Advertisement no. CORP/GR.

A/06/2022
Recruitment Exam for post STO Sichar / Guwahati
Online Exam Date – 27th August 2023
Domain - Embedded Systems

Q1.
In a direct band-gap semiconductor, the minimum energy point in the conduction band and
the maximum energy point in the valence band occur at:
a) Different momenta (k-vector)
b) The same momentum (k-vector)
c) Zero momentum
d) Random momentum

ANSWER – b

Q2.
Which of the following is NOT an example of an intrinsic semiconductor?
a) Silicon (Si)
b) Germanium (Ge)
c) Gallium arsenide (GaAs)
d) Silicon carbide (SiC)

ANSWER – d

Q3.
Doping a semiconductor with impurity atoms having more valence electrons than the host
semiconductor creates a:
a) P-type semiconductor
b) N-type semiconductor
c) Intrinsic semiconductor
d) Metal

ANSWER – b
Q4.
The equilibrium carrier concentration in a semiconductor is primarily influenced by:
a) Doping concentration
b) Band gap energy
c) Temperature
d) Crystal structure

ANSWER – c

Q5.
Carrier transport due to the concentration gradient of electrons or holes in a semiconductor
is known as:
a) Diffusion current
b) Drift current
c) Mobility
d) Recombination

ANSWER – a

Q6.
The resistivity of a semiconductor is mainly determined by its:
a) Carrier mobility
b) Band gap energy
c) Doping concentration
d) Temperature

ANSWER – a
Q7.
Which number representation is most commonly used for representing signed integers in
computer systems?
a) Signed magnitude
b) Ones' complement
c) Twos' complement
d) Excess-3

ANSWER – c

Q8.
The IEEE 754 standard is commonly used for representing which type of numbers?
a) Binary integers
b) Floating-point numbers
c) Hexadecimal numbers
d) Octal numbers

ANSWER – b

Q9.
Which method is used to minimize logical functions by grouping adjacent 1s on a graphical
map?
a) Boolean algebra
b) Boolean identities
c) Karnaugh map
d) De Morgan's theorem

ANSWER – c
Q10.
In CMOS logic gates, which types of transistors are used to implement the pull-up and pull-
down networks?
a) NMOS and PMOS
b) PMOS and CMOS
c) NMOS and CMOS
d) PMOS and NMOS

ANSWER – a

Q11.
Which logic gate can be represented as an AND gate followed by an inverter?
a) NOR gate
b) NAND gate
c) XOR gate
d) XNOR gate

ANSWER – b

Q12.
Which type of arithmetic circuit is commonly used to perform unsigned binary addition?
a) Half adder
b) Full adder
c) Half subtractor
d) Full subtractor

ANSWER – b
Q13.
In node analysis, the number of equations required is equal to:
a) Number of nodes minus one
b) Number of nodes
c) Number of branches minus one
d) Number of branches

ANSWER – b

Q14.
Mesh analysis is based on:
a) Kirchhoff's current law (KCL)
b) Kirchhoff's voltage law (KVL)
c) Ohm's law
d) Superposition theorem

ANSWER – b

Q15.
Superposition theorem is applicable to:
a) Linear circuits only
b) Non-linear circuits only
c) Both linear and non-linear circuits
d) None of the options are correct

ANSWER – a
Q16.
Thevenin's theorem is used to:
a) Simplify a complex network into an equivalent voltage source and resistor
b) Simplify a complex network into an equivalent current source and resistor
c) Simplify a complex network into an equivalent voltage source and capacitor
d) Simplify a complex network into an equivalent current source and inductor

ANSWER – a

Q17.
Norton's theorem is related to:
a) Voltage sources
b) Current sources
c) Resistance values
d) Capacitance values

ANSWER – b

Q18.
The reciprocity theorem is valid for:
a) Linear circuits only
b) Non-linear circuits only
c) Both linear and non-linear circuits
d) None of the options are correct

ANSWER – a
Q19.
Autocorrelation is a measure of the correlation between a random process and:
a) Its instantaneous amplitude
b) A delayed version of itself
c) Its power spectral density
d) The mean of the process

ANSWER – b

Q20.
Power Spectral Density (PSD) describes the power distribution of a random process over its:
a) Amplitude range
b) Time domain
c) Frequency spectrum
d) Autocorrelation function

