Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MODEL TEST - 12

REASONING AND COMPUTER APTITUDE

SECTION – A (15x2 = 30)
Direction: (1-4) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

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$ means the first subject is to the left of the second subject.
# means the first subject is to the right of the second subject.
@ means the first subject and the second subject are neighbours of each other.
& means the first subject and the second subject are not the neighbours of each
other.
ha
* means the first subject and the second subject are opposite to each other.
€ means the first subject and the second subject are not the opposite of each
other.

E
© means the person scored the given runs.
% means the person didn’t score the given runs.
The number of symbols denotes the number of places between the given two
d
subjects in that manner. For example,
P$R means P is to the left of R and there is one place between them.
21###34 means 21 is to the right of 34 and there are three places between them.
ee

Eight people viz. J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circular table and
facing the centre. They all have scored different runs amongst 8, 10, 18, 22, 35,
44, 57 or 68.
C
57##P, P*35, 57@35, L*N, 68*8, L%68, L%8, L@68, K@68, M©22, O@P, 44$$Q,
44€18, Q%8, J&L, N$K.
Sr

1. Who is sitting exactly opposite to the one who scored 18 runs?

1) M 2) O 3) J 4) K 5) N
2. Who are the immediate neighbours of Q?
1) L and P 2) M and L 3) K and L
4) K and M 5) P and O
3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are INCORRECT as per the given
information?
C
1) L is an immediate neighbour of the one who scored 68.
2) O and M are immediate neighbours of P. 3) O scored 8 runs.
4) K has scored more than O and N. 5) All the above options are correct
4. What is the score of N?
1) 44 runs 2) 10 runs 3) 57 runs 4) 22 runs 5) 68 runs
Direction: (5-8) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
P to X are members of a three generation family. No single person is a
parent. They are sitting at some distance from each other. W is 9m in West of U,
who is 3m in South of S’s only sister- in-law. W is married to the person who sits
in South-East of Q. V is the only sister-in-law of W, who has at least one sibling.
V is married. S’s only brother’s mother’s only brother’s mother is P. W is 5m in
North of S, who sits 3m in West of P. V sits 3m in East of T, who is the only son of
R, who does not belong to second generation. P sits 8m in South of Q, who is
married to X. T sits 2m in North of R, who sits 3m in East of Q.
5. What is the shortest distance between V and X?
1) 6m 2) 2m 3) 3m 4) 4m 5) 8m

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

6. How is Q related to W?
1) Daughter 2) Grandson 3) Daughter-in-law
4) Son 5) Brother
7. What is the direction of P with respect to W’s spouse?
1) South 2) North-East 3) South-West
4) North 5) South-East
8. How is V related to R’s daughter?
1) Brother 2) Sister-in-law 3) Niece
4) Granddaughter 5) Mother
Direction: (9-11) Study the given information carefully to answer the given

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question.
A certain number of people are sitting in a row. Some of them are facing
South and some of them are facing north. The extreme left and right ends are
considered with respect to North direction. E sits second to the left of Z. Z and G
face opposite directions. K sits third to the left of the person who sits third to the
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right of B. I and G do not sit next to each other. K sits at an end. Six people sit
between I and B. K sits to the right of B. Four people sit between E and G. Z sits
third from the right end and Z faces South. B and U face the same directions. I

9.

E
sits third to the right of U. As many people sit between I and D as between U and
Z. D sits fifth to the left of B.
Who sits fifth to the right of Z?
d
1) I 2) E 3) U 4) B 5) D
10. If Q sits between D and I and faces North, then who amongst the following sits
third to the right of Q?
ee

1) Z 2) E 3) G 4) K 5) B
11. If two people sit between K and O and two people sit between B and O then D sits
at which position with respect to O?
C
1) Third to the right 2) Eighth to the right 3) Eighth to the left
4) Second to the left 5) Fourth to the right
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Direction: (12-15) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question.
Eight people viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T sit around a square table such that
all of them are facing towards the centre. Four people sit at the corners whereas
four people sit in the middle of the sides of the table. After throwing a dice, each
person is moving in a certain direction as per the given conditions. Two people sit
C
between M and O, where one of them sits at the corner of the table. S sits to the
immediate left of M. The number of people sit between S and O (counted from
right of S) is one more than the number of people sit between M and N(counted
from left of N). S and N didn’t sit opposite to each other. One person sits between
T and R, where none of them sits adjacent to S. Q neither sits at any of the
corners nor sits adjacent to R. At least one person sits between P and R when
counted from both sides. Q doesn’t face T.
All the people are allowed to throw a dice once in alphabetical order. Based
on the outcome and the following conditions, they are moving to certain positions
as given.
I. If the outcome is an odd number (except odd prime numbers), then the person
interchanges his position with the one who sits second to the left of him.
II. If the outcome is a prime number, then the person interchanges his position
with the one who sits to the immediate right of him.
III. If the outcome is an even number (except even prime number), then the
person interchanges his position with the one who sits third to the right of him.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

IV. If none of the conditions follow, then the person remains in the same position.
V. The following is the outcome of all the people in the alphabetical order from
left to right: 2 6 4 3 1 6 5 1.
VI. The second person throws the dice, only after the first person changes his
position and so on.
12. How many people in the initial arrangement remain unchanged in their position
when compared to the final arrangement after movement?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) More than three 5) None
13. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of P after the final arrangement?

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1) S 2) O 3) M 4) T 5) Q
14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
Which of the following does not belong to that group as per the initial arrangement?
1) Q 2) N 3) O 4) M 5) S
15. Who amongst the following sits opposite to R after the final arrangement?
1) M 2) N
ha 3) Q
SECTION – B
4) P 5) S
(30x1 = 30)
16. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows :

E
According to the central bank of Country A, while the economy of the country
was expected to bounce back three years ago it surely has not. This is evident
d
from the fact that the number of new business start-ups in the country has only
been 1200 since the last three years.
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given statement ?
ee

(An inference is something by which you can logically deduce something to be

true based on known/given premises)
1) Number of new business start-ups is one of the indicators of a country’s economic
C
performance
2) On an average, the number of business start-ups in a country should be around
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1200 per year

3) The only way to improve the economy of country A is to increase the number of
start-ups
4) The central bank of country A directly controls and influences the economy of
the country
5) New business start-ups provide more revenue to the government than larger
C
corporations
17. Statement: State A is a developing State. Authorities of State A observed that
most of the students who completed their graduation from the institutes in State
A, shift to other developed States for better prospects.
Course of Action I: Authorities of State A should try to improve the quality of
education of graduate courses in the institutes located in the state.
Course of Action II: Government of State A should ask the students to sign a bond
at the time of admission in graduation that they have to serve the State A at least
for 6 months after completion of their graduation.
1) Either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
2) Both Course of action I and Course of action II follow.
3) Only Course of action I follows.
4) Only Course of action II follows.
5) Neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

Direction: (18-21) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question.
P, A, Q, N, C, D and S were born in different years 1969, 1973, 1974, 1982,
1986, 1988 and 1991. Each person likes different colours i.e. pink, yellow, brown,
purple, black, cherry and green. Calculations are done according to the base year
2023.
C was born in 1991 but he does not like pink. At least two people were born
between D and the person who likes yellow colour. D was born before the person
who likes green colour. The number of people born between N and the person who
likes black colour is two more than that of P and the person who likes purple

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colour. The number of people born between C and the person who likes cherry
colour is one more than the number of people born between Q and the person who
likes green colour. At least one person was born between the person who likes
brown colour and A, who neither likes pink nor green colour. The age of the
person who likes brown colour is a multiple of 7 and was born after A, whose age
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is an even number. Two person were born between A and P, who likes cherry
colour. D neither likes brown nor yellow colour but was born after P. As many
people were born after D as before the person who likes pink colour.
18.

