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1. Arrange the following types of road in increasing order of their percentage share in the 58.98 lakh
kilometres of road network in India.
1. National highways
2. State highways
3. Rural roads
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1-2-3
B. 3-2-1
C. 1-3-2
D. 2-1-3

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• India has a network of over 63, 31,757 kilometres of roads, which is the second largest in the world.
National Highways constitutes 2.09 % of total road network in the country and the total length of National
Highways is at 1, 32,499. Maharashtra has the largest network of National Highways with 17,757 km
(13.4%) followed by Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan with 11,737 km (8.9 %) and 10,342km (7.8 %)
respectively.
• The State Highways constitutes 2.8 percent of total road network in the country and the total length of
State Highways is at 1, 79,535. Maharashtra has the largest State Highways network in the country 17.83
% (32005 Km) followed by Karnataka 10.85 % (19473 Km), Gujarat 9.33 % (16746 Km), Rajasthan 8.39 %
(15061 Km) and Andhra Pradesh 7.52 % (13500 Km). These five States accounted for 53.9% of the total
State Highways network in the country.
• Rural Roads constitute 71.4 % of total road network in the country and its length rose to 45, 22,228 km.
Maharashtra accounted for the largest network of Rural Roads with 4,26,327 km (11.7%) followed by
Assam 3,72,510 km (10.2%), Bihar 2,59,507 km (7.1%), Uttar Pradesh 2,55,576 km (7.0%) and Madhya
Pradesh 2,32,344 km (6.4%). These five States account for 42.4 % of the total Rural Roads in the country.

2. Which of the following bodies is responsible for the publication of Nationally Determined Contributions
(NDC) Synthesis Report?
A. World Economic Forum
B. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
C. United Nations Development Programme
D. None of the above

ANSWER: C

3. Consider the following pairs:

Crop Production Zone
1. Coffee: Sao Paulo
2. Wheat: Prairies plain
3. Rice: Yangtze basin
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
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• Coffee production in Brazil is responsible for about a third of all coffee, making Brazil by far the world's
largest producer.
• Crop cultivation is extensively practised in the prairies. This is because of the development of irrigation
canals in the last century. Mechanized cultivation over large tracts of land is practised, making them one
of the most productive agricultural regions in the world. Prairies are also known as the granaries of the
world. Wheat and maize are the prominent crops of the prairies.
• China is the world's largest producer of rice, and the crop makes up a little less than half of the country's
total grain output. China accounts for 30% of all world rice production. In a given year total rice output
came from four different crops. The early rice crop grows primarily in provinces along the Yangtze River
and in provinces in the south. Intermediate and single-crop late rice grow in the southwest and along the
Yangtze.

4. Which of the following statements correctly describes Purple revolution, often seen in news:
A. It is to promote cultivation of Zaffran (a variety of Saffron) in Kashmir.
B. It is launched to promote lavender cultivation in Jammu and Kashmir.
C. It is launched to promote cultivation of Jamun and Shah toot in North Eastern states of Assam, Manipur
and Meghalaya.
D. It is launched for preservation and value addition of marine/ sea food for Andaman and Nicobar island.

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• Recently, around 500 farmers across villages in the Doda district in Jammu had their incomes quadrupled
after shifting from maize to lavender cultivation which is being called the Purple revolution. It was possible
due to initiatives taken under Aroma Mission. In 2016, the Centre launched Aroma Mission to boost the
cultivation of plants like lavender which have aromatic medicinal properties.

5. Earth hour is the flagship initiative of which of the following organizations?

A. International Union for Conservation of Nature.
B. World Wide Fund for Nature
C. United Nations Environment Program.
D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• Earth Hour is the World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF)’s annual initiative that began in 2007. It is held
every year on the last Saturday of March. It encourages people from more than 180 countries to switch
off the lights from 8.30 pm to 9.30 pm as per their local time. The idea is to refrain from the use of non-
essential lighting to save energy in a symbolic call for environmental protection.

6. ‘’BepiColombo‟ sometimes seen in the news, is:

A. A joint aircraft of European Space Agency (ESA) and JAXA to probe planet Mercury.
B. A new multimodal port to be built by the China under belt and road initiative (BRI) near Colombo.
C. An AI Robot built by the Sri Lankan scientists.
D. A new Anti-virus strain discovered by the Harvard University.

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• BepiColombo is Europe's first mission to Mercury which was Launched in 2018. It is on a seven-year
journey to the smallest and least explored terrestrial planet in our Solar System. When it arrives at Mercury
in late 2025, it will endure temperatures in excess of 350 °C and gather data during its one-year nominal
mission, with a possible one-year extension.
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7. Consider the following statements about "The World Solar Bank":

1. The world Solar Bank was launched by the International Solar Alliance.
2. The bank aims to finance the solar energy projects across the members of the International Solar Alliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: C

8. Consider the following about wind power in India:

1. India has the 2nd largest installed capacity in wind power after China.
2. The government has set a target to reach a total wind capacity of 140 GW by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• India has the 4th largest installed capacity in wind power after China, U.S, and Germany with 37.5 GW of
capacity as of 2019, and has the potential for more than 695 GW at 120 meters. The government has set
a target to reach a total wind capacity of 140 GW by 2030.

9. Consider the following pairs:

City River
1. Mangalore: Netravati
2. Nagpur: Nag
3. Vadodara: Mahisagar

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• Netravati River has its origins in the Chikkamagaluru district of Karnataka. The river flows through the
famous pilgrimage place Dharmasthala and considered as one of the Holy rivers of India. It merges with
the Kumaradhara River at Uppinangady before flowing to the Arabian Sea. This river is the main source of
water for Bantwal and Mangalore. Netravati river flows south of Mangalore city. Earlier it was known as
the Bantawal river.
• The Nagpur city derives its name from the Nag river which passes through the city. Kanhan river is a
tributary of Wainganga river.
• Mahisagar river (Mahi) originates from the northern slopes of Vindhyas in the Dhar district of Madhya
Pradesh. It drains into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat. Vadodara is the only important
urban centre in the basin. Mahi is one of the major interstate west flowing rivers of India.
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10. Consider the following statement about Helium in India:

1. India has maximum reserves of Helium in the Dharwar Plateau.
2. Almost half of the demand for Helium in India is met by imports from China.
Which of the statements given above is/are
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• India’s Rajmahal volcanic basin in Jharkhand is the storehouse of helium trapped for billions of years. At
present, researchers are mapping the Rajmahal basin extensively for future exploration and harnessing of
helium.
• Every year, India imports helium worth Rs 55,000 crores from the U.S. to meet its needs.

11. Which one of the following groups of items is in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?
A. Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights and loans from foreign countries
B. Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and Special Drawing Rights
C. Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and Special Drawing Rights
D. Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies, which can
include bonds, treasury bills and other government securities. It needs to be noted that most foreign
exchange reserves are held in US dollars.
• India’s Forex Reserve include: Foreign Currency Assets, Gold reserves, Special Drawing Rights, Reserve
position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

12. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes lending to which of the following?
A. Agriculture
B. Micro and small enterprises
C. Weaker sections
D. All of the above

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• Priority sector lending constitutes the lending to agriculture, micro and small enterprises, micro
• credit, education, housing and weaker sections.

13. Which of the following is/are true about economic development?

1. Economic growth and economic development always go hand in hand.
2. It measures both the quantitative and qualitative aspects of change in national income
3. It is a long-term process
Select the answer using the codes below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: B
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EXPLANATION:
• Economic development is the process whereby simple, low-income national economies are
• transformed into modern industrial economies. It involves qualitative as well as quantitative
• improvement in an economy over a longer period of time.
• Economic development is a long-term process and takes place over the period of time.
• Economic development is a discontinuous process involving periods of expansion and of recession,
• reflecting the existence of business cycles. Economic growth and economic development do
• not necessarily always go hand in hand. Just by ensuring economic growth a nation may not be able
• to bring economic development, which requires conscious effort.
• Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

14. Consider the following statements:

1. Regional Rural Banks are financial entities whose mission is to provide sufficient credit to the
agricultural industry.
2. RRBs are not permitted to use the Reserve Bank of India’s liquidity adjustment facility.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1nor 2

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Regional Rural Banks are financial institutions which ensure adequate credit for agriculture and
• other rural sectors. They were set up on the basis of the recommendations of the Narasimham Working
Group (1975), and after the legislation of the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.
• The equity of a regional rural bank is held by the Central Government, concerned State Government and
the Sponsor Bank in the proportion of 50:15:35.
• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed regional rural banks (RRBs) to access the liquidity adjustment
facility (LAF), marginal standing facility (MSF) and call or notice money markets with the aim to facilitate
better liquidity management for these lenders.

