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JMMT 2

The document contains a series of physics questions and solutions related to optics, nuclear reactions, capacitors, magnetic fields, transformers, harmonic oscillators, and fluid dynamics. Each question presents multiple-choice answers, and the solutions provide calculations or reasoning to determine the correct answer. The topics covered include critical angles, energy release in nuclear reactions, capacitor arrangements for maximum energy, induced currents in magnetic fields, transformer efficiency, and more.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
14 views183 pages

JMMT 2

The document contains a series of physics questions and solutions related to optics, nuclear reactions, capacitors, magnetic fields, transformers, harmonic oscillators, and fluid dynamics. Each question presents multiple-choice answers, and the solutions provide calculations or reasoning to determine the correct answer. The topics covered include critical angles, energy release in nuclear reactions, capacitor arrangements for maximum energy, induced currents in magnetic fields, transformer efficiency, and more.

Uploaded by

mukeshpes2024
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Q1: The critical angle between a medium and air is 60°.

A ray of light travelling through


air enter the medium at an angle equal to its polarizing angle. The angle of refraction, is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) tan–1 (2)


Q1: The critical angle between a medium and air is 60°. A ray of light travelling through
air enter the medium at an angle equal to its polarizing angle. The angle of refraction, is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) tan–1 (2)

Solution:

Now from other side

So sin i = μ sin r ⇒


Q2: In the given nuclear reaction, the approximate amount of
energy released will be:
[Given, mass of mass of
mass of ]
(A) 3.82 MeV

(B) 5.9 MeV

(C) 2.12 MeV

(D) 4.25 MeV


Q2: In the given nuclear reaction, the approximate amount of
energy released will be:
[Given, mass of mass of
mass of ]
(A) 3.82 MeV

(B) 5.9 MeV

(C) 2.12 MeV

(D) 4.25 MeV

Solution:

E = (∆ m) ∆ c2
Mass defect = MA - MB - MD

= 238.05079 - 234.04363 - 4.00260

= 0.00456

Energy Released

= 4.56 × 10–3 × 931.5 MeV


= 4.24 MeV
Q3: How can we arrange three capacitors to get highest energy possible at same
potential?
(A) Two parallel and one in series

(B) three in series

(C) three in parallel

(D) none of these


Q3: How can we arrange three capacitors to get highest energy possible at same
potential?
(A) Two parallel and one in series

(B) three in series

(C) three in parallel

(D) none of these

Solution:

Since energy stored in a system of capacitors is .


We need to maximize which is possible when we add all of them in parallel.
Q4: Plane figure made of thin wires of resistance R = 50 milli ohm/metre are located in a
uniform magnetic field perpendicular into the plane of the figures and which decrease at
the rate dB/dt = 0.1 m T/s. Then currents in the inner and outer boundary are
respectively (The inner radius a = 10 cm and outer radius b = 20 cm)

(A) 10–4A (Clockwise), 2 × 10–4A (Clockwise)

(B) 10–4 A (Anticlockwise), 2 × 10–4 A(Clockwise)

(C) 2 × 10–4 (Clockwise), 10–4 A (Anticlockwise)

(D) 2 × 10–4A (Anticlockwise), 10–4 A (Anticlockwise)


Q4: Plane figure made of thin wires of resistance R = 50 milli ohm/metre are located in a
uniform magnetic field perpendicular into the plane of the figures and which decrease at
the rate dB/dt = 0.1 m T/s. Then currents in the inner and outer boundary are
respectively (The inner radius a = 10 cm and outer radius b = 20 cm)

(A) 10–4A (Clockwise), 2 × 10–4A (Clockwise)

(B) 10–4 A (Anticlockwise), 2 × 10–4 A(Clockwise)

(C) 2 × 10–4 (Clockwise), 10–4 A (Anticlockwise)

(D) 2 × 10–4A (Anticlockwise), 10–4 A (Anticlockwise)


Solution:

Current in the inner coil


Length of the inner coil = 2π a
So, its resistance R1 = 50 × 10–3 × 2π (a)
According to Lenz’s law direction of i1 is clockwise.
Induced current in outer coil

= 2 × 10–4 A (cw) = 2 × 10–4 A (cw)


Q5: A transformer is employed to reduce 220 V to 11 V. The primary draws a current of 5
A and the secondary 90 A. The efficiency of the transformer is
(A) 20%

(B) 40%

(C) 70%

(D) 90%
Q5: A transformer is employed to reduce 220 V to 11 V. The primary draws a current of 5
A and the secondary 90 A. The efficiency of the transformer is
(A) 20%