ANSWER – c

Q21.
Autocorrelation is a measure of the correlation between a random process and:
a) Its instantaneous amplitude
b) A delayed version of itself
c) Its power spectral density
d) The mean of the process

ANSWER – b
Q22.
Power Spectral Density (PSD) describes the power distribution of a random process over its:
a) Amplitude range
b) Time domain
c) Frequency spectrum
d) Autocorrelation function

ANSWER – c

Q23.
Amplitude Modulation (AM) is a modulation technique where the carrier signal is varied in
proportion to the:
a) Frequency of the modulating signal
b) Phase of the modulating signal
c) instantaneous amplitude of the modulating signal
d) Time duration of the modulating signal

ANSWER – c

Q24.
In frequency modulation (FM), the modulating signal affects the:
a) Amplitude of the carrier signal
b) Frequency of the carrier signal
c) Phase of the carrier signal
d) All of the options are correct

ANSWER – d
Q25.
Voltage commutated thyristor-based converters achieve turn-off of thyristors by:
a) Diverting the load current through an external circuit
b) Decreasing the gate voltage below the threshold
c) Increasing the gate voltage above the threshold
d) Reversing the polarity of the gate voltage

ANSWER – a

Q26.
Which component of the computer is responsible for executing machine instructions?
a) ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit)
b) Control Unit
c) Data Path
d) Memory Unit

ANSWER – a

Q27.
What are the primary functions of the ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit)?
a) Perform arithmetic operations and logical operations
b) Manage memory access and data storage
c) Execute instructions and control the computer's operation
d) Coordinate and control the activities of all hardware components

ANSWER – a
Q28.
What is the purpose of instruction pipelining in computer architecture?
a) To improve memory hierarchy
b) To reduce the number of pipeline stages
c) To increase the clock speed of the processor
d) To overlap instruction execution for better performance

ANSWER – d

Q29.
Which type of hazard occurs when an instruction depends on the result of a previous
instruction that has not completed yet?
a) Structural hazard
b) Control hazard
c) Data hazard
d) Pipeline hazard

ANSWER – c

Q30.
What is the purpose of a cache in the memory hierarchy?
a) To provide long-term storage for data and programs
b) To serve as temporary storage for intermediate results
c) To store frequently accessed data for faster retrieval
d) To facilitate communication between the CPU and other device

ANSWER – c
Q31.
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for error detection and correction in data
transmission?
a) Data Link Layer
b) Network Layer
c) Transport Layer
d) Physical Layer

ANSWER – a

Q32.
What is the purpose of IP addressing in a network?
a) To uniquely identify devices on a network
b) To determine the physical location of a device
c) To establish secure connections between devices
d) To control the flow of data in the network

ANSWER – a

Q33.
Which transport layer protocol provides reliable, in-order delivery of data?
a) UDP (User Datagram Protocol)
b) TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
c) IP (Internet Protocol)
d) FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

ANSWER – b
Q34.
What is the role of flow control in the transport layer?
a) Prevent congestion in the network
b) Ensure reliable delivery of data
c) Control the rate of data transmission
d) Establish a connection between hosts

ANSWER – c

Q35.
What is the purpose of sockets in networking?
a) To connect devices to the network
b) To establish secure connections between devices
c) To enable communication between applications on different hosts
d) To regulate the flow of data in the network

ANSWER – c

Q36.
Which of the following is an example of an integrated development environment (IDE)
commonly used for embedded system development?
a) Eclipse
b) Git
c) Vim
d) Makefile

ANSWER – a
Q37.
The memory mapping process in embedded systems involves:
a) Assigning physical addresses to memory regions and peripherals.
b) Managing the allocation and deallocation of dynamic memory.
c) Translating virtual addresses to physical addresses using a memory management unit.
d) Allocating memory dynamically during program execution.

ANSWER – a

Q38.
The RCC (Reset and Clock Control) peripheral in microcontrollers is responsible for:
a) Generating clock signals for the entire system.
b) Resetting the microcontroller to its initial state.
c) Controlling the power supply to different peripherals.
d) Configuring interrupt priorities and handlers.

