Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

LOGICAL REASONING, DATA ANALYSIS & INTERPRETATION

1. If “2” is subtracted from each odd digit and ‘3’ is added to each even digit in the

r’s
number 5637429, which of the following numbers will appear twice in the new
number thus formed ?
1) Only 1 2) Both 2 and 3 3) Only 3
4) Both 5 and 7 5) None
Direction (2-7): Study the following information and answer the given questions:
Seven Friends namely, A, B, C, D, E, F and G eat seven different fruits viz.
ha
Mango, Orange, Banana, Guava, Apple, Strawberry and Kiwi on seven different
days starting from Monday to Sunday (of the same week).

E
E eats a fruit on Wednesday. Only one person eats between E and the one
who eats Apple. Only three people eat between the one who eats Apple and the
one who eats Kiwi. G eats on a day immediately before the one who eats Kiwi.
d
Only two people eat between G and the one who eats Orange. Only four people
eat between B and the one who eats Mango. B does not eat Orange. A eats on a
day immediately before F. A does not eat Mango. Only two people eat between F
ee

and the one who eats Banana. D neither eats Orange nor Guava.
2. Which of the following fruit does G eat ?
1) Apple 2) Strawberry 3) Banana 4) Mango 5) Guava
C
3. As per the given arrangement, D is related to the one who eats Kiwi and G is
related to the one who eats Orange in a certain way. Following the same way, to
Sr

which B is related ?
1) The one who eats Mango 2) The one who eats Guava
3) The one who eats Banana
4) The one who eats Strawberry 5) The one who eats Apple
4. Who amongst the following eats Strawberry ?
1) B 2) F 3) D 4) C 5) G
C
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group as per
the given arrangement. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?
1) G-Wednesday 2) D-Saturday 3) B-Tuesday
4) E-Thursday 5) F-Friday
6. On which of the following days does F eat a fruit ?
1) Saturday 2) Sunday 3) Monday 4) Friday 5) Tuesday
7. Which of the following is true about C ?
1) C eats a fruit immediately after F
2) C eats a fruit on Thursday 3) C eats Kiwi
4) All the given statements are true
5) Only two people eat a fruit between C and A
8. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 48167352 (in both in
forward and backward directions), each of which has as many digits between
them as in the arithmetic numerical order?
1) More than three 2) Two 3) One 4) None 5) Three

1
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

Direction (9-13): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in
such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A,
B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing the south. In row-2 P, Q, R,
S, T and U are seated and all of them are facing the north. Therefore, in the given
seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the
other row.
B sits fourth to the right of F. The one facing B sits second to the left of U.
Only two people sit between U and R. The one facing C sits third to the right of Q.
Only one person sits between C and E. E does not sit at any of the extreme

r’s
ends of the line. The one facing T sits to the immediate left of A.
P is an immediate neighbour of T. P does not sit at any of the extreme ends
of the line.
9. Which of the following is true regarding S ?
1) F is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces S
ha
2) Both R and P are immediate neighbours of S
3) S sits second to right of Q
4) None of the given options is true

10.

E
5) Only one person sits between S and T
Which of the following is true with respect to the given information ?
1) A faces U 2) R faces one of the immediate neighbours of C
d
3) U is an immediate neighbour of Q
4) None of the given options is true 5) B sits exactly between F and D
ee

11. Which of the following group of people represents the persons sitting at extreme
ends of both the rows ?
1) C, F, T, U 2) A, B, R, T 3) B, D, S, U 4) D, F, Q, U 5) B, D, Q, R
C
12. Who amongst the following faces P ?
1) F 2) D 3) C 4) A 5) B
Sr

13. Who amongst the following sits second to the right of the person who faces T?
1) F 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) C
Direction (14-18): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions:
When a word and number arrangement machine is given to an input line of
words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is
an illustration of input and rearrangement: (All the numbers are two digit numbers).
C
Input: 15 happy outer 82 credit 23 49 uniform angle 68 jewels 74
Step I: 49 15 happy outer 82 credit 23 uniform 68 jewels 74 angle
Step II: 23 49 15 happy 82 credit uniform 68 jewels 74 angle outer
Step III: 15 23 49 happy 82 credit 68 jewels 74 angle outer uniform
Step IV: credit 15 23 49 happy 68 jewels 74 angle outer uniform 82
Step V: happy credit 15 23 49 68 jewels angle outer uniform 82 74
Step VI: jewels happy credit 15 23 49 angle outer uniform 82 74 68
Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement
is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate
steps for the given input.
Input: iconic 31 86 machine 29 easier 62 raisins 17 unfair 54 pacify
14. If in the last step, ‘17’ interchanges its position with ‘iconic’ and “pacify” also
interchanges its position with ‘86’ then which element will be seventh to the
right of “machine”?
1) 62 2) 86 3) 17 4) iconic 5) pacify

2
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

15. Which element is third to the left of the one which is tenth from the left end in
Step IV of the given input ?
1) iconic 2) 54 3) 86 4) raisins 5) pacify
16. In which step the elements “31 62 easier iconic” found in the same order ?
1) Fifth 2) Sixth
3) The given order of elements is not found in any step.
4) Third 5) Fourth
17. Which elements come exactly between ‘86’ and ‘raisins’ in Step III of the given
input ?
1) Both machine and 62 2) Only pacify 3) Only 31

r’s
4) Both easier and 17 5) Only 29
18. Which of the following combinations represent the first two and last two elements
in Step V of the given input?
1) unfair, easier, 31,29 2) machine, raisins, 54, 86
3) pacify, unfair, 29, 62 4) raisins, pacify, 62, 54

19.
ha
5) pacify, machine, 86, 62
The following series is based on the English alphabets. Which of the following will
come in the place of the question mark (?) in the given series ?
AZD CYH EXL GWP
1) HUT 2) ITV

E ?
3) HVS 4) IVT 5) IWU
d
Direction (20-24) :Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Eight people - D, E, F, G, O, P, Q and R live on eight different floors of a
ee

building but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building
is numbered as one, the one above that is numbered as two and so on till the top
mostfloor is numbered as eight.
C
G lives on an odd numbered floor but not on the lowermost floor. Only three
people live between G and P. As many people live between P and R as between R
Sr

and G. E lives immediately above R. Only three people live between R and D. Q
lives immediately below D. F lives on one of the floors below Q.
20. Who amongst the following lives on the floor numbered six ?
1) D 2) R 3) O 4) F 5) Q
21. If G and D interchange their places and so do F and R, then who will live between
D and F as per the new arrangement ?
1) G 2) E 3) Otherthan those given as options
C
4) Q 5) P
22. On which of the following floor numbers does O live ?
1) Six 2) Eight 3) Two 4) Seven 5) Three
23. Who amongst the following live exactly between D and E ?
1) R, F 2) F, P 3) Q, O 4) G, Q 5) G, R
24. As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way,
and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group ?
1) ED 2) RP 3) EQ 4) DG 5) RG
25. If only one meaningful English word can be made with the first, the seventh, the
eighth and the tenth letters of the word INSTRUMENT, using each letter only
once, then which of the following will be the third letter of the word from the left
end. If no such word can be formed then your answer is X. If more than one such
word can be formed then your answer is Z ?
1) X 2) Z 3) M 4) T 5) E

3
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

Direction (26-30): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
In a certain code language:
‘sing when they come’ is coded as ‘jk ec su ro’
‘play songs when sad’ is coded as ‘gn bg jk ud’
‘they sing new songs’ is coded as ‘su gn ro ly’
‘come and play here’ is coded as ‘bg ki ar ec’
(Note: All codes are two letter codes only)
26. In the given code language, if ‘there’ is coded as ‘ow’, then how will ‘here and

r’s
there’ be coded as ?
1) ow ar ki 2) ow ki ec 3) ec ow bg 4) bg ar ow 5) ar ki bg
27. What will be the possible code for ‘when children play’ in the given code language ?
1) ec ca bg 2) jk ar bg 3) bg jk ca 4) ik bg ty 5) ca ty jk
28. What will be the code for ‘sad’ in the given code language ?
1) jk
ha 2) bg
4) Other than those given as options
3) gn
5) ud
29. What is the code for ‘songs’ in the given code language ?