E
How many people were born before S?
1) Four 2) Three 3) Two 4) Five 5) One
d
19. The person who likes Black colour was born in which of the following year?
1) 1991 2) 1988 3) 1982 4) 1973 5) 1969
20. Who was born immediately before the person who likes Purple colour?
ee

1) N 2) S 3) A 4) P 5) D
21. Who is the 2nd youngest person as per the given information?
C
1) The person who likes Pink 2) A 3) N
4) Q 5) The person who likes Black
Direction: (22-23) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
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question.
P@Q – P is the mother of Q
P#Q – P is the daughter of Q
P$Q – P is the son of Q
P%Q – P is the brother of Q
P^Q – P is the sister of Q
C
P&Q – P is the father of Q
22. In the given expression below which of the following statement is/are TRUE?
N%B@J^H; A%E@U; H&X^V$M; L#U%M#F
1) M is the nephew of A 2) X is the daughter-in-law of F
3) H is the son of E 4) J is the aunt of V
5) L is the grandson of E
23. In the given expression below which of the following statement is/are definitely
FALSE?
A@B#C%D; G$H; B@E^F&G
1) Six female members are there in the family
2) B is the grandmother of G
3) A is the sister-in-law of D
4) Two married couples are there in the family
5) H is the daughter-in-law of B

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

24. Statement: State ‘X’ has been declared as the ‘least green’ state of its country.
Recently, the state government announced a three-day long drive for its residents
to plant around 10,000 seedlings across the state. Starting from the day
immediately following the announcement. Despite every effort to make the drive
successful, only 23% of the expected population turned up to plant the seeds.
Course of action I : All the people of the state who did not turn up for the drive
should either be fined or be charged an extra amount of tax.
Course of action II : The state government should re-organize the drive and
advertise/announce it atleast two or three weeks in advance.

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1) Either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
2) Both Course of action I and Course of action II follow.
3) Only Course of action I follows.
4) Only Course of action II follows.

25.
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5) Neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
Statement : Is death perfect cure to the physical sufferings?
Argument I . Yes, when there is no body left, how can there be any ailment.

E
Argument II. No, deep physical sufferings reach the spirit and must be continuing
in some intensity after death.
d
1) Only argument one is strong.
2) Only argument two is strong.
ee

3) Arguments either one or two is strong.

4) Arguments neither one nor two is strong.
5) Arguments both one and two are strong.
C
Direction: (26-27) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question.
Sr

X@Y means X  Y and Only Y is X

X!Y means X>Y and Only a few X is Y
X#Y means X=Y and Some X is Y
X$Y means X<Y and Some X is not Y
X^Y means X  Y and No X is Y
C
26. Statements: A!Z^M^W@T
Conclusion I: No W is Z Conclusion II: Some A is T
Conclusion III: A>W Conclusion IV: M  T
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusions I and II follow
3) Only Conclusion III follows 4) Only Conclusions I and III follow
5) Only Conclusions II and IV follow
27. Statements: B@H; T#H^C; E@C
Conclusion I: No T is C Conclusion II: No E is B
Conclusion III: E=H Conclusion IV: H>E
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusions I and II follow
3) Only Conclusions I and III follow
4) Either III and IV follows and Only Conclusion II follows
5) Only Conclusion IV follows

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

Direction: (28-31) The number arrangement machine when given an input line,
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 24 56 36 42 18 88 98 46 38 58
Step I: 12 28 18 21 9 44 49 23 19 29
Step II: 21 82 81 12 9 44 94 32 91 92
Step III: 24 85 84 15 12 47 97 35 94 95
Step IV: 48 170 168 30 24 94 194 70 188 190
Step V: 58 179 176 37 30 99 198 73 190 191
Step VI: 13 17 14 10 3 18 18 10 10 11

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Step VII: 9 21 12 0 9 24 24 0 0 3
Step VIII: 24 24 21 12 9 9 3 0 0 0
This is the last step of the rearrangement, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per rules followed in above steps, find out in each of the questions the appropriate
ha
step for the given input.
Input: 84 36 18 34 64 28 74 16 56 78
28. What is the difference between first and last digits of the number which is at
right end in fourth step?
1) 6 2) 3

E 3) 5 4) 7 5) 9
d
29. Which of the following element is 6th from the right end in step IV in the above
arrangement?
1) 148 2) 22 3) 152 4) 52 5) 88
ee

30. What is the product of 3rd and 6th elements from the left end in the third last
step?
1) 70 2) 25 3) 60 4) 24 5) 13
C
31. Which of the following is the step IV of the above arrangement?
1) 54 188 24 148 52 88 152 22 170 192
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2) 54 168 24 184 52 88 152 22 170 192

3) 54 168 24 148 52 88 125 22 170 192
4) 54 168 24 148 52 88 152 22 170 192
5) 54 186 24 148 52 88 125 22 170 192
32. Statement: Should public holidays be declared on demise of important national
leaders?
C
Argument I. No, such unscheduled holidays, hamper national progress.
Argument II. Yes, people would like to pay their homage to the departed soul.
1) Only argument one is strong. 2) Only argument two is strong.
3) Arguments either one or two is strong.
4) Arguments neither one nor two is strong.
5) Arguments both one and two are strong.
33. Statement: Is investment of money in insurance policies a wise step?
Argument I. Yes, it ensures security and covers risks.
Argument II. No, by the time the policy matures, the value of money falls down
considerably.
1) Only argument one is strong. 2) Only argument two is strong.
3) Arguments either one or two is strong.
4) Arguments neither one nor two is strong.
5) Arguments both one and two are strong.

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

Direction: (34-35) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question.
“Quad core processor clocks” is coded as “&5Z &5V $9V &8L”
“Massive internal memory” is coded as “$7Z &8Z &7V”
“Which makes multitasking” is coded as “$7R $6Z &11Z”
34. What does the code ‘&8R’ stand for in the given code language?
1) yellow 2) in 3) blue 4) bright 5) clerk
35. What is the code for ‘blue heaven love’ in the given code language?
1) &5V &6Z &5V 2) $5V &8Z $5V 3) &8Z $5V $5V
4) Can’t be determined 5) $5Z &8Z $5V
36. Statement (A):The number of students from Country D taking admission in

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engineering institutes in Country C has increased considerably owing to cheaper
and better quality education in Country C as compared to their own country.
Statement (B): Many students in Country D are finding it difficult to enroll for
engineering programmers as engineering institutes have increased their tuition
fee three times than what it used to be.
ha
1) Statement (A) is the cause and Statement (B) is its effect.
2) Both Statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
3) Statement (B) is the cause and Statement (A) is its effect.
4) Both Statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

E
5) Both Statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes
Direction: (37-40) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
d
question.
Ten people went to a mall. Mall has two entries i.e. north (5) and south (5).
Each person bought items such as pen, pencil, duster, table, book, ink, rubber,
ee

chair, fan and mug. They bought items in different numbers i.e. 2 to 11.
One person bought item between the person who bought pencil and the
person who bought duster. Three people bought items between Prachi, who bought
C
8 items and Tarun, who bought 5 items. The person who bought 7 items bought
after the person who bought 5 items. Ankit and Prachi entered from different
entries. Pulkit entered from north direction after Samar who bought chair. The
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person who bought 6 items bought chair. Only one person bought between Manju
and Meet. The person who bought 4 items bought just after the person who bought
9 items. Rajat who bought ink bought before manju and entered from south
direction. The person who bought fan bought first. The person who bought table
bought just after the person who bought 3 items. Pulkit bought rubber and bought
just after Lalit, who bought 11 items. The person who bought book entered from
north direction. More than three people bought after Dhruv, who bought 10 items
C
and entered from north direction. The person who bought pencil entered from
south direction. Prachi doesn’t buy fan. Meet bought 2 items and entered from
south direction after Prachi. Four people bought items between Meet and Dhruv.
The people who bought 4 items and 11 items entered from south direction. Three
people bought between Lalit and Manju, who bought pen. Dhruv did not buy table.
37. Who amongst the following person bought Duster?
1) Samar 2) Dhruv 3) Tarun 4) Lalit 5) Meet
38. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
Which of the following one does not belong to that group as per their entries?
1) Rajat 2) Meet 3) Tarun 4) Lalit 5) Prachi
39. How many people bought items between Samar and the person who bought Book?
1) Four 2) Two 3) One 4) More than four 5) Three
40. Which of the following combination is CORRECT as per the given information?
1) Manju – 5 items 2) Prachi – 11 items 3) Ankit – 4 items
4) Meet – 2 items 5) Tarun – 9 items