ANSWER – a

Q39.
GPIO (General-Purpose Input/Output) pins are used for:
a) Analog-to-digital conversion.
b) Generating PWM signals.
c) Communicating with external devices.
d) Storing data in non-volatile memory.

ANSWER – c
Q40.
A timer peripheral in microcontrollers is commonly used for:
a) Generating precise timing intervals.
b) Measuring the frequency of an external signal.
c) Controlling the brightness of an LED.
d) Implementing communication protocols.

ANSWER – a

Q41.
The system timer in a microcontroller is typically used for:
a) Tracking the elapsed time since the system was powered on.
b) Generating interrupts at regular intervals.
c) Providing real-time clock functionality.
d) Controlling the overall system operation.

ANSWER – a

Q42.
UARTs (Universal Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitters) are used for:
a) Generating analog output signals.
b) Capturing and processing analog input signals.
c) Serial communication between devices.
d) Implementing digital-to-analog conversion.

ANSWER – c
Q43.
The LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) peripheral in microcontrollers is commonly used for:
a) Storing large amounts of data.
b) Generating precise timing signals.
c) Displaying alphanumeric characters and graphics.
d) Capturing analog signals.

ANSWER – c

Q44.
The ADC (Analog-to-Digital Converter) peripheral in microcontrollers is used for:
a) Generating digital signals from analog inputs.
b) Controlling the speed of motor drives.
c) Performing mathematical calculations on digital data.
d) Storing data in non-volatile memory.

ANSWER – a

Q45.
PWM (Pulse Width Modulation) is a technique used for:
a) Converting analog signals to digital form.
b) Generating variable-width pulses for controlling analog devices.
c) Transmitting digital data over long distances.
d) Performing analog-to-digital conversion.

ANSWER – b
Q46.
What is the general flow of the FPGA design process?
a) Specification, Design Entry, Synthesis, Implementation, Verification
b) Verification, Synthesis, Design Entry, Implementation, Specification
c) Implementation, Verification, Synthesis, Design Entry, Specification
d) Design Entry, Synthesis, Implementation, Verification, Specification

ANSWER – a

Q47.
What is a design entity in FPGA design?
a) A functional unit within the FPGA
b) A module or component in the design hierarchy
c) A physical package containing the FPGA chip
d) A file that describes the design constraints

ANSWER – b

Q48.
What are the commonly used data types in FPGA design?
a) Integer, Float, Boolean
b) Bit, Byte, Word
c) Logic, Integer, Real
d) std_logic, std_logic_vector, integer

ANSWER – d
Q49.
What is the combinational design method in FPGA design?
a) Designing circuits that have only combinational logic without any sequential elements
b) Designing circuits that combine both combinational and sequential logic
c) Designing circuits that perform arithmetic operations
d) Designing circuits that use only lookup tables (LUTs)

ANSWER – a

Q50.
What is the sequential design method in FPGA design?
a) Designing circuits that have only sequential logic without any combinational elements
b) Designing circuits that combine both sequential and combinational logic
c) Designing circuits that perform memory operations
d) Designing circuits that use only flip-flops

ANSWER – b

Q51.
What does FSM stand for in FPGA design?
a) Field-Sequential Memory
b) Finite-State Machine
c) Functional Sequential Module
d) Field-Specific Memory

ANSWER – b
Q52.
What is the synthesis step in FPGA design flow?
a)Converting high-level design descriptions into a gate-level representation
b) Verifying the correctness of the design using test benches
c) Programming the FPGA with the synthesized design
d) Analyzing and optimizing the design for timing and resource utilization

ANSWER – a

Q53.
How are memories typically implemented in an FPGA?
a) Using dedicated memory blocks or IP cores
b) Using lookup tables (LUTs) and flip-flops
c) Using registers and counters
d)Using external memory devices connected to the FPGA

ANSWER – a

Q54.
What are sub-programs in FPGA design?
a)Reusable modules or functions that perform specific tasks
b) Pre-synthesis simulation models
c) Predefined constraints for timing analysis
d) Post-synthesis simulation models

ANSWER – a
Q55.
What is parameterized design in FPGA design?
a) Designing circuits with configurable parameters to accommodate different requirements
b) Designing circuits using only boolean logic operations
c) Designing circuits with fixed parameters that cannot be changed
d) Designing circuits with hierarchical structures