30.
1) ud 2) gn

E 3) ty 4) jk
What does the code ‘su’ stand for in the given code language ?
5) bg
d
1) new 2) either “they” or sing” 3) either “when” or “songs”
4) and 5) come
Drection (31-35): In this question two/three statements followed Dy two
ee

conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
C
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
31. Statements : Only a few cards are posts. All posts are mails.
Sr

All mails are letters.

Conclusion I: Atleast some letters are cards.
Conclusion II: All posts are letters.
1) Only Conclusion II follows 2) Both Conclusions I and II follow
3) Only Conclusion I follows 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
5) Either Conclusion I or II follows
C
32. Statements : All logos are emblems. No emblem is a symbol.
Only a few symbols are badges.
Conclusion I: No symbol is a logo.
Conclusion II: Atleast some emblems are badges.
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
3) Either Conclusion I or II follows
4) Only Conclusion II follows 5) Both Conclusions I and II follows
33. Statements: Only pen is copy. Some pens are books
All books are notes.
Conclusion I:All pens being notes is a possibility.
Conclusion II: Some pens are not book.
1) Both conclusions I and II follow 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Only conclusion I follows
5) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

34. Statements: Only Iron is Gold Some iron is silver

No silver is nickel.
Conclusion I: Some nickel is not silver.
Conclusion II: Some iron is not nickel.
1) Either Conclusion I or II follows 2) Both Conclusions I and II follow
3) Only Conclusion II follows
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 5) Only Conclusion I follows
35. Statements: No scar is a mark. Only a few marks are blots.
Conclusion I: Some blots are scars.
Conclusion II: No blot is a scar.

r’s
1) Only Conclusion II follows 2) Only Conclusion I follows
3) Either Conclusion I or II follows
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 5) Both Conclusions I and II follow
Direction(36-37) : In this question relationship between different elements is
shown in the statement/s. The statement/s is/are followed by two conclusions.
Study the given conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the

36.
ha
appropriate option as your answer.
Statements : H > J  S  T ; N  T ; B  S
Conclusion I: H >T
Conclusion II: J  B

E
1) Either Conclusion I or II is true 2) Both Conclusions I and II are true
d
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
4) Only Conclusion I is true 5) Only Conclusion II is true
37. Statements : D > B  N < W = U ; N  S
ee

Conclusion I: D > S Conclusion II: U  S

1) Both Conclusions I and II are true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true
3) Only Conclusion II is true
C
4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 5) Only Conclusion I is true
Direction (38-41): Read the sentence and six statements following it carefully
and answer the given question.
Sr

Management of School Y decided to include Environmental studies as one of the

subjects from next term onwards for all standards above 6th.
(A) Almost all of the topics in Environmental studies are already being taught in
the syllabus for Biology and Chemistry.
(B) At present Environmental studies is not being taught as a subject in School Y.
(C) Students studying in standards below 6th have no knowledge about
C
environment.
(D) Teachers capable of teaching environmental studies would be available in the
school for the next term.
(E) Students” knowledge and understanding regarding the environment would
improve.
(F) The management has decided to exclude Environmental studies from the
syllabi of standards 10th and 12th in order to relieve the students for preparations
of board exams.
38. Parents of many students protested against this decision made by the school
management. Which of the Statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
mentioned above would strengthen the parents’ argument?
1) (D) 2) Both (C) and (E) 3) (A) 4) (B) 5) (E)
39. Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C) and (F) mentioned above can be
assumed from the facts/information given in the statement? (An assumption is
something supposed or taken for granted)
1) (C) 2) (A) 3) (F) 4) Both (A) and (C) 5) (B)

5
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

40. Which of the statements numbered (A), (C), (D) and (F) can be inferred from the
information given in the sentence? (An inference is something that is not directly
stated but can be inferred from the given information)
1) (A) 2) (F) 3) (C) 4) Both (A) and (F) 5) (D)
Direction (41-45): Refer to the pie charts and answer the given question :
Distribution of number of wallets (both bi-fold and tri-fold) sold by 5 stores in
2022. Total number: 4200

A, 18%

r’s
E, 23%

ha
D, 15%
B, 32%

E C, 12%
d
Distribution of number of tri-fold wallets sold by 5 stores in 2022 :
ee

Total number: 1800

C
E, 21% A, 20%
Sr

D, 20% B, 24%
C
C, 15%

41. Number of tri-fold wallets sold by store A is what percent less than the number of
wallets (both bi-fold and tri-fold) sold by store D ?
2 6 2 6
1) 55 7 2) 42 7 % 3) 36 7 4) 40 5) 44 7

42. What is the average number of bi-fold wallets sold by stores B, C and E ?
1) 584 2) 534 3) 578 4) 576 5) 592
43. What is the difference between total number of bi-fold wallets sold by stores B
and D together and total number of tri-fold wallets sold by the same stores together ?
1) 350 2) 390 3) 410 4) 430 5) 370

6
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

44. If 25% of the number of wallets (both bi-fold and tri-fold) sold by store C and 50%
of that sold by store E are of brand ‘X’, what is the total number of brand ‘X’
wallets (both bi-fold and tri-fold) sold by stores C and E together ?
1) 609 2) 603 3) 623 4) 625 5) 617
45. What is the central angle corresponding to number of wallets (both bi-fold and tri-
fold) sold by store E ?
1) 88.6° 2) 78.2° 3) 84.6° 4) 82.8° 5) 92.4°
Direction(46-50) : Study the following information carefully to answer the question.
ABC Sports Complex offers classes for swimming, lawn tennis and

r’s
badminton for its members. It has 800 members. The respective ratio between
Children and Adults is 5:3. Each member joins one or more classes.
Out of the total children 40% are girls and remaining are boys.

3
ha
Out of the total girls, one-fourth join only badminton
8
th join both swimming and

lawn tennis, 25% join both badminton and lawn tennis and the remaining join all
three classes.

E
Out of the total boys, one-sixth join only swimming
5
th join both badminton and
d
12
lawn tennis, one-fourth join both badminton and swimming and the remaining
join all three classes.
ee

Out of the total adults, 60% are women and remaining are men.

2
C
Out of the total women th join only swimming, one-third join both badminton
9
and lawn tennis, one-sixth join both swimming and lawn tennis and the remaining
Sr

join all three classes.

