11
Direction (120-123) :Study the following information carefully to answer the
question given.
This data is regarding number of members visiting a university library in four weeks (week
C
1,2,3 and 4. Note: (1) Total number of members = staff (male and female) +
students (male and female)
* Total number of members in week 1 were 30% less than those In week 3. Total
number of members in week 2 were 80% of those in week 1.
* 75% of the total number of members in week 2. 60% of the total number of
members in week 3, and 90 % of the total number of members in week 4, were
students. Number of staff in week 3 were twice the number of staff in week 1.
Total number of members in week 4, are equal to the number of students in week
1.
* Average number of staff in weeks 3 and 4, was 270.
120. What is the difference between total number of members visiting the library in
week 1 and those in week 3 ?
1) 240 2) 210 3) 360 4) 330 5) 270
121. Number of staff visiting the library in week 4 are what percent of those in week 1
?
1) 25 2) 9 3) 20 4) 10 5)15
14
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

122. Number of students visiting the library in week 2 was what percent less /more
than that in week 3 ?
1) 15% more 2) 25% less 3) 12% less 4) 20% more 5) 30% less
123. Out of the total number of staff visiting the library in weeks 1 and 2 together,
25% are females. What is the total number of female staff that visited the library
In both the weeks (1 and 2) together ?
1) 114 2) 98 3) 164 4) 124 5) 102
124. The hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle (T) measures 8 5 cm. T’s 2nd longest
side is 100% longer than its shortest side. If T’s 2nd longest side and shortest side
is equal to the height and diameter respectively of a right circular cylinder (C),
what is C’s curved surface area? (In cm2)

r’s
1) 64  2) 128  3) 32  4) 512  5) 256 
125. For a meal in a restaurant, a customer got 25% happy hour discount but paid
2.5% CGST and 2.5 % SGST on the discounted rate. Had he got 20% discount and
then paid the said taxes, he would have paid Rs. 84 more. What was the price of
the meal before discount ?
1) Rs. 1600 2) Rs. 2000 3)Rs. 1500 4) Rs. 3200 5) Rs. 2400
ha
Direction (126-130): The question consists of a question and two statements I
and II given below it You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question, Read both the statements and
choose the appropriate option :

E
126. A vessel contains X litres of mixture of milk and water. The respective ratio of
milk and water in the vessel is 4:1, What is the numerical value of ‘X’ ?
d
(I) If 10 litres of mixture is taken out and 10 litres of water is added, percentage of
water in resultant mixture will become 36%.
(II) If 20% of the mixture is taken out and this action is repeated once more (i.e.
ee

20% of the remaining mixture is taken out) the remaining quantity of milk in the
mixture will be 25.6 litres.
1) the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
C
2) the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Sr

3) the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
4) the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
5) the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
127. In how many days 4 men and 20 women can complete a piece of work ?.
C
4
(I) 6 men and 5 women together can complete the same piece of work in 4 9 days.

8
(II) 8 men and 10 women together can complete the same piece of work in 2 11

days.
1) the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
3) the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
4) the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
5) the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.

15
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

128. There are 4 positive integers (M, N, O and P). What is the value of O ?
(I) The arithmetic mean of M, N, O and P is 70.
(II) M < N < O < P. The median of M, N, O and P is 87. M and N are equidistant from
48. M and O are equidistant from 66.
1) the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
3) the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the

r’s
question.
4) the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
5) the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
ha
129. Only three candidates (A, B and C) contested an election. Who is the winner ?
(I) Out of the total number of registered voters 35% did not vote. 20% of the total
votes cast were invalid.

E
(II) Number of valid votes received by A is 20.5% of total number of registered
voters.
d
1) the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
ee

2) the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to

answer the question.
3) the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
C
question.
4) the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
Sr

data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

5) the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
130. Sameer invested a certain sum in scheme A which offers Compound Interest
(compounded annually). What is the rate of interest offered by scheme A (in
p.c.p.a) ?
C
(I ) The sum invested by Sameer amounted to Rs. 12,960/- in two years and Rs.
15,552/- in 3 years.
(II) The sum invested by Sameer was Rs. 9,000/-.
1) the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
2) the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
4) the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
5) the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

16
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

Direction(131-135) : Study the table and answer the question given:

The data is regarding mentor (female + male) and trainees (female + male)
head count in five departments of an organization.