15. Consider the following statements:

1. A growing current account deficit (CAD) indicates that the economy of a country is becoming less
competitive.
2. The current account constitutes net income, interest and dividends and transfers such as
foreign aid, remittances.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are not correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• Current account maintains a record of the country’s transactions with other nations, in terms of trade of
goods and services, net earnings on overseas investments and net transfer of payments over a period of
time, such as remittances. The current account constitutes net income, interest and dividends and
transfers such as foreign aid, remittances, donations among others. It is measured as a percentage of GDP.
Current account balance measures the external strength or weakness of an economy. A country with rising
Current Account Deficit (CAD) shows that it has become uncompetitive, and investors are not willing to
invest there. They may withdraw their investments.
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16. Which of the following best describes a Special Mention Account?

A. Those accounts that have the potential to become an NPA or a stressed asset.
B. These are Personal Accounts which are related with individuals, companies, firms, groups of
associations etc.
C. Accounts that are a representative of some person are called as representative accounts.
D. These are the assets or possessions that do not have physical existence but can be measured in
terms of money.

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Special Mention Account (SMA) is an account which is exhibiting signs of incipient stress resulting in the
borrower defaulting in timely servicing of her debt obligations, though the account has not yet been
classified as NPA as per the extant RBI guidelines

17. With reference to the Gini Coefficient, consider the following statements:
1. Rise in the Gini Coefficient indicates that income inequality is decreasing in an economy.
2. Its value varies anywhere from zero to 1, where zero indicates perfect equality and one indicates the
perfect inequality.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Gini Coefficient - In economics, it is a measure of statistical dispersion intended to represent the
income or wealth distribution of a nation’s residents and is the most commonly used measure of income
inequality. It is used to gauge the rich-poor income or wealth divide.
• Its value varies anywhere from zero to 1; zero indicating perfect equality and one indicating the
• perfect inequality. An increasing trend of Gini Coefficient indicates that income inequality is rising
independent of absolute incomes of the population.

18. Which of the following is not correct regarding Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR)?
A. A bank with a low capital adequacy ratio is considered safe and likely to meet its financial
obligations.
B. It is a measurement of a bank's available capital expressed as a percentage of a bank's risk-
weighted credit exposures.
C. It is also known as capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio.
D. It ensures the efficiency and stability of a nation’s financial system by lowering the risk of banks
becoming insolvent.

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk-weighted assets and
current liabilities. The capital adequacy ratio, also known as capital-to-risk weighted assets ratio
(CRAR), is used to protect depositors and promote the stability and efficiency of financial systems
around the world.
• The reason minimum capital adequacy ratios (CARs) are critical is to make sure that banks have enough
cushion to absorb a reasonable amount of losses before they become insolvent and consequently lose
depositors’ funds. The capital adequacy ratios ensure the efficiency and stability of a nation’s financial
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system by lowering the risk of banks becoming insolvent. Generally, a bank with a high capital adequacy
ratio is considered safe and likely to meet its financial obligations.

19. Consider the following statements:

1. Foreign Portfolio Investment is a short-term investment and provides great degree of control
exercised by the foreign investor.
2. Foreign Direct Investment is associated with stocks and bonds on an exchange.
Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:

• Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies, which can
include bonds, treasury bills and other government securities.
• It needs to be noted that most foreign exchange reserves are held in US dollars.
• India’s Forex Reserve include: Foreign Currency Assets, Gold reserves, Special Drawing Rights, Reserve
position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

20. Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax:
1. Kelkar task force first proposed in 2013 for the implementation of GST.
2. Input credit in GST is only allowed if the supplier has deposited the tax to be collected from the
buyer.
Select the incorrect statement(s) from the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• GST is a single comprehensive tax imposed on goods and services
• It is a destination-based taxation
• Kelkar task force was first proposed in 2013 for the implementation of GST tax.
• GST tax input credit: it is a claim for a credit for any GST included in the price of any goods and
• services by the manufacturer/any other person mentioned or are eligible to claim.
• Input tax credit is allowed on capital goods but not allowed it for goods and services for personal use.
• Only registered manufacturers or suppliers or agents or any other person are eligible to claim input credit
for tax paid.

21. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding ‘e-RUPI’?

A. e-RUPI is a one-time contactless, cashless voucher-based mode of digital payment.
B. It is operable on basic phones also, and hence it can be used by persons who do not own smart-
phones.
C. e-RUPI does not require the beneficiary to have a bank account.
D. All of the above

ANSWER: D
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EXPLANATION:
• e-RUPI is basically a digital voucher which a beneficiary gets on his phone in the form of an SMS or QR
code. It is a pre-paid voucher, which he/she can go and redeem it at any centre that accepts its. Thus e-
RUPI is a one-time contactless, cashless voucher-based mode of payment that helps users redeem the
voucher without a card, digital payments app, or internet banking access. e-RUPI does not require the
beneficiary to have a bank account, a major distinguishing feature as compared to other digital payment
forms. It ensures an easy, contactless two-step redemption process that does not require sharing of
personal details either.

22. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) principle of
WTO?
A. A member country can grant more favours to the other member country.
B. MFN is basically a principle of non-discriminatory trade.
C. Free Trade Agreements have been exempted from the MFN principle.
D. None of the above

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Under WTO agreements, countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners. In
general MFN means that every time a country lowers a trade barrier (import duties) or opens up a market
or gives some country a special favour, it has to do so for the same goods or services from all its trading
partners – whether rich or poor, weak or strong. According to the WTO, though the term MFN“suggests
special treatment, it actually means non-discrimination.” However, exemptions allowed to this rule
include free trade pacts and special benefits to poor nations. India accorded the MFN status to Pakistan in
1996 as per India’s commitments as a member of the WTO but Pakistan never gave India MFN status. After
the Pulwama attack, India also cancelled the MFN status granted to Pakistan under the provisions of
‘security exception’ clause in GATT under WTO. Article 21(b)(iii) of GATT states that Nothing in this
Agreement shall be construed to prevent any contracting party (including India in this case) from taking
any action which it considers necessary for the protection of its essential security interests taken in time
of war or other emergency in international relations.

23. In the context of the effects of radioactive radiation on living beings, consider the following statements:
1. Alpha particles (α) are small, fast-moving particles with a negative electrical charge that are emitted from
an atom’s nucleus during radioactive decay.
2. Beta particles (β) are positively charged lacking the energy to penetrate the skin.
3. Gamma rays (γ) are weightless packets of energy that can cause damage to the cell structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Exposure to any type of ionizing radiation (a and b particles, g-rays and X-rays) can prove harmful and even
lethal. The two types of effects are : (i) genetic and (ii) nongenetic or body damage.
• In genetic damage, genes and chromosomes get altered. Its effect may become visible as deformations in
the offsprings (children or grandchildren). Alterations or breaks in the genetic material, that is DNA
(deoxyribonucleic acid)- the molecule containing genetic information, is called mutation.
• In nongenetic effects, the harm is visible immediately in the form of birth defects, burns, some type of
leukemia, miscarriages, tumors, cancer of one or more organs and fertility problems.
• Types of Ionizing Radiation
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• Alpha particles (α) are positively charged and made up of two protons and two neutrons from the atom’s
nucleus. Alpha particles come from the decay of the heaviest radioactive elements, such as uranium,
radium and polonium. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The health effect from exposure to alpha particles depends greatly on how a person is exposed. Alpha
particles lack the energy to penetrate even the outer layer of skin, so exposure to the outside of the body
is not a major concern.
• Inside the body, however, they can be very harmful. If alpha-emitters are inhaled, swallowed, or get into
the body through a cut, the alpha particles can damage sensitive living tissue.
• Beta particles (β) are small, fast-moving particles with a negative electrical charge that are emitted from
an atom’s nucleus during radioactive decay. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• These particles are emitted by certain unstable atoms such as hydrogen-3 (tritium), carbon-14 and
strontium-90.
• Beta particles are more penetrating than alpha particles but are less damaging to living tissue and DNA
because the ionizations they produce are more widely spaced.
• Gamma rays (γ) are weightless packets of energy called photons. Unlike alpha and beta particles, which
have both energy and mass, gamma rays are pure energy. They Can easily penetrate the body and pass
through it. They cause damage to cell structure. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• X-rays are similar to gamma rays in that they are photons of pure energy. X-rays and gamma rays have the
same basic properties but come from different parts of the atom.
• X-rays are emitted from processes outside the nucleus, but gamma rays originate inside the nucleus. They
also are generally lower in energy and therefore less penetrating than gamma rays. X-rays can be produced
naturally or by machines using electricity.

