PART-I: PHYSICS

1. Which of the following is the correct (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
expression of instantaneous acceleration? the Reason is a correct explanation of the
[New NCERT/XI/16] Assertion.
(1) a =
Δv
(2) 𝑎 =
𝑑𝑣 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(Δt)2 𝑑𝑡
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
𝑑2𝑣 Δ𝑣 2
(3) 𝑎 = (4) 𝑎 = ( ) Assertion.
𝑑𝑡 2 Δ𝑡
2. Two wires 𝑨 and 𝑩 of the same material, (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
having radii in the ratio 𝟏: 𝟐 and carry currents incorrect.
in the ratio 𝟒: 𝟏. The ratio of drift speed of (4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
electrons in A and B is [New NCERT/XII/86] 6. Consider a force 𝑭 ⃗⃗ = −𝒙𝒊ˆ + 𝒚𝒋ˆ. The work done
(1) 16: 1 (2) 1: 16 by this force in moving a particle from point
(3) 1: 4 (4) 4: 1 𝐀(𝟏, 𝟎) to 𝐁(𝟎, 𝟏) along the line segment is: (all
3. Three Charges 𝟐𝒒, −𝒒 and −𝒒 lie at vertices of quantities are in SI units) [New NCERT/XI/74]
a triangle. The value of 𝑬 and 𝑽 at centroid of
triangle will be- [New NCERT/XII/148]
(1) E ≠ 0 and 𝑉 ≠ 0 (2) E = 0 and V = 0
(3) E ≠ 0 and V = 0 (4) E = 0 and V ≠ 0
4. A particle of mass 𝒎 is moving with velocity
𝒗𝟏 , it is given an impulse such that the
velocity becomes 𝒗𝟐 . Then magnitude of
impulse is equal to [New NCERT/XI/55]
(1) 𝑚(𝑣⃗2 − 𝑣⃗1 ) (2) m(v⃗⃗1 − v⃗⃗2 ) (1) 2 J (2)
1
J
2
(3) 𝑚 × (𝑣⃗2 − 𝑣⃗1 ) (4) 0.5 m(v ⃗⃗2 − v ⃗⃗1 ) 3
(3) 1 J (4) J
5. In the light of the above statements-Assertion 2
& Reason, choose the most appropriate 7. Through two parallel wires A and 𝐁, 𝟏𝟎 𝐀 and 2
answer from the options given below: A of currents are passed respectively in
Assertion : The horizontal range is same when opposite directions. If the wire 𝑨 is infinitely
the angle of projection is greater than 𝟒𝟓∘ by long and the length of the wire 𝑩 is 𝟐𝒎, then
certain value and less than 𝟒𝟓∘ by the same force on the conductor 𝑩, which is situated at
value. 10 cm distance from A , will be
Reason: If 𝜽 = 𝟒𝟓∘ + 𝜶, then [New NCERT/XII/123]
𝒖𝟐 𝐬𝐢𝐧⁡ 𝟐(𝟒𝟓∘ + 𝜶) 𝒖𝟐 𝐜𝐨𝐬⁡ 𝟐𝜶 (1) 8 × 10−7 N (2) 8 × 10−5 N
𝑹𝟏 = = (3) 4 × 10−7 N (4) 4 × 10−5 N
𝒈 𝒈
𝒖𝟐 𝐬𝐢𝐧⁡ 𝟐(𝟒𝟓∘ −𝜶) 𝒖𝟐 𝐜𝐨𝐬⁡ 𝟐𝜶 8. Metals getting magnetised by orientation of
If 𝜽 = 𝟒𝟓∘ − 𝜶, then 𝑹𝟐 = =
𝒈 𝒈 atomic magnetic moments in external
[New NCERT/XI/39, 40] magnetic field are called
[New NCERT/XII/148]
 (1) diamagnetic (2) paramagnetic (3) height of the liquid column
(3) ferromagnetic (4) antimagnetic (4) directions
9. Eddy currents are produced when 16. Two satellites of masses 𝒎𝟏 and 𝒎𝟐 (𝒎𝟏 > 𝒎𝟐 )
[New NCERT/XII/218] are revolving round the earth in circular orbits
(1) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field of radii 𝒓𝟏 and 𝒓𝟐 (𝒓𝟏 > 𝒓𝟐 ) respectively. Which
(2) A metal is kept in the steady magnetic field of the following statements is true regarding
(3) A circular coil is placed in a magnetic field their velocities 𝒗𝟏 and 𝒗𝟐 ?
(4) Through a circular coil, current is passed [New NCERT/XI/137]
10. Which of the following is not a dimensionless (1) 𝑣1 = 𝑣2 (2) 𝑣1 < 𝑣2
quantity? [New NCERT/XI/7] (3) 𝑣1 > 𝑣2
𝑣 𝑣
(4) ( 1 ) = ( 2)
𝑟2 𝑟2
(1) Relative magnetic permeability (𝜇r )
17. Two point charges placed in a medium of
(2) Power factor
dielectric constant 5 are at a distance 𝒓
(3) Permeability of free space (𝜇0 )
between them, experience an electrostatic
(4) Quality factor
force ' 𝑭 '. The electrostatic force between
11. A car moves at a speed of 𝟐𝟎 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 on a banked
them in vacuum at the same distance 𝒓 will
track and describes an arc of a circle of radius
be- [New NCERT/XII/7]
𝟒𝟎√𝟑 𝐦. The angle of banking is (𝐠 = 𝟏𝟎 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 )
(1) 5 F (2) F
[New NCERT/XI/64]
(3) F/2 (4) 𝐹/5
(1) 25∘ (2) 60∘
18. A stone of mass 𝒎 is tied to a string of length
(3) 45∘ (4) 30∘
𝓵 and rotated in a circle with a constant speed
12. If two equal masses (𝒎𝟏 = 𝒎𝟐 ) collide
v , if the string is released the stone flies
elastically in one dimension, where 𝒎𝟐 is at
[New NCERT/XI/42]
rest and 𝒎𝟏 moves with a velocity 𝒖𝟏 , then the
(1) radially outward
final velocities of two masses are
(2) radially inward
[New NCERT/XI/84]
(3) tangentially outward
(1) 𝑉1 = 0; 𝑉2 = 𝑢1 (2) V1 = V2 = 0
(4) with an acceleration 𝑚𝑣 2 /ℓ
(3) 𝑉1 = 0 and 𝑉2 = −𝑢1 (4) V1 = −u1 ; V2 = 0
19. The energy required to charge a parallel plate
13. The mass per unit length of a non - uniform
condenser of plate separation 𝒅 and plate area
rod of length 𝑳 varies as 𝒎 = 𝝀𝒙 where 𝝀 is
of cross-section 𝑨 such that the uniform
constant. The centre of mass of the rod will be
electric field between the plates is 𝑬, is
at ; [New NCERT/XI/97]
2 3
[New NCERT/XII/74]
(1) 𝐿 (2) 𝐿 1
3 2 (1) 𝜖0 𝐸 2 Ad (2) 𝜖0 ⁡𝐸 2 Ad
1 4 2
(3) 𝐿 (4) 𝐿 1
𝜖 𝐸2 ∈0 𝐸 2
2 3 2 0
(3) (4)
14. The figure shows a planet in elliptical orbit Ad Ad

around the sun 𝑺. Where is the kinetic energy 20. A particle has an initial velocity 𝟑𝒊ˆ + 𝟒𝒋ˆ and an