Department Number of Number of % of female trainees

Mentor trainees allotted out of total number of
to per mentor trainees
A 20 21 30
B 14 25 24
C 36 11 25
D 15 20 40

r’s
E 12 15 20

131. What is the difference between total number of female trainees in departments C
and D together and those of male trainees in the same departments together ?
1) 232 2) 208 3) 244 4) 264 5) 258
132. What is the average number of trainees (male+female) in departments C and D ?
1) 348 2) 264
ha 3) 272 4) 240 5) 236
133. What is the respective ratio between the number at female trainees and male
trainees in department A ?
1) 3:5 2)2:5

E 3) 4:7 4) 2:9 5) 3:7

134. Number of mentors in department B is what percent at number of total number of
d
trainees (male+female) in the same department ?
1) 2 2) 6 3) 8 4) 5 5) 4
135. In department E, 60 trainees were under female mentors. In department F, number
ee

of female mentors were three times the number of those in department E. How
many female mentors did Department F have?
1) 18 2) 12 3) 15 4) 9 5) 6
C
Directions(136-140) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given.
You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option:
Sr

136. I. x2 – 25x +156 =0 II. y2 – 25y + 154 = 0

1) x  y 2) x < y 3) Relationship between x and y cannot be established
4) x  y 5) x > y
137. I. 6x2 + 11x + 4=0 II. 10y2 + 7y + 1 = 0
1) Relationship between x and y cannot be established
2) x  y 3) x < y 4) x  y 5) x > y
C
138. I. x2 + 5x + 6 = 0 II. 2y2 + 3y + 1 = 0
1) Relationship between x and y cannot be established
2) x < y 3) x > y 4) x  y 5) x  y
2 2
139. I. x – 5x – 84 =0 II. y – 9y – 52 =0
1) x  y 2) x < y 3) x  y
4) Relationship between x and y cannot be established 5) x > y
140. I. 9x2 – 15x + 4 =0 II. 15y2 – 8y + l =0
1) Relationship between x and y cannot be established
2) x > y 3) x < y 4)x  y 5)x  y
GENERAL /ECONOMY/BANKING AWARENESS/COMPUTER/IT
141. In September, which payment solution provider has received final authorisation
from the Reserve Bank of India to act as a payment aggregator, focusing on non-
card-based payments like UPI and Virtual account based solution for NEFT /
IMPS / RTGS collection.
1) PayPal 2) BankBazaar 3) Paysharp
4) MoneyTap 5) CRED

17
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

142. Ministry of External Affairs and ISRO''s commercial arm NewSpace India Limited
(NSIL) has signed an MoU to grant assist for the launch of which country’s (built)
Munal satellite in August 2024?
1) Bhutan 2) Sri Lanka 3) Singapore 4) Nepal 5) Maldives
143. Which of the following defines "assets under management" (AUM)?
1) The total value of all the investments a financial institution has made.
2) The total market value of the assets managed by a financial institution or
investment firm on behalf of its clients.
3) The total amount of capital a company has raised through its stock offerings.
4) The annual revenue generated by a financial institution from its investment

r’s
activities.
5) Both (1) and (3)
144. Which of the following developed countries is developing ‘World’s First’ model to
combat Peanut Allergy?
1) Israel 2) Iran 3) USA 4) China 5) Australia
ha
145. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta Das has received an __________
rating in the Global Finance Central Banker Report Card for the second consecutive
year. This rating is being issued by the Central Banker Report Card since 1994.