24. Coloring agents are used in crackers to give multiple colors to crackers when it bursts. In this context,
consider the following pairs
Elements/Salts Color
1. Strontium salts : Red
2. Copper salts : Orange
3. Sodium salts : Yellow
4. Calcium salts : White
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
Composition of Regular Crackers – A traditional firecracker comprises of six key elements:
• Fuel: Mainly Charcoal or Thermite are present in them all
• Oxidizing Agents: Nitrates and Chlorates which produce oxygen inside the cracker
• Reducing Agents: Something like Sulphur, which can burn the oxygen present in the firecracker
• Regulators: To ensure the speed and intensity with which a cracker bursts
• Coloring Agents: Multiple colors appear when a cracker bursts, this role is played by the coloring
agents. Given below are the elements which provide different colors:
1. Strontium salts – Red Color, hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
2. Burning of metals – White Color
3. Sodium salts – Yellow Color, hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
4. Barium salts – Green Color
5. Calcium Salts – Orange Color, hence pair 4 is not correctly matched
6. Copper Salts – Blue Color, hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
7. Binders: All the components of the firecracker require a medium which can bind them
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25. Thermoplastic polymers are linear or slightly branched long-chain molecules capable of repeatedly
softening on heating and hardening on cooling. Which among the following is/are thermoplastic
polymers?
1. Bakelite
2. Polythene
3. Polyvinyl chloride
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
• Thermoplastic polymers: These are the linear or slightly branched long-chain molecules capable of
repeatedly softening on heating and hardening on cooling. These polymers possess intermolecular forces
of attraction intermediate between elastomers and fibers. Some common thermoplastics are polythene,
polystyrene, polyvinyl chlorides, etc.
• Thermosetting polymers: These polymers are cross-linked or heavily branched molecules, which on
heating undergo extensive cross-linking in moulds and again become infusible. These cannot be reused .
Some common examples are bakelite, urea-formaldehyde resins, etc.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

26. Which of the following cell organelles play the most significant role in protein synthesis?
A. Lysosome and Centrosome
B. Endoplasmic reticulum and Ribosome
C. Golgi apparatus and Mitochondria
D. Lysosome and Mitochondria

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
Endoplasmic reticulum and Ribosomes.
• Ribosomes are the factories of protein synthesis. They are 70S type in prokaryotes and 80S type in
Eukaryotes. When Ribosomes are attached to Endoplasmic reticulum (ER), it is called Rough ER which helps
in protein synthesis.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

27. Consider the following statements with reference to Arteries and Veins?
1. Arteries carry blood away from the heart and Veins bring it back to the heart.
2. Veins have thicker walls than arteries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Arteries are the vessels which carry blood away from the heart to various organs of the body. Since the
blood emerges from the heart under high pressure, the arteries have thick, elastic walls.
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• Veins collect the blood from different organs and bring it back to the heart. They do not need thick walls
because the blood is no longer under pressure, instead they have valves that ensure that the blood flows
only in one direction.
• Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

28. Which of the following is/are the applications of recombinant DNA technology?
1. Synthesis of human insulin
2. Insect-resistant crops
3. Diagnostic tests for hepatitis and HIV
4. Environmental cleaning
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• Recombinant DNA (rDNA) molecules are DNA molecules formed by laboratory methods of genetic
recombination i.e. molecules of DNA from two different species that are inserted into a host organism to
produce new genetic combinations that are of value to science, medicine, agriculture, and industry.
• Applications of Recombinant DNA:
• Through recombinant DNA techniques, bacteria have been created that are capable of synthesizing human
insulin, human growth hormone, alpha interferon, hepatitis B vaccine, and other medically useful
substances. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Recombinant DNA technology also can be used for gene therapy, in which a normal gene is introduced
into an individual’s genome in order to repair a mutation that causes a genetic disease.
• The ability to obtain specific DNA clones using recombinant DNA technology has also made it possible to
add the DNA of one organism to the genome of another. The added gene is called a transgene, which can
be passed to progeny as a new component of the genome. The resulting organism carrying the transgene
is called a transgenic organism or a genetically modified organism (GMO). In this way, a “designer
organism” is made that contains some specific change required for an experiment in basic genetics or for
improvement of some commercial strain.
• Genetically transformed plants which contain foreign genes are called transgenic plants. Resistance to
diseases, insects and pests, herbicides, drought; metal toxicity tolerance; induction of male sterility for
plant breeding purpose; and improvement of quality can be achieved through this recombinant DNA
technology. BT-cotton, resistant to bollworms is a glaring example. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Recombinant DNA technology has provided a broad range of tools to help physicians in the diagnosis of
diseases. Most of these involve the construction of probes: short Segments of single-stranded DNA
attached to a radioactive or fluorescent marker. Such probes are now used for the identification of
infectious agents, for instance, food poisoning Salmonella, hepatitis virus, HIV, etc. Hence option 3 is
correct.
• In industries, recombinant DNA technology will help in the production of chemical compounds of
commercial importance, improvement of existing fermentation processes, and production of proteins
from wastes. This can be achieved by developing more efficient strains of microorganisms. Specially
developed microorganisms may be used even to clean up the pollutants. Hence option 4 is correct.

29. Oxidation is a process in which a chemical substance changes because of the addition of oxygen. Which
of the following everyday process is/are result of oxidation?
1. Corrosion of iron
2. Rancidification of food
3. Combustion of hydrocarbons
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Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:

• Corrosion is a process through which metals in manufactured states return to their natural oxidation
states. This process is a reduction-oxidation reaction in which the metal is being oxidized by its
surroundings, often the oxygen in the air. This reaction is both spontaneous and electrochemically
favoured. Corrosion is essentially the creation of voltaic, or galvanic, cells where the metal in question acts
as an anode and generally deteriorates or loses functional stability.
• Rancidity, it is the natural process of decomposition (degradation) of fats or oils by either hydrolysis or
oxidation, or both. It is the complete or incomplete oxidation or hydrolysis of fats and oils when exposed
to air, light, or moisture or by bacterial action, resulting in unpleasant taste and odour.
• Combustion is an oxidation reaction. During combustion, burning of fuel takes place in the presence of
oxygen. If oxygen is not present burning will not take place.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