Out of the total men, half of them join only lawn tennis, one-fourth join only
swimming, one-sixth join both badminton and swimming and the remaining join
all three classes.
46. What percent of the total no. of children have joined Lawn Tennis class ?
C
1) 58 2) 46 3) 68 4) 54 5) 65
47. What is the difference between the total number of female (girl + women) members
who join more than one class and the total number of male (boy + men) members
who join more than one class ?
1) 17 2) 15 3) 10 4) 12 5) 8
48. Out of the total members of ‘ABC’ Sports Complex what percent members have
joined only swimming class ?
1) 22 2) 15 3) 12 4) 17 5) 20
49. Total how many members join swimming as well as badminton classes ?
1) 245 2) 221 3) 257 4) 230 5) 212
50. What is the respective ratio between the number of adults who do not join
badminton and the number of children who do not join badminton ?
1) 32 : 25 2) 31 : 27 3) 31 : 25 4) 33 : 25 5) 32 : 27

7
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

Direction (51-55) : Refer to the graph and answer the given question :
Amounts of Income and Expenditure (in Rs. Thousand)
of a businessman during 6 given years :

Income Expenditure
Amounts of Income and Expenditure (In Rs.

900

r’s
800
800
720 680 760
700 720

600 640
520 560
Thousands)

500 480
400
340
ha 380
420

300
200
100

E
d
0
2021 2022 2023 2024 2025 2026
ee

Years
C
Note : (i) Profit = (Income - Expenditure)
(ii) Percent Profit = (Profit / Expenditure) x 100
Sr

(iii) Loss = (Expenditure - Income)

(iv) Percent Loss = (Loss / Expenditure) x 100
51. What is the percent loss incurred by the businessman in 2022 and 2025 together ?

11 3 15 1 1
1) 17 2) 24 3) 15 4) 21 5) 28
19 10 19 19 19
C
52. What is the respective ratio between total profit earned by the businessman in
2021 and 2023 together and total loss incurred by him in 2022 and 2025 together ?
1) 13 : 8 2) 17 : 14 3) 13 : 10 4) 15 : 8 5) 17 : 12
53. Profit earned by the businessman increased by what percent from 2021 to 2026 ?

5 2 4 1 7
1) 55 2) 52 3) 48 4) 45 5) 50
9 9 9 9 9
54. What is the average profit earned by the businessman in 2021,2024 and 2026
together ? (in Rs Thousand)
1) 240 2) 220 3) 260 4) 200 5) 280
55. What is the percent profit earned by the businessman in 2024 and 2026 together ?
1) 70 2) 55 3) 60 4) 50 5) 65

8
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

Direction (56-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
The bar graph shows the percentage distribution of the number of students,
who purchased textbooks for different subjects in two different schools.

30% 28% 28% 26%

24%
25% 22%

r’s
20%
14% School A
15% 13%
12%
School B
9%
10% 8% 8%
8%
5%

0%
ha
Maths Science English Hindi Social Telugu

E
Note: The ratio of the total students in school A to that of B is 7:3.
d
56. The total number of Students who purchased Hindi textbooks in School A is 945
more than the total number of Students who purchased Maths textbooks in School
B, then find the total number of Students who purchased Telugu Textbooks in
ee

School A and School B together?

1) 1427 2) 1724 3) 1323 4) 1524 5) 1627
57. The number of girls who purchased Science Textbooks in School B is 40% more
C
than the number of boys who purchased Science Textbooks in School B, which is
25% of the number of boys who purchased Science Textbooks in School A. If the
Sr

total number of Students who purchased Social Textbooks in School B is 540,

then find the number of girls who purchased Science Textbooks in School A.
1) 2400 2) 3640 3) 2640 4) 1240 5) 1340
58. If the total number of Students who purchased Science Textbooks in School A
and School B together is 508, then the total number of Students who purchased
Hindi textbooks and Social Textbooks together in School A is what percentage
C
more than the total number of Students who purchased Hindi textbooks and
Social Textbooks together from School B?
700 301 412 122 142
1) % 2) % 3) % 4) % 5) %
3 6 7 3 7
59. If the number of Students who purchased Science Textbooks in School B is 160
more than the number of Students who purchased English textbooks in School A,
then find the average number of Students who purchased Social Textbooks in
Schools A and B together?
1) 395 2) 415 3) 515 4) 495 5) 595
60. Total number of Students in School B who purchased Social Textbooks and English
textbooks together is how much more than the total number of Students in School
A who purchased English textbooks. If it is given that the total students of School
B is 90 more than the total number of Students in School A, who purchased
Hindi textbooks and Social Textbooks together.
1) 50 2) 100 3) 56 4) 64 5)10

9
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (61-70): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration has /A/announced the creation
of a new ‘Working Group on Empowerment of Women/B/’ to support the G20
Women’s Ministerial, with the first /C/meeting scheduled during Brazil’s G20
presidency/D/. While addressing various aspects of women’s empowerment, such
as wage gaps, sexual violence, employment opportunities, and food security, a
significant __________of the summit was on halving the digital gender gap by
2030. This commitment involves addressing gender norms and barriers to digital
technology accessibility, affordability, adoption, and use. The declaration also

r’s
calls for regulatory policy frameworks that enable women and girls to actively
participate in national digital strategies and develop digital literacy and skills.
We appreciate the theme of 'Women-Led Inclusive Development at the Cusp of
Inter-Generational Transformation' chosen for the G20 Ministerial Conference
on Women Empowerment during India's G20 Presidency and to advance gender
equality and empowerment of all women and girls by encouraging all the relevant
G20 working ...
ha
The creation of the ‘Working Group on Empowerment of Women’ within the
G20 framework signifies a strong commitment to advancing women’s rights and

E
gender equality on a global scale. This working group is a dedicated platform for
addressing issues related to women’s empowerment, including economic
opportunities, safety, and digital inclusion. Its creation underscores the G20’s
d
recognition of the importance of actively engaging and supporting women in various
aspects of society and the economy. By focusing on women’s empowerment, the
G20 aims to foster inclusive and sustainable development, bridging gender
ee

disparities, and ensuring that women have equal opportunities and protections in
the digital age and beyond.
The G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration outlines a comprehensive approach
to bridge the digital gender gap by 2030. It involves addressing gender norms and
C
removing barriers to digital technology accessibility, affordability, adoption, and
usage. The declaration advocates for regulatory policy frameworks that facilitate
Sr

the participation of women and girls in national digital strategies, focusing on

enhancing digital literacy and skills. Additionally, it emphasizes the need for
safety-by-design approaches in digital tools and technologies to protect women
and girls from potential risks associated with digitalization. By promoting gender-
responsive policies and an inclusive digital economy, the G20 aims to ensure that
women can actively engage in and benefit from the digital world. The G20 New
Delhi Declaration recognizes the interconnectedness of gender equality and
climate action. It acknowledges that climate change, biodiversity loss,
C
desertification, and pollution disproportionately affect women and girls. To address
this, the declaration emphasizes the need to integrate gender equality into climate
change mitigation, adaptation, and disaster risk reduction strategies. It calls for
increased women’s participation, partnership, decision-making, and leadership
in environmental policy frameworks. By doing so, the G20 aims to create a more
inclusive and effective approach to climate action, recognizing that women’s
perspectives and contributions are essential for sustainable environmental
solutions and resilience in the face of environmental challenges.
61. How does the G20 New Delhi Declaration connect gender equality with climate
action?
1. The declaration emphasizes the need to integrate gender equality into climate
change mitigation, adaptation, and disaster risk reduction strategies.
2. It acknowledges that climate change, biodiversity loss, desertification, and
pollution disproportionately affect women and girls.
3. The creation of the ‘Working Group on Empowerment of Women’ within the G20
framework signifies a strong commitment to advancing women’s rights and gender
equality on a global scale.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both I & II 4) Both II&III 5) All the above

10
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

62. Find out the most suitable antonym of the bold word BRIDGING in the passage?
1) crossing 2) contracting 3) auctioning 4) spanning 5) detaching
63. What are the G20 summit 2023 gender equality and women empowerment?
1) The G20 leaders have agreed to establish a new Working Group on Empowerment
of Women.
2) Increasing investment in and access to education and skilling.
3) It does not call for increased women’s participation, partnership, decision-
making, and leadership in environmental policy frameworks.
4) Gender norms and barriers to digital technology accessibility, affordability,

r’s
adoption, and use.
5) All the above
64. Find out the ERROR in the bold underlined sentence given in the passage?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
65. State which of the following is /are regarding the context of the passage.
ha
I. It i nvolves creating an environment where women can participate in society
and the economy on an equal footing with men, and where their voices are heard
and their rights are protected.