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

41. In a certain code language, ‘AGENCY’ is written as ‘AEELAW’ and ‘AFFORD’ is

written as ‘ADDOPB’. How will ‘AGENDA’ be written in that language?
1) AEELBA 2) AELEBA 3) AEEBLA 4) BLAEEA 5) AEEALB
Direction: (42-45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
question.
There are three floors in a given building such that floor 2 is above floor 1
and floor 3 is above floor 2. In the building there are three flats in each floor such
that Flat A is in the west of Flat B, which is in the west of Flat C. In the building
each Flat on each floor has an area of 900 ft and each flat has some certain
number of rooms and no two flats have same number of rooms.

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The area of each room of one of the flats on the odd number floor is 225 ft.
but not on the ground floor. The flat having each room area is 60 ft. is just below
the 4 rooms flat but not in the same flat. The flat have 4 rooms is northwest of the
flat have 15 rooms. The flat having each room area is 180 ft. is east of the flat that
has 15 rooms. Total number of rooms on 2nd floor is 23. Each room area in flat A
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of 1st floor is 50% more than each room area in flat A of 2nd floor. The flat having
each room area 75 ft. is below the flat that have each room area double of that
flat but both are not in the same flat number. The flat having each room area 100

42.

E
ft. is below of the flat having each room area 90 ft. The sum of rooms in Flat C of
all the floors is an odd number.
What is the total number of rooms on floor number1?
d
1) 25 2) 20 3) 9 4) 23 5) 27
43. What is the area of each room in flat B of floor number 1?
1) 100 ft. 2) 90 ft. 3) 150 ft. 4) 75 ft. 5) 225 ft.
ee

44. How many rooms are there to the East of the flat in which the area of each room
is 150 ft?
1) 12 2) 5 3) 10 4) 3 5) 2
C
45. How many rooms are in the flat that is just below the flat A of floor number 3?
1) 4 2) 15 3) 5 4) 3 5) 10
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GENERAL AWARENESS
46. In November 2024, which of the following bank has launched the e-Bank Guarantee
(e-BG) facility in partnership with National e-Governance Services Ltd (NeSL)
that replaces the paper-based BG issuance process with e-stamping and e-
signatures?
1) Punjab & Sind Bank 2) Punjab National Bank
C
3) Union Bank of India 4) HDFC Bank 5) Canara Bank
47. The Union Government has released the Fifteenth Finance Commission (XV FC)
Grants (Untied and Tied Grants) during the financial year 2024–25 for the Rural
Local Bodies (RLBs) of which state/s?
1) Mizoram 2) Haryana 3) Tripura 4) Only (1) & (2) 5) All (1), (2) & (3)
48. Padma Bhushan Awardee ‘Kunwar Natwar Singh’, a Diplomat and Former External
Affairs Minister, passed away at the age of 93 in Gurugram, Haryana. He was
born in 1929 in Bharatpur, Rajasthan. When did he receive the Padma Bhushan
Award?
1) 2013 2) 1998 3) 2004 4) 1984 5) 2020
49. In July 2024, which bank has collaborated with NIIT Institute of Finance, Banking
and Insurance (NIIT IFBI) to launch “ACE Banker Program”?
1) Axis Bank 2) Jammu & Kashmir Bank
3) HDFC Bank 4) Yes Bank 5) Punjab National Bank

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

50. Which of the following statements is/are “INCORRECT” from the “HIM-UNNATI
scheme”?
1) The Himachal Pradesh government has launched the scheme to promote natural
farming across the state with an allocation of ?250 crore.
2) This scheme will support approximately 1.92 lakh farmers working on over
32,149 hectares of land.
3) The program focuses on a cluster-based development model, consolidating
smallholding farmers for bulk production and ensuring a marketable surplus.
4) It will integrate various ongoing agricultural schemes and coordinate with
departments such as animal husbandry, horticulture, and rural development.

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5) All Options are correct.
51. Which mutual fund recently launched the "Apne #SIPKoDoPromotion," a unique
digital campaign aimed at raising awareness about the Systematic Investment
Plans (SIPs) Top-Up feature?
1) Groww Mutual Fund 2) Mirae Asset Mutual Fund
3) SBI Mutual Fund 4) HSBC Mutual Fund 5) Axis Mutual Fund
52.
ha
Who is the chair of the ‘Kendriya Hindi Samiti’, the highest body that provides
guidelines for developing and promoting Hindi language?
1) Prime Minister 2) Minister of Information and Broadcasting

53.
3) Home Minister

E 4) Minister of Culture 5) Minister of Education

DBS Bank, a leading financial institution in India, has recently launched a priority
d
banking program called 'DBS Golden Circle' specifically designed for senior citizens
aged 60 and above. This program aims to address the unique banking needs of the
elderly population by providing exclusive benefits and services, such as competitive
ee

interest rates on savings accounts and fixed deposits, as well as additional perks
like zero transaction fees and discounted locker rentals. How many years has
DBS Bank been operating in India?
C
1) 20 years 2) 30 years 3) 25 years 4) 10 years 5) 15 years
54. Which of the following statements is/are “INCORRECT”?
1) In August 2024, three new wetlands have been designated as Ramsar sites in
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India, bringing the total to 85, the new sites are Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary and
Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu, and Tawa Reservoir in Madhya Pradesh.
2) The total area of Ramsar sites in India now covers 1,358,068 hectares.
3) India became a signatory to the Ramsar Convention on February 1, 1982.
4) Currently, Tamil Nadu harbours maximum number of Ramsar Sites (18 sites)
followed by Uttar Pradesh (10 sites).
C
5) All options are correct.
55. The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has directed the Advertising
Standards Council of India (ASCI) to report any noncompliant commercials that
may violate the Consumer Protection Act. In which year was the ‘Consumer
Protection Act’ established?
1) 2019 2) 2016 3) 2020 4) 2017 5) 2018
56. Which ministry has celebrated its 18th Foundation Day on 27th July 2024?
1) Ministry of Civil Aviation 2) Ministry of Earth Sciences
3) Ministry of Rural Development
4) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
5) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
57. Name the bilateral air exercise conducted between the Indian Air Force (IAF) and
the Royal Malaysian Air Force (RMAF) from 5th to 9th August 2024 in Kuantan,
Malaysia.
1) Nomadic Elephant 2024 2) Udara Shakti 2024
3) Shakti 2024 4) Garuda Shakti 2024 5) Varuna Shakti 2024

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

58. The United Arab Emirates (UAE) has recently launched a new visa program offering
long-term residency to individuals who significantly contribute to environmental
protection and sustainability efforts. What is the name of this Visa?
1) Golden Visa 2) Green Visa
3) Green Residency Visa 4) Blue Residency Visa 5) Silver residency Visa
59. In November 2024, what is the anticipated average annual financial requirement
for implementing India’s updated National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan
from FY 2024-2025 to FY 2029-2030?
1) Rs. 81,664.88 crore 2) Rs. 95,123.67 crore
3) Rs. 70,334.45 crore 4) Rs. 78,560.33 crore 5) Rs. 92,345.33 crore
60. Which organization has developed the Bullet Proof Jacket of the country for

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protection against the highest threat Level 6?
1) NTPC Limited 2) Tata Advanced Systems
3) Bharat Electronics Limited
4) Indian Space Research Organisation
5) Defence Research and Development Organization
61.
ha
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched two critical surveys to gather
insights for upcoming monetary policy. This study collects subjective perceptions
of price fluctuations and inflation from households in how many cities?