30. Which of the following methods can be used for removing the permanent hardness of water?
1. Distillation
2. Adding sodium carbonate
3. Boiling
4. Adding caustic soda
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Hard water is water that has high mineral content (in contrast with soft water). Hard water is formed when
water percolates through deposits of limestone, chalk or gypsum which are largely made up of calcium
and magnesium carbonates, bicarbonates and sulfates.
• Hard-drinking water is generally not harmful to one's health but can pose serious problems in industrial
settings, where water hardness is monitored to avoid costly breakdowns in boilers, cooling towers, and
other equipment that handles water. In domestic settings, hard water is often indicated by a lack of suds
formation when soap is agitated in water.
• Permanent hardness is caused by dissolved calcium sulphate. Permanent hardness is hardness (mineral
content) that cannot be removed by boiling.
• Distillation can be used to separate and collect a liquid from a solution. Distillation can also be used to
soften water as the water evaporates as it is heated and the ions are left behind. Hard water can be
softened by adding sodium carbonate (washing soda) or by passing the water through an ion exchange
column.
• Caustic soda (Sodium hydroxide), NaOH removes both temporary and permanent hardness by
precipitating the metal ions which cause the hardness as insoluble hydroxides
• Temporary hardness is a type of water hardness caused by the presence of dissolved bicarbonate minerals
(calcium bicarbonate and magnesium bicarbonate).
• Hence only options 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
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31. Which of the following persons are correctly matched with the Movements/Organisations?
1. Atmiya Sabha: Raja Ram Mohun Roy
2. Manav Dharam Sabha: Ram Singh
3. Namdharis: Durgaram Macharam
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• The Namdhari movement--was founded by Baba Ram Singh Namdhari following the Anglo-Sikh wars. He
was a Khalsa army soldier.
• The Namdhari movement was also referred to as the Kuka movement.
• The Namdhari movement arose in the north-west corner of the Sikh kingdom, away from the places of
royal pomp and grandeur.
• The movement grew into a potent tool of socio-religious awakening among Sikhs under Baba Ram Singh.
• Its main goal was to spread the true spirit of Sikhism, free of the tawdry customs and mannerism that had
grown on it since the beginning of Sikh monarchy.
• Manav Dharma Sabha-- was one of the earliest socio-religious reform organization in Gujarat and British
India.
• It was founded on 22 June 1844 in Surat by Durgaram Manchharam Mehta, Dadoba Pandurang
Tarkhadkar and a few others.
• The goals of the Sabha were to expose the hypocritical arts present in Christian, Muslim and Hindu
religions.
• Atmiya Sabha --was a philosophical discussion circle in India. The association was started by Ram Mohan
Roy in 1815 in Kolkata (then Calcutta). They used to conduct debate and discussion sessions on
philosophical topics, and also used to promote free and collective thinking and social reform.

32. Who is bieng Talked About here in the below given passage:
In the year 1923, he was elected the President of All India Youth Congress
He started the newspaper Swaraj and took charge of publicity for the Bengal Provincial Congress
Committee
Options are :-
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. Subhash chandra Bose
C. Motilal Nehru
D. C. R Das

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• Subhash chandra Bose started the newspaper Swaraj and took charge of publicity for the Bengal
Provincial Congress Committee.
• His mentor was Chittaranjan Das who was a spokesman for aggressive nationalism in Bengal.
• In the year 1923, Bose was elected the President of All India Youth Congress and also the Secretary of
Bengal State Congress.
• He was also the editor of the newspaper "Forward", founded by Chittaranjan Das

33. Consider These Statements Regarding Padmanabhaswamy Temple

1. It is fusion of the Chera style and Dravidian style of architecture.
2. It is dedicated to the god Shiva.
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3. Maharaja of Travancore, is the current trustee of the temple.

Choose the correct option.
A. 1 & 3 is Correct only
B. 2 & 3 is Correct only
C. 1,2 & 3 are Correct
D. None of them are Correct

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Padmanabhaswamy Temple --The temple is built in an intricate fusion of the Chera style and Dravidian
style of architecture, featuring high walls, and a 16th-century gopura.
• The principal deity Padmanabhaswamy (Vishnu) is enshrined in the "Anantha Shayana" posture, the
eternal yogic sleep on the infinite serpent Adi Shesha.
• The titular Maharaja of Travancore, Moolam Thirunal Rama Varma, is the current trustee of the temple

34. Identify which of these newspapers are correctly matched with the year in which they were founded?
1. Bombay Samachar-1822
2. Times of India-1838
3. Pioneer-1865
Choose the Correct code
A. 3 is Correctly Matched only
B. 2 & 3 are Correctly Matched
C. All are Correctly Matched
D. None is Correctly Matched

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
Bombay Samachar Gujarati 1822
(Oldest newspaper in Asia still in print)
The Times of India English 1838
Pioneer English 1865

35. Indentify the Correct Chronological Sequence in these dynasties ruled over Magadh?
1. Sisunaga
2. Kanva
3. Sunga
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1-2-3
B. 3-2-1
C. 2-1-3
D. 1-3-2

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
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36. Who is being talked about here in context to history of india?

He wrote Devichandraguptam His period is not certain but he probably flourished in or after the 6th
century CE.
Options are:-
A. Chanakya
B. Sudraka
C. Aryabhatta
D. Vishakhadatta

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• Vishakhadatta was an Indian Sanskrit poet and playwright. Although Vishakhadatta furnishes the names
of his father and grandfather as Maharaja Bhaskaradatta and Maharaja Vateshvaradatta in his political
drama Mudrārākṣasa, we know little else about him.
• Only two of his plays, the Mudrārākṣasa and the Devichandragupta are known to us.
• His period is not certain but he probably flourished in or after the 6th century CE
• Vishakhadatta was an Indian Sanskrit poet and playwright. Although Vishakhadatta furnishes the names
of his father and grandfather as Maharaja Bhaskaradatta and Maharaja Vateshvaradatta in his political
drama Mudrārākṣasa, we know little else about him.
• Only two of his plays, the Mudrārākṣasa and the Devichandragupta are known to us.
• His period is not certain but he probably flourished in or after the 6th century CE

37. Which of these following organisations and Personalities from Modern History of India are correctly
matched?
1. GADAR PARTY :- CHANDRASHEKHAR AZAD
2. INA: SOHAN SINGH BAKHNA
3. HRA: CAPTAIN MOHAN SINGH
Choose the Correct code
A. 3 is Correctly Matched only
B. 2 & 3 are Correctly Matched
C. All are Correctly Matched
D. None is Correctly Matched

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
GADAR PARTY SOHANSINGH BAKHNA
INA CAPTAIN MOHAN SINGH
HRA CHANDRASHEKHAR AZAD

38. Identify the Correct Chronological Sequence of these events From Modern History of India.
1. ROWLATT ACT
2. LUCKNOW PACT
3. MONTAGUE’S AUGUST DECLARATION.
4. GANDHI –IRWIN PACT
Choose the correct option:
A. 4-2-1-3
B. 2-1-3-4
C. 2-3-1-4
D. 3-2-1-4
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ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
1. ROWLATT ACT-1919
2. LUCKNOW PACT-1916
3. MONTAGUE’S AUGUST DECLARATION-1917.
4. GANDHI –IRWIN PACT-1931

39. Consider the following statements related to Press acts & Regulations before independence
1. Licensing Regulation ordinance was brought out by francis Hastings in 1823.
2. Lord Bentick came to be known as the ‘liberator of the press’ in India.
3. Wellesely’s press act was enacted in 1899.
Select the incorrect statement/statements using the codes given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• 1823: Licensing Regulation ordinance was brought out by acting Governor-General John Adams.
• Gov.Gen. Metcalfe came to be known as the ‘liberator of the press’ in India
• WELLESELY’S PRESS ACT-1799

40. Identify which ruler is being talked about From Medieval History of India?
He was the 29th Kachwaha Rajput ruler of the Kingdom of Amber, who latermade jaipur his capital.
He was born at Amber, the capital of the Kachwaha Rajputs. He became ruler of Amber at the age of 11
after the death of his father, Raja Bishan Singh
Choose the Correct code
A. Sawai jai singh
B. Mirza raja jaisingh
C. Raja Bharmal
D. Raja Man singh

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Jai Singh II (3 November 1681 – 21 September 1743) popularly known as Sawai Jai Singh was the
29th Kachwaha Rajput ruler of the Kingdom of Amber, who later founded the fortified city of Jaipur and
made it his capital. He was born at Amber, the capital of the Kachwaha Rajputs. He became ruler of Amber
at the age of 11 after the death of his father, Raja Bishan Singh on 31 December 1699.

41. Consider the following statements about Charter Act of 1833:

1. It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.
2. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely
administrative body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
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Charter Act of 1833: This Act was the final step towards centralisation in British India.
Features of the Act
1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and
military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the
entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general
of India.
2. It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India
was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts
were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
3. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely
administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His
Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
4. The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil
servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and
employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of
Directors.