E
II. The declaration advocates for regulatory policy frameworks that facilitate the
participation of women and girls in national digital strategies, focusing on
d
enhancing digital literacy and skills.
III. The self-confidence of women is increased and they make progress contributing
to the growth of the nation.
ee

1) Only II 2) Only I 3) All the above 4) Both II&III

5) Both I&III
66. Choose the better contextual word that fits in the blank given in the passage?
C
1) minimization 2) emphasis 3) lethargy 4) triviality
5) ignorance
Sr

67. According to passage, what is the theme of G20 gender equality and women
empowerment?
1) Promoting women's sense of self-worth, their ability to determine their own
choices, and their right to influence social change for themselves and others.
2) G20 leaders agreed to set up a Working Group on the empowerment of women
to support the G20 Women's Ministerial.
C
3) G20 Ministerial Conference on Women Empowerment during India's G20
Presidency and to advance gender equality and empowerment of all women and
girls by encouraging all the relevant G20 working.
1) Both 1&2 2) Only 1 3) Only 3 4)Both 2&3 5) All 1,2&3
68. How does the G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration plan to bridge the digital
gender gap by 2030?
1) Recognizing that women’s perspectives and contributions are essential for
sustainable environmental solutions
2) G20 framework signifies a strong commitment to advancing women’s rights
and gender equality on a global scale.
3) Close gender gaps and promote the full, equal, effective and meaningful.
4) It involves addressing gender norms and removing barriers to digital technology
accessibility, affordability, adoption, and usage.
5) None of these

11
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

69. Find out the suitable synonym of the bold word RESILIENCE in the passage?
1)Persistence 2)Helplessness 3)Reliance 4) Impotence 5)Dependence
70. What is the significance of the creation of the ‘working Group on Employement of
Women’ within the G20 framework?
1) Its creation underscores the G20’s recognition to have a voice and have fresh
and varied thinking and perspective.
2) Its creation is essential to the health and social development of families,
communities and countries
3) Its creation underscores the G20’s recognition of the importance of actively
engaging and supporting women in various aspects of society and the economy.

r’s
4) To increase their bargaining power, confidence, decision-making autonomy,
and give them choices
5) None of these
Directions (71-75): Read the following passage and carefully answer the fillers
with appropriate options given below.
ha
Rainy days — (71) —- different from any other day. They hold great importance
for everyone — (72) —-. People have different reasons to — (73) —- for the Rainy
Season eagerly. After all, it brings a sigh relief for everyone. No matter what the

E
weather may be, a rainy day relaxes and soothes our soul. There is no age limit
to— (74) —- rainy days people of almost every age enjoy it equally. Thus, rainy
days are very important for a number— (75) —- reasons.
d
71. 1) are 2) is 3) on 4) from 5) was
72. 1) resembling 2) liked 3) differently 4) similarity 5) normal
ee

73. 1) going 2) wait 3) acting 4) continuation 5) doing

74. 1) needed 2) lacked 3) hating 4) disliked 5) enjoy
75. 1) in 2) on 3) across 4) of 5) between
C
Directions (76-80): In this question, words (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) are given in
bold. If two of these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the pair of words, if interchanged which will make
Sr

the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. That pair is your answer. If
all the words are appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
76. A geomagnetic (A) storm may hit the Earth’s atmosphere (B) and the weather
experts have been keeping a close watch on it. The high-speed solar storm (C)
has been moving towards the expected (D) of the Earth and is direction (E) to
batter the parts of it.
C
1) B-A 2) C-B 3) D-C 4) E-D 5) No Correction is required
77. According (A) to the National Aeronautics and Space administration (B) (NASA),
a high-speed solar storm is kilometers (C) the Earth at a speed of 1.6 million
approaching (D) per hour and is expected to hit the magnetic (E) field of our
planet later today.
1) B-A 2) C-B 3) D-C 4) E-D 5) No Correction is required
78. The Kerala state government has decided to impose (A) a complete lockdown on
July 17 and July 18, 2021. The Goa state government has further (B) the state
lockdown till July 19, 2021 with extended (C) relaxatios in the restrictions (D) by
allowing gyms to open with 50 percent capacity. (E)
1) B-A 2) C-B 3) D-C 4) E-D 5) No Correction is required
79. Earlier in 2020, the Rajasthan Government had upgrading (A) the plan of
announced (B) the sanctuary (C) as a Tiger Reserve for providing an additional
(D) habitat to the tigers of Ranthambore Reserve and improving (E) the ecosystem.
1) B-A 2) C-B 3) D-C 4) E-D 5) No Correction is required

12
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

80. Zomato is looking to raise (A) around Rs 9,375 crore through its offering (B)
public initial (C) The Zomato IPO will comprise (D)a fresh issue of shares worth
Rs 9000 crore and Rs 375 crore offer for sale by its current shareholder (E)Info
Edge India Ltd.
1) B-A 2) C-B 3) D-C 4) E-D 5) No Correction is required
Directions (81-85): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, fits the
blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully.
81. Draft the advertisement according to the particular circumstances of the business
to be____________.
1) cutting 2) clear 3) sold 4) withdrew 5) ridding

r’s
82. I don’t start drinking wine until after I have had something to eat in case the
alcohol affects my _____________!
1) deficiency 2) failing 3) instability 4) willpower 5) inconstancy
83. Every thought and feeling that had entered Ace’s mind had appeared ________ on
her face.
1) separated 2) alone 3) respective 4) singled 5) simultaneously
84.
ha
Officials stated that building a dam for irrigation purposes was _________
impractical.
1) hopelessly 2) positive 3) confident 4) assured 5) flat
85.
_________ effort.
1) Uncoordinated

E
We shall only succeed in dealing with the problems through a vast international

2) cooperative 3) hurting
d
4) divided 5) encumbering
Directions (86-90): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and
(E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
ee

questions given below.