of the planet maximum? [New NCERT/XI/129] acceleration of 𝟎. 𝟒𝒊ˆ + 𝟎. 𝟑𝒋ˆ. Its speed after 10
sec is [New NCERT/XI/37]
(1) 7√2 units (2) 7 units
(3) 8.5 units (4) 10 units
21. A cell of internal resistance 𝒓 is connected
across an external resistancenr. Then the
(1) 𝑃1 (2) 𝑃2 ratio of the terminal voltage to the emf of the
(3) 𝑃3 (4) 𝑃4 cell is [New NCERT/XII/94]
1 1
15. Liquid pressure depends upon (1) (2)
𝑛 𝑛+1
[New NCERT/XI/182, 183] 𝑛 𝑛−1
(3) (4)
(1) area of the liquid surface 𝑛+1 𝑛

(2) shape of the liquid surface

22. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil (1) increase by 250 J (2) decreases by 250 J
of radius 𝒓, through which a current 𝑰 flows is (3) increases by 50 J (4) decreases by 50 J
[New NCERT/XII/116] 29. In the energy band diagram of a material
(1) directly proportional to 𝑟 shown below, the open circles and filled
(2) inversely proportional to 𝐼 circles denote holes and electrons
(3) directly proportional to 𝐼 respectively. The material is
(4) directly proprotional to 𝐼 2 [New NCERT/XII/326]
23. If both the number of turns and core length of
an inductor is doubled keeping other factors
constant, then its selfinductance will be-
[New NCERT/XII/168]
(1) Unaffected (2) doubled
(3) halved (4) quadrupled
24. If wattless current flows in the AC circuit,
then the circuit is [New NCERT/XII/187]
(1) Purely Resistive circuit (1) an insulator
(2) Purely Inductive circuit (2) a metal
(3) LCR series circuit (3) an n-type semiconductor
(4) RC series circuit only (4) a p-type semiconductor
25. Identify the logic operation performed by the 30. Match Column I with Column II.
given circuit : [New NCERT/XII/491] [New NCERT/XII/27, 50, 51, 62]
Column I
(A) Inside a conductor placed in an external
electric field.
(B) At the centre of a dipole
(C) Dipole in stable equilibrium
(1) AND gate (2) OR gate (D) Electric dipole perpendicular to uniform
(3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate electric field.
26. Drops of liquid of density 𝝆 are floating half (1) (A) → (2); (B) → (4); (C) → (3); (D) → (1)
immersed in a liquid of density 𝝈. If the (2) (A) → (2); (B) → (3); (C) → (4); (D) → (1)
surface tension of liquid is 𝑻, the radius of the (3) (A) → (2); (B) → (3); (C) → (1); (D) → (4)
drop will [New NCERT/XI/194] (4) (A) → (1); (B) → (3); (C) → (4); (D) → (2)
3𝑇 6𝑇
(1) √ (2) √ 31. Which principle is involved in the experiment
𝑔(3𝑝−𝜎) 𝑔(2𝜌−𝜎)
to determine the specific heat of a liquid by
3𝑇 3𝑇
(3) √ (4) √ the method of mixture?
𝑔(2𝜌−𝜎) 𝑔(4𝜌−3𝜎)
[XI/Practical Skills]
27. If 𝜶, 𝜷 and 𝜸 are coefficient of linear, area and
(1) Heat gained by solid = Heat lost by colorimeter
volume expansion respectively, then
and liquid.
[New NCERT/XI/207]
(2) Heat lost by solid = Heat gained by calorimeter
(1) 𝛾 = 3𝛼 (2) 𝛼 = 3𝛾
and liquid.
(3) 𝛽 = 3𝛼 (4) 𝛾 = 3𝛽
(3) Heat lost by solid and liquid = Heat gained by
28. A gas is compressed from a volume of 𝟐 𝐦𝟑 to
calorimeter.
a volume of 𝟏 𝐦𝟑 at a constant pressure of
(4) Heat gained by solid and calorimeter = Heat
𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝐍/𝐦𝟐 . Then it is heated at constant
lost by liquid.
volume by supplying 150 J of energy. As a
32. The 𝑷-V diagram of a gas system undergoing
result, the internal energy of the gas:
cyclic process is shown here. The work done
[New NCERT/XI/229]
during isobaric compression is
[New NCERT/XI/235]
 38. The displacement vs time of a particle
executing SHM is shown in figure. The initial
phase 𝝓 is [New NCERT/XI/264]

(1) 100 J (2) 200 J

(3) 600 J (4) 400 J 𝜋 3𝜋
(1) −𝜋 < 𝜙 < − (2) 𝜋 < 𝜙 <
33. The given 𝑷 − 𝑽 curve is predicted by 2 2
3𝜋 𝜋
[New NCERT/XI/247] (3) − < 𝜙 < −𝜋 (4) <𝜙<𝜋
2 2
39. If the pressure in a closed vessel is reduced by
drawing out some gas, the mean-free path of
the molecules [New NCERT/XII/255]
(1) is decreased
(2) is increased
(3) remains unchanged
(4) increases or decreases according to the nature
of the gas
(1) Boyle's law (2) Charle's law 40. Given below are two statements: In the light
(3) Avogadro's law (4) Gaylussac's law of the given statements, choose the correct
34. The refracting angle of a prism is 𝑨 and answer from the options given.
refractive index of the material of the prism is Statement I : The electric bulbs glows
𝐜𝐨𝐭⁡(𝐀/𝟐). Then the angle of minimum immediately when switch is on.
deviation will be [New NCERT/XII/240] Statement II : The drift velocity of electrons
(1) 180 − 2 A (2) 90 − A in a metallic wire is very high.
(3) 180 + 2 A (4) 180 − 3 A [New NCERT/XII/86, 88]
35. A slit of width 𝒂 is illuminated by red light of (1) Both statement I and II are correct.
wavelength 𝟔𝟓𝟎𝟎Å. If the first minimum falls (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
at 𝜽 = 𝟑𝟎∘ , the value of a is (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
[New NCERT/XII/267] incorrect.
(1) 6.5 × 10 mm
−4
(2) 1.3 micron (4) Statement II is correct but statement 𝐼 is
(3) 3250Å (4) 2.6 × 10−4 cm incorrect.
36. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 41. Which statement is true for Gauss law-
eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of [New NCERT/XII/29]
the wavelengths is nearest to (1) All the charges whether inside or outside the
[New NCERT/XII/281] gaussian surface contribute to the electric flux.
(1) 1: 2 (2) 4: 1 (2) Electric flux depends upon the geometry of the
(3) 2: 1 (4) 1: 4 gaussian surface.
37. In a hydrogen atom following the Bohr's (3) Gauss theorem can be applied to non-uniform
postulates the product of linear momentum electric field.
and angular momentum is proportional to (𝒏)𝒙 (4) The electric field over the gaussian surface
where ' 𝒏 ' is the orbit number. Then ' 𝒙 ' is remains continuous and uniform at every point.
[New NCERT/XII/299] 42. Given below are two statements: In the light
(1) 0 (2) 2 of the given statements, choose the correct
(3) -2 (4) 1 answer from the options given.
 Statement I: The surface charge densities of small resistance 𝑹𝟐 , two identical
two spherical conductor of different radii are galvanometers 𝑮𝟏 and 𝑮𝟐 , and a variable
equal. Then electric field intensity near their voltage source 𝑽. The correct circuit to carry
surfaces are also equal. out the experiment is
Statement II : Surface charge density is equal [XII/Practical Skills]
to charge per unit area.
[New NCERT/XII/14, 28]
(1) Both statement I and II are correct.
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect. (1) (2)
(4) Statement II is correct but statement 𝐼 is
incorrect.
43. The speed of light in media ' 𝑨 ' and ' 𝑩 ' are
𝟐. 𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟎 𝐜𝐦/𝐬 and 𝟏. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟎 𝐜𝐦/𝐬
respectively. A ray of light enters from the
(3) (4)
medium 𝑩 to 𝑨 at an incident angle ' 𝜽 '. If the
45. If a proton and an electron have same de-
ray suffers total internal reflection, then
Broglie wavelength, then
[New NCERT/XII/230]
3 2 [New NCERT/XII/285]
(1) 𝜃 = sin−1 ⁡ ( ) (2) 𝜃 > sin−1 ⁡ ( ) (1) both have same kinetic energy
4 3
3 3
(3) 𝜃 < sin ⁡ ( )
−1
(4) 𝜃 > sin ⁡ ( )
−1 (2) proton has more K.E. than electron
4 4
44. To verify Ohm's law, a student is provided (3) electron has more K.E. than proton
with a test resistor 𝑹𝑻 , high resistance 𝑹𝟏 , a (4) both have same velocity

PART-II: CHEMISTRY

46. An electron from one Bohr stationary orbit (1) Both statement I and II are correct.
can go to next higher orbit (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
[New NCERT/XI/46] (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(1) by emission of electromagnetic radiation incorrect.
(2) by absorption of any electromagnetic radiation (4) Statement II is correct but statement 𝐼 is
(3) by absorption of electromagnetic radiation of incorrect.
particular frequency 49. An 𝒔𝒑𝟑 -hybrid orbital contains
(4) without emission or absorption of [New NCERT/XI/122]
electromagnetic radiation (1) 25%𝑠-character (2) 75% s-character
47. Which one of the following is not correct for (3) 50%𝑠-character (4) 25%𝑝-character
an ideal solution? [New NCERT/XII/13] 50. Which of the following statements about
(1) It must obey Raoult's law galvanic cell is incorrect [New NCERT/XII/33]
(2) Δ𝐻 = 0 (1) anode is positive
(3) Δ𝐻 = Δ𝑉 ≠ 0 (2) oxidation occurs at the electrode with lower
(4) All are correct reduction potential
48. Statement I: Grignard reagents are prepared (3) cathode is positive
in ethers but not in benzene. (4) reduction occurs at cathode
Statement II: Grignard reagents are soluble in
benzene. [New NCERT/XII/180]
51. Identify the method by which 𝐌𝐞𝟑 𝐂𝐂𝐎𝟐 𝐇 can be (1) primary alcohol
prepared [New NCERT/XII/46] (2) secondary or tertiary alcohol
(1) Treating 1 mol of MeCOMe with 2 moles of (3) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols
MeMgI. (4) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
(2) Treating 1 mol of MeCO2 Me with 3 moles of 58. Which of the following properties of glucose
MeMgI . cannot be explained by its open chain
(3) Treating 1 mol of MeCHO with 3 moles of structure? [New NCERT/XII/283]
MeMgI . (i) Glucose does not form hydrogen sulphite with
(4) Treating 1 mol of dry ice with 1 mole of NaHSO3
Me3 CMgI. (ii) On oxidation with HNO3 glucose gives
52. Amphoteric oxide among the following is saccharic acid.
[Old NCERT/XI/319] (iii) Glucose is found to exist in two different
(1) B2 O3 (2) Ga 2 O3 crystalline forms which are named as 𝛼 and 𝛽.
(3) In2 O3 (4) Tl2 O3 (iv) On reaction with bromine water glucose gives
53. Preparation of Lyophobic sols by chemical gluconic acid.
method involves- [Practical Chemistry] (v) On heating with HI , glucose forms n-hexane.
(1) double decomposition (1) (ii) only (2) (i) and (iii)
(2) oxidation & reduction (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (v)
(3) hydrolysis 59. Which of the following pairs constitutes a
(4) All of these buffer? [New NCERT/XI/202-203]
54. Which of the following will give a pair of (1) NaOH and NaCl (2) HNO3 and NH4 NO3
enantiomers? [New NCERT/XII/126] (3) HCl and KCl (4) HNO2 and NaNO2
(1) [Cr(NH3 )6 ][Co(CN)6 ] (2) [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]Cl 60. Assertion : Bond angle of 𝐇𝟐 𝐒 is smaller than
(3) [Pt(NH3 )4 ][PtCl6 ] (4) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]NO2 𝐇𝟐 𝐎.
(en = NH2 CH2 CH2 NH2 ) Reason : Electronegativity of the central atom
55. Which has maximum number of molecules? increases, bond angle decreases.
[New NCERT/XI/18] [Old NCERT/XII/188]
(1) 7 g N2 (2) 2 gH2 (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(3) 16 gNO2 (4) 16 gO2 the Reason is a correct explanation of the
56. Assertion : A process is called adiabatic if the Assertion.
system does not exchange heat with the (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
surroundings. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Reason : It does not involve increase or Assertion.
decrease in temperature of the system. (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
[New NCERT/XI/138] incorrect.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
the Reason is a correct explanation of the correct.