42. With reference to the Constituent Assembly of India, who among the following was the chairman of the
Press Gallery Committee?
A. H.C. Mukherjee
B. Usha Nath Sen
C. J.B. Kripalani
D. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of constitution-
making. Out of these, eight were major committees and the others were minor committees. The names
of these committees and their chairmen are given below:
Major Committees
1. Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru.
2. Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru.
3. Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Patel
4. Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel. This
committee had the following five sub-committees:
a. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani
b. Minorities Sub-Committee – H.C. Mukherjee
c. North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee –
Gopinath Bardoloi
d. Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee – A.V. Thakkar
e. North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee8a
6. Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal
Nehru
8. Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
Minor Committees
1. Finance and Staff Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
2. Credentials Committee – Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
3. House Committee – B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
4. Order of Business Committee – Dr. K.M. Munshi
5. Ad-hoc Committee on the National Flag – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
6. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly – G.V. Mavalankar
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7. Ad-hoc Committee on the Supreme Court – S. Varadachari (Not an Assembly Member)

8. Committee on Chief Commissioners’ Provinces – B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
9. Expert Committee on the Financial Provisions of the Union Constitution – Nalini Ranjan Sarkar (Not an
Assembly Member)
10. Linguistic Provinces Commission – S.K. Dar (Not an Assembly Member)
11. Special Committee to Examine the Draft Constitution – Jawaharlal Nehru
12. Press Gallery Committee – Usha Nath Sen
13. Ad-hoc Committee on Citizenship – S. Varadachari

43. The feature of suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency has been taken from the
constitution of which of the following countries?
A. British Constitution
B. Weimar Constitution of Germany
C. Irish Constitution
D. Australian Constitution

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
Sources of the Indian Constitution and features borrowed are given below:
1. Government of India Act of 1935: Federal Scheme, Office of governor, Judiciary, Public Service
Commissions, Emergency provisions and administrative details.
2. British Constitution: Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, legislative procedure, single citizenship,
cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism.
3. US Constitution: Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the
president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice president.
4. Irish Constitution: Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha and
method of election of president.
5. Canadian Constitution: Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the Centre,
appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
6. Australian Constitution: Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, and joint sitting
of the two Houses of Parliament.
7. Weimar Constitution of Germany: Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.
8. Soviet Constitution (USSR, now Russia): Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic and
political) in the Preamble.
9. French Constitution: Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble.
10. South African Constitution: Procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of members of
Rajya Sabha.
11. Japanese Constitution: Procedure established by Law.

44. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution pertains to Directive Principle of State Policy
on promotion of cooperative societies?
A. Article 41
B. Article 42
C. Article 43
D. Article 44

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
• The Co-operative Societies
• The 97thConstitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-
operative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in the constitution:
1. It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43 B).
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3. It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Cooperative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH
to 243-ZT).

45. Who among the following commented the following line on the Constitution of India?
“the constitution is essentially the Government of India Act of 1935 with only adult franchise added”.
A. P.R. Deshmukh
B. S. Varadachari
C. J.B. Kripalani
D. G.V. Mavalankar

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• P.R. Deshmukh, a member of the Constituent Assembly, commented that “the constitution is essentially
the Government of India Act of 1935 with only adult franchise added”.

46. With reference to the term Socialist used in the Preamble, consider the following statements:
1. Even before the term was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, the Constitution had a socialist content
in the form of certain Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. The Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic socialism’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
• Even before the term was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, the Constitution had a socialist content
in the form of certain Directive Principles of State Policy. In other words, what was hitherto implicit in the
Constitution has now been made explicit. Moreover, the Congress party itself adopted a
• resolution to establish a ‘socialistic pattern of society’ in its Avadi session as early as in 1955 and took
measures accordingly.
• Notably, the Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic socialism’ (also
known as ‘state socialism’) which involves the nationalisation of all means of production and distribution
and the abolition of private property. Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds
• faith in a ‘mixed economy’ where both public and private sectors co-exist side by side6. As the Supreme
Court says, ‘Democratic socialism aims to end poverty, ignorance, disease and inequality of opportunity.
Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily towards Gandhian
• socialism’. The new economic policy (1991) of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation has, however,
diluted the socialist credentials of the Indian State.

47. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is available to both citizens and foreigners (except enemy
aliens)?
A. Article 15
B. Article 16
C. Article 28
D. Article 30

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens and not to foreigners:
1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
2. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
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3. Protection of six rights regarding freedom of : (i) speech and expression, (ii) assembly, (iii) association, (iv)
movement, (v) residence, and (vi) profession (Article 19).
4. Protection of language, script and culture of minorities (Article 29).
5. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).
Fundamental Rights available to both citizens and foreigners (except enemy aliens):
1. Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14).
2. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
3. Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21).
4. Right to elementary education (Article 21A).
5. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22).
6. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23).
7. Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc., (Article 24).
8. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25).
9. Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26).
10. Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27).
11. Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions (Article 28).

48. Family Courts Act, 1984 exclusively provides within the jurisdiction of the Family Courts the matters
relating to which of the following?
1. The property of the spouses or of either of them
2. Declaration as to the legitimacy of any person
3. Guardianship of a person or the custody of any minor
4. Maintenance of wife, children and parents.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
The salient features of the Family Courts Act, 1984 are as follows:
1. It provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High
Courts.
2. It makes it obligatory on the State Governments to set up a Family Court in every city or town with a
population exceeding one million.
3. It enables the State Governments to set up Family Courts in other areas also, if they deem it necessary.
4. It exclusively provides within the jurisdiction of the Family Courts the matters relating to:
a. matrimonial relief, including nullity of marriage, judicial separation, divorce, restitution of conjugal
rights, or declaration as to the validity of marriage or as to the matrimonial status of any person;
b. the property of the spouses or of either of them;
c. declaration as to the legitimacy of any person;
d. guardianship of a person or the custody of any minor; and
e. maintenance of wife, children and parents.
5. It makes it obligatory on the part of the Family Court to endeavour, in the first instance to effect a
reconciliation or a settlement between the parties to a family dispute. During this stage, the proceedings
will be informal and rigid rules of procedure shall not apply.
6. It provides for the association of social welfare agencies, counsellors, etc., during conciliation stage and
also to secure the service of medical and welfare experts.
7. It provides that the parties to a dispute before a Family Court shall not be entitled, as of right, to be
represented by legal practitioner. However, the Court may, in the interest of justice, seek assistance of a
legal expert as amicus curiae.
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8. It simplifies the rules of evidence and procedure so as to enable a Family Court to deal effectively with a
dispute.
9. It provides for only one right of appeal which shall lie to the High Court.

49. Which part of the Indian Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas
designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’?
A. Part X
B. Part XI
C. Part XII
D. Part XIII

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas
designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’.

50. Consider the following statements about 86th Amendment Act of 2002:
1. It changed the subject-matter of Article 43 and made elementary education a fundamental right under
Article 21 A.
2. The amended directive requires the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children
until they complete the age of fourteen years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject-matter of Article 45 and made elementary
education a fundamental right under Article 21 A. The amended directive requires the State to provide
early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

51. Which of the following are characteristics of Fundamental Duties?

1. Some of them are moral duties while others are civic duties.
2. They refer to such values which have been a part of the Indian tradition, mythology, religions and practices.
3. Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners, the
Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
Following points can be noted with regard to the characteristics of the Fundamental Duties:
1. Some of them are moral duties while others are civic duties. For instance, cherishing noble ideals of freedom
struggle is a moral precept and respecting the Constitution, National Flag and National Anthem is a civic
duty.
2. They refer to such values which have been a part of the Indian tradition, mythology, religions and practices.
In other words, they essentially contain just a codification of tasks integral to the Indian way of life.
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3. Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners, the
Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners.
4. Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also nonjusticiable. The Constitution does not
provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is not legal sanction against their
violation. However, the Parliament is free to enforce them by suitable legislation.