62.
1) 10 cities

E
2) 25 cities 3) 289 cities 4) 14 cities 5) 19 cities
Which of the following is defined as the availability and equality of opportunities
to access financial services and refers to a process by which individuals and
d
businesses can access appropriate, affordable, and timely financial products and
services?
1) Financial Inclusion 2) Privatisation
ee

3) Financial Outcome 4) Account 5) Financial Stability

63. The Ministry of Rural Development has signed an MoU with which retail company
to enhance the outreach of the products of self-help groups (SHGs) of Deendayal
C
Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)?
1) Meesho 2) Flipkart 3) Snapdeal 4) JioMart 5) Blinkit
Sr

64. “World Suicide Prevention Day” is observed every year on 10 September. What is
the theme of “World Suicide Prevention Day 2024”?
1) Suicide prevention. 2) Creating hope through action
3) Working together to prevent suicide
4) Working Together to prevent suicide
5) Changing the Narrative on Suicide - Start the Conversation
65. The International Olympic Committee (IOC) has launched a campaign to inspire
C
people to celebrate the athletes participating in the upcoming Olympic Games in
Paris. What is the name of this campaign?
1) Change the Game 2) Bounce to the Victory
3) Let’s Move India 4) Just Do It 5) Dream Crazy
66. In August Month 2024, the State Bank of India (SBI) projected a ______ year-on-
year (YoY) growth in India's real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for the financial
year 2024-2025 (FY25).
1) 7.2% 2) 6.6% 3) 6.8% 4) 7.0% 5) 6.9%
67. ‘Fiscal Monitor Report (FSR)’ provides an overview of latest public finance
developments, updates the medium-term fiscal outlook, and assesses fiscal
implications of policies relevant to the global economy. “Fiscal Monitor Report
(FMR)” is published by which of the following organizations?
1) World Bank 2) Reserve Bank of India
3) World Economic Forum
4) International Monetary Fund
5) United Nations Development Programme

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

68. J & K Bank has launched a program titled “Kisan KaSamman” to empower farmers
who have shown exceptional financial discipline and promptness in their dealings
with the Bank. The program will run until _________.
1) November 30, 2024 2) August 31, 2024
3) September 30, 2024 4) December 31, 2024 5) October 31, 2024
69. The Chandrakant Pandit-coached “Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR) cricket team”
won the Indian Premier League (IPL) 2024 title by beating Sunriser Hyderabad
(SRH) in the final of the 17th IPL; how many times have the Kolkata Knight
Riders won the Indian Premier League titles?
1) Only Four 2) Only Two 3) Only One 4) Only Five 5) Only Three

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70. Which Section, in conjunction with Section 10 (2) of the Payment and Settlement
Systems Act, 2007 (PSS Act), has the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced a
revamped regulatory framework for the Bharat Bill Payment Systems (BBPS) from
April 1, 2024?
1) Section 15 2) Section 17 3) Section 18 4) Section 19 5) Section 16
71.
ha
Which Ministry/ies signed a Memorandum of understanding (MoU) with CSC
eGovernance Services India Limited to provide the e-Migrate services through
CSCs in the country?

E
1) Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)
2) Ministry of Labour and Employment (MLE)
3) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
d
4) Only (1) & (3)
5) All (1), (2) & (3)
72. What is Fitch Rating’s expectation for India’s GDP growth in FY24 and FY25?
ee

1) 5.0% and 5.5% 2) 5.5% and 6.0

3) 6.7% and 7.0% 4) 6.2% and 6.5% 5) 6.9% and 6.5%
73. In October 2024, Markets regulator SEBI has imposed a penalty of how much
C
rupees on NSE Data And Analytics Ltd for its failure to segregate IT infrastructures
and manpower between itself and its parent firm National Stock Exchange (NSE)?
Sr

1) 24.8 lakh 2) 12.0 lakh 3) 8.6 lakh 4) 10.1 lakh 5) 5.3 lakh
74. The National Stock Exchange (NSE) has launched a mobile app as well as websites
in eight additional languages to commemorate 30 years of operations. Who is the
MD and CEO of NSE?
1) Parul Tyagi 2) S Ramamurthy
3) Vikram Limaye 4) Chitra Ramkrishna 5) Ashishkumar Chauhan
C
75. French swimming superstar ‘Leon Marchand’ won his fourth gold medal of the
Paris Games when he won the men’s 200m individual medley. What was his
time?
1) 00 min 54.22 sec 2) 1 min 59.41 sec
3) 1 min 54.06 sec 4) 1 min 00.06 sec 5) 1 min 44.16 sec
76. Foreign direct investment (FDI) is critical to a country's economic development.
The entry of foreign cash has allowed India to improve its infrastructure, increase
productivity, and increase employment; it also serves as a vehicle for acquiring
sophisticated technology and mobilizing foreign exchange reserves. What is the
rank of India in FDI 2024?
1) 10th 2) 15th 3) 12th 4) 17th 5) 20th
77. A collection of non-bank financial intermediaries that provide services similar to
traditional commercial banks is known as ________.
1) Off-shore Banking 2) Investment Banking System
3) Shadow Banking System
4) Merchant Banking System 5) Conventional Banking

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

78. Which among the following becomes the first Indian state to implement disaster
management insurance through the ‘Disaster Risk Transfer Parametric Insurance
Solution (DRTPS)’, aiming to protect critical infrastructure and reduce economic
losses due to disasters with SBI General Insurance?
1) Mizoram 2) Maharashtra 3) Sikkim 4) Nagaland 5) Arunachal Pradesh
79. Which agency has maintained India's GDP growth prediction for the current fiscal
year (FY 2024-25) at 6.8%?
1) Fitch Rating 2) World Bank (WB)
3) S&P Global ratings
4) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)5) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

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80. Which country has hosted the 2024 Asia-Pacific Ministerial Conference on Risk
Reduction (APMCDRR) in partnership with the United Nations Office for Disaster
Risk Reduction (UNDRR)?
1) Japan 2) UK 3) Algeria 4) Philippines 5) India
81. In May 2024, which of the following organisations jointly developed a ‘Unified
ha
India Organic’ logo to replace the ‘India Organic’ and ‘Jaivik Bharat’ logos?
1) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
2) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)

(APFPEDA)
4) Only (1) & (2)

E
3) Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority

5) Only (2) & (3)

d
82. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has launched the ‘NTS’ to support
the tokenization of cards as an alternative to storing card details with merchants.
What does ‘S’ stand for in the acronym “NTS”?
ee

1) Securitization 2) System 3) Servicing 4) Settlement 5) Security

83. A folk dance is a dance that reflects the life of the people of a certain country or
region. “Bagurumba” is a folk dance performed in which state?
C
1) West Bengal 2) Nagaland 3) Punjab 4) Madhya Pradesh 5) Assam
84. Which bank/financial institution has invested USD 34 million loan in iBUS
Sr

Network and Infrastructure Private Limited for Global expansion?