(B) 40%

(C) 70%

(D) 90%

Solution:
Q6: Two current carrying loops of radius R and 2R carrying current I and 2I respectively
are placed concentrically with their planes at right angle. The magnitude of resultant
magnetic field at the centre will be
(A) Zero

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q6: Two current carrying loops of radius R and 2R carrying current I and 2I respectively
are placed concentrically with their planes at right angle. The magnitude of resultant
magnetic field at the centre will be
(A) Zero

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:
Q7: A bar magnet having magnetic moment of 1.0 × 105 Am2 is free to rotate in a
horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field of 3 × 10–5 T exists in the space. The work
done in rotating the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 37°
from the field will be
(A) 0.1 J

(B) 0.3 J

(C) 0.6 J

(D) 1.2 J
Q7: A bar magnet having magnetic moment of 1.0 × 105 Am2 is free to rotate in a
horizontal plane. A horizontal magnetic field of 3 × 10–5 T exists in the space. The work
done in rotating the magnet slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 37°
from the field will be
(A) 0.1 J

(B) 0.3 J

(C) 0.6 J

(D) 1.2 J

Solution:
Q8: A small dipole of dipole moment is placed on x-axis at (4m, 0, 0). The region is
having an electric field intensity given by the force experienced by the dipole
is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q8: A small dipole of dipole moment is placed on x-axis at (4m, 0, 0). The region is
having an electric field intensity given by the force experienced by the dipole
is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:
Q9: An infinite layer of charge has a surface charge density of The separation
between two equipotential surfaces, whose potential differs by V volt is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q9: An infinite layer of charge has a surface charge density of The separation
between two equipotential surfaces, whose potential differs by V volt is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:
Q10: When a 12 Ω resistor is connected with a moving coil galvanometer then its
deflection reduces from 50 divisions to 10 divisions. The resistance of the galvanometer
is
(A) 24 Ω

(B) 36 Ω

(C) 48 Ω

(D) 60 Ω
Q10: When a 12 Ω resistor is connected with a moving coil galvanometer then its
deflection reduces from 50 divisions to 10 divisions. The resistance of the galvanometer
is
(A) 24 Ω

(B) 36 Ω

(C) 48 Ω

(D) 60 Ω

Solution:
Q11: In the shown circuit all the capacitors were initially uncharged and switch K is closed
at t = 0 then value of current / just after closing the switch is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q11: In the shown circuit all the capacitors were initially uncharged and switch K is closed
at t = 0 then value of current / just after closing the switch is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:
Q12: A simple harmonic oscillator of angular frequency 50 Hz is attached to the ends of a
chord that has a mass density of 0.1 kg/m, under tension of 10N. What power must
oscillator provide to the chord to generate sinusoidal wave with an amplitude of 2 cm?
(A) 0.5 watt

(B) 10 watt

(C) 1.5 watt

(D) 20 watt
Q12: A simple harmonic oscillator of angular frequency 50 Hz is attached to the ends of a
chord that has a mass density of 0.1 kg/m, under tension of 10N. What power must
oscillator provide to the chord to generate sinusoidal wave with an amplitude of 2 cm?
(A) 0.5 watt

(B) 10 watt

(C) 1.5 watt

(D) 20 watt

Solution:

= 20 watt
Q13: The maximum speed and maximum acceleration of a particle executing SHM are 10
cm/s and 50 cm/s2. The speed of the particle at distance of 1 cm from the mean position
is
(A) 5 cm/s

(B) Zero

(C)

(D)
Q13: The maximum speed and maximum acceleration of a particle executing SHM are 10
cm/s and 50 cm/s2. The speed of the particle at distance of 1 cm from the mean position
is
(A) 5 cm/s

(B) Zero

(C)

(D)

Solution:

for maximum velocity - (ω A = 10)