(A) With more than a dozen distinct languages, scripts and religions, India is
multiculturalism on the grandest scale.
C
(B) India is the world’s most populous democracy and will, by 2030, be the most
populous country, overtaking China.
Sr

(C) And it is young — there are more Indian 10-year-olds than there are
Australians.
(D) It’s easy to understand why India will play a central role in our region and
the world.
(E) To sustain a vibrant modern democracy, surely India is one of the greatest
political achievements of our times.
86. Which of the following will be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
C
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
87. Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
88. Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
89. Which of the following will be FIFTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
90. Which of the following will be FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (91-95): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any
grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
Mark the error part as your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark ‘No
error’ (E) as your answer (Ignore errors of Punctuation, if any).
91. The teacher post recruitment results were announced six months ago (A) / and
the selected candidates have been looking forward (B)/ to receive the appointment
orders (C) / from the government since then. (D) /
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

13
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

92. The CEO of KEC International Ltd. commented (A) / that they were delightful
with the continuous inflow of orders (B) / and the prestigious solar order had
reaffirmed their confidence (C) / that the Renewable EPC business would contribute
significantly to their growth. (D) /
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
93. Kamala Harris, a former US Senator and California attorney general would be
the first woman (A) / to become president of the United States (B) / if she is the
party’s nominee (C) / and prevailed in the November 5 election.(D) /
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
94. Over a year after the conflict began, (A) / the State government of Manipur has
been downplaying (B) / the role of banned outfits (C) / even when Central forces

r’s
posted in Manipur have reported its presence. (D) /
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
95. Government and large corporations need to complement each other (A) / to create
the right ecosystem (B) / and well-crafted policies stimulate innovation, streamline
regulations (C) / and improve access to financial resources. (D) /
1) A 2) B
ha 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (96-100): In each question there is a statement followed by three
starters which are denoted by i, ii, and iii Each starter is a group of first few

E
words of the sentence which on proper completion, is supposed to convey the
same meaning of the original statement. Find out which one or more starters can
form grammatically correct sentences(s) to convey the SAME meaning of the original
d
statement.
96. A decline of 8.66% in the net profit was reported by Nestle India. The loss is
caused largely because of the demonetisation drive of November.
ee

(i)Reporting a loss of…….

(ii) Nestle India reported 8.66%………
(iii) Declining at 8.66%…..
C
1) Only (i) 2) Only (ii) 3) Only (iii) 4) None 5) Both (ii) and (iii)
97. All the fuel cell vehicles are being recalled by Toyota. These cars have software
glitches that can shut off the engine.
Sr

(i) Toyota is recalling ………

(ii) Software glitches that can………
(iii) Recalling all the fuel cell……..
1)Only (i) 2) Only (ii) 3) Only (iii) 4) None 5) Both (i) and (iii)
98. SEBI has allowed bourses to penalize listed companies in case they violate
securities law. This is a part of efforts to further empower stock exchange.
C
(i) To penalize listed companies……..
(ii) This is a part of……..
(iii) As part of efforts to further…….
1) Only (i) 2) Only (ii) 3) Only (iii) 4) None 5) Both (ii) and (iii)
99. The government curtailed the tenure of Ajay Tyagi as the next chief of SEBI by
two years. The step was taken barely a week after his name was cleared to
succeed incumbent U.K Sinha
(i) His name was cleared………
(ii) The step was taken………
(iii) Tenure of Ajay Tyagi as………..
1) Only (i) 2) Only (ii) 3) Only (iii) 4) None 5) Both (i) and (iii)
100. The government may revive the seeds bill after assembly election in 5 states are
over. The seed bill seeks to regulate seeds and plant material to ensure quality.
(i) After assembly elections in……
(ii) Reviving the seeds bill…….
(iii) Regulating seeds and plant…….
1) Only (i) 2) Only (ii) 3) Only (iii) 4) None 5) All

14
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
2
101. A and B together can finish a piece of work in 10 days. B and C together can
7
1
finish the same piece of work in 13 days. B is 25% more efficient than C. In how
3
many days A and C together can finish the same piece of work ?
4 7 1 1 5
1) 4 2) 5 3) 11 4) 7 5) 6 13
13 13 4 13

r’s
102. Sum of present ages of Ria and Abby is 48 years. At present, Abby is 4 years older
to Sue. Respective ratio of present ages of Ria and Sue is 4 : 7, What was Abby’s
age 2 years earlier ?
1) 38 years 2) 28 years 3) 32 years 4) 30 years 5) 36 years
103. A boat can travel 2.75 km upstream in 11 minutes. The respective ratio of speed
ha
of the stream and speed of the boat downstream is 1 : 7. If the boat takes 52
minutes to travel from point A to B (downstream), what is the distance between
point A and B ? (in km)
1) 18.2 2) 19.2

E 3) 19.6 4) 17.8 5) 18.4

104. The area of a rectangle is equal to the area of a square whose diagonal is 12 6
d
m. If the difference between length and breadth of the rectangle is 6 m., what is
the perimeter of the rectangle ? (in m.)
ee

1) 96 2) 76 3) 72 4) 84 5) 88
105. An equal amount of money is invested, in Scheme A for 6 years and Scheme B for
8 years, both offering 8% simple interest per annum. Difference in the interest
C
earned from both the schemes is Rs. 1280. For how many years should the same
amount of money be invested to earn the same amount of interest as in Scheme
A, at 12% simple interest per annum ?
Sr

1) 4.5 years 2) 4.2 years 3) 5 years 4) 3 years 5) 4 years

106. A dealer offers 25% discount on the marked price of an article and thereby makes
a loss of 10%. If the marked price of the item was Rs. 4,800. How much discount
should he offer on the marked price so as to make a profit of Rs. 440 on the item?
1) 8% 2) 7% 3) 7.25% 4) 8.5% 5) 7.5%
107. In a 40 litres mixture of milk and water, percentage of water is only 15%. The
C
milkman gave 10 litres of this mixture to a customer and then added 12.5 litres of
water in the remaining mixture. What is the respective ratio of milk and water in
the new mixture ?
1) 3 : 1 2) 3 : 2 3) 5 : 3 4) 12 : 7 5) 5 : 4
108. A bag contains 4 white balls, 4 red balls and 2 green balls. If two balls are picked
at random, what is the probability that at least one ball is green ?
11 19 26 28 17
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
45 45 45 45 45
109. A man gives 20% of his monthly salary to his one daughter and one son in the
respective ratio of 3 : 2. Twice the amount he gave to his daughter, he invested in
1
LIC, of the remaining amount he gave 4 th to his wife. If he is left with Rs.

16,800, how much did he invest in LIC ?

1) Rs. 12,600 2) Rs. 12,400 3) Rs. 9,600 4) Rs. 9,400 5) Rs. 9,200

15
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

110. A, B and C invest in a business and the share of their investment is in the
respective ratio of 0.125 : 0.75 : 0.25. After 8 months from the start of the business.
A invests twice his investment and C withdraws half of his investment. At the
end of the year profit recorded was Rs. 6,900. How much was B’s profit share ?
1) Rs. 4,460 2) Rs. 5,600 3) Rs. 5,650 4) Rs. 4,600 5) Rs. 4,200
Direction (111-115) : What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given
number series ?
111. 5 16 49 104 ? 280
1) 169 2) 193 3) 181 4) 197 5) 179
112. 24 12 12 18 ? 90

r’s
1) 30 2) 48 3) 36 4) 45 5) 42
113. 125 128 119 146 65 ?
1) 308 2) 332 3) 298 4) 316 5) 288
114. 13 19 30 48 75 ?
1) 99 2) 117 3) 105 4) 113 5) 123
115. 17
1) 117
23 36 56
2) 115
83
ha
?
3) 120 4) 100 5) 110
Direction (116-120) : Study the table to answer the given question.