1) World Bank 2) Asian Development Bank
3) International Finance Corporation
4) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
5) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
85. According to Forbes’ World’s Highest-Paid Athletes 2024 list released in May 2024,
C
who is the highest-paid athlete in the world?
1) Jon Rahm 2) Virat Kohli 3) Lionel Messi 4) Cristiano Ronaldo 5) Novak Djokovic
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (86 - 90): In each of the following sentences there are two blank
spaces. Below each five pairs of words have been given. Find out which pair of
words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
86. Faculty and staff members from across 24 Indian Council of Social Science
Research (ICSSR) institutions have written to Minister of Education Dharmendra
Pradhan …………………… concern over the delay in implementation of the 7th
Central Pay Commission revised pay scales, eight years after the ………………………
by the Centre.
1) revealing, declaration 2) expressing, announcement
3) denoting, statement 4) indicating, proclamation
5) informing, negotiation

12
Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

87. A separate manufacturing line for the …………………………. Light Combat Aircraft
(LCA) by the private sector is economically unviable, sources said ruling out any
such possibility while stating that the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) will
have ……………………… to produce 24 jets next year with the private industry
involved in a big way.
1) indigenous, capability 2) internal, ability 3) alien, capacity
4) indifferent, dexterity 5) abroad, potential
88. Electric bus ……………………………. in India has thus far been driven by the
public sector, which was supported with financial …………………………..under the
national Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid and) Electric Vehicles in
India (FAME India) scheme.
1) recruitment, concessions 2) appointment, reductions

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3) deployment, subsidies 4) employment, deductions
5) promotion, restrictions
89. Doctors in India are grappling to ………………………. and treat unexplained and
persistent symptoms of long Covid patients due to limited guidelines, whereas
researchers have flagged ……………………… studies on the condition.
1) recognize, inefficient 2) identify, indifferent

5) discover, inordinate
ha
3) register,insufficient 4) diagnose, inadequate

90. India is facing growing threat to its national security from …………………..resorting

E
to a new kind of cyber-warfare and, therefore, an offensive …………………..involving
“super cyber force” and “surgical strikes” is required.
1) obstacles, process 2) hindrances, procedure
d
3) barriers, method 4) challenges, mode
5) adversaries, approach
Directions (91 - 95): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which
ee

has been numbered. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank
appropriately to make grammatically and contextually correct sentences.
Ten years of the Swachh Bharat Mission have been transformational for the
C
people of India in more ways than one. When we think about ……………91………….,
it is easy to reduce the conversation to just building toilets. But India’s journey
toward improving sanitation has been about survival, dignity, empowerment, and
Sr

………………92…………….. It has created a ripple effect that will impact the health
and well-being of generations to come.Led by the Prime Minister of India, the
phenomenal SBM journey has ………………93…………. the lives of nearly 500 million
people, nearly half of India’s population, helping them achieve Open Defecation
Free status by ……………94………………. access to safe toilets at home in less
than a decade. As the Prime Minister of India said recently, “Swachh Bharat is
the world’s largest and most ……………95……………successful people-led and
people-driven public movement of this century.” It is a good practice model that
C
India has shared with the world.
91. 1) cleanliness 2) freshness 3) sanitation 4) decency 5) perfection
92. 1) fortitude 2) prosperity 3) hostility 4) fertility 5) serenity
93. 1) transformed2) transferred 3) stagnated 4) traversed 5) Perpetuated
94. 1) prevailing 2) attesting 3) considering 4) equipping 5) providing
95. 1) productive 2) deceitful 3) dreadful 4) successful 5) Consistent
Directions (96 – 97): In this question, four words (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given in
bold. One of these words may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the
context of the Sentence. Find out the word that is wrongly spelt or inappropriate
if any. If all the words given in bold are correctly spelt or appropriate in the
context of the sentence, then mark (E) ‘All are correct’ as your answer.
96. Sagarika Chakraborty, in her 2022 (A) autobuography, The Journey of a Mother,
(B) documents her long court (C) battle against the Norwegian Child Welfare
Services, which took away her children alleging “(D) incompetent parenting” in
2011, when she and her now-divorced husband were living in Norway.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

13
Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

97. The best way (A) forward, therefore, is to leave the people to themselves. Every
(B) individual should be allowed to practise the religion of his choice without the
direct or indirect (C) interferanceof the state as (D) guaranteed by our Constitution.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (98 - 100): In this question, three Sentences (A), (B) and (C) are given.
Decide which Sentences (s) is / are CORRECT with regard to Grammar, meaning
and usage and mark your answer accordingly.
98. A. In the first thirty years of the State’s politics from its creation in 1960, it was
Congress which ruled Maharashtra with an undivided majority.
B. Government of Karnataka passed orders that commercial establishments and
shops which employ 10 or more people can operate 24x7 but the Police Department

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has not given consent to the same orders.
C. The Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike (BBMP) has invited private individuals,
organizations and companies to adopt parks, medians and circles and BBMP
currently maintains 1,280 parks, medians and circles within their jurisdiction.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A and B 5) A and C
99. A. The development comes a day after Intel expressed optimism about the future
ha
of its PC and server businesses, projecting current-quarter revenue above estimates
but warning that it had a lot of work to do.
B. A new survey of Indian American political attitudes find that while members of

E
the group generally support the Democratic Party, as they have historically, their
attachment to the party has declined.
C. Union Home Minister Amit Shah has conveyed his best wishes to the people of
d
Andhra Pradesh on the occasion of their Statehood Day.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A and B 5) A and C
100. A. One should understand that the country will not remain the way it is without
ee

Sanatana Dharma, which is a guiding lamp not just for the country and for the
world.
B. Upcoming by-polls in Palakkad and Chelakkara set to be purely political and
may possibly shaped the template for 2026 Assembly elections in Kerala.
C
C. The 2025 ranking of India’s top research institution and the assessment of
other institutions raise questions about the objectivity and the credibility of the
Sr

agency’s ranking system.

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A and B 5) A and C
Directions (101 - 105): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which
follow.
A. Ninety percent of India’s AI supercomputers rely on DDN and India accounts
for approximately 10 percent of DDN’s revenue, making it one of the company’s
largest markets after the US and Japan.
C
B. Over 500,000 GPUs count on DDN to save millions of dollars while accurately
accelerating massive datasets and the company claims to be the overall market
leader in AI and HPC at scale.
C. As a privately-held $1 billion company, DDN designs, manufactures and delivers
high-performance storage solutions to organizations requiring massive data storage
and processing.
D. California-based DataDirect Networks, well known for powering the world’s
fastest supercomputers, has long supported Indian giants like the Tata Group,
ONGC and various ministries including defense, electronics and earth sciences.
E. For instance, DDN powers the majority of Nvidia chips, from the A100 to the
upcoming Blackwell graphics processing units.
F. The 26-year-old data storage company is now witnessing a significant shift,
with commercial, hyperscale data centres and cloud companies investing 20 times
more in high-performance computing.
101. Which of the following should be the first sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

102. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F
103. Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
104. Which of the following should be the third sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) F
105. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) F 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (106 – 108): In this question, A Phrasal Verb has been given in bold
followed by three sentences (A), (B) and (C) in which in which the given Phrasal
Verb has been used. Read the given sentences carefully and decide in which of

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the given sentences the Phrasal Verb given in bold has been correctly used making
the sentence both grammatically and meaningfully correct.
106. Make out
A. Although it was a critical issue, we could make it out with a team spirit last
time.
B. Don’t worry. I will make you out whatever you need for your higher studies.

2) B
ha
C. He unnecessarily involves in others’ matters and makes them out serious.
1) A 3) C 4) A and B 5) A and C
107. Break into

me.