52. Consider the following statements:

1. Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber
2. Rajya Sabha is subject to dissolution
3. Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
• Duration of Rajya Sabha
• The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and
not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year. Their seats are
filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year. The retiring
members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times.
• The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the
Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided that the
term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. The act also empowered the president of
India to curtail the term of members chosen in the first Rajya Sabha. In the first batch, it was decided by
lottery as to who should retire. Further, the act also authorised the President to make provisions to govern
the order of retirement of the members of the Rajya Sabha.
• Duration of Lok Sabha
• Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the
date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves. However, the
President is authorised to dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time even before the completion of five years and
this cannot be challenged in a court of law. Further, the term of the Lok Sabha can be extended during the
period of national emergency be a law of Parliament for one year at a time for any length of time. However,
this extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.

53. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by whom among the following?
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Vice- President

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• Election and Tenure of the Speaker of Lok Sabha
• The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members (as soon as may be, after its first
sitting). Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill
• the vacancy. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
• Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha. However, he has to vacate his office
earlier in any of the following three cases:
1. If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;
2. If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; and
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3. If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution
can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.
When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside
at the sitting of the House, though he may be present. However, he can speak and take part in the
proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality
of votes.
It should be noted here that, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office
and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.

54. Which part of the constitution deals with the term Fraternity, a sense of brotherhood?
1. System of single citizenship
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Preamble
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION: About the term Fraternity
• Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by the
system of single citizenship. Also, the Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of
every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people
of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities. The Preamble declares that
fraternity has to assure two things—the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.
The word ‘integrity’ has been added to the preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976).

55. Arrange the following officials in correct order of their Precedence:

1. Prime-Minister
2. President
3. Former Presidents
4. Chief Justice of India
5. Governors of states within their respective states
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 2 1 4 3 5
B. 3 1 2 4 5
C. 1 2 3 4 5
D. 2 1 5 3 4

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
The Table of Precedence is related to the rank and order of the officials of the Union and State Governments.
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Prime Minister
4. Governors of states within their respective states
5. Former presidents
6. Chief Justice of India

56. Which is the nodal agency of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)?
A. ICMR
B. AIIMS
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C. NHA
D. Niti Aayog

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
• The National Health Authority (NHA) under its flagship scheme of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
(ABDM) has launched a public dashboard.
• It has information on the mission’s progress at state level.
• The dashboard will display detailed information on core registries under the mission – Ayushman Bharat
Health Account (ABHA) numbers, Healthcare Professionals Registry (HPR) and Health Facility Registry
(HFR).

57. Which state assembly has become the first paperless assembly by implementing e-Vidhan application?
A. Kerala
B. Nagaland
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Karnataka

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• Nagaland has created history by becoming the first State Assembly in the country to implement
the National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA) programme to become completely paperless.
• The Nagaland Assembly Secretariat has attached a tablet or e-book on each table in the 60 members’
assembly amid the ongoing Budget session.
About the NeVA:
• NeVA is a work-flow system deployed on NIC Cloud, MeghRaj which helps the Chair of the House to
conduct the proceedings of the House smoothly and to conduct Legislative Business of the House in a
Paperless manner.
• NeVA is a device neutral and member-centric application created to equip them to handle diverse House
Business smartly by putting entire information regarding member contact details, rules of procedure, list
of business, notices, bulletins, bills, starred/unstarred questions and answers, papers laid, committee
reports etc. in their handheld devices/ tablets and equip all Legislatures / Departments to handle it
efficiently.

58. What is the name of the new model schools proposed by the Union Education Ministry during the
National Education Ministers’ Conference in Gujarat’s Gandhinagar?
A. PM Model schools
B. PM Shri schools
C. Atmanirbhar schools
D. Bharat Gaurav schools

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan addressed the National Education Ministers’ Conference
in Gujarat’s Gandhinagar with a focus on implementation of the new National Educational Policy 2020.
• He announced that the Education Ministry is in the process of establishing ‘PM Shri schools’ as the
laboratory of NEP 2020.
• The schools will be fully equipped to prepare students for the future.

59. 90:90:90 Strategy’ is an ambitious treatment that targets to help in ending which of the following
diseases?
A. Tuberculosis (Tb)
B. Citrus leprosy (CL)
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C. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)

D. Cancer

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
Powerful momentum is now building towards a new narrative on HIV treatment and a new, final, ambitious,
but achievable target:

1. By 2020, 90% of all people living with HIV will know their HIV status.
2. By 2020, 90% of all people with diagnosed HIV infection will receive sustained antiretroviral therapy.
3. By 2020, 90% of all people receiving antiretroviral therapy will have viral suppression.

60. With reference to Gatekeeper Model, consider the following statements:

1. It is a model for prison inmates with a focus on preventing suicide.
2. Gatekeepers are people from outside prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• The gatekeeper Model is a model for prison inmates with a focus on preventing suicide. Statement 2 is not
correct: Gatekeepers are existing people who are in close contact with the prisoners and can provide help
for the prisoners.Gatekeepers could be other convicted prisoners, prison staff who will be able to identify
and support prisoners needing psychological help. o People having a psychological problem or at risk of
suicide can access the gatekeeper, who can bridge the gap between them and the professional services.
This is of particular benefit in at-risk suicidal prisoners

61. With reference to the Ramanujan Prize, consider the following statements:
1. It is administered by the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation.
2. The Mathematician who is less than 30 years of age is eligible for it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: Ramanujan Prize was first awarded in 2005.
• It is administered by the Abdus Salam International Centre for Theoretical Physics (ICTP) jointly with the
Department of Science and Technology (DST) Government of India and the International Mathematical
Union (IMU).
• It is given annually to an eminent Mathematician who is less than 45 years of age on 31 December of the
year of the award.
• The DST-ICTP-IMU Ramanujan Prize committee, composed of eminent mathematicians from around the
world
• Indian Mathematician Neena Gupta became the fourth Indian and third woman to win Ramanujan Prize
for Young Mathematicians 2021. Gupta was honoured with the 2021 DST-ICTP-IMU Ramanujan Prize for
Young Mathematicians from developing countries.
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• Neena Gupta is a mathematician at the Indian Statistical Institute in Kolkata. She has won the Ramanujan
Prize 2021 for her outstanding work in affine algebraic geometry and commutative algebra.

62. United Nations has declared which day as the International Day to Combat Islamophobia?
A. 12th March
B. 13th March
C. 14th March
D. 15th March

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• The U.N. General Assembly approved a resolution to proclaim March 15 as the International Day to
Combat Islamophobia every year, starting from 2022.
• The resolution, adopted by the 193-member UN General Assembly, was introduced by Pakistan’s
ambassador Munir Akram on behalf of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), on March 15, 2022.
• It marks the day when a gunman entered two mosques in Christchurch, New Zealand, killing 51
worshippers and wounding 40 others in the terror attack.
• The resolution, introduced by the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), was co-sponsored by
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, Egypt, Indonesia, Iran, Iraq, Jordan, Kazakhstan, Kuwait, Kyrgyzstan,
Lebanon, Libya, Malaysia, Maldives, Mali, Pakistan, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Turkey, Turkmenistan, Uganda,
United Arab Emirates, Uzbekistan and Yemen.
• The objective of the day: The main objective of International Day to Combat Islamophobia will be curtailing
systematic hate speech and discrimination against Muslims; respect for religious symbols and practices;
along with the elimination of all forms of intolerance and discrimination based on religion or belief.

63. Saarthi – a mobile app has been recently in the news. It is related to which of the following?
A. Cryptocurrency marketplace
B. Transfering remittances from abroad
C. Investor education in capital market
D. Road safety for women

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
SaaRthi App is an initiative of SEBI with a view to empower investors with knowledge about securities market.
The App is available in Hindi and English.
The Android and iOS versions of the App can be downloaded from Play Store and App Store, respectively.
The app contains information on the types of schemes, ways to invest, use of riskometer and so on.