E
Data regarding number of students studying in Courses A, B, C and D of a
College, throughout the years
d
2020 2021 2022
Total Female Total Female Total Female
ee

Courses Students Students Students Students Students Students

Studying Studying Studying
A 840 378 820 533 800 432
C
B 1200 660 1200 600 1250 750
C 950 342 900 360 980 441
D 900 540 860 602 700 525
Sr

(Note: Total Students: Male Students + Female Students) Data related to the
mentioned years and courses only
116. Number of students studying in Course D decreased by what percent from the
year 2020 to 2022 ?
2 2 4 7 4
C
1) 22 2) 24 3) 22 4) 22 4) 24
9 9 9 9 9
117. Approximately, what percent of the total number of students studying in all the
given courses together in the year 2020 are Females ?
1) 49 2) 30 3) 60 4) 40 5) 35
118. What is the average number of females studying in all the given courses together
in the year 2022 ?
1) 537 2) 517 3) 527 4) 520 5) 530
119. In the year 2023, the total number of students studying in all the given courses
together, increased by 20% from the previous year. What was the total number of
boys studying in all the given courses together in 2023, if the total number of girls
7
studying constituted 12 th of the total number of students studying in all the

given courses together in that year ?

1) 1665 2) 1685 3) 1860 4) 1875 5) 1865

16
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

120. What percent of the total number of students studying in Course A in the year
2022, are Males ?
1) 40 2) 36 3) 60 4) 46 5) 26
Direction (121-125) : What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact
value)
121. (52.022 - 34.012)  17.99  ? = 1720
1) 64 2) 625 3) 25 4) 100 5) 400
122. (340  9.98)  0.4001 + 1245.15 = ?

r’s
1) 12500 2) 9745 3) 8225 4) 4745 5) 6700
123. 349.98  19.99 + ?2  180.16 = 11500
1) 2 2) 15 3) 25 4) 4 5) 5
124. (1800  ?  29.99)  15.02 = 144
1) 225 2) 169 3) 625 4) 900 5) 4004
ha
125. 52.02% of 749 + 45% of 419.98 - ? = 15
1) 475 2) 355 3) 215
2

4) 145 5) 45
Direction (126-130) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given.

126. I. x2 – 22x + 121 = 0

E
You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
II. y2 = 121
d
1) x  y 2) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established
3) x < y 4) x  y 5) x > y
127. I. 3x2 – 17x + 24 = 0 II. 4y2 – 15y + 14 = 0
ee

1) x  y 2) x > y 3) x  y
4) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established 5) x < y
C
128. I. 3x2 + 14x + 15 = 0 II. 6y2 + 17y + 12 = 0
1) x  y 2) x > y 3) x  y
Sr

4) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established 5) x < y

129. I. 3x2 + 13x + 12 = 0 II. 2y2 + 15y + 27 = 0
1) x < y 2) x > y
3) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established
4) x  y 5) x  y
2 2
130. I. 2x + 11x + 14 = 0 II. 2y + 17y + 33 = 0
1) x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established
C
2) x  y 3) x < y 4) x  y 5) x > y
Direction (131-135): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.
Three different brands namely Canon, HP, and Epson sold printers of two
types only i.e., inkjet and laser.
On a certain day, 280 printers were sold by Canon, and the number of
printers sold by HP, Canon, and Epson was in a ratio of 7:7:9, respectively. The
number of laser printers sold by HP was equal to that by Epson which in turn was
half the number of inkjet printers sold by Epson. The total number of inkjet
printers sold by all three brands together was 650% more than the number of
laser printers sold by Canon.
131. What is the respective ratio between the number of laser printers to that of inkjet
sold by Epson?
1) 4:1 2) 5:7 3) 1:2 4) 3:4 5) 2:3

17
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

132. What is the difference between the total number of printers sold by the company
Epson to that of that of Canon?
1) 40 2) 70 3) 50 4) 30 5) 80
133. The total number of laser printers sold by the Canon is approximately what
percent of the total number of inkjet printers sold by Epson?
1) 40 2) 70 3) 50 4) 33 5) 80
134. The total number of inkjet printers sold by Canon is approximately what percent
more or less than the total number of printers sold by HP?
1) 25 2) 15 3) 20 4) 29 5) 40
135. What is the total number of Laser printers sold by all companies together?

r’s
1) 320 2) 250 3) 220 4) 360 5) 300
Direction (136-140): Each of the questions given below is followed by two statement
(I) and (II). You have to determine whether the data given in the statement are
sufficient for answering the question.
136. What is the three-digit number ?
ha
Statement I: One fourth of the number is 45% of that number.
Statement II: Three fifth of the number is less than that of the number by 90.
1) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II)

E
alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
2) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I)
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
d
3) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
4) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
ee

5) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
137. What is the rate of interest per annum on an amount of 1000x deposited in a bank ?
Statement I: If rate of interest is (x+4) % and simple interest is Rs.2880 for 3
C
years.
Statement II: The difference between compound interest and simple interest is
Sr

Rs.359.424.
1) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II)
alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
2) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I)
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,
C
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
4) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
5) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
138. What is the minimum passing percentage in the class test ?
Statement I: Ram required to gets 342 marks out of total marks. Ram got 266
marks and failed by 8%.
Statement II: In a test of 1500 marks Neha got (443+x) marks and failed by (x+77)
marks and got minimum passing percent i.e., x%.
1) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II)
alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
2) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I)
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
4) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
5) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.

18
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

139. Find the value of (m+n2+y).

Statement I: 4m + 3n + 5y = 60, 2m = n, 2n = y
Statement II: 3m + 3y + n = 23
1) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II)
alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
2) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I)
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.

r’s
4) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
5) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
140. Find the respective ratio of the present ages of Ramesh and Shena.
Statement I: Ratio of the ages of Ramesh and Pavan before two years was 8:7
respectively.
ha
Statement II: Ratio of the ages of Shena and Pavan after two years will be 5:8
respectively. Average of the present ages of Ramesh and Pavan is 32 years.

E
1) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II)
alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
d
2) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I)
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
ee

3) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
4) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
C
5) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
GENERAL /ECONOMY/BANKING AWARENESS/COMPUTER/IT
Sr

141. Which state’s Chief Minister's Office (CMO) has been accredited with ISO
9001:2015, the only CMO to receive quality certifications for 5 consecutive three-
year terms from 2009 to 2023?
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Maharashtra 3) Tamil Nadu 4) Gujarat 5) Karnataka
142. The Commonwealth Parliamentary Association (CPA), previously known as the
C
Empire Parliamentary Association (EPA), is an organization that works to support
good governance, democracy, and human rights. Where is the headquarters of
‘CPA’?
1) Geneva, Switzerland 2) London, the United Kingdom, UK
3) Masco, Russia 4) Cairo, Egypt 5) New York, USA
143. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has raised the position limits for
trading members in index Futures & Options contracts to ________ of the total
Open Interest (OI) in the market or above Rs 7,500 crore.
1) 10% 2) 20% 3) 25% 4) 30% 5) 15%
144. Ace money (India)'s non-banking financial company license is revoked by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) due to guidelines violations. In which year did the
business receive a Certificate of Registration (CoR) enabling it to function as an
NBFC?
1) 2017 2) 2014 3) 2015 4) 2010 5) 2016