E
A. When I helped him in his troubles last time, he broke into happy and thanked

B. The angry students broke into the principal’s chamber and raised slogans
d
against him.
C. Thieves broke into their house last night and stole gold worth of Rs. 5 lakhs.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A and B 5) B and C
ee

108. Ask after

A. My father sends me money every month and I have to ask after all my expenses
to him.
C
B. My uncle has been hospitalized; We went to the hospital yesterday to ask after
him.
C. Why do you often face problems? Why don’t you ask after me any help?
Sr

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A and B 5) A and C
Directions (109 - 110): In this question, three Sentences (A), (B) and (C) are
given. Decide which Sentences (s) is / are INCORRECT with regard to Grammar,
meaning and usage and mark your answer accordingly.
109. A. Nearly 200 countries convened in the city of Cali, aiming to implement the
2022 Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework agreement.
B. Methane’s climate impacts are severe, accounting to around 30% of global
C
warming since the pre-industrial era, and its atmospheric concentration is rising
rapidly.
C. Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated a 15-megawatt power plant in
Gujarat which uses solid waste to generate electricity.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A and B 5) A and C
110. A. As a phenomenologist among high energy physicists, Rohini Godbole, who passed
away recently, shared her deep practical knowledge and insights generously to
students.
B. While government HEIs have improved their positions in rankings, private ones
that have implemented various measures for research and international
engagement have done better.
C. Indian higher education aims for global excellence through internationalization,
ranking, and research productivity, attracting global students and faculty for
collaboration.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A and B 5) A and C

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

Directions (111-120): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
Almost two-thirds of countries in the Middle East and Central Asia are
exploring adopting a central bank digital currency as a way to promote financial
inclusion and improve the efficiency of cross-border payments. Adopting a CBDC,
however, requires careful consideration. Countries across these regions, spanning
a diverse group of economies stretching from Morocco and Egypt to Pakistan and
Kazakhstan, each must weigh their own unique set of circumstances. Many of
the 19 countries currently exploring a CBDC are at the research stage. Bahrain,
Georgia, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates have moved to the more

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advanced “proof-of-concept” stage. Kazakhstan is the most advanced after two
pilot programs for the digital tenge. CBDCs can potentially help improve the
efficiency of cross-border payment services. This appears to be an important
priority for oil (A)/ exporters and the Gulf Cooperation Council countries (B)/
of Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, (C)/Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab
ha
Emirates.(D) That’s because cross-border payments tend to have frictions like
varying data formats and operating rules across regions and complex compliance
checks. CBDCs that address these inefficiencies could significantly cut transaction

E
costs. Some countries have already introduced cross-border technology platforms
to address these issues and promote digital currency payments between countries.
One example is the Buna cross-border payment system, created by the Arab
d
Monetary Fund in 2020.
CBDCs can advance financial inclusion by fostering competition in the
payments market and allowing for transactions to be settled more directly and
ee

with less intermediation, in turn lowering the cost of financial services and making
them more accessible. Unlike commercial banks, central banks can also help
keep costs lower as they aren’t concerned with making a profit. Similarly, the
C
resulting increased identification (A) in the payments market from a CBDC could
also encourage upgrading technology platforms and the efficiency of payment
Sr

services, helping financial services competition (B) more people. Countries in

the Caucasus and Central Asia, Middle East and North Africa oil importers, and
low-income countries are especially interested in this potential benefit. However,
without reach (C) some of the barriers to increased use of digital accounts and
payments—low digital and financial literacy, lack of remedying (D), distrust of
financial institutions, and low wealth—CBDC uptake may only have marginal
benefits.
C
Deposits make up a large share of bank funding in the region, about 83
percent. Because a CBDC may compete with bank deposits, it could weigh on
bank profits and ___________ and have implications for financial stability. However,
lenders in the region generally have adequate capital levels, profit margins, and
liquidity buffers, and their relatively high concentration may limit strains on
deposits. Large banks are especially dominant in Gulf Cooperation Council
countries. For monetary policy, CBDCs could strengthen the pass-through into
deposit rates by increasing competition among banks. A CBDC could also
strengthen the bank lending channel of monetary policy. However, as our paper
underscores, the impact would likely be country-specific and is difficult to estimate
because CBDC uptake is limited so far. Policymakers can mitigate potential risks
to financial stability. While there are no clear prerequisites to adopting CBDCs, a
healthy banking system, a sound legal system, and strong supervisory and
regulatory capacity are the most important for reducing risks. Design features to
limit competition with bank deposits, such as using carefully calibrated restrictions
on CBDC balances and transactions, could also help.

16
Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

111. What is one of the primary motivations for countries in the Middle East and
Central Asia to consider adopting a central bank digital currency (CBDC)?
1) To ensure absolute economic independence
2) To attract foreign investments
3) To promote financial inclusion and improve cross-border payment efficiency
4) To eliminate cash transactions entirely
5) To compete with cryptocurrencies directly
112. Which of the following countries is the most advanced in exploring a CBDC with
two pilot programs?
1) Bahrain 2) Georgia 3) Saudi Arabia
4) Kazakhstan 5) United Arab Emirates
113. In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by (A), (B), (C) and (D)

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has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. That part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the errors of
punctuation of any.
This appearing to be an important priority for oil (A)/ exporters and the Gulf
Cooperation Council countries (B)/ of Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, (C)/Saudi

2) B
ha
Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.(D)
1) A 3) C 4) No error 5) D
114. Which of the following is an example of a cross-border technology platform aimed

E
at enhancing digital currency payments between countries?
A. Digital Dinar Initiative
C. Buna cross-border payment system
B. Tenge Connect
d
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Both A and B
4) Both B and C 5) Only C
115. Based on the passage, what can be inferred as a likely impact of CBDCs on bank
ee

competition and monetary policy?

1) CBDCs would only strengthen smaller banks, limiting large banks’ influence.
2) CBDCs may increase competition among banks and strengthen monetary policy’s
C
effect on deposit rates.
3) CBDCs would reduce the need for banks to comply with central bank policies.
4) CBDCs will prevent any changes to the traditional banking model in the region.
Sr

5) CBDCs would create a fixed impact on monetary policy across all countries in
the region.
116. Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
1) The Financial improvement of Adopting CBDCs in Emerging Markets
2) CBDCs: Pathway to Financial Inclusion and Cross-Border Efficiency in the
Middle East and Central Asia
3) Buna Payment System: A Model for Digital Transactions
4) The Role of Commercial Banks in Digital Currency Development
C
5) Monetary Policy and Its Effects on Digital Currency Adoption
117. The sentence has a blank which indicates something has been omitted. Which of
the following words given against the sentence, fits the blank in the given sentence
both grammatically and meaningfully?
Because a CBDC may compete with bank deposits, it could weigh on bank profits
and ___________and have implications for financial stability.
1) supplying 2) allowing 3) raising 4) lending 5) supporting
118. In this given questions four words are given in bold as A,B, C, D in the above
passage and these four words may or may not be in their correct position. Find
the correct combination of words that replace each other.
1) DCBA 2) ADCB 3) ADBC 4) BCDA 5) DABC
119. Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given word
prerequisites as given in the passage .
1) essential 2) precondition3) necessity 4) qualification5) optional
120. Choose the word which expresses the same meaning of the given word estimate
as given in the passage .
1) accurate 2) exact 3) assumption 4) calculate 5) disbelieve

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION

SECTION A- (2 MARKS)
Direction (121-123): In the given question two quantities are given, one as
Quantity I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between
two Quantities and choose the appropriate option.
121. Quantity I: A milkman has x litres of a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of
5:3 and his fellow milkman has 30 litres mixture of milk and water in the ratio of
3:2. If he and his fellow milkman mixed the mixtures, then the milk and water
become 14:9, and find the value of x.
Quantity II: A milkman has 40 litres mixture of milk and water in a ratio of 7:3. If

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he sold 10 litres of the mixture and replaced it with water and then again he sold
the same quantity of the mixture and replaced by water, then what is the final
quantity of the milk?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II
3) Quantity II > Quantity I 4) Quantity II  Quantity I
ha
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
122. Quantity I: The sum of the total number of red and yellow colour balls in the box
is 27. If we add 1 red ball and 6 yellow balls to the box, then the ratio of the