1) A+ 2) A

E
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has congratulated Governor Shaktikanta Das.
3) A- 4) B 5) B+
146. The Union Budget 2024 has increased the loan limit under the scheme’s Tarun
d
category to Rs 20 lakh, targeting those who have successfully repaid previous
MUDRA loans. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri
Mudra Yojana. Which of the given statements are correct?
ee

1) It is a flagship initiative by the Government of India that was launched in 2014

and aimed at providing affordable credit to micro and small enterprises.
2) The minimum amount of loan that a borrower can get under the scheme is Rs.
C
5000.
3) There is no direct subsidy under PMMY.
Sr

4) The scheme is designed to "fund the unfunded," enabling small borrowers to

secure loans from only Public Sector Banks (PSBs).
5) All the given statements are correct.
147. What is the minimum duration of time that the Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI) proposes to require all organizations under its regulation to keep
communication records, including acknowledgements?
C
1) 01 years 2) 03 year 3) 05 years 4) 08 years 5) 10 years
148. Recently, Masoud Pezeshkian has been elected as President of which country?
1) Iraq 2) Qatar 3) Egypt 4) Afghanistan 5) Iran
149. According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), overseas Indians have deposited
nearly ________ into Non-Resident India (NRI) deposit schemes in the 1st Quarter
(Q1) of the Financial Year 2024–25 (FY25).
1) USD 3 billion 2) USD 6 billion 3) USD 8 billion
4) USD 4 billion 5) USD 2 billion
150. Name the institute that has recently (in August ‘24) signed a MoU with Hindustan
Zinc Limited to develop new variants of zinc materials and propel the
commercialization of zinc-based batteries.
1) Indian Institute of Science
2) CSIR- Central Drug Research Institute
3) Central Electrochemical Research Institute
4) Academy of Scientific and Innovative Research
5) Jawaharlal Nehru Centre for Advanced Scientific Research

18
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

151. Digital payments platform Razorpay has launched its own Unified Payments
Interface (UPI) infrastructure, or UPI switch, in partnership with which Payments
Bank?
1) Paytm Payments Bank 2) India Post Payments Bank
3) FINO Payments Bank
4) Airtel Payments Bank 5) Jio Payments Bank
152. Which ministry has recently (in August’ 24) granted approval for Port Blair Seaport
in Andaman and Nicobar Islands as an authorised Integrated Check Posts (ICP)
for entry of foreign nationals holding e-visa?
1) Ministry of Tourism 2) Ministry of Civil Aviation
3) Ministry of Earth Science

r’s
4) Ministry of Home Affairs 5) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
153. Which Indian state has become the first to launch a Gross Environment Product
(GEP) Index?
1) Himachal Pradesh 2) Uttarakhand 3) Kerala
4) Maharashtra 5) Goa
154. Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has sanctioned 39 more sewage
ha
treatment plants (STPs) under the AMRUT scheme, and these plants will be used
in the Musi Riverfront Development project. Consider the following statements
regarding the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)
2.0.

E
I) It is designed to provide universal coverage of water supply through functional
d
taps to all households in all the statutory towns in the country.
II) It will promote a circular economy of water through the development of the City
Water Balance Plan (CWBP) for each city covered under the scheme.
ee

III) The total indicative outlay for AMRUT 2.0 is Rs. 2,99,000 crore including
Central share of ?76,760 crore for five years
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) Only (II) and (III) 2) Only (I) and (II) 3) Only (I)
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4) Only (III) 5) All (I), (II) and (III)
155. In September 2024, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India signed an
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Memorandum of understanding (MoU) with which country's audit body to strengthen

cooperation in public audits?
1) Japan 2) United Arab Emirates 3) Australia
4) Germany 5) USA
156. According to Worldline India Digital Payments Report H2 2023 released in April
2024, the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions volume in the second
half of 2023 increased by _________to 65.77 billion.
C
1) 45% 2) 72% 3) 56% 4) 39% 5) 47%
157. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) recently
made some major changes in the regulatory norms for health insurance policies.
With reference to the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
(IRDAI), consider the following statements.
I) It is a statutory body formed for the overall supervision and development of the
insurance sector in India.
II) It is responsible for registering and/or licensing insurance, reinsurance
companies and intermediaries according to the regulations.
III) It sets the eligibility criteria, qualifications and capital requirements for
obtaining licenses in the insurance business.
IV) It is a 10-member body- a chairman, five full-time members, and four part-
time members appointed by the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) Both (II) and (IV) 2) Both (II) and (III) 3) Only (I), (II) and (III)
4) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) 5) Both (I) and (III)

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

158. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta Das launched an online
portal named PRAVAAH portal for regulatory applications and approvals for
transacting in government securities. ‘V’ in PRAVAAH stands for?
1) Versus 2) Virtual 3) Validation 4) Vikas 5) Value
159. Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following States?
1) Odisha 2) Rajasthan 3) West Bengal
4) Maharashtra 5) Andhra Pradesh
160. The Government of India initiated a scheme worth Rs.340 crore, through the
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), for upgradation and strengthening of the
laboratory network in the country. BIS works under which ministry?