Assertion. 61. Which one of the following esters is obtained
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but by the esterification of propan-2-ol with
Reason is not a correct explanation of the ethanoic acid? [New NCERT/XII/251]
Assertion. (1) (CH3 )2 CHCOOCH3 (2) CH3 COOCH2 CH3
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is (3) CH3 COOCH(CH3 )2 (4) (CH3 )2 CHCOOCH2 CH3
incorrect. 62. By which reaction ethene is obtained from
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is ethyne? [New NCERT/XI/309]
correct. (1) oxidation (2) polymerisation
57. Acid catalyzed hydration of alkenes except (3) hydrogenation (4) dehydrogenation
ethene leads to the formation of 63. Which of the following elements form basic
[New NCERT/XII/199] oxide? [New NCERT/XI/94]
 (1) Aluminium (2) Carbon (1) Borax bead test (2) Flame test
(3) Nitrogen (4) Magnesium (3) Brown ring test (4) Permangante test
64. Hinsberg's method to separate amines is based 70. Which of the following carboxylic acid can be
on the use of [New NCERT/XII/271] esterified most readily? [New NCERT/XII/251]
(1) benzene sulphonyl chloride (1) CH3 COOH (2) (CH3 )2 CHCOOH
(2) benzene sulphonic acid
(3) ethyl oxalate
(4) acetyl chloride (3) (CH3 )2 CCOOH (4)
65. Which one of the following is NOT a ligand ? 71. Which of the following sets of quantum
[New NCERT/XII/121] numbers is correct for an electron in 𝟒𝒇
(1) PH3 (2) NO+ orbital? [New NCERT/XI/56]
1
(3) Na +
(4) F − (1) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = +1, 𝑠 = +
2
66. Which one of the following is ethyl-4- (2) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 4, 𝑚 = −4, 𝑠 = −
1
2
(dimethyl amino) butanoate? 1
[New NCERT/XI/267] (3) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = +4, 𝑠 = +
2
1
(4) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = +
2
72. Assertion : The order of a reaction can have
(1)
fractional value.
Reason : The order of a reaction cannot be
written from balanced equation of a reaction.
[New NCERT/XII/68]
(2) (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
(4)
(𝟏) incorrect.
67. If the equilibrium constant for 𝑨 ⇌ 𝑩 + 𝑪 is 𝑲𝒆𝒒
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
(𝟐)
and that of 𝐁 + 𝐂 ⇌ 𝐏 is 𝐊 𝐞𝐪 , the equilibrium correct.
constant for 𝐀 ⇌ 𝐏 is : [New NCERT/XI/176] 73. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol
(1)
Keq (2) (1) having the same molecular formula. This is
(1) (2) (2) K eq − K eq
Keq due to [New NCERT/XII/204]
(1) (2)
(3) K eq + K eq
(1)
(4) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 𝐾𝑒𝑞
(2) (1) dipolar character of ethers
68. Statement 𝐈: 𝐇𝐟 has greater density than Zr . (2) alcohols having resonance structures
Statement II : Lanthanoid contraction is (3) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
responsible for similar radi of Hf and Zr .3 (4) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
[New NCERT/XII/109] 74. The oxidation number of sulphur in
(1) Both statement I and II are correct. 𝐒𝟖 , 𝐒𝟐 𝐅𝟐 , 𝐇𝟐 𝐒 respectively, are
(2) Both statement 𝐼 and II are incorrect. [New NCERT/XI/240]
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) 0, +1 and -2 (2) +2, +1 and -2
incorrect. (3) 0, +1 and +2 (4) −2, +1 and -2
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is 75. The vapour pressure at a given temperature of
incorrect. an ideal solution containing 0.2 mol of a non-
69. Which of the following is not a preliminary volatile solute and 0.8 mol of solvent is 60 mm
test used to detect ions? [Practical Chemistry]
 of Hg . The vapour pressure of the pure solvent (l) [Ti(en)2 (NH3 )2 ]4+
at the same temperature is (2) [Cr(NH3 )6 ]3+
[New NCERT/XII/16] (3) [Zn(NH3 )6 ]2+
(1) 150 mm of Hg (2) 60 mm of Hg (4) [Sc(H2 O)3 (NH3 )3 ]3+
(3) 75 mm of Hg (4) 120 mm of Hg (At. no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24 )
76. Match Column-I with Column-II. 80. A compound does not react with 2,4
[New NCERT/XII/210, 213, 215] dinitrophenylhydrazine, the compound is :
Column-I [New NCERT/XII/240]
(A) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (1) Acetone (2) Acetaldehdye
(B) Kolbe's reaction (3) CH3 OH (4) CH3 CH2 COCH3
(C) Williamson's synthesis 81. In neutral or faintly alkaline medium, 𝐊𝐌𝐧𝐎𝟒
(D) Conversion of 2∘ alcohol to ketone being a powerful oxidant can oxidize,
Column-II thiosulphate almost quantitatively, to
(p) Conversion of phenol to 𝑜-hydroxysalicylic sulphate. In this reaction overall change in
acid oxidation state of manganese will be :
(q) Conversion of phenol to salicylaldehyde [New NCERT/XII/108]
(r) Heated copper at 573 K (1) 5 (2) 1
(s) Reaction of alkyl halide with sodium alkoxide (3) 6 (4) 3
(1) A − (s), B − (r), C − (q), D − (p) 82. The IUPAC name of diethyl isopropyl amine is
(2) A − (q), B − (s), C − (p), D − (r) [New NCERT/XII/260-261]
(3) A − (q), B − (p), C − (s), D − (r) (1) N, N-diethylpropan-2-amine
(4) A − (r), B − (q), C − (p), D − (s) (2) N, N-diethylpropan-1-amine
77. An ideal gas expands in volume from 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 (3) N, N-diethylisopropylamine
to 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐 𝐦𝟑 at 300 K against a constant (4) N, N-diethylaminopropane
pressure of 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎𝟓 𝐍𝐦−𝟐 . The work done is 83. Identify the alkyne in the following sequence
[New NCERT/XI/141] of reactions.
(1) 270 kJ (2) -900 kJ
(3) -900 J (4) 900 kJ
Wacker
78. Assertion : Lone pair-lone pair repulsive Process
𝐁 ⁡ 𝐂𝟐 𝐇𝟒
interactions are greater than lone pair-bond only

pair and bond pair-bond pair interactions. [New NCERT/XI/309, 313, 317]
Reason : The space occupied by lone pair (1) H3 C − C ≡ C − CH3
electrons is more as compared to bond pair (2) H3 C − CH2 − C ≡ CH
electrons. [Practical Chemistry] (3) H2 C = CH − C ≡ CH
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (4) HC ≡ C − CH2 − C ≡ CH
the Reason is a correct explanation of the 84. Consider the following statements:
Assertion. [New NCERT/XII/74, 77, 79]
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but (i) Increase in concentration of reactant
Reason is not a correct explanation of the increases the rate of a zero order reaction.
Assertion. (ii) Rate constant 𝒌 is equal to collision
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is frequency 𝑨 if 𝑬𝒂 = 𝟎.
incorrect. (iii) Rate constant 𝒌 is equal to collision
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is frequency 𝑨 if 𝑬𝒂 = ∞.
correct. (iv) 𝐥𝐧⁡ 𝒌 vs 𝑻 is a straight line.