19
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

145. In October 2024, which state government has announced that the State Skills
University will be renamed as “Padma Vibhushan Ratan Tata Skills University” in
honour of Ratan Tata?
1) Jharkhand 2) Maharashtra 3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Karnataka 5) Gujarat
146. The draft framework for electronic trading platforms (ETP) has been released by
the Reserve Bank of India. How many ETPs are in operation right now, and how
many operators have authorization?
1) 12, 4 2) 15, 5 3) 11, 3 4) 10, 4 5) 13, 5
147. Which Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) has introduced a compact device for

r’s
early detection of breast cancer at an affordable cost?
1) IIT Indore 2) IIT Delhi 3) IIT Kanpur 4) IIT Patna 5) IIT Kharagpur
148. Which city has awarded the “Award of Excellence in Urban Transport” under the
category “City with Best Record of Public Involvement in Transport” by the Union
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs?
1) New Delhi, Delhi
ha 2) Mumbai, Maharashtra
3) Bengaluru, Karnataka 4) Chennai, Tamil Nadu 5) Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh

E
149. Which of the following is a transactional deposit account held at a financial
institutional that allow for withdrawal and deposits?
d
1) Deposit account 2) Capital account
3) Loan account 4) Business account 5) Checking account
150. Name the bilateral naval exercise conducted by the Indian Navy (IN) and Royal
ee

Navy of Oman (RNO) off the coast of Goa from 13th to 18th October 2024.
1) Parvat Prahaar 2) Exercise Eastern Bridge
C
3) Exercise Kakadu 4) Naseem Al Bahr 5) Exercise SIMBEX
151. Shyam Benegal's 1976 film "Manthan" will be screened at the 77th Cannes Film
Sr

Festival, beginning May 14. Manthan is inspired by Dr. Verghese Kurien, the
father of which revolution?
1) Green 2) Black 3) Yellow 4) Round 5) White
152. India has become an affiliate member of the International Medical Device
Regulators Forum (IMDRF), which will open doors to invaluable opportunities for
reliance and collaboration with regulatory authorities worldwide. It was established
C
in 2011. Who is the current chair of the ‘IMDRF’?
1) Dr. Jeff Shuren 2) Dr. Sharad Kumar Agarwal
3) Dr Abdulla Khaleel 4) Dr Jack Resneck 5) Dr Michael Ryan
153. In October 2024, which state government has launched the Sankalp initiative to
tackle drug trafficking and support the rehabilitation of drug addicts in the state?
1) Karnataka 2) Rajasthan 3) Madhya Pradesh 4) Maharashtra 5) Himachal Pradesh
154. How many Memorandums of Understanding (MoU) were signed during Jamaica’s
Prime Minister’s visit to India in October 2024?
1) 04 2) 02 3) 05 4) 03 5) 06
155. In September 2024, Name the cricketer who has announced retirement from all
forms of cricket.
1) Suresh Raina 2) Shikhar Dhawan
3) Dawid Malan 4) Dwayne Bravo 5) Dinesh Karthik

20
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

156. On October 2, India celebrates Lal Bahadur Shastri Jayanti, which honors the
120th birth anniversary of India's third prime minister. Shastri is recognized for
his slogan, "Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan". In which year Lal Bahadur Shastri became
Prime Minister of India?
1) 1960-63 2) 1962-64 3) 1964-66 4) 1965-69 5) 1970-72
157. What is the new name of the 12% Club app renamed by BharatPe reflecting its
new focus on investment and wealth management?
1) Invest BharatPe 2) Reflector BharatPe
3) Stronger BharatPe 4) Grow in BharatPe 5) Save in BharatPe

r’s
158. The Export-Import Bank of India is a specialized financial institution in India. The
bank's primary function is to finance, facilitate, and promote India's international
trade. It is owned by the Government of India and operates as a statutory
corporation. When did the Government of India set up the Export-Import Bank of
India? ha
1) 1993 2) 1990 3) 1985 4) 1991 5) 1982
159. “Kalsubai Mountain Peak” located in which of the following Indian state?
1) Punjab 2) Maharashtra 3) Rajasthan 4) Tripura 5) Tamil Nadu

E
160. ___________ refers to a group of non-bank financial intermediaries (NBFIs) that
offer services comparable to those offered by typical commercial banks but operate
d
outside of the scope of standard banking rules.
1) Para Banking 2) Narrow Banking
3) Shadow Banking 4) Mixed Banking 5) Universal Banking
ee

161. How many youth are targeted to be provided internships in the new scheme over
five years as per the Budget 2024?
C
1) 2 crore 2) 75 lakh 3) 50 lakh 4) 1 crore 5) 5 crore
162. Which of the Cups/Trophies is associated with the game of “Badminton”?
Sr

1) Nehru Trophy 2) Vijay Hazare Trophy

3) Indira Gandhi Gold Cup 4) Rani Jhansi Trophy 5) Amrit Diwan Cup
163. According to the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), total employment in
manufacturing industries rose by ______ in the Financial Year 2022-2023 (FY23),
reaching 1.85 crore.
1) 7.5% 2) 6.1% 3) 7.2% 4) 6.4% 5) 7.9%
C
164. In October 2024, which of the following company has partnered with Google to
offer loans backed by gold via its GPay mobile payments service?
1) Capital finance 2) Shriram finance
3) Muthoot Finance 4) Bajaj finance 5) Aditya Birla finance
165. By what percentage did the Index of Eight Core Industries increase in June
Month 2024 compared to June Month 2023?
1) 2.0% 2) 3.0% 3) 5.0% 4) 6.0% 5) 4.0%
166. ‘Aryna Sabalenka’, who won the women’s singles title of the 2024 US Open Tennis
Championship, belongs to which of the following country?
1) USA 2) Italy 3) France 4) Belarus 5) Germany
167. Recently, who received the National Florence Nightingale Award-2024 as a devoted
nursing officer at the Malkangiri District Headquarters Hospital (DHH)?
1) Ganapathy Santhi 2) Sanjukta Sethi
3) P Vijayalakshmi 4) Januka Pandey 5) T Susheela

21
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

168. According to the global payment hub Paysecure data, India’s Unified Payments
Interface (UPI) has processed nearly 81 lakh crore rupees in transactions between
April and July 2024, surpassing the top digital payment platforms in the world.
This represents a ______ increase Year-over-year (YOY).
1) 18% 2) 24% 3) 37% 4) 41% 5) 29%
169. When was ‘Quit India Movement Day’ annually observed across India to
commemorate the launch of the Quit India Movement in 1942?
1) August 08 2) September 11 3) October15 4) November 5 5) December 10
170. Which institution approved a $200 million loan to enhance solid waste
management and sanitation across 100 Indian cities as part of the Swachh Bharat

r’s
Mission 2.0?
1) World Bank 2) Asian Development Bank
3) International Monetary Fund
4) European Central Bank 5) National Development Bank

1) Indonesia 2) Canada
ha
171. Which country was chosen to host the fund created by the United Nations (UN)?
3) United Kingdom 4) Philippines 5) Switzerland
172. Name the online travel tech platform that has signed an agreement with the

E
Uttar Pradesh EcoTourism Development Board (UPETDB) to boost state tourism.
1) EaseMyTrip 2) MakeMyTrip 3) SpiceJet 4) RedBus 5) IndiGo
d
173. India has been elected as the Vice-Chair of the Supply Chain Council under the
Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF), alongside the USA as Chair.
The IPEF launched in which year?
ee