for maximum acceleration - (ω 2A = 50)
∴ A = 2 cm, and ω = 5 rad/s

Q14: 3rd harmonic of an open organ pipe (length l0) is in resonance with 2nd overtone of
an another closed organ pipe (length le). Then is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q14: 3rd harmonic of an open organ pipe (length l0) is in resonance with 2nd overtone of
an another closed organ pipe (length le). Then is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:
Q15: A rod of length (laterally thermally insulated) of uniform cross-sectional area A
consists of a material whose thermal conductivity varies with temperature as
where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are constants. T1 and T2 are the temperature of two ends
of rod, then the rate of flow of heat across the rod is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q15: A rod of length (laterally thermally insulated) of uniform cross-sectional area A
consists of a material whose thermal conductivity varies with temperature as
where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are constants. T1 and T2 are the temperature of two ends
of rod, then the rate of flow of heat across the rod is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:
Q16: A metal rod has length L, area of cross-section A, Young's modulus Y and coefficient
of linear expansion, . Α compressive force F is applied at the two ends of the rod and
simultaneously its temperature is increased by such that the net change in its length
is zero. The value of is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q16: A metal rod has length L, area of cross-section A, Young's modulus Y and coefficient
of linear expansion, . Α compressive force F is applied at the two ends of the rod and
simultaneously its temperature is increased by such that the net change in its length
is zero. The value of is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

y = stress/strain
stress = force / Area

strain = change in length / Length

Change in length (Delta L) = (L)(Co-efficient of thermal expansion)(Change in Temp.)


Q17: Two non-reactive monatomic ideal gases have their atomic masses in the ratio 2 : 3.
The ratio of their partial pressures, when enclosed in a vessel kept at a constant
temperature is 4 : 3. The ratio of their densities is
(A) 1:4

(B) 1:2

(C) 6:9

(D) 8:9
Q17: Two non-reactive monatomic ideal gases have their atomic masses in the ratio 2 : 3.
The ratio of their partial pressures, when enclosed in a vessel kept at a constant
temperature is 4 : 3. The ratio of their densities is
(A) 1:4

(B) 1:2

(C) 6:9

(D) 8:9

Solution:
Q18: Two spheres made of same material have radii R and 2R. They are arranged to
touch each other. The distance of the centre of mass of the system from the point of
contact of the two spheres is
(A) within the larger sphere

(B) within the smaller sphere

(C) within the larger sphere

(D) within the smaller sphere


Q18: Two spheres made of same material have radii R and 2R. They are arranged to
touch each other. The distance of the centre of mass of the system from the point of
contact of the two spheres is
(A) within the larger sphere

(B) within the smaller sphere

(C) within the larger sphere

(D) within the smaller sphere


Solution:

Let's assume they are touching each other at origin.

A(x1y1) = (–2R, 0),


A(x2y2) = (R, 0), m2 =

i.e. m1 = 8m2
Q19: Find the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface
of a planet of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude 3R.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q19: Find the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface
of a planet of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude 3R.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:
Q20: Water flows in a horizontal tube (see figure). The pressure of water changes by 700
Nm–2 between A and B where the area of cross section are 40 cm2 and 20 cm2,
respectively. Find the rate of flow of water through the tube.
(density of water = 1000 kg m–3)

(A) 3020 cm3/s

(B) 1810 cm3/s

(C) 2720 cm3/s

(D) 2420 cm3/s


Q20: Water flows in a horizontal tube (see figure). The pressure of water changes by 700
Nm–2 between A and B where the area of cross section are 40 cm2 and 20 cm2,
respectively. Find the rate of flow of water through the tube.
(density of water = 1000 kg m–3)

(A) 3020 cm3/s

(B) 1810 cm3/s

(C) 2720 cm3/s

(D) 2420 cm3/s


Solution:
Q21: Two equal drops are falling through air with steady velocity of 5 cm/s. If the drops
coalesce, the new terminal velocity is 5 × β1/3 cm/s then β is
Q21: Two equal drops are falling through air with steady velocity of 5 cm/s. If the drops
coalesce, the new terminal velocity is 5 × β1/3 cm/s then β is
4

Solution:

υ t ∝ r2


Also, r2 = r1(n)1/3 = r1(2)1/3

∴ υ 2 = (4)1/3 υ 1 = 5 × 41/3
Q22: A pulley system is attached to a massless board as shown below. The board pivots
only at the pivot point. A 10 kg mass M sits exactly in the middle of the board.

If the angle θ is 60º. The force F (in N) necessary to hold the board in the position shown
is
Q22: A pulley system is attached to a massless board as shown below. The board pivots
only at the pivot point. A 10 kg mass M sits exactly in the middle of the board.

If the angle θ is 60º. The force F (in N) necessary to hold the board in the position shown
is
25

Solution:

For equilibrium
Q23: Light is incident on an interface as shown. For reflected light to be completely
polarized, final value of tan2θ
Q23: Light is incident on an interface as shown. For reflected light to be completely
polarized, final value of tan2θ

2
Solution:

By Brewster’s law:

⇒ tan2 θ = 2
Q24: A laser beam has area of cross-section 10 mm2 and power 54 mV. Take ∈0 = 9 × 10–
12 SI units and speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s. Find the amplitude of electric field in this

electromagnetic wave, in kV/m.