E
number of red to yellow balls in the box become 8:9, the number of yellow balls is
what percent of the number of red balls?
d
Quantity II: The ratio of the number of balls in the box A to B is 3:5 and the ratio
of the number of balls in C to the total number of balls in A and B together is 1:2.
If the total number of balls in all the boxes together is 360, then find the number
ee

of balls in A?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II
3) Quantity II > Quantity I 4) Quantity II  Quantity I
C
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
123. Quantity I: The ratio of the number of passengers in bus A to B is 5:6 and the
Sr

ratio of the fares collected from the passengers from bus A to B is 4:3. If the total
amount collected from bus A and B together is Rs.19000, then what is the total
amount collected from bus B?
Quantity II: The ratio of the money with A to B is 5:6 and the ratio of the money
with B to C is 12:11. If A has a total amount of Rs.8000, then find the amount with
C.
C
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I  Quantity II
3) Quantity II > Quantity I 4) Quantity II  Quantity I
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Direction (124-128): Study the table carefully and answer the given question.
The table given shows the average number of surveillance drones produced
in 2021 and 2022 and the total number of surveillance drone produced in 2021.

Shops Average number of Total number of surveillance

surveillance drones produced drones produced in 2021
in 2021 and 2022
A 2740 2500
B 2780 3060
C 3020 3200
D 2840 2600

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Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

The table given shows the total number of surveillance drones sold in 2021
and 2022.

Shops Total number of surveillance Total number of surveillance

drones sold in 2021 drones sold in 2022
A a-1530 b
- 924
3
B a b
5
C a b
+500

r’s
2 5
D a-550 b
3
Total 6880 6360

124. The total number of drones produced by Company X in 2021 and 2022 is equal to
ha
the sum of the total number of drones produced in 2021 by Company A and Company
D and the total number of drones produced in 2021 by Company X is 60% of the
total number of drones produced in 2021 and 2022 by Company X. The total

E
number of drones produced in 2022 by Company X is what percentage of the total
number of drones produced in 2021 by Company X? (Up to two decimals)
d
1) 66.66% 2) 70% 3) 33.33% 4) 78% 5) 75%
125. If the price of each drone sold in 2021 and 2022 from Company B is Rs.2000 and
Rs.2750 respectively and the price of each unsold drone in 2021 and 2022 from
ee

3
Company B is reduced by 25% and 27 % of the original price and then the
11
C
drones are sold, then find the total amount acquired while selling the drones in
2021 and 2022 by Company B.
Sr

1) Rs.11912100 2) Rs.11824000 3) Rs.1591100

4) Rs.2591350 5) Rs.1291400
1
126. If in the total drones sold by Company D, B, C and A in 2022, 25%, 33 %, 50%
3
5
and th are defective respctively, and then find the average number of drones
C
13
that are sold is non-defective in 2022 from all companies together.
1) 1125 2) 1510 3) 1015 4) 1150 5) 1055
127. Find the difference between the total number of unsold drones in 2022 from all
companies together and the total number of unsold drones in 2021 from all
companies together.
1) 500 2) 540 3) 520 4) 490 5) 560
1
128. If the total number of drones produced in 2020 by Company B is 33 % more than
3
the average number of drones produced in 2022 by Company B and C together
a b
and the total number of drones sold in 2020 by Company B is equal to   +   ,
5 4
then find the total number of drones unsold in 2020 by Company B.
1) 1458 2) 1480 3) 1500 4) 1470 5) 1510

19
Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

Direction (129-133): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.
There are two companies Integral coach factory and Rail coach factory which
produced trains in India. The total number of trains produced by them was 640
out of which _____A%____ were produced by Integral and the rest by Rail coach.
The number of trains produced by Rail coach was 128 less than that by Integral.
The speed of each train produced by Integral is 20% less than that of each train
produced by Rail coach but the length of each train produced by Integral is 640 m
which is ____B_____ m longer than each train produced by Rail coach and they
take 16 seconds and 8 seconds respectively to cross a traffic pole. It takes

r’s
_____C_____ seconds for them to cross each other when travelling in opposite
directions. Each wagon on the train produced by Rail coach is of _____D____ m
length and the total number of wagons in each train produced by Rail coach is 10.
Note: All the trains produced by each company are of the same specifications.
129. Find the number of factors of ‘A’.

130.
1) 10 2) 12
ha 3) 18 4) 22 5) 8
If length of the diagonal of a solid cubical structure is ‘B’ cm, then find the total

131.

E
surface area of that structure.
1) 180000 cm2 2) 127800 cm2 3) 228800 cm2 4) 138700 cm2 5) None of these
Find the value of (9C – 2D).
d
1) 16 2) 24 3) 8 4) 6 5) 14
132. If the value of ‘A’ was 20 more than its actual value, then find the difference
ee

between the number of trains produced by Integral coach factory and Rail coach.
1) 388 2) 384 3) 296 4) 399 5) 325
133. Find the simple interest earned on Rs. B at 25% per annum for 3 years.
C
1) Rs. 100 2) Rs. 110 3) Rs. 190 4) Rs. 200 5) Rs. 180
130 x 2 16
Sr

134. If one of the roots of the equation x² + 2 2 – 4k = 0 is , find the value

180 x  144 x 9
of ‘k’.
1) 4 2) -4 3) 6 4) -6 5) 8
2
135. In mixture A, 25% is water and rest is milk. In mixture B, 41 % is water and
3
C
rest is milk. Both milk and water are mixed together to form a new mixture are in
the ratio 2 : 1. If 12 L of the new mixture is replaced with same quantity of water,
ratio of milk to water in the new mixture becomes 3:2, then find the difference
between quantities of mixtures A and B.
1) 0 L 2) 20 L 3) 5 L 4) 15L 5) 10L
136. A train crosses a 300 m long platform in 22 seconds and crosses a bike in 30
seconds, while running in same direction. If speed of the bike is 60% of that of
the train, then in what time the bike will cross a tunnel, whose length is equal to
the length of the train?
1) 25 seconds 2) 30 seconds 3) 15 seconds 4) 10 seconds 5) 20 seconds
137. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are the roots of the equation x² + 5x + 6 = 0, then find out the equation
whose roots are ‘2a’ and ‘2b’?
1) x² + 14x + 24 = 0 2) x² + 15x + 44 = 0
3) x² + 10x + 24 = 0 4) Cannot be determined
5) None of these

20
Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

138. Worker A alone can complete 40% work in 8 hours and time taken by worker B
alone to complete 50% work is equal to that taken by worker A alone to complete
75% work. If ratio of B’s efficiency to C’s efficiency is 1:2, then in what time A and
C together will complete the work?
6 4
1) 9 hours 2) 8 hours 3) Can’t be determined
7 7
5 3
4) 6 hours 5) 7 hours
7 7
139. If ratio of compound interest to simple interest received on a certain sum at the
rate of R% p.a. for 2 years is 41 : 40, then find the ratio of compound interest

r’s
received on Rs.1200 at (R + 5)% after 2 years to simple interest received on
Rs.1500 at (R + 7)% after 2 years?
1) 7 : 10 2) 2 : 3 3) 7 : 12 4) 5 : 9 5) 3 : 4

Column I Column II
R1: Find the value of M and Q
ha
Series I: 1, 24, 58, 105, 167, M
i) 826

140. Series II: (M+4),

(M+9),(M+K2 ),(M+25), Q
R2: M + K2+ 2Q = ?