1) 2012 2) 2014 3) 2022 4) 2018 5) 2020

174. “Achanakmar Tiger Reserve” is located in which one of the following states?
C
1) West Bengal 2) Maharashtra 3) Tamil Nadu 4) Kerala 5) Chhattisgarh
175. Recently, which state government has raised the upper age limit to 65 years for
Sr

the “Mukhyamantri Majhi Ladki Bahin” scheme, under which women will get Rs
1,500 per month?
1) Gujarat 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Maharashtra 4) Andhra Pradesh 5) Telangana
176. In July2024, the Global Rating Agency, Moody kept India’s economic growth forecast
unchanged at _______ for 2024.
1) 7.4% 2) 6.6% 3) 6.7% 4) 7.1% 5) 6.8%
C
177. Who is the current Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of
the Star Health and Allied Insurance Company Limited?
1) Rakesh Sharma 2) Anand Roy
3) Swarup Kumar Saha 4) Nikhil Mohan 5) Atul Kumar Goel
178. Which of the following organisation has announced the New World Soil Health
Index to establish global standards for soil quality assessment?
1) World Bank (WB) 2) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
3) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
4) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
5) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
179. Name the mutual fund that has recently launched India's First Oil & Gas
Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF).
1) Mirae Asset Mutual Fund 2) ICICI Prudential Mutual Fund
3) HDFC Mutual Fund 4) Tata Mutual Fund 5) SBI Mutual Fund

22
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

180. Which Ministry of the GoI has launched the Fauna of India Checklist Portal?
1) Ministry of Jal Shakti 2) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
3) Ministry of Environment and Forests
4) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
5) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
181. RIL and Tata Group have been included in which category of the Times Magazine
Global 100 Most Influential Companies list in 2024?
1) Leaders category 2) Titans category
3) Disrupters category 4) Innovators category 5) Pioneers category
182. Which state of India has introduced Artificial Intelligence (AI) learning in the

r’s
Information & Communication Technology (ICT) textbook for Class 7 students?
1) Maharashtra 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Kerala 4) Andhra Pradesh 5) Odisha
183. The Union Home Ministry announced that the validity of all Foreign Contribution
Regulation Act (FCRA)-registered NGOs whose renewal applications are pending
will be extended until_______.
1) 31st December 2024
3) 30th August 2024
ha 2) 30th November 2024
4) 31st October 2024 5) 30th September 2024
184. Which edition of the Malabar River Festival has been recently held in Kerala?
1) 10th 2) 09th

E 3) 15th 4) 12th 5) 16th

185. Name the scheme that was launched by the Bank of Maharashtra to offer financial
d
support for food and agro-based industries.
1) Svyam Siddha 2) Vikas Spoorty
3) Mahatari Vandana Yojana 4) Maha Krishi Samrudhi Yojana
ee

5) Mahila Samman Saving Certificate Scheme

186. Certificate of Deposit or CD is a fixed income financial instrument governed
C
under the Reserve Bank and India (RBI) and issued in a dematerialized form.
When was the ‘Certificate of Deposit (CD)' introduced in India?
1) 1989 2) 1991 3) 1980 4) 1972 5) 1997
Sr

187. “Ghumar” is the famous folk dance form of which of the following Indian state?
1) Haryana 2) Sikkim 3) Mizoram 4) Rajasthan 5) Andhra Pradesh
188. The process by which the central bank of a country controls the supply of money
in the economy by exercising its control over interest rates in order to maintain
price stability and achieve high economic growth is known as _________.
1) Budgetary Policy 2) Credit Policy
C
3) Fiscal Policy 4) Economic Policy 5) Monetary Policy
189. Which state government has issued a one-year ban on the manufacture, storage,
distribution, transportation and sale of gutka and pan masala containing tobacco
and nicotine throughout the State, effective immediately?
1) Telangana 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Gujarat 4) Andhra Pradesh 5) Maharashtra
190. ‘Bibek Debroy’, the eminent economist, author, and chairman of the Prime Minister's
Economic Advisory Council, passed away on November 1, 2024, at the age of 69;
he was awarded the Padma Shri (the fourth-highest civilian honor in Indi1) in
_________.
1) 2010 2) 2012 3) 2015 4) 2019 5) 2023
191. What difference does the 5th generation computer have from other generation
computers?
1) Technological advancement 2) Scientific code
3) Object-Oriented Programming
4) All of the above 5) None of the above

23
Sreedhar’s CCE IDBI EXECUTIVES (ESO) - MODEL TEST - 9

192. Storage capacity of magnetic disk depends on

1) Tracks per inch of surface 2) Bits per inch of tracks 3) Disk pack in disk surface
4) All of above 5) None of these
193. To prepare a presentation/slide show which application is commonly used?
1) Outlook Express 2) Power point 3) Photoshop
4) Internet Explorer 5) None of these
194. Magnetic Ink Character Recognition is example of
1) Musical device 2) Input device 3) Output device
4) Both 2 & 3 5) None of these

r’s
195. DTE stands for
1) Data Terminal Exchange 2) Data Transfer Equipment
3) Data Terminal Equipment 4) Data Transfer Exchange 5) None of the above
196. Which protocol provides name resolution for host and domain names for a TCP/IP
network?
1) TELNET 2) SMTP
ha 3) DNS 4) SNMP 5) None of these
197. Which among following is not associated with spelling dialogue box?
1) Edit 2) Ignore All

E 3) Ignore 4) Change 5) None of these

198. To create an interactive Pivot Table for the web, you use a Microsoft Office Web
d
component called?
1) Pivot Table Report 2) Pivot Table List 3) Pivot Table Field List
4) HTML 5) Pivot Field List
ee

199. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by

programmer?
C
1) Linking 2) Allocation 3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Reallocation 5) None of these
200. Translator for low level programming language were termed as
Sr

1) Assembler 2) Compiler 3) Linker 4) Loader 5) All of these

KEY
1.4 2.5 3.2 4.3 5.2 6.1 7.1 8.1 9.5 10.1
11.5 12.1 13.3 14.5 15.2 16.3 17.1 18.5 19.4 20.5
21.2 22.2 23.4 24.1 25.2 26.1 27.3 28.5 29.2 30.2
C
31.2 32.1 33.2 34.2 35.3 36.4 37.5 38.3 39.5 40.5
41.2 42.3 43.2 44.1 45.4 46.5 47.3 48.2 49.4 50.1
51.4 52.1 53.1 54.1 55.3 56.3 57.4 58.1 59.2 60.5 SCAN QR FOR
61.3 62.5 63.1 64.3 65.1 66.2 67.3 68.4 69.1 70.3 OUR RESULTS
71.1 72.3 73.2 74.5 75.4 76.4 77.3 78.2 79.1 80.2
81.3 82.4 83.5 84.1 85.2 86.3 87.2 88.1 89.4 90.5
91.3 92.2 93.3 94.4 95.1 96.2 97.1 98.3 99.3 100.1
101.3 102.4 103.1 104.4 105.5 106.5 107.2 108.5 109.3 110.4
111.3 112.3 113.1 114.4 115.1 116.1 117.1 118.1 119.5 120.4
121.5 122.2 123.5 124.3 125.2 126.4 127.2 128.5 129.4 130.1
131.3 132.5 133.4 134.4 135.1 136.2 137.1 138.4 139.1 140.3
141.4 142.2 143.5 144.1 145.2 146.5 147.1 148.3 149.5 150.4
151.5 152.1 153.5 154.1 155.4 156.3 157.1 158.5 159.2 160.3
161.4 162.5 163.1 164.3 165.5 166.4 167.2 168.3 169.1 170.2
171.4 172.1 173.3 174.5 175.3 176.5 177.2 178.5 179.2 180.3
181.2 182.3 183.5 184.1 185.4 186.1 187.4 188.5 189.1 190.3
191.1 192.4 193.2 194.2 195.3 196.3 197.1 198.1 199.3 200.1

24