ANSWER – a

Q56.
The data structure required for Breadth First Traversal on a graph is?
a) Stack
b) Array
c) Queue
d) Tree

ANSWER – c

Q57.
Which of the following is false about a binary search tree?
a) The left child is always lesser than its parent
b) The right child is always greater than its parent
c) The left and right sub-trees should also be binary search trees
d) In order sequence gives decreasing order of elements

ANSWER – d
Q58
What are the conditions for an optimal binary search tree and what is its advantage?
a) The tree should not be modified and you should know how often the keys are accessed, it
improves the lookup cost
b) You should know the frequency of access of the keys, improves the lookup time
c) The tree can be modified and you should know the number of elements in the tree before
hand, it improves the deletion time
d) The tree should be just modified and improves the lookup time

ANSWER – a

Q59.
Is there any difference in the speed of execution between linear serach(recursive) vs linear
search(lterative)?
a) Both execute at same speed
b) Linear search(recursive) is faster
c) Linear search(Iterative) is faster
d) Cant be said

ANSWER – c

Q60.
The array is as follows: 1,2,3,6,8,10. At what time the element 6 is found? (By using linear
search(recursive) algorithm).
a) 4th call
b) 3rd call
c) 6th call
d) 5th call
ANSWER – a
Q61.
The worst case complexity of quick sort is _________
a) O(n)
b) O(log n)
c) O(n2)
d) O(n log n)

ANSWER – c

Q62.
Consider a complete graph G with 4 vertices. The graph G has ____ spanning trees.
a) 15
b) 8
c) 16
d) 13

ANSWER – c

Q63.
In which Kernel architecture, all the functions, like Process Management, Memory
management, interrupt handling, etc. are performed in the Kernel space.?
a. Monolithic Kernal
b. Micro Kernal
c. Hybrid Kernal
d. None of the options are correct

ANSWER – a
Q64.
What type of kernel is Windows?
a) Monolithic kernel
b) Hybrid kernel
c) Microkernel
d) Nano kernel

ANSWER – b

Q65.
Which of the following is not true?
a) Kernel is at the core of an operating system.
b) Kernel is not the first part of an operating system that was loaded into memory when
booting up a computer.
c) Kernel is responsible for various tasks such as disk management, task management, and
memory management.
d) Kernel remains in the memory until the Operating System is shut-down.

ANSWER – b

Q66.
Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message

ANSWER – d
Q67.
In indirect communication between processes P and Q __________
a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q
b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication
c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q
d) none of the options are correct

ANSWER – c

Q68.
In a classification problem, the target variable (or output), y, can take only______
A) continue value
B) discrete values
C) random value
D) sample value

ANSWER – B

Q69.
Using Linear Regression, all predictions are
A) less than 0.5
B) greater than 0.5
C) less than 1
D) greater than 1

ANSWER – b
Q70.
To display histogram with well-defined edge we can write
a. df.plot(type= ‘hist’, edge= ‘red’)
b. df.plot(type= ‘hist’, edgecolor= ‘red’)
c. df.plot(type= ‘hist’, line= ‘red’)
d. df.plot(type= ‘hist’, linecolor= ‘red’)

ANSWER – b

Q71.
A single card is drawn from a standard deck of playing cards. What is the probability that the
card is a face card provided that a queen is drawn from the deck of cards?
a) 3/13
b) 1/3
c) 4/13
d) 1/52

ANSWER – b

Q72.
Mangoes numbered 1 through 18 are placed in a bag for delivery. Two mangoes are drawn
out of the bag without replacement. Find the probability such that all the mangoes have
even numbers on them?
a) 43.7%
b) 34%
c) 6.8%
d) 9.3%

ANSWER – c
Q73.
In a decision tree algorithm, entropy helps to determine a feature or attribute that gives
maximum information about a class which is called _____.
a) Pruning
b) Information gain
c) Maximum depth
d) Gini impurity

ANSWER – c

Q74.
In a decision tree algorithm, how can you reduce the level of entropy from the root node to
the leaf node?
a) Pruning
b) Information gain
c) Maximum depth
d) Gini impurity