Q24: A laser beam has area of cross-section 10 mm2 and power 54 mV. Take ∈0 = 9 × 10–
12 SI units and speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s. Find the amplitude of electric field in this

electromagnetic wave, in kV/m.


2

Solution:


E0 = 2 × 103 = 2 kV/m
Q25: A monoatomic gas is supplied the heat Q very slowly keeping the pressure constant.
The work done by the gas will be Q. Value of n, is ________.
Q25: A monoatomic gas is supplied the heat Q very slowly keeping the pressure constant.
The work done by the gas will be Q. Value of n, is ________.
5.00

Solution:
Q1: An ideal gas undergoes isothermal compression from 5 m3 to 1 m3 against a
constant external pressure of 4 Nm-2. Heat released in this process is used to increase
the temperature of 1 mole of Al. If molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J mol–1K–1, the
temperature of Al increases by
(A)

(B) 1K

(C) 2K

(D)
Q1: An ideal gas undergoes isothermal compression from 5 m3 to 1 m3 against a
constant external pressure of 4 Nm-2. Heat released in this process is used to increase
the temperature of 1 mole of Al. If molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J mol–1K–1, the
temperature of Al increases by
(A)

(B) 1K

(C) 2K

(D)

Solution:

w = –Pext (Vf – Vi)


= –4 Nm–2 (1 – 5)m3
= 16 Nm ⇒ 16 J
For isothermal process
∆ U = q + w ⇒ q = –w = –16J
(∴ ∆ U = 0 for isothermal process)
From calorimetry
Heat given = nC∆ T
Q2: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: SO2 and H2O both possess V-shaped structure.
Statement II: The bond angle of SO2 is less than that of H2O.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect


Q2: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: SO2 and H2O both possess V-shaped structure.
Statement II: The bond angle of SO2 is less than that of H2O.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Solution:

SO2 and H2O both have V–shape


Bond angle: SO2 > H2O
Q3: An electric current is passed through a silver voltameter connected to a water
voltameter. 0.324 g of silver was deposited on the cathode of the silver voltameter. The
volume of oxygen evolved at STP is : [Atomic mass : Ag = 108]
(A) 5.6 cm3

(B) 16.8 cm3

(C) 11.2 cm3

(D) 22.4 cm3


Q3: An electric current is passed through a silver voltameter connected to a water
voltameter. 0.324 g of silver was deposited on the cathode of the silver voltameter. The
volume of oxygen evolved at STP is : [Atomic mass : Ag = 108]
(A) 5.6 cm3

(B) 16.8 cm3

(C) 11.2 cm3

(D) 22.4 cm3

Solution:
Q4: Vapour pressure of pure liquids A, B and C are 75 torr, 22 torr and 10 torr at 20oC
which of the following is not possible value of vapour pressure of an equimolar
binary/ternary solution of these at 20oC : Assume all solution are ideal in nature.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 16
Q4: Vapour pressure of pure liquids A, B and C are 75 torr, 22 torr and 10 torr at 20oC
which of the following is not possible value of vapour pressure of an equimolar
binary/ternary solution of these at 20oC : Assume all solution are ideal in nature.
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 16

Solution:

For ternary solution,

PT maximum for binary solution

PT minimum for binary solution

(A) is correct
Q5: Highest bond order of CO will be present among the following complex :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q5: Highest bond order of CO will be present among the following complex :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

The pi-accepting nature of PCl3 is maximum among PPh3, PCl2Ph, PClPh2


Q6: Consider the following compounds and their IUPAC names

Correct matched combination is


(A) Only I and II

(B) Only I, II and III

(C) Only I, II and IV

(D) I, II, III and IV


Q6: Consider the following compounds and their IUPAC names

Correct matched combination is


(A) Only I and II

(B) Only I, II and III

(C) Only I, II and IV

(D) I, II, III and IV


Solution:
Q7: Friedel-Crafts alkylation is an example of
(A) Electrophilic addition reaction

(B) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

(C) Nucleophilic addition reaction

(D) Electrophilic substitution reaction


Q7: Friedel-Crafts alkylation is an example of
(A) Electrophilic addition reaction

(B) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

(C) Nucleophilic addition reaction

(D) Electrophilic substitution reaction

Solution:

H+ is substituted by R+ in Friedel craft’s alkylation.