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1) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
2) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
3) Ministry of Textiles
4) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
5) Ministry of Labour and Employment
ha
161. “Dr Helen Mary Roberts” has become first woman brigadier in which country’s
Army from minority community?
1) Pakistan 2) Nepal 3) Bhutan 4) India 5) Bangladesh

E
162. The United States and the Gulf Cooperation Council recently announced a new
iteration of defense working groups to be based in Saudi Arabia to ‘advance US-
d
GCC cooperation and multilateral (missile) integration against shared air and
maritime threats’. Which of the given below are members of the Gulf Cooperation
Council (GCC)?
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I) Saudi Arabia
II) Qatar
III) Kuwait
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IV) Iraq
1) Only (I) and (II) 2) Only (II) and (IV) 3) Only (I), (II) and (III)
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4) Only (III) 5) Only (II), (III) and (IV)

163. In July 2024, the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
issued a quality control order making the ISI mark mandatory for these
__________and ___________ kitchen utensils to enhance consumer safety and
product quality.
1) Zinc steel and glass utensils
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2) Stainless steel and plastic utensils
3) Stainless steel and carbon utensils
4) Carbon steel and aluminium utensils
5) Stainless steel and aluminium utensils
164. Consider the following statements with respect to Global Conclave on Plastics
Recycling and Sustainability (GCPRS).
I) It aims to address the critical issues surrounding plastic use, its impact on the
environment and the innovative solutions that can lead to a more sustainable
future.
II) It is jointly organized by the Indian Plastics Institute and All India Plastics
Manufacturers' Association (AIPMA).
III) Currently only 30% of India’s plastic waste is recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are Incorrect?
1) Only (II) 2) Only (III)
3) Both (II) and (III) 4) Both (I) and (II) 5) Only (I)

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

165. What is the total corpus of the Rupee support in revised Framework on Currency
Swap Arrangement for South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
countries from 2024 to 2027?
1) 2,500 crore 2) 25,000 crore3) 15,000 crore 4) 125,000 crore 5) 50,000 crore
166. Recently, Indian Army's Corps celebrated Saga Dawa festival commemorating
Lord Buddha's in which state?
1) Assam 2) Arunachal Pradesh 3) Sikkim
4) Manipur 5) Meghalaya
167. The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decided to keep
the repo rate unchanged at 6.5% in its August 2024 meeting for the ninth

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consecutive time. The MPC had last changed the benchmark interest rate in
February 2023. What is the minimum number of meetings to be conducted by the
Monetary Policy Committee in a year?
1) Three 2) Two 3) Five 4) Six 5) Four
168. Recently, G7 energy ministers discussed a possible time frame for phasing out
ha
coal-fired power plants. It is an intergovernmental organisation of leading
industrialized nations formed in 1975. Consider the following:
I) Canada II) Russia III) Japan IV) Germany V) Australia

E
How many of the above are part of Group of Seven (G7)?
1) Only Two 2) Only Three 3) Only Four 4) Only One 5) All Five
169. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is a statutory body set up by the
d
Government of India under section 3 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
Act, 1997. TRAI was founded on______.
1) 20th February 1996 2) 20th February 1995 3) 20th February 1997
ee