ANSWER – a

Q75.
The confusion Matrix visualizes the ____________ of a classifier by comparing the actual
and predicted classes
a) Comparativity
b) Connectivity
c) Stability
d) Accuracy

ANSWER – c
Q.76.
Assume that you are designing an IoT device that monitors environmental conditions such
as temperature, humidity, and air quality. The device needs to provide real-time alerts when
any of these conditions exceed predefined thresholds. Which of the following interrupt-
driven approaches would be most suitable for this application?
a) Polling the sensor data periodically
b) Using a software timer to periodically check the sensor data
c) Utilizing an interrupt-driven approach to monitor sensor data changes
d) sing a dedicated thread to continuously monitor sensor data

ANSWER – c

Q77.
You are working on a home automation project that involves controlling various IoT devices
such as lights, thermostats, and smart appliances. The system allows users to create custom
automation rules based on triggers and actions. Which of the following roles does the block
layer play in this scenario?
a) Interpreting and executing the automation rules defined by the users
b) Establishing wireless communication between the IoT devices
c) Managing the scheduling and synchronization of automation tasks
d) Providing a consistent interface for accessing and controlling the IoT devices

ANSWER – d

Q78.
You are developing a smart home system that allows users to remotely control their home
appliances using a mobile application. The system needs to provide real-time updates to the
users about the status of the appliances. Which of the following MQTT concepts would be
most suitable for achieving real-time updates in this scenario?
a) MQTT publishers and subscribers
b) MQTT topics and messages
c) MQTT brokers and clients
d) MQTT QoS levels

ANSWER – b
Q79.
You are developing an IoT system that monitors and controls environmental conditions in a
greenhouse. The system collects sensor data such as temperature, humidity, and light
intensity from various sensors placed inside the greenhouse. Which of the following
functions of the ThingSpeak API would be most appropriate for sending sensor data to a
cloud platform for storage and visualization?
a) POST request with sensor data to the ThingSpeak channel
b) GET request to retrieve sensor data from the ThingSpeak channel
c) PUT request to update the ThingSpeak channel with new sensor data
d) DELETE request to remove sensor data from the ThingSpeak channel

ANSWER – a

Q80.
Which of the following statements best describes an IoT cloud platform?
a) A hardware component that connects IoT devices to the internet
b) A software platform that provides infrastructure and services for managing and analyzing
IoT data
c) A communication protocol used for interconnecting IoT devices
d) A security mechanism used to protect IoT devices from unauthorized access

ANSWER – b

Q81.
Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting an IoT cloud platform
for a project?
a) Scalability, security, and data privacy features
b) Support for specific IoT protocols like MQTT or CoAP
c) Integration with a specific programming language or development framework
d) Availability of ready-to-use IoT hardware devices

ANSWER – a
Q82.
You work for a software development company that wants to create isolated development
environments for its developers. Each developer needs their own environment with specific
software configurations. Which of the following virtualization concepts would be most
appropriate to achieve this goal?
a) Full virtualization
b) Paravirtualization
c) Operating system-level virtualization
d) Application virtualization

ANSWER – c
Q83.
You are the IT manager of a company that wants to improve the utilization of their server
infrastructure. They have multiple physical servers, each running a separate application.
Which of the following virtualization concepts would be most suitable to consolidate the
applications onto fewer physical servers?
a) Full virtualization
b) Paravirtualization
c) Operating system-level virtualization
d) Hardware-assisted virtualization

ANSWER – a

Q84.
You are developing an IoT system for a manufacturing plant that involves a large number of
interconnected devices, including sensors, actuators, and robotic systems. The system
needs to ensure low latency communication between the devices to support real-time
automation and control. Which of the following features of SDN would be most beneficial in
achieving low latency communication for the IoT system?
a) Traffic engineering and Quality of Service (QoS) management
b) Improved device interoperability through standardized protocols
c) Load balancing and fault tolerance mechanisms
d) Support for IPv6 addressing and routing

ANSWER – a
Q85.
You are developing an IoT system that consists of multiple sensors connected to a
microcontroller. The sensors generate interrupt signals when specific events occur, such as
detecting motion or a change in temperature. Which of the following statements accurately
describes the role of interrupts and IRQs in this scenario?
a) Interrupts and IRQs are used to handle communication between the microcontroller and
the sensors.
b) Interrupts and IRQs enable the microcontroller to respond immediately to sensor events
without constant polling.
c) Interrupts and IRQs are only relevant for the physical connectivity of the sensors to the
microcontroller.
d) Interrupts and IRQs are a software mechanism used to manage the power consumption
of the IoT system.