Q8: In the estimation of sulphur by Carius method, 2.34 g of an organic compound gave
3.34g of Barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur in the organic compound is _____
(A) 39.32

(B) 9.83

(C) 19.60

(D) 49.60
Q8: In the estimation of sulphur by Carius method, 2.34 g of an organic compound gave
3.34g of Barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur in the organic compound is _____
(A) 39.32

(B) 9.83

(C) 19.60

(D) 49.60

Solution:
Q9: Which of the following alkene is least stable?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q9: Which of the following alkene is least stable?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Stability of alkene α no of α –hydrogen atoms


Q10: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Boron is extremely hard indicating its high latice energy
Statement II: Boron has highest melting and boiling point compared to its other group
members.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect

(B) Statement | is correct but Statement l is incorrect

(C) Both statement I and Statement II are correct

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct


Q10: Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Boron is extremely hard indicating its high latice energy
Statement II: Boron has highest melting and boiling point compared to its other group
members.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect

(B) Statement | is correct but Statement l is incorrect

(C) Both statement I and Statement II are correct

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct

Solution:

Boron is extremely hard as it exists as B12 icosahedral molecular units which accounts for its high lattice energy. So,
statement-I is correct.
Boron has the highest melting point and boiling point than other members of its group due to its network structure. So,
statement-II is also correct.
Q11: For the reaction : the relation between equilibrium total
pressure (P) and the degree of dissociation ( ) of A (g) is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q11: For the reaction : the relation between equilibrium total
pressure (P) and the degree of dissociation ( ) of A (g) is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Initial moles a 0
Equilibrium moles (a-x)
Q12: Which of the following combination of solutions of equal concentrations can never
result the formation of a buffer solution ?
(A) HCl(aq) + NH4OH(aq)

(B) NaOH(aq) + C6H5COOH(aq)

(C) NH4OH(aq) + HCN(aq)

(D) HClO4 (aq) + KOH(aq)


Q12: Which of the following combination of solutions of equal concentrations can never
result the formation of a buffer solution ?
(A) HCl(aq) + NH4OH(aq)

(B) NaOH(aq) + C6H5COOH(aq)

(C) NH4OH(aq) + HCN(aq)

(D) HClO4 (aq) + KOH(aq)

Solution:

Buffer solution will never form by mixing the solutions of strong acid and strong base.
Q13: The atomic orbital with three radial and two angular node is :
(A) 4s

(B) 3d

(C) 5f

(D) 6d
Q13: The atomic orbital with three radial and two angular node is :
(A) 4s

(B) 3d

(C) 5f

(D) 6d

Solution:

Number of radial nodes


Number of angular nodes =
For 6d, = 2 and
Q14: A first order reaction completes 10% in 10 min. In what time, the reaction will
complete 40%, temperature remaining same?

(A) 40 min

(B) 50 min

(C) 48 min

(D) 44 min
Q14: A first order reaction completes 10% in 10 min. In what time, the reaction will
complete 40%, temperature remaining same?

(A) 40 min

(B) 50 min

(C) 48 min

(D) 44 min

Solution:

= constant
Q15: 10 gm sample of bleaching powder was dissolved into water to make the solution
one litre. To this solution 35 mL of 1.0 M Mohr salt solution was added containing enough
H2 SO4. After the reaction was complete, the excess Mohr salt required 30 mL of 0.1 M
KMnO4 for oxidation. The % of available Cl2 approximately is (Molar mass of Cl2 = 71 g
mol-1)
(A) 10%

(B) 12.7%

(C) 7.1%

(D) 22%
Q15: 10 gm sample of bleaching powder was dissolved into water to make the solution
one litre. To this solution 35 mL of 1.0 M Mohr salt solution was added containing enough
H2 SO4. After the reaction was complete, the excess Mohr salt required 30 mL of 0.1 M
KMnO4 for oxidation. The % of available Cl2 approximately is (Molar mass of Cl2 = 71 g
mol-1)
(A) 10%

(B) 12.7%

(C) 7.1%

(D) 22%

Solution:

Excess of Mohr's salt = 30 × 0.1 × 5 meq.