79. Which of the following complex ions is (v) 𝐥𝐧⁡ 𝒌 vs 𝟏/𝑻 is a straight line.
expected to absorb visible light? Correct statements are
[New NCERT/XII/133] (1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (v)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)
85. In the borax bead test of 𝐂𝐨𝟐+ , the blue colour cathode
of bead is due to the formation of (D) Electrons flow from Zn rod to Cu -rod
[Practical Chemistry] (1) A − (q), B − (s), C − (r), D − (p)
(1) B2 O3 (2) Co3 B2 (2) A − (r), B − (p), C − (q), D − (s)
(3) Co(BO2 )2 (4) CoO (3) A − (s), B − (r), C − (q), D − (p)
86. Consider the ions/molecule 𝐎+ − 𝟐−
𝟐 , 𝐎𝟐 , 𝐎𝟐 , 𝐎𝟐 (4) A − (s), B − (q), C − (p), D − (r)
For increasing bond order the correct option 89. The best method for the separation of
is : [New NCERT/XI/126] naphthalene and benzoic acid from their
(1) O2−
2 < O−
2 < O2 < O+
2 mixture is: [New NCERT/XI/279]
(2) O− 2−
2 < O2 < O2 < O2
+ (1) distillation (2) sublimation
(3) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2
− 2− + (3) chromatography (4) crystallization
(4) O− + 2−
2 < O2 < O2 < O2
90.
87. Consider the reaction, 𝟐 𝐀 + 𝐁 → products.
When concentration of 𝑩 alone was doubled,
the half-life did not change. When the
concentration of 𝑨 alone was doubled, the rate
increased by two times. The unit of rate
constant for this reaction is Consider the above reaction sequence, the
[New NCERT/XII/103] Product ' 𝑪 ' is : [New NCERT/XII/238]
(1) s −1
(2) Lmol−1 s −1
(3) no unit (4) molL−1 s −1
88. Match the Column-I (functioning of Daniel
cell) with Column-II (value of 𝐄ext ) and choose
the correct option. [New NCERT/XII/32] (1) (2)
Column-I
(A) Flow of electrons from Cu to Zn and current
flows from Zn to Cu
(B) No flow of electrons or current
(3) (4)
(C) Zn dissolves at anode and copper deposits at

PART-III: BIOLOGY

91. In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked C Epigynous

together by [New NCERT/XII/81] D. Staminode
(1) glycosidic bonds (1) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
(2) phosphodiester bonds (2) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV
(3) peptide bonds (3) A − III; B − II; C − I; D − IV
(4) hydrogen bonds (4) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
92. Match column I with column II and choose the 93. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia,
correct combination from the options given which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
below. [New NCERT/XI/63] what are the chances of pregnancy resulting
Column-I in an affected child?
A. Hypogynous (1) No chance (2) 50%
B. Perigynous (3) 25% (4) 100%
94. Statement-I: The main purpose of cellular (1) net primary productivity
respiration is to convert energy stored in the (2) gross secondary productivity
chemical bonds of glucose to an energy that (3) net secondary productivity
the all can use. (4) gross primary productivity
Statement-II: It is purely a catabolic process. 100. Match the items given in column-I with their
[New NCERT/XI/154] examples given in column-II and choose the
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct option given below.
incorrect [New NCERT/XI/20]
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Column-I Column-II
incorrect (Items) (Examples)
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is A. Ovary I. Fruit
correct B. Ovule II. Guava, orange, mango
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct C. Wall of ovary III. Pericarp
95. Which pigment acts directly to convert light D. Fleshy fruits IV. Seed
energy to chemical energy? (1) A-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
[New NCERT/XI/137] (2) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV
(1) Chlorophyll-a (2) Chlorophyll-b (3) A-I; B-III; C-II;D-IV
(3) Xanthophyll (4) Carotenoid (4) A − III; B − IV; C − I; D − II
96. Assertion (A): Meiosis II is known as 101. What is the shape of exponential growth?
equational or homotypic division. [New NCERT/XII/194]
Reason (R): Meiosis II produces same number (1) J-shaped population growth
of chromosome in cell. [New NCERT/XI/127] (2) Z -shaped population growth
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (3) S -shaped population growth
correct explanation of (A) (4) All of the above
(2) (A) is correct but ( R ) is not correct 102. Assertion (A): Neurospora is commonly used in
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct biochemical and genetic work.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the Reason ( 𝐑 ): It belongs to basidomycetes
correct explanation of (A) fungi. [New NCERT/XI/18]
97. The total sum of all the chemical reactions (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
occurring in our body is known as: correct explanation of (A)
[Old NCERT/XI/5] (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(1) metabolism (2) growth (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) regeneration (4) reproduction (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
98. Which of the following statements are correct correct explanation of (A)
? [New NCERT/XI/73] 103. Sacred groves are found in
(i) Xylem transports water and minerals. [New NCERT/XII/225]
(ii) Gymnosperms lack sieve tubes and (1) Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya.
companion cells in phloem. (2) Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan.
(iii) The first formed primary xylem is called (3) Western ghat regions of Karnataka and
metaxylem. Maharashtra and Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar
(iv) Phloem fibres (bast fibres) are made up of areas of Madhya Pradesh.
collenchymatous cells. (4) All of the above
(v) Root hairs help absorb water and glucose. 104. Grass is a member of family ⁡ .
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XI]
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv) (1) Leguminosae (2) Graminae
99. The rate at which light energy is converted (3) Compositae (4) Malvaceae
into chemical energy of organic molecules is 105. Meiosis in diploid organisms results in
the ecosystem's [New NCERT/XII/207] [New NCERT/XI/125]
 (1) production of gametes C. Tailing
(2) reduction in the number of chromosomes D. Coding strand
(3) introduction of variation (1) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II
(4) All of the above (2) A − II; B − IV; C − III; D − I
106. Match the following list of microbes and their (3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D - III
importance. [New NCERT/XII/151, 153] (4) A − III; B - II; C-IV; D-I
Column-I 111. Chemotaxonomy is connected with
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae [New NCERT/XI/24]
B. Monascus Purpureus (1) classification of chemicals found in plants.
C. Trichoderma polysporum (2) uses the chemical constituent of plant for
D. Propionibacterium IV. Production of blood classification.
sharamanii (3) application of chemicals on herbarium sheets.
Column-II (4) use of statistical methods in chemical yielding
I. Production of immunosuppressive agents plants.
II. Ripening of Swiss cheese 112. Statement I: RuBISCO has a similar affinity
III. Commercial production of ethanol for both 𝐂𝐎𝟐 and 𝐎𝟐 .
III. Production of blood cholestrol lowering agents Statement II: RuBISCO is the most abundant
(1) A − IV; B − III; C − II; D − I protein present on earth.