ANSWER – b

Q86.
You are developing an IoT device that runs a real-time operating system (RTOS) and
performs multiple tasks concurrently. Each task requires periodic execution at different
intervals. Which of the following best describes the role of soft IRQs in managing task
scheduling in this scenario?
a) Soft IRQs provide a mechanism for handling external interrupt events generated by
peripheral devices.
b) Soft IRQs are used to manage the priority of tasks and ensure timely execution in a
multitasking environment.
c) Soft IRQs are specific to hardware interrupts and have no role in task scheduling in an
RTOS.
d) Soft IRQs are responsible for managing the context switching between tasks in the
system.

ANSWER – b
Q87.
You are working on a project that requires collecting data from various sensors and
communicating with a cloud platform. You need a development board that provides built-in
Wi-Fi connectivity and GPIO pins for interfacing with the sensors. Which of the following IoT
development boards would be most suitable for this scenario?
a) Arduino Uno
b) Raspberry Pi
c) ESP8266
d) BeagleBone Black

ANSWER – c

Q88.
Which of the following protocols is often used for interacting with block devices in an IoT
environment?
a) HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)
b) MQTT (Message Queuing Telemetry Transport)
c) SCSI (Small Computer System Interface)
d) Zigbee (Wireless communication protocol)

ANSWER – b

Q89.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between devices
and drivers in the device and driver layout?
a) Each device has multiple drivers associated with it.
b) Multiple devices can share the same driver.
c) Devices and drivers are separate entities with no direct relationship.
d) The device layout is determined by the driver layout.

ANSWER – b
Q90.
You are developing a home automation system where various smart devices, such as lights,
thermostats, and door locks, need to communicate with a central hub. Which of the
following WPAN technologies would be most appropriate for creating a low-power, mesh
network architecture for the home automation system?
a) Zigbee
b) Wi-Fi
c) Bluetooth
d) NFC (Near Field Communication)

ANSWER – a

Q91
________ 6LoWPAN architecture operates with any infrastructure.
a. Simple
b. Extended
c. Hybrid
d. Ad hoc

ANSWER – a

Q92.
________ is a web transfer protocol that runs on top of the UDP and uses connectionless
datagrams.
a. WebSocket
b. MQTT
c. HTTP
d. COAP

ANSWER – d
Q93
______ routing scheme utilizes link layer address to forward data packets
a. route-over
b. route-under
c. mesh-over
b. mesh-under

ANSWER – a

Q94.
Class 3 Bluetooth can cover a maximum range of _____ with maximum output power of
_____.
a. 10m, 2.5Mw
b. 100m, 100Mw
c. 1m, 1Mw
d. 10m, 1Mw

ANSWER – c

Q95.
Select the ZigBee operating frequency bands across the world:
a. 868MHz
b. 915 MHz
c. 2.4 GHz
d. 1.2 GHz

ANSWER – c
Q96.
In IEEE 802.11 Distributed System, nodes select their access points based on their
transmission rate, such a technique is called _____
a. Scanning
b. Frequency hopping
c. active scanning
d. passive scanning

ANSWER – a

Q97.
Pick out the odd features of 6LoWPAN
a. Packet fragmentation and reassembly
b. Header Compression
c. Routing of data link layer
d. IPv4 packet compression

ANSWER – d

Q98.
In __________ harvesting, heat is directly converted into electrical energy.
a. Solar
b. RF energy
c. Piezo Mechanical
d. Thermal

ANSWER – d
Q99.
______ uses frequency hopping technique for packet transmission.
a. MQTT
b. Zigbee
c. 6LowPAN
d. Bluetooth

ANSWER – d

Q100.
In IPv6, ________ feature auto configures your machine address instead of contacting the
DHCP server.
a. IANA
b. IPsec
c. DAD
d. SLAAC

ANSWER – d