= 15 meq
Mohr's salt consumed = [(35 × 1.0 × 1) –15] meq
= 20 meq.
Now Cl2 + 2Fe2+ → 2Fe++ 2Cl– (balanced equation)
So moles of Cl2 = 1/2 × moles of Fe2+
= 1/2 eq. of Fe2+ = 1/2 × 20 m moles = 10 moles
= 10 × 10–3 × 71 gm = 0.71 gm
So, required % = × 100 = 7.1%
Q16: If 240 g of carbon is taken in a container to convert it completely to CO2 but in
industry it has been found that 280 g of CO was also formed along with CO2. Find the
percentage yield of CO2 . The reactions occurring are

(A) 25%

(B) 50%

(C) 75%

(D) 100%
Q16: If 240 g of carbon is taken in a container to convert it completely to CO2 but in
industry it has been found that 280 g of CO was also formed along with CO2. Find the
percentage yield of CO2 . The reactions occurring are

(A) 25%

(B) 50%

(C) 75%

(D) 100%
Solution:
Q17: One of the end products of the following sequence of reactions would be

(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)
Q17: One of the end products of the following sequence of reactions would be

(A)
(B)
(C)

(D)
Solution:
Q18: pH of saturated solution of M(OH)2 having Ksp = 5 × 10–16 at 25 °C is
(A) 5

(B) 8

(C) 7

(D) 9
Q18: pH of saturated solution of M(OH)2 having Ksp = 5 × 10–16 at 25 °C is
(A) 5

(B) 8

(C) 7

(D) 9

Solution:

Ksp = (S)(2S)2 = 4S3


⇒ (4)(S)3 = 5 × 10–16
Q19: In which reaction product has one carbon unit more with respect to starting
compound?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q19: In which reaction product has one carbon unit more with respect to starting
compound?
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:
Q20: The stereoisomers that are formed by electrophilic addition of bromine to trans–
but–2–ene is/are:
(A) 1 racemic and 2 enantiomers

(B) 2 identical mesomers

(C) 2 enantiomers

(D) 2 enantiomers and 2 mesomers


Q20: The stereoisomers that are formed by electrophilic addition of bromine to trans–
but–2–ene is/are:
(A) 1 racemic and 2 enantiomers

(B) 2 identical mesomers

(C) 2 enantiomers

(D) 2 enantiomers and 2 mesomers

Solution:

anti–addition on trans 2–butane will form mesomer


Q21: The number of chiral centres present in sucrose is
Q21: The number of chiral centres present in sucrose is
9

Solution:

The star shown indicates chiral centre


Q22:

Total number of Br (Bromine) atom present in product Y is?


Q22:

Total number of Br (Bromine) atom present in product Y is?


3

Solution:
Q23: Number of unpaired electron present in Gadolinium is _____
Q23: Number of unpaired electron present in Gadolinium is _____
8

Solution:

The electronic configuration of Gd is [Xe]6s2,4f7,5d1 .


So, we see 7 electrons in 4f and 1 in 5d orbitals are unpaired. Total number of unpaired electron is 8
Q24: The standard reduction potential for Cu+2/Cu electrode is 0.34 V. The solubility
product of Cu(OH)2 is 1.0 × 10-19. The pH of solution at which the reduction potential for
the electrode becomes 0.31 V if Cu+2 concentration is maintained by salt?
Q24: The standard reduction potential for Cu+2/Cu electrode is 0.34 V. The solubility
product of Cu(OH)2 is 1.0 × 10-19. The pH of solution at which the reduction potential for
the electrode becomes 0.31 V if Cu+2 concentration is maintained by salt?

5
Solution:
Q25: Number of possible product formed
Q25: Number of possible product formed

18

Solution:
Q1: If the vector is written as the sum of a vector (parallel to
) and a vector (perpendicular to ), then is equal to:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q1: If the vector is written as the sum of a vector (parallel to
) and a vector (perpendicular to ), then is equal to:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

is parallel to

is perpendicular to

also,

Take dot with


Q2: If a, b, c are in Arithmetic Progression, a2, b2, c2 are in Geometric Progression, a + b +
c = and a < b < c, then the value of a is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q2: If a, b, c are in Arithmetic Progression, a2, b2, c2 are in Geometric Progression, a + b +
c = and a < b < c, then the value of a is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Let the number be x – y, x, x + y

a2, b2 c2 in GP
b = a2 c2
4
Q3: If a3 + b6 = 2, then the maximum value of the term independent of x in the expansion
of (ax1/3 + bx–1/6)9 is (a > 0, b > 0)
(A) 84

(B) 68

(C) 42

(D) 148
Q3: If a3 + b6 = 2, then the maximum value of the term independent of x in the expansion
of (ax1/3 + bx–1/6)9 is (a > 0, b > 0)
(A) 84

(B) 68

(C) 42

(D) 148

Solution:

AM ≥ GM
Tr+1 = 9Cr (ax1/3)9–r . (bx–1/6)r
For term independent of x

⇒ 18 – 3r = 0
⇒r=6

⇒ T7 ≤ 9C6 ⇒ T7 ≤ 84
Q4: Let the unit vectors be the position vectors of the vertices of a triangle ABC. If
is the position vector of the midpoint of the line segment joining its orthocentre and

centroid then

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) None of these


Q4: Let the unit vectors be the position vectors of the vertices of a triangle ABC. If
is the position vector of the midpoint of the line segment joining its orthocentre and

centroid then

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) None of these

Solution:

Let the circumcentre of the triangle be the origin.