(2) A − IV; B − II; C − I; D − III [New NCERT/XI/143-144]
(3) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) A − III; B − IV; C − I; D − II incorrect
107. Plastids storing fat are called (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
[New NCERT/XI/97] incorrect
(1) Elaioplasts (2) Sphaerosomes (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) Aleuroplasts (4) Pyrenoids correct
108. Assertion (A): Both at the root apex and the (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
shoot apex, the constantly dividing cells show 113. The point at which funicle touch the ovule is
the meristematic phase of growth. [New NCERT/XII/9]
Reason ( 𝐑 ): The cells of this region are rich (1) chalaza (2) hilum
in protoplasm and lacks nuclei. (3) raphe (4) endothelium
[New NCERT/XI/168] 114. Match the terms given in column-I with their
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the examples given in column-II and choose the
correct explanation of (𝐴) correct option [New NCERT/XI/12-15]
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct Column-I Column-II
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct A. Ascus I. Blue-green algae
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the B. Basidium II. Penicillium
correct explanation of (A) C. Protista III. Agaricus
109. A scar on the seed coat through which the D. Cyanobacteria IV. Euglena
developing seeds are attached to the fruit is (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D - II
called as ⁡ -. [New NCERT/XI/66] (2) A − I, B − II, C − III, D − IV
(1) testa (2) tegmen (3) A-II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
(3) hilum (4) micropyle (4) A − II, B − III, C − IV, D − I
110. Match column-I with column-II and select the 115. Vessels are found in [Old NCERT/XI/87]
correct combination from the given options. (1) all angiosperms and some gymnosperms.
[New NCERT/XII/95] (2) the presence of vessels is a characteristic
Column-I feature of angiosperms.
A. Sigma factor (3) all angiosperms, all gymnosperms and some
B. Capping
 pteriodophyta. (1) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D-II
(4) all pteridophyte (2) A − II; B − I; C − IV; D − III
116. Which of the following statement is/are the (3) A - III; B-II; C-I; D-IV
correct about the events in aerobic (4) A − III; B − I; C − II; D − IV
respiration? [New NCERT/XI/158] 119. Crossing over occurs between
(i) The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the [New NCERT/XI/126]
stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, (1) sister chromatids of homologous
leaving three molecules of O2 . chromosomes.
(ii) The reactions catalyzed by pyruvic (2) non-sister chromatids of homologous
dehydrogenase require participation of several chromosomes.
coenzymes. (3) sister chromatids of non-homologous
(iii) The passing on of the electrons removed as chromosomes.
part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2 with (4) non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
simultaneous synthesis of ATP. chromosomes.
(iv) Kreb's cycle is also called as Tricarboxylic acid 120. Which one of the following is an incorrect
cycle. statement regarding mutations?
(v) Pyrvate must enter in matrix of mitochondria. [New NCERT/XII/72]
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv) (1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (4) (ii), (iv) and (v) frameshift mutations.
117. Statement I: When ovules are born on central (2) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal
axis, it is called axile placentation aberrations.
Statement II: In parietal placentation, the (3) UV and gamma rays are mutagens.
ovules develop on the outer wall of the ovary. (4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not
[New NCERT/XI/65] cause mutation.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are 121. Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplast are
incorrect semiautonomous organelles.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Statement II: Mitochondria and chloroplast
incorrect are formed by division of pre-existing
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is organelles and they contain DNA but lack
correct protein synthesizing machinery.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [New NCERT/XI/133]
118. Match the symbols used in human pedigree (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
analysis (given in column-I) with their name incorrect
(given in column-II) and choose the correct (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
option. [New NCERT/XII/72] incorrect
Column-I (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
A. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
122. Mustard belong to family ⁡ .
[In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XI]
B.
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Compositae
C. (3) Malvaceae (4) Graminae
123. Match the columns and identify the correct
option. [New NCERT/XI/95, 97, 98, 100]
Column I Column II
(A) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in
D.
Golgi apparatus
(B) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure
 of DNA [New NCERT/XI/139]
(C) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous (i) It is photolysis of water which provides
sacs in stroma 𝐇 + ions for synthesis of NADPH.
(D) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in (ii) It provides electrons for
mitochondria photophosphorylation & activation of NADP ⁡+ .
(A) (B) (C) (D) (iii) 𝐎𝟐 is evolved during this process.
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iv) It replenishes 𝐎𝟐 consumed by living
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) beings and combustion.
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (v) Splitting of water create oxygen.
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) One (2) Two
124. Which of the following statement of a bacterial (3) Three (4) All
cell is/are correct? 129. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in
[New NCERT/XI/90] eukaryotes) is [New NCERT/XII/96]
(i) Mesosome is formed by the extensions of (1) GUA (2) GCA
plasma membrane into the cell. (3) CCA (4) AUG
(ii) The pili are elongated tubular structures made 130. The formation of interfascicular cambium in
up of a protein. plant is due to:- [New NCERT/XI/172]
(iii) Flagellum is composed of filament, hook and (1) Non-differentiation (2) Re-differentiation
basal body. (3) Differentiation (4) De-differentiation
(iv) Ribosomes are about 15 nm by 20 nm in size. 131. "𝐆𝟎 " state of cells in eukaryotic cell cycle
(v) Bacteria have a chemically complex cell denotes [New NCERT/XI/122]
envelope. (1) check point before entering the next phase.
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (2) pausing in the middle of a cycle to cope with a
(2) All of the above temporary delay.
(3) (ii) and (iv) (3) death of a cell.
(4) None of the above (4) exit of cells from cell cycle.
125. Assertion (A): During DNA replication both the 132. Which of the following statements are
parental strand act as template for the correct? [New NCERT/XII/74-76]
synthesis of new daughter strand. (i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
Reason (R): The Okazaki fragment are formed (ii) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
on the parent strand which runs in 𝟓′ → 𝟑′ (iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal dominant
direction and proves discontinuous strand gene disorder.
synthesis. [New NCERT/XII/90-91] (iv) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the gene disorder.
correct explanation of (A) (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i),(ii) and (iii)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 133. No. of carbons in the primary 𝐂𝐎𝟐 fixation
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the product of 𝐂𝟒 plant is [New NCERT/XI/145]
correct explanation of (𝐴) (1) 2 (2) 3
126. Formation of seeds (individuals) without (3) 4 (4) 5
fusion is called⁡ - [New NCERT/XII/23] 134. Which stages of cell division do the following
(1) fertilization (2) pollination figures 𝑨 and 𝑩 represent respectively?
(3) apomixis (4) amphimixis [New NCERT/XI/123-124]
127. ABA acts antagonistic to [New NCERT/XI/177]
(1) ethylene (2) cytokinin
(3) gibberellic acid (4) IAA
128. Which of the following statements (i-iv)
regarding "Splitting of water" is/are correct?