4) 20th February 1992 5) 20th February 1999

170. Which state government has partnered with UNICEF to promote fathers'
involvement in encouraging breastfeeding?
C
1) Kerala 2) West Bengal 3) Tamil Nadu 4) Goa 5) Maharashtra
171. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
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(APEDA) facilitated the export of India's first ready-to-drink fig juice made from
GI-tagged Purandar Figs to which country?
1) Malaysia 2) Brazil 3) Cambodia 4) Mexico 5) Poland
172. RBI has revised its incentive framework to push banks to increase the flow of
priority sector credit to districts with lower credit flow in order to address the
regional disparities at the district level. Accordingly, the central bank has assigned
C
a higher weight of 125% to the incremental priority sector credit in the districts
with per capita priority sector credit less than _______, with effect from FY25.
1) Rs. 4000 2) Rs. 6000 3) Rs. 9000 4) Rs. 10000 5) Rs. 7000
173. In which year was the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB
PM-JAY), the world's largest health assurance scheme offering a health cover of
Rs.5,00,000 per family per year, launched?
1) 2014 2) 2015 3) 2016 4) 2017 5) 2018
174. In May 2024, In a novel initiative, which of the following has brought together
start-ups/MSMEs, academia and research institutions under the "Telecom Design
Collaboration Sprint" to nurturing innovation and fostering industry collaboration
to propel India's telecommunications sector towards global leadership in the 5G
era and beyond?
1) Central Bureau of Communication 2) Indian Telephone Industries Limited
3) Telecom Equipment and Services Export Promotion Council
4) Department of Telecommunications
5) Controller General Of Communication Accounts

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

175. Which State has become the first state in the country to prepare Peoples
Biodiversity Registers (PBR) for each local self-government (LSG) body with the
help of the local people?
1) Kerala 2) Karnataka 3) Gujarat
4) Madhya Pradesh 5) Telangana
176. The Basel Committee is the primary global standard-setter for the prudential
regulation of banks and provides a forum for cooperation on banking supervisory
matters. Basel III was released in ____________ and is the third in the series of
Basel Accords.
1) 2007 2) 2010 3) 2009 4) 2008 5) 2012
177. Reserve Bank of India has issued two draft directions on regulation of Payment

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Aggregators (PA), pertaining to physical Point-of-Sale (PoS) activities of these
players, net worth and licensing requirements in April 2024. Non-banks providing
PA-P services will need a minimum net worth of ___________ at the time of
application.
1) Rs. 1 crore 2) Rs. 2 crore 3) Rs. 10 crore 4) Rs. 5 crore 5) Rs. 15 crore
ha
178. Which Small Finance Bank Limited has partnered with Edelweiss Life Insurance
to access Edelweiss Life Insurance’s life insurance products suite, thereby meeting
their need for financial security?
1) Shivalik Small Finance Bank 2) Suryoday Small Finance Bank

E
3) AU Small Finance Bank Limited
4) Equitas Small Finance Bank Limited
d
5) Capital Small Finance Bank Limited
179. In May 2024, which state-owned bank recorded the highest growth rate in total
business and deposit mobilization among public sector lenders in the fiscal year
ee

2023-24?
1) Bank of Maharashtra 2) Bank of Baroda 3) Bank of India
4) Indian Bank 5) Central bank of India
C
180. In which location has the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board approved the "First
Approach to Criticality" for India's first Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR)?
1) Gujarat 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Uttar Pradesh
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4) Karnataka 5) Kerala
181. The Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) has collaborated
with which of the following IIT's to set up advanced research and development in
AI-driven surveillance and other defense projects?
1) IIT Madras 2) IIT Bombay 3) IIT Bhubaneshwar
4) IIT Roorkee 5) IIT Kanpur
182. In May, which Indian spiritual guru received the first stamp released to
C
commemorate the completion of 200 years of Indian Origin Tamils in Sri Lanka,
presented by the Governor of the Eastern Province of Sri Lanka?
1) Sadhguru 2) Sri Sri Ravi Shankar 3) Jaggi Vasudev
4) Mata Amritanandamayi 5) Swami Ramdev
183. According to the Global E-waste Monitor (GEM), the world’s generation of electronic
waste is rising five times faster than documented e-waste recycling. Consider
the following statements with respect to Global E-waste Monitor 2024. Which of
the given statement(s) is/are Incorrect?
I) It is released by the International Association of Electrical, Electronic and
Energy Engineering (IAEEEE).
II) India currently ranks third among the largest generators of e-waste globally,
behind only China and the US.
III) Among regions, Europe has the highest rate of documented formal collection
and recycling of e-waste at 42.8% while Africa generates the lowest rates of e-
waste but struggles to recycle it.
1) (I) Only 2) (II) Only 3) (III) Only 4) (I) and (II) Only 5) (II) and (III)