Orthocentre is and the centroid is
Q5: The number of real solutions of the equation ,
is
(A) 4

(B) 0

(C) 3

(D) 2
Q5: The number of real solutions of the equation ,
is
(A) 4

(B) 0

(C) 3

(D) 2

Solution:

Let

No solution.
Q6: Let A (4, –4) and B (9, 6) be points on the parabola, y2 = 4x. Let C be chosen on the arc
AOB of the parabola, where O is the origin, such that the area of ∆ACB is maximum.
Then, the area (in sq. units) of ∆ACB, is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q6: Let A (4, –4) and B (9, 6) be points on the parabola, y2 = 4x. Let C be chosen on the arc
AOB of the parabola, where O is the origin, such that the area of ∆ACB is maximum.
Then, the area (in sq. units) of ∆ACB, is:
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Let the coordinates of C is (t2, 2t).


Since, area of ACB
Q7: The area of the region given by is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q7: The area of the region given by is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Area
Q8: Let O be the origin, the point A be the point B(z2) be such that
and Then
(A) area of triangle ABO is

(B) ABO is a scalene triangle

(C) area of triangle ABO is

(D) ABO is an obtuse angled isosceles triangle


Q8: Let O be the origin, the point A be the point B(z2) be such that
and Then
(A) area of triangle ABO is

(B) ABO is a scalene triangle

(C) area of triangle ABO is

(D) ABO is an obtuse angled isosceles triangle

Solution:

given arg

Now,

is isosceles with angles


Q9: The number of ways of arranging letters of word HAVANA such that V and N do not
appear together is
(A) 20

(B) 40

(C) 80

(D) 160
Q9: The number of ways of arranging letters of word HAVANA such that V and N do not
appear together is
(A) 20

(B) 40

(C) 80

(D) 160

Solution:

Number of ways
Q10: A fair die is thrown repeatedly. If '6' appears on first three throws, then the
probability of '1' appearing on the fourth throw, is-
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q10: A fair die is thrown repeatedly. If '6' appears on first three throws, then the
probability of '1' appearing on the fourth throw, is-
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

All throws are independent


Q11: Let . Then which one of the following is

true?
(A) is differentiable at but not at

(B) is neither differentiable at nor at

(C) is differentiable at and at

(D) is differentiable at but not at


Q11: Let . Then which one of the following is

true?
(A) is differentiable at but not at

(B) is neither differentiable at nor at

(C) is differentiable at and at

(D) is differentiable at but not at


Solution:

By definition
if the limit exists.

As the limit doesn’t exist,


it is not differentiable at
Again if the limit exists

But this limit doesn’t exist.


Hence it is not differentiable at .
Q12: If f(x) = and f(0) = 1 then value of f(π/2) equals

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q12: If f(x) = and f(0) = 1 then value of f(π/2) equals

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

put sinx = t

If g(t) =

f(x) =
f(0) = 1 ⇒ c = 0
Q13: For the system of linear equations ,
, which one of the following statements is NOT correct
?
(A) It has infinitely many solutions if and

(B) It has no solution if and

(C) if and

(D) It has infinitely many solutions if and


Q13: For the system of linear equations ,
, which one of the following statements is NOT correct
?
(A) It has infinitely many solutions if and

(B) It has no solution if and

(C) if and

(D) It has infinitely many solutions if and


Solution:

For

infinite solution

For

For unique solution


Q14: If y = (where cos x > 0), then can not
be equal to
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q14: If y = (where cos x > 0), then can not
be equal to
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

from (i), y2 - y - cosx = 0

multiply by y
Q15: Let f : R → R be such that and , then the value of

equals

(A) 1

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q15: Let f : R → R be such that and , then the value of

equals

(A) 1

(B)

(C)

(D)

Solution:

Applying L Hospital's rule


Q16: If then the value of is equal to
(A) Zero

(B) 1

(C) 3

(D) 12
Q16: If then the value of is equal to
(A) Zero

(B) 1

(C) 3

(D) 12

Solution:
Q17: If is a function defined by if and then
number of one-one functions from is
(A) 60