64. Which Union Ministry launched India’s first national air sports policy?
A. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
B. Ministry of Civil Aviation
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. Ministry of Science and Technology

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• The Union Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) announced the country’s first national air sports
policy(NASP2022). The policy will cover air sports such as aerobatics, aero-modelling, model rocketry,
ballooning, drones, gliding and powered gliding, hang-gliding, parachuting, paragliding and para-motoring,
powered aircraft and rotorcraft. The Air Sports Federation of India (ASFI) is the apex governing body for
this initiative.

65. Consider the following statements regarding GSAT 7 satellites series-

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1. They are advanced geosynchronous transfer orbit (GTO) satellites developed by ISRO.
2. GSAT 7 is the first dedicated military communication satellite.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
• Defence Acquisition Council (DAC), key procurement panel chaired by Defence Minister, has accorded
Acceptance of Necessity (first step of procurement) for the indigenously designed, developed and built
GSAT 7B.
• Proposed to be launched in next 2-3 years, GSAT 7B will be a state-of-the-art, multiband, military-grade
satellite for the Army.
• It will act as a force multiplier and fail-safe communication support to the force as it moves deeper into
network-centric warfare scenario.
• GSAT 7 series satellites are advanced geosynchronous transfer orbit (GTO) satellites developed by Indian
Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to meet the communication needs of the defence services.
• GSAT 7 satellite (launched 2013) is used by Indian Navy while GSAT 7A (2018) is designed (or Indian Air
Force.
• Currently, the Army is using 30% of the communication capabilities of the GSAT 7A.
• Other military satellites of India:
• Electromagnetic Intelligence Gathering Satellite (EMISAT): Has an Electronic Intelligence (BUNT) package
called Kautilya, allowing interception of ground-based radar and carries out electronic surveillance across
India.
• RISAT 2BR1 synthetic aperture radar imaging satellite: Capability to operate in different modes including
very high resolution imaging modes.

66. PM Gati Shakti Scheme has been recently in the news. It is related to which of the following?
A. Women Empowerment in Research and Development.
B. Increasing utility of Indian Post Office for Financial inclusion
C. Infrastructure development for Multi-modal connectivity plan
D. Speedy dispersal of grains under Public Distribution system

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
• The government of India has launched the ambitious Gati Shakti scheme or National Master Plan for multi-
modal connectivity plan, with the aim of coordinated planning and execution of infrastructure projects to
bring down logistics costs.
• To ensure integrated planning and implementation of infrastructure projects in the next four years, with
focus on expediting works on the ground, saving costs and creating jobs.
• The Gati Shakti scheme will subsume the Rs 110 lakh crore National Infrastructure Pipeline that was
launched in 2019.
• Besides cutting logistics costs, the scheme is also aimed at increasing cargo handling capacity and reducing
the turnaround time at ports to boost trade.
• It also aims to have 11 industrial corridors and two new defence corridors - one in Tamil Nadu and other
in Uttar Pradesh. Extending 4G connectivity to all villages is another aim. Adding 17,000 kms to the gas
pipeline network is being planned.
• It will help in fulfilling the ambitious targets set by the government for 2024-25, including expanding the
length of the national highway network to 2 lakh kms, creation of more than 200 new airports, heliports
and water aerodromes.
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• Integrated Approach: It intends to bring together 16 infrastructure related Ministries.

• This will help in removing long-standing issues such as disjointed planning, lack of standardisation,
problems with clearances, and timely creation and utilisation of infrastructure capacities.
• Gati Shakti Digital Platform: It involves the creation of a common umbrella platform through which
infrastructure projects can be planned and implemented in an efficacious manner by way of coordination
between various ministries/departments on a real-time basis

67. Consider the following statements regarding P-notes-

1. These are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian securities without
having to register with SEBI.
2. They provide access to quick money to the Indian capital market.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
• Investments in the Indian capital market through Participatory notes (P-notes) dropped to Rs. 87,989 crore
at the end of January and experts believe that foreign investors will continue with their negative stance
amid the Ukraine crisis.
About Participatory notes (P-notes)
• P-Notes are financial instruments required by investors or hedge funds to invest in Indian
securities without having to register with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
• Investors save time, money and scrutiny associated with direct registration.
• P-Notes are among the group of investments considered to be Offshore Derivative Investments (ODIs).
• The P-Notes include investments in equity, derivatives, debt and other hybrid instruments.
• Majority of the investments is in the equity space.
• P-notes are issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) to overseas investors who wish to be
a part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly
• They, however, need to go through a due diligence process.
• These investments are also beneficial to India as they provide access to quick money to the Indian capital
market.

68. Which is the venue of the Industrial Decarbonization Summit 2022?

A. New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Gandhi Nagar
D. Dehradun

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Union Road Transport and Highways Minister Nitin Gadkari inaugurated the ‘Industrial Decarbonization
Summit 2022’ in New Delhi.
• The focus is on the Road Map for Carbon Neutrality by 2070. The Minister emphasized on maintaining
equilibrium between ecology, environment and development. He also spoke about the government’s
priority on green hydrogen, Bio-ethanol, Bio-LNG and Bio-CNG.

69. Fimbristylis sunilii and Neanotis prabhuii recently seen in the news ,they are related to
A. Plant
B. Animal
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C. Bird
D. Volcano

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Researchers from SNM College Maliankara, the M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation, and the Payyanur
College have reported two new plant species from the biodiversity-rich Western Ghats regions in
Thiruvananthapuram and Wayanad districts. They both are categorised as data deficient (DD) in the
absence of any detailed observations and data on populations.

70. Which of the following country has signed a USD 375 million contract to India for the BrahMos missile?
A. Indonesia
B. Philippines
C. Croatia
D. Namibia

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• The Philippines has accepted the proposal of the Indian BrahMos Aerospace Private Limited worth USD
375 million to supply shore-based anti-ship missile systems for the Indian Navy. The move will prove to be
a major success for the Indian Government’s plans to increase defence exports.

71. Which of the following reports were published by the World Economic Forum (WEF)?
1. Global Gender Gap Report.
2. Global Risk Report.
3. Global Financial Stability Report
4. Global Competitiveness Report
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
• World Economic Forum (WEF) is the International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation.
• The Forum engages the foremost political, business, cultural and other leaders of society to shape global,
regional and industry agendas.
• It was established in 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• It is independent, impartial and not tied to any special interests.
• Some major reports published by WEF are:
• Fostering Effective Energy Transition report
• Global Competitiveness Report.
• Global Gender Gap Report.
• Global Risk Report.
• Global Travel and Tourism Report.
• Global Social Mobility Report
• Chief Economists Outlook
• Global Financial Stability Report is published by International Monetary Fund (IMF)

72. With reference to Smart Cities Mission (SCM), consider the following statements:
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in 2015.
2. The mission is being implemented by the Ministry of Urban Development (MoUD).
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3. It aims to ‘smarten up’ cities with eco-friendly hi-tech solutions to urban problems.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• Bhopal, Surat, Bhubaneswar, Udaipur, Ahmedabad, Varanasi and Indore are set to be declared India’s ‘first
set of smart cities’.
• Statements 1 ,2 and 3 are correct : Smart Cities Mission (SCM) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched
in 2015.
• It will cover 100 cities and is being implemented by the Ministry of Urban Development (MoUD) and all
state and union territory (UT) governments. ○ Of the 100 cities, the seven have taken a lead with most
projects completed. Bhopal has completed 92% projects, Surat 82.44%, Udaipur 78%, Bhubaneswar 76%,
Indore, Varanasi and Ahmedabad 70%.
• It aims to ‘smarten up’ cities with eco-friendly hi-tech solutions to urban problems. ○ The mission period
ends in June 2023.

73. SPARSH portal recently seen in the news ,it is related to which of the following?
A. Women Empowerment
B. Skill Development
C. Space Research
D. Pension sanctioning

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• The Defence Ministry introduced a portal, System for Pension Administration (Raksha) (SPARSH), to
directly transfer pensions to pensioners.
• It is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence which aims at providing a comprehensive solution to the
administration of pension to the defence pensioners in line with the vision of the government of India of
Digital India, Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) and “Minimal Government, Maximum Governance”.
• It is established with the objective of empowering a Defence Pensioner with regard to his pension account.
• It will initially cater to the new retirees on roll out and subsequently be extended to cover the existing
defence pensioners.