 [New NCERT/XI/240, 241, 246]
Column-I Column-II
A. Hypothalamus I. Estrogen
B. Anterior pituitary II. FSH and LH
C. Testis III. Testosterone
D. Ovary IV. Gonadotropin
Fig. A Fig. B releasing hormone
(1) Metaphase - Telophase (1) A − IV; B − II; C − III; D − I
(2) Telophase - Metaphase (2) A − I; B − III; C − II; D − IV
(3) Late Anaphase - Prophase (3) A − I; B − II; C − IV; D − III
(4) Prophase - Anaphase (4) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II
135. Assertion (A): Taxon and category are different 140. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF
things. involves transfer of [New NCERT/XII/47-48]
Reason (R): Taxonomic category shows (1) Ovum into the fallopian tube.
hierarchical classification. [New NCERT/XI/6] (2) Zygote into the fallopian tube.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (3) Zygote into the uterus.
correct explanation of (A) (4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian
(2) (A) is correct but (𝑅) is not correct tube.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 141. The cortical region of the kidney has
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the [New NCERT/XI/208]
correct explanation of (𝐴) (1) malpighian corpuscle
136. Statement I: Neanderthal man is the (2) PCT
intermediated between Ramapithecus and (3) DCT
Homo erectus. (4) All the above
Statement II: Neanderthal man, with brain 142. Mother-foetus Rh blood type incompatibility
size of 800 cc used hides to protect their body. disorder can occur if the mother is ⁡ and her
[New NCERT/XII/125] foetus is ⁡ . [New NCERT/XI/196]
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) Rh positive; Rh positive
incorrect (2) Rh positive; Rh negative
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3) Rh negative; Rh positive
incorrect (4) Rh negative; Rh negative
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 143. Statement I: Cold blooded animals are
correct poikilothermous.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Statement II: They lack the capacity to
137. All the following amino acids are aromatic, regulate their body temperature.
except [New NCERT/XI/106] [New NCERT/XI/48]
(1) tyrosine (2) phenylalanine (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) tryptophan (4) valine incorrect
138. Cartilaginous rings in respiratory passage are (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
present in [New NCERT/XI/184] incorrect
(1) Trachea only (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) Trachea and initial part of bronchi only correct
(3) Trachea, bronchi and initial bronchioles only (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Trachea, bronchi and all bronchioles 144. In cockroach, the testes are present in
139. Column-I lists the endocrine structure and [Old NCERT/XI/114]
column-II lists the corresponding hormones. (1) 3, 4, 5 abdominal segments
Match the two columns and identify the (2) 4, 5, 6 abdominal segments
correct option given below.
 (3) 5, 6, 7 abdominal segments 149. When a person is suffering from poor renal
(4) 6,7,8 abdominal segments reabsorption, which one of the following will
145. Match the column-I with column-II and select not help in maintenance of blood volume?
the correct option. Match from the options [New NCERT/XI/212]
given below [New NCERT/XII/32] (1) increased ADH secretion.
Column-I Column-II (2) decreased glomerular filtration.
A. Primary oocyte I. It is formed when (3) increased arterial pressure in kidneys.
oogonia starts division (4) decreased arterial pressure in kidneys.
and temporarily 150. Select the correct match of the techniques
arrested at phase of given in column I with its feature given in
meiosis I. column II. [New NCERT/XII/48]
B. Secondary oocyte II. Rupture to release Column I
ovum from the ovary. A. ICSI
C. Primary follicle III. A large number of B. IUI
these degenerate during C. IUT
the phase from puberty D. GIFT
to birth. (1) A − II; B − IV; C − I; D - III
D. Graafian follicle IV. Gamete mother cell. (2) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV
(1) A -I; B - II; C - III; D - IV (3) A − III; B − I; C − II; D − IV
(2) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II (4) A - III; B-I; C - IV; D – II
(3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D - III 151. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by
(4) A − II; B − IV; C - III; D-I radiation than normal cells because they are
146. In which part of the heart SA node is present [New NCERT/XII/141]
(1) sinus-venosus [New NCERT/XI/199] (1) non-dividing
(2) interatrial septum (2) starved of mutation
(3) right atrium (3) different in structure
(4) atrioventricular septum (4) undergoing rapid division
147. Refer the given equation and answer the 152. Which of the following statements (i-iv) are
question. correct. [New NCERT/XI/168, 169, 175]
𝟐(𝐂𝟓𝟏 𝐇𝟗𝟖 𝐎𝟔 ) + 𝟏𝟒𝟓𝐎𝟐 ⟶ 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝐂𝐎𝟐 + 𝟗𝟖𝐇𝟐 𝐎 + (i) In elution, the separated bands of DNA are cut
Energy out from agarose gel and extracted from the gel
The R.Q of above reaction is piece.
[New NCERT/XI/164] (ii) E. coli cloning vector pBR 322 shows several
(1) 1 (2) 0.7 restriction Ori, antibiotic resistance genes and
(3) 1.45 (4) 1.62 rop.
148. Select the hormones produced in women only (iii) The downstream processing and quality
during pregnancy control testing vary from product to product.
[New NCERT/XII/37] (iv) Competent bacterial cell cannot take up the
(i) Estrogen plasmid.
(ii) Human chronic gonadotroph (1) All of the above (2) None of the above
(iii) Progesterone (3) (i), (ii), and (iii) (4) Only (iv)
(iv) Human placental lactogen 153. C-peptide of human insulin is
(v) Relaxin [New NCERT/XII/182]
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) a part of mature insulin molecule
below: (2) responsible for the formation of disulphide
(1) (ii) and (iv) only (2) (ii) and (v) only bridges
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (4) (ii), (iv) and (v) only (3) removed during maturation of pro-insulin to
 insulin (2) A-I; B-IV; C-III, D-II
(4) responsible for its biological activity (3) A-I; B-IV; C-II, D-III
154. Which of the following statement (s) is/are (4) A-IV; B-I; C-III, D-II
correct? [Old NCERT/XI/103-104] 158. Which one of the following is used as vector
(i) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts, for cloning genes into higher organisms?
macrophages and mast cells. [New NCERT/XIL/170]
(ii) Adipose tissue is a type of dense connective (1) Baculovirus
(2) Salmonella typhimurriam
tissue located mainly beneath the skin.
(3) Rhizopnes nigricans
(iii) Tendons and ligaments are examples of dense (4) Retrovirus
irregular connective tissue. 159. Elbow joint is an example of
(iv) Cartilage, bones and blood are various types [New NCERT/XI/227]
of specialized connective tissue. (1) hinge joint
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (ii) and (iv) (2) gliding joint
(3) Both (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv) (3) ball and socket joint
155. Adaptive radiation refers to: (4) pivot joint
160. Assertion (A): Organ transplantation patients
[New NCERT/XII/117]
are given immunosuppressive drugs.