(B) 90

(C) 100

(D) 120
Q17: If is a function defined by if and then
number of one-one functions from is
(A) 60

(B) 90

(C) 100

(D) 120

Solution:

If

then number of one-one function from A to B is


Q18: Let a curve satisfying the differential equation (x2 – y x2)
passes through (1, 1) and intersects the line y = 2x at (a, b), then the value of is
(A) Zero

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3
Q18: Let a curve satisfying the differential equation (x2 – y x2)
passes through (1, 1) and intersects the line y = 2x at (a, b), then the value of is
(A) Zero

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 3

Solution:

Using variable separable method

Curve passes through (1, 1)


So, C = –2

Solving with y = 2x
We get

Q19: If f(x) = min{|x – 1|, |x|, |x + 1|}, then equals

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Q19: If f(x) = min{|x – 1|, |x|, |x + 1|}, then equals

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)
Solution:

Graph of f(x)
Q20: The image of the point P(1, 0, 0) in the line is
(A) (1, 2, 2)

(B) (1, –2, 2)

(C) (1, 2, –2)

(D) (1, –2, –2)


Q20: The image of the point P(1, 0, 0) in the line is
(A) (1, 2, 2)

(B) (1, –2, 2)

(C) (1, 2, –2)

(D) (1, –2, –2)

Solution:

Let a point on line be Q(2λ + 1, –3λ – 1, 3λ – 1)

∴ 2(2λ ) – 3(–3λ – 1) + 3(3λ – 1) = 0


4λ + 9λ + 3 + 9λ – 3 = 0
λ=0
Q (1, –1, –1)
Let image P’


⇒ P’ = (1, –2, –2)
Q21: 2(cosx + cos2x) + (1 + 2cosx) sin2x = 2sinx Total no. of solutions in [–π, π] is
Q21: 2(cosx + cos2x) + (1 + 2cosx) sin2x = 2sinx Total no. of solutions in [–π, π] is
5

Solution:

Given : 2cosx + 2cos2x + sin2x + 2cosx sin2x= 2sinx


= 2cosx + 2cos 2x + 2sinx cosx + (sin3x– sinx)= 0
= 2 cos x + 2 cos2x + 2sinx cosx + 2cos2x sinx= 0
= 2 cosx (1 + sinx) + 2 cos 2x (1 + sinx) = 0
(1 + sinx) (2 cosx + 2 cos2x) = 0
2 (1 + sinx) (cosx + cos2x) = 0
2 (1 + sin x) 2 cos
⇒ sin x = −1 ⇒ x = 2nπ +
are solution in [–π, π]

All solutions =
5 solutions.
Q22: The exhaustive set of values of parameters m for which function f(x) = 9x3 + 9 (m –
1)x2 + 3(m + 5) x + 7 is increasing for is than value of 6k2 is
Q22: The exhaustive set of values of parameters m for which function f(x) = 9x3 + 9 (m –
1)x2 + 3(m + 5) x + 7 is increasing for is than value of 6k2 is
6
Solution:

f(x) = 9x3 + 9(m–1)x2+ (m + 5) x + 7


f'(x) = 27x2 + 18 (m – 1) x + 3 (m + 5)
f'(x) = 3 [9x2 + 6(m – 1)x + (m + 5)]
f ′ (x) ⩾ 0 for x ⩾ 0

(2) f (0) > 0


m+5>0
m > -5 ……(ii)
From (i) and (ii),

k = 1, 6k
=6
Ans. 6
Q23: Let where Then

n(s) is equal to ________.


Q23: Let where Then

n(s) is equal to ________.


2.00
Solution:

and so on

n(s) = 2
Q24: If the curves and
touch each other at a point, then the largest value of k is _________.
Q24: If the curves and
touch each other at a point, then the largest value of k is _________.
36.00

Solution:

Given,

Here, centre = (3, 0) and


radius
and
Here, centre = (0, 4) and
radius
Two circles touch each other if
or
or 36
Maximum value of k is 36
Q25: The number of natural numbers n such that the highest power of 6 in n! is 117, is
Q25: The number of natural numbers n such that the highest power of 6 in n! is 117, is
0

Solution:

Let x be the highest power of 3 in n!.

Now x = 117
∴ n > 2 × 117 ⇒ n > 234
For n = 237,

∴ When n = 240 highest power of 3 will be116 for n = 241, n = 242 this will remain same but when n = 243, highest
power will be 121.
∴ There does not exist any n.

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