74. Consider the following statements regarding National Dam Safety Authority:
1. It seeks to maintain standards related to dam safety, prevent dam-related disasters and resolve inter-state
issues related to dams.
2. It will be headquartered in Bhopal to cater to all regions of the country.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• National Dam Safety Authority, has been constituted that seeks to maintain standards related to dam
safety, prevent dam-related disasters and resolve inter-state issues related to dams.
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• The Centre also constituted a 22-member National Committee on Dam Safety which is headed by the
Chairman of the Central Water Commission (CWC)(Present Chairman - R.K. Sinha) under the Ministry of
Jal Shakti.
• According to the National Register of Large Dams, there are 5,264 completed large dams in the country,
while 437 were under construction.
• About National Dam Safety Authority
• The Dam Safety Act has been passed by the Parliament in December 2021 which states that National Dam
Safety Authority will work closely with state-level dam safety organizations and owners of dams for
standardizing safety-related data and practices.
• Under the Act, the National Dam Safety Authority has been constituted on 18th February, 2022 which will
be headed by a chairman and assisted by 5 members to lead its 5 wings -policy and research, technical,
regulation, disaster & resilience and administration & finance.
• The Authority will be headquartered in the National Capital Region (NCR), Delhi and will be supported by
4 regional offices.
• Functions:
• The authority resolves any issue between the State Dam Safety Organisations of states or between a State
Dam Safety Organisation and any owner of a specified dam in that state.
• The Dam Safety Act also provides an institutional architecture for dam safety in India.

75. The term ‘Twin deficit’ often seen in the news related to economy, it is a
A. High Current Account Deficit and High Fiscal Deficit
B. High Budget Deficit and High Fiscal Deficit
C. High Capital Account Deficit and High Fiscal Deficit
D. High Current Account Deficit and High Revenue Deficit

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Option A is correct: In simple terms, the current account measures the flow of goods, services, and
investments into and out of the country.
• It represents a country’s foreign transactions and, like the capital account, is a component of a country’s
Balance of Payments (BOP). The Current Account Deficit (CAD) is the shortfall between the money flowing
in on exports, and the money flowing out on imports.
• Current Account Deficit and Fiscal Deficit (also known as "budget deficit" is a situation when a nation's
expenditure exceeds its revenues) are together known as twin deficits and both often reinforce each other,
i.e., a high fiscal deficit leads to higher CAD and vice versa.

76. Which of the following statements are correct in context of History of Bilaspur?
1. Raja Megh Chand was the contemporary of Iltutmish.
2. Raja Dip Chand assisted the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb for which he received ‘Khillat’ of 5 lakh rupees.
3. Raja Ratan Chand was the contemporary of Raja Shyam Sen of Suket , whose daughter was his Chief Rani.
Code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Megh Chand the eldest son of Sangar Chand succeeded to the gaddi but being harsh and tyrannical, he
was forced by people to leave the state and took asylum in Kullu. Ultimately with the help of Delhi's Sultan,
Shamsu-ud-din Altutmash or Iltutmish (1211-1236), he regained the lost kingdom.
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• Kalian Chand was a contemporary of Raja Shyam Sen of Suket (A.D. 1620-53), whose daughter was his
Chief Rani.
• Raja Dip Chand assisted the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb for which he received ‘Khillat’ of 5 lakh rupees.

77. The well known forts of Bachhretu, Basiah, Naun or Shiwala Bachhretu Kot and Dagoga Malhot are
located on
A. Kot hills
B. Bandla hills
C. Ratanpur hills
D. None of the above

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Kot Hill: It is 30 Km in length. Parganas ‘Basei’ and ‘Bachhretu’are within the told of this hill. The well
known forts of Bachhretu, Basiah, Naun or Shiwala Bachhretu Kot and Dagoga Malhot are located on
this hill. The highest peak, Kakrer, has an altitude of 1,430 meters.

78. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

A. Jatti: Hair cutting ceremony of a child.
B. Thar: a plain field
C. Gardhoj: Widow Remarriage
D. Chano : A great tantric and wrestler.

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
● Jatti (hair cutting ceremony of a child).
● Thar (a raised platform): constructed for those who died unnatural death.
● Gardhoj- This is a widow remarriage.
● Chano (a great tantric and wrestler).

79. Who among the following called Himachal Pradesh as "Measuring Rod of the Earth"?
A. Rabinder Nath Tagore
B. Kalidas
C. Kalhana
D. Guru Nanak Dev

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• Kalidas called Himachal as “Measuring Rod of the Earth”.
• Rabindernath Tagore called it a “Bridge between Divinity and Mankind”.

80. Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Chola and Dora’ are the popular traditional dress of Khampa.
2. The stone inscriptions found in the Chamba region have mostly been written in Kharoshti and Brahmi
3. 'Lanji’, ‘Saro’ and ‘Rajnagar’ are the centres for the development of Olive.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 only

ANSWER: A
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EXPLANATION:
• ‘Chola and Dora’ are the popular traditional dress of Gaddi.
• The stone inscriptions found in the Chamba region have mostly been written in Sharda and Tankri script.
• 'Lanji’, ‘Saro’ and ‘Rajnagar’ in Chamba district are the centers for the development of Olive.

81. Match the following:

1. Ear Ornament a. Gajru
2. Nose Ornament b. Ralu
3. Neck Ornament c. Braga
4. Wrist Ornament d. Baluk

Code:
A. 1-a; 2-b; 3-c; 4-d
B. 1-c; 2-d; 3-b; 4-a
C. 1-d; 2-c; 3-b; 4-a
D. 1-d; 2-a; 3-b; 4-c

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
Ear Ornaments
• Braga: It is a bigger ‘bali’ that has two round pearls and a conical turquoise in between.
Nose Ornaments
• Baluk: It is a golden ornament for the nose.
Neck Ornaments
• Jo-mala, Champa Kali, Chauki, Kapoori Mala, Chandan Har, Kantha, Ralu, Dodmala, Nodi, Locket or Ranihar,
‘Tandeera’ or ‘Hansi’ or ‘Hanseeri’, Chandrahar etc.
Wrist Ornaments:
• Nalians, Toke, Bangas, Kangrus, Gajru and Maridoo.
• ‘Bang’ or ‘Churi’ is the commonest wear of the wrist.

82. What is the archaeological style of Adi Brahama temple Khokhan ?

A. Pagoda
B. Pent-roof
C. Pyramid-roof
D. Pyramid

ANSWER: A

83. Question 83: Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Kullut Mahajanapadas?
1. Rajshekhar refers to Kulluta as one of the five tribes raised by Malayketu (son Paravartka) for attacking
Chandergupta Maurya.
2. Varahmihir, the Astronomer of the Mauryan age also referred to Kullut in his Brihat Samhita.
Code:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• In Mudrarakshas, Visakhdutt refers to Kulluta as one of the five tribes raised by Malayketu (son Paravartka)
for attacking Chandergupta Maurya. However, Visakhdutt called people of Kullu as Mlechch.
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• Varahmihir, the Astronomer of the Gupta age also referred to Kullut in his Brihat Samhita.
• Rajshekhar the court poet of the Pratihar ruler Mahipal (912-944 AD) mentions about victory of Mihirbhoj
over Kullut.

84. Consider the following statements:

1. The first bank in Sirmaur was established in 1892.
2. Maharaja Amar Parkash was honoured with the title of K.C.S.I during the second world war for his valuable
services to the British.
3. Raja Karam Prakash laid the foundation of the city and fort of "Nahan".
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• The first bank in Sirmaur was called 'Nahan National Bank’, which was established in 1893 and was
renamed as Bank of Sirmaur in 1955 it was merged with HP State Cooperative Bank Ltd.
• Maharaja Amar Parkash was honoured with the title of K.C.S.I during the first world war for his valuable
services to the British. In 1918 he was given the title of ‘Maharaja’ by the Britishers.He inaugurated
‘Mahima Library’ and got the road metalled from Nahan to Kala Amb. He breathed his last in Vienna on 13
Aug 1933.
• Raja Karam