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

184. In May 2024, which of the following company announced the creation of a Global
Artificial Intelligence (AI) Centre of Excellence in Paris, during the Choose France
Summit?
1) Infosys 2) Wipro 3) Tech Mahindra 4) TCS 5) Accenture
185. India celebrates 'Statistics Day' to honour which famous Indian statistician?
1) Jagadish Chandra Bose 2) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
3) Raj Chandra Bose 4) C. R. Rao 5) Samarendra Nath Roy
186. Recently, which country collaborated with China in launching the Space Variable
Objects Monitor satellite, aimed at studying gamma-ray bursts?
1) India 2) Russia 3) Singapore 4) Germany 5) France

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187. The finance minister recently announced a revision to the model Skill Loan
Scheme, With reference to the Skill Loan Scheme, consider the following
statements.
I) It was introduced in July, 2015, to offer institutional credit to individuals pursuing
skill development courses aligned with National Occupations Standards and
Qualification Packs.
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II) It offers institutional credit to individuals pursuing skill development courses
conducted by training institutes following the National Skill Qualification
Framework (NSQF).

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III) The maximum loan amount that can be availed under the scheme is Rs. 10
lakhs.
d
IV) The scheme does not allow for collateral to be charged from the beneficiary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) (I) and (II) only 2) (II) only 3) (III) only
ee

4) (I), (II) and (IV) 5) (II) and (III) only

188. The results of the election to the 18th Lok Sabha were declared on 4th June,
2024. How many women members are there in the newly elected Lok Sabha?
C
1) 74 2) 72 3) 78 4) 100 5) 76
189. With reference to the Child Nutrition Report 2024, consider the following
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statements.
I) It is released by UNICEF and examines the status and drivers of child food
poverty in early childhood.
II) One in four children under the age of five around the world is experiencing
severe food poverty.
III) Over two-thirds of the children under the age of five living in severe food
C
poverty live in South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) (I) and (II) only 2) (II) only 3) (III) only
4) (I), (II) and (III) 5) (II) and (III) only
190. Who has been awarded the PEN Pinter Prize 2024 in memory of Nobel laureate
playwright Harold Pinter?
1) Jhumpa Lahiri 2) Arundhati Roy 3) Salman Rushdie
4) Vikram Seth 5) Kiran Desa
191. The software component of an expert system that draws conclusions is the
___________.
1) User interface 2) Database 3) Inference engine
4) I/O controller 5) None of these
192. Hardware devices that are not part of the main computer system and are often
added later to the system are
1) Clip art 2) Highlights 3) Execute 4) Peripherals 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 2

193. A large space common in most of the Windows which is displayed at the background
of the Windows main icon screen, is called
1) Application view 2) Work area 3) Project view
4) Toolbar 5) None of these
194. Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only?
1) Floppy disk 2) Magnetic disk 3) Magnetic tape
4) Optical disk 5) None of these
195. A __________ computer is a large and expensive computer capable of simultaneously
processing data for hundreds or thousands of users.

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1) Server 2) Mainframe 3) Desktop 4) Tablet 5) None of these
196. A file that contains definitions of the paragraph and character styles for your
document and all things you customized like toolbars and menus is called a
1) Guide 2) Pattern 3) Base document 4) Template 5) None of these
197. A processor that collects the transmissions from several communications media
ha
and sends them over a single line that operates at a higher capacity is called
1) Multiplexor 2) Bridge 3) Hub 4) Router 5) None of these
198. What is the name of the protocol used to eliminate loops?
1) ISL
4) Spanning Tree Protocol

E2) Switching
5) Scanning
3) Frame tagging
d
199. Digital photos and scanned images are typically stored as __________graphics
with extensions such as bmp, png, jpg, tif and gif.
ee

1) Vector 2) Bitmap 3) Either vector or bitmap

4) Neither vector nor bitmap 5) None of these
200. The Factor which makes Windows popular is its
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1) Multi-tasking capacity 2) Desktop features
3) User friendly GUI features 4) Being inexpensive 5) None of these
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