(1) power of adaptation in an individual to a Reason (R): Transplanted tissue has antigens
variety of environments. which stimulate the specific immune response
(2) adaptations due to Geographical isolation. of the recipient. [New NCERT/XIL/136]
(3) evolution of different species from a common (I) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
ancestor. correct explanation of (A)
(4) migration of members of a species to different (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
geographical areas. (3) (A) is not correct but ( 𝑅 ) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
156. Amoebiasis is caused by
correct explanation of (A)
[New NCERT/XII/132] 161. Tying up or removing a small part of fallopian
(1) Plasmodium vivax duct is called [New NCERT/XIL/45]
(2) Entamoeba gingivalis (1) vasectomy
(3) Trypanosoma gambiense (2) ductus arteriosus
(4) Entamoeba histolytica (3) archidectomy
157. Match the following columns. (4) tubectomy
[New NCERT/XI/187] 162. In a frog, if a hole is punched in the floor of its
buccal cavity, then the frog will not die as
Column-I Column-II
[New NCERTIXI/80]
(Respiratory Capacity) (Description) (1) buccal respiration does not stop
A. Inspiratory I. Total air, a person can (2) respiration other than lungs will continue
Capacity (IC) inspire after normal (3) it can store oxygen for future use
expiration (4) pulmonary respiratory occurs
B. Expiratory Capacity II. Maximal volume of
(EC) the air, a person can 163. Statement I: GMO reduces the nutritional
Breathe in after a forced value of food.
Expiration Statement II: GMO increases the post
C. Functional Residual III. Volume of the air harvesting losses. [New NCERT/XII/179]
Capacity (FRC) remain in lungs after (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
a normal expiration incorrect
D. Vital Capacity (VC) IV. Total volume of air, (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
a person can expire incorrect
after a normal (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
inspiration correct
(1) A-I; B-II; C-III, D-IV (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
164. Which of the following is acting as an artificial Pneumonia Streptococcus
kidney in haemodialysis? (2) Droplet
pneumoniae Infection
[New NCERT/XII/213]
(1) dialysing liquid (2) dialyser Infected
Wuchereria
(3) bubble trap (4) blood pump (3) Elephantiasis water and
bancrofti
165. An enzyme catalysing the removal of food
nucleotides from the ends of DNA is
[New NCERT/XII/166] Bite of
Plasmodium male
(1) endonuclease (2) exonuclease (4) Malaria
(3) DNA ligase (4) Hind II vivax Anopheles
mosquito
166. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct regarding class aves? 169. Which phase of menstrual cycle is also called
[New NCERT/XI/49] secretory phase? [New NCERT/XII/34]
(i) The forelimbs are modified into wings and the (1) Luteal (2) Ovulatory
hindlimbs generally have scales and are modified (3) Follicular (4) Menstruation
for walking, swimming or clasping the tree 170. Which of the following is/are involved in
branches. limbic system? [New NCERT/XI/236]
(ii) Heart is completely four-chambered. (1) Inner part of cerebral hemisphere
(iii) They are warm- blooded (homoiothermous) (2) Amygdala
animals i.e., they are able to maintain a constant (3) Hippocampus
body temperature. (4) All of the above
(iv) They are oviparous and development is direct. 171. Statement I: The uterine cells divide rapidly
(1) Both (i) and (iii) (2) Both (i) and (iv) and covers the blastocyst.
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) All of these Statement II: The blastomeres continues to
167. Assertion (A): Nicotine stimulates adrenal divide and transforms into blastocyst.
gland to release adrenaline. [New NCERT/XII/36]
Reason (R): Adrenaline raises blood pressure (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
and increases heart rate. incorrect
[New NCERT/XII/144] (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the incorrect
correct explanation of (𝐴) (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (4) Statement II is correct but statement I is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the incorrect.
correct explanation of (𝐴) 172. A file like rasping organ for feeding, called
168. Which one of the following option gives the radula, present in the phylum ⁡ .
correct matching of a disease with its [New NCERT/XI/44]
causative organism and mode of infection. (1) arthropoda (2) mollusca
[New NCERT/XII/130-131] (3) echinodermata (4) chordata
173. Match the name of scientists listed under
Causative Mode of
Disease column I with the ideas listed under column
Organisms Infection
II. [New NCERT/XII/111, 119]
With Column I Column II
Salmonella
(1) Typhoid inspired A. Darwin I. Abiogenesis
typhii
air B. Oparin II. Use and disuse of organs
C. Lamarck III. Worked in Malay Archipelago
D. Wallace IV. Evolution by natural selection
(1) A − I, B − IV, C - II, D - III
 (2) A - IV, B-I, C - II, D - III II. Recognition sites commonly used for
(3) A - II, B-IV, C - III, D-I restriction enzymes
(4) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D – I III. Sequence from where replication starts
174. Sympathetic nervous system IV. DNA staining
[New NCERT/XI/202] Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) controls heartbeat below
(2) increases heartbeat (1) A-IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(3) decreases heartbeat (2) A − I, B − II, C - III, D - IV
(4) not related to heartbeat (3) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
175. Identify the incorrect statements. (4) A - III, B - I, C - II, D – IV
[New NCERT/XI/209] 178. Dissociation curve shifts to the right when
(i) Reabsorption of water occurs passively in the [New NCERT/XI/189]
initial segment of nephron. (1) pH increases.
(ii) Nitrogenous waste are absorbed by active (2) CO2 concentration increases.
transport. (3) O2 concentration decreases.
(iii) Conditional reabsorption of Na + and water (4) 2, 3 D-P-G decreases.
takes place in DCT. 179. Assertion (A): Lipids are generally insoluble in
(iv) DCT reabsorbs glucose. water.
(v) DCT is capable of selective secretion of Reason (R): Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon
H + , K + and NH3 to maintain pH and Na+ K + , balance atoms including the carboxyl carbon.
in blood. [New NCERT/XI/106]
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv) (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(3) (iv) and (v) (4) (ii) and (iv) correct explanation of (A)
176. Which of the following has the ability to (2) (A) is correct but (𝑅) is not correct
transform normal cells into cancerous cells in (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
animals? [New NCERT/XII/170] (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens correct explanation of (A)
(2) Retroviruses 180. Which of the following statements are
(3) DNA-viruses correct? [New NCERT/XI/231]
(4) Plasmids (i) Somatic nervous system- Conducts impulses
177. Match the features that are required to from CNS to skeletal muscles.
facilitate cloning of alien DNA into a vector (ii) Autonomic nervous system- Conduct
[New NCERT/XII/169] impulses from CNS to internal organ muscles.
Column - I (iii) Central nervous system- Consists of brain
(Features to facilitate) and spinal cord
A. Origin of replication (ori) (iv) Visceral nervous system-Consists of nerves
B. Selectable Marker carrying impulses to brain and spinal cord only
C. Vectors for cloning genes in plants (1) Only (ii) and (iii)
D. Ethidium bromide (2) Only (iii) and (iv)
Column - II (3) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(Cloning Vector) (4) All of these
I. Agrobacterium tume faciens