E ii) 246,290
d
1) R1= i is true 2) R2 = i is true
3) R1 = ii and R2= i is true 4) R1 = i and R2= ii is true 5) None of these
ee

Direction (141-145): Study the bar graph carefully and answer the given question.
The bar graph shows the percentage of students who attended interviews which
are scheduled from Monday to Friday. There are 2 rounds.
C
The first round of interviews is scheduled from Monday to Friday of the
company. The result of the first round was published on next day of the interview.
Percentage of student interviews scheduled in a day out of the total number of
Sr

students who attended the interview and percentage of students who qualified in
the first round out of the total number of students who gave an interview on the
previous day is given.

Percentage of students interview schedule

Percentage of students qualified in 1st round
C
60

50

40

30

20

10

0
y y y ay y ay
da es
a
da sd id
a
rd
on Tu ne
s ur Fr tu
M
ed Th Sa
Note: The number of students Wwho attended an interview on Friday do not qualify
in the 1st round is 200.
141. Find the difference between the number of students who qualified for the first
round who attended an interview on Tuesday and who attended an interview on
Friday.
1) 260 2) 240 3) 280 4) 170 5) 150

21
Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

142. Find the total number of students not qualified in the first round of interviews.
1) 1025 2) 1206 3) 1120 4) 1016 5) 1037
143. Find the ratio of the number of students who did not qualify in the first round
who attended an interview on Wednesday and the number of students who did
not qualify 1st round who attended an interview on Thursday.
1) 15:29 2) 15:16 3) 12:13 4) 13:17 5) None of these
144. Out of the total number of students who qualified in the first round of interview
on Monday 25% are female. Find the number of male students who qualified for
the first round of interview on Monday.
1) 24 2) 25 3) 16 4) 36 5) None of these

r’s
145. Total number of students who did not qualify in the first round who attended the
interview on Monday is what percent of the total number of students who qualified
1st round of interview who attended the interview on Tuesday?
1) 240% 2) 225% 3) 202% 4) 140% 5) None of these
Direction (146-150): Study the given table below and answer the given question.
ha
The data is related to the number of missiles launched through 6 different
jet engines Vikas Engine, Turbojet, CFM56, IAEV2500, GE9X and Scramjet in a
country and each jet engines carried a different weight (in kg).

E
The table shows the total weight carried by each jet engines Turbojet, CFM56,
IAEV2500, GE9X and Scramjet as percent more or less than that carried by Vikas
Engine.
d
Jet Engines Weight carried jet engines Number of missiles
ee

more or less than carried carried

by Vikas engine
C
Vikas - 16
Engine
Sr

Turbojet +5 20
CFM56 -10 15
IAEV2500 -25 24
GE9X +20 25
C
Scramjet -15 10

Note:
* Average weight of missiles carried by jet engine =
Total weight carried by jet engine
number of missiles carried by the engine
* The average weight of each missile carried by Vikas Engine is 640 kg more than
the average weight of each missile carried by Turbojet.
146. If the average weight of each missile carried by CFM 56 jet is M% more/less than
the average weight of each missile carried by Vikas engine jet and the average
weight of each missile carried by GE9x jet is N% more or less than the average
weight of each missile carried by IAEV2500 jet, then find the ratio of M to N.
1) 10 : 167 2) 5 : 67 3) 40 : 467 4) 20 : 267 5) 11 : 128

22
Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

147. If the weight of the IAEV2500 jet without missiles is 12.5% more than the total
weight of missiles carried by the IAEV2500 jet and the weight of the Scram jet
without missiles is 5% more than the total weight of missiles carried by the
Scram jet, then the weight of Scram jet without missiles is approximately what
percent more or less than that of IAEV2500 jet without missiles?
1) 6% 2) 12% 3) 15% 4) 24% 5) 18%
148. Which of the following is/are true?
P: The ratio of the average weight of each missile carried by GE9X jet to the

r’s
average weight of each missile carried by Scram jet is 48: 83.
Q: The average of the total weight carried by jets CFM56, IAEV2500 and GE9X is
60800 kg.
R: The difference between the average weight of each missile carried by Turbo jet
and the average weight of each missile carried by CFM56 jet is 380 kg.
1) Only P
ha
2) Only Q and R 3) Only Q 4) Only P and R 5) Only R
149. If the total weight carried by the Turbo shaft jet is 25% more than that carried by

E
the CFM56 jet and the average weight of each missile carried by the GE9X is
76.8% of the average weight of each missile carried by the Turbo shaft jet, then
d
find that the number of missiles carried by Turbo shaft jet is what percent more/
less than that carried by Vikas Engine jet.
ee

2
1) 16 % 2) 20% 3) 15% 4) 12.5% 5) 10%
3
C
150. If the total weight carried by Vikas Engine jet were 4000 kg less and the new
total weight carried by GE9X is 20% more than the new total weight carried by
Sr

Vikas Engine. If the number of missiles carried by the GE9X jet were the same as
initially, then the average weight of each missile carried by the GE9X jet would
be what percent less than the original average weight of each missile carried by
the GE9X jet?
1) 7.25% 2) 2.25% 3) 9.25% 4) 8.25% 5) 6.25%
151. Find the sum of wrong number of the series.
C
I. 785, 790, 800, 817, 858
II. 458, 462, 474, 492, 516, 546
1) 1275 2) 1316 3) 1226 4) 1195 5) 1216
152. I. 123, 255, 411, 593, A
II. 122, 231, 353, 584, 937, B
Find the sum of A and B.
1) 2324 2) 2202 3) 2310 4) 2450 5) 2325
153. I. 45, 46, 50, 77, 333, A
II. 852, 751, 850, 748, 846, B
Find relation between A and B.
1) A - 4B = 486 2) A – B = 2953 3) A + B = 3953
4) A + 2B = 4254 5) None of these

23
Sreedhar’s CCE IBPS PO-XIV-MAINS - MT - 12

Direction (154-155): The question consists of a question and two statements I

and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the
appropriate option:
154. If ab - c = 212, then what is the value of ‘b’?
Statement I: (a - b) + 2 × (b - c) = b – 2 × (c - 1)
Statement II: b: c = 7:5
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

r’s
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question
4) The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question
ha
5) The data given in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer
the question.

E
155. If 22a4b4 is a 6-digit number, then find the value of (a - b).
d
Statement I: (a + b) = 6
Statement II: 22a4b4 is divisible by 36
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
ee

data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
C
3) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
Sr

4) The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
5) The data given in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer
the question.

KEY
C
1.4 2.3 3.4 4.1 5.2 6.4 7.3 8.2 9.1 10.3
11.2 12.1 13.2 14.4 15.3 16.1 17.3 18.5 19.2 20.4
21.5 22.4 23.1 24.4 25.4 26.4 27.4 28.2 29.4 30.3
31.4 32.2 33.1 34.4 35.1 36.3 37.2 38.3 39.1 40.4
41.1 42.4 43.1 44.3 45.4 46.1 47.5 48.4 49.3 50.1 SCAN QR FOR
51.4 52.1 53.2 54.5 55.1 56.2 57.2 58.4 59.1 60.5 OUR RESULTS
61.5 62.1 63.4 64.5 65.3 66.4 67.4 68.3 69.5 70.3
71.4 72.5 73.2 74.5 75.3 76.2 77.3 78.4 79.3 80.4
81.5 82.2 83.5 84.3 85.4 86.2 87.1 88.3 89.4 90.5
91.3 92.2 93.1 94.5 95.4 96.1 97.3 98.2 99.5 100.3
101.4 102.4 103.2 104.1 105.2 106.1 107.5 108.2 109.4 110.1
111.3 112.4 113.1 114.5 115.2 116.2 117.4 118.4 119.5 120.4
121.1 122.3 123.1 124.1 125.2 126.3 127.5 128.1 129.2 130.5
131.2 132.2 133.5 134.1 135.1 136.5 137.3 138.2 139.1 140.2
141.3 142.4 143.2 144.1 145.1 146.2 147.1 148.3 149.4 150.5
151.2 152.1 153.1 154.5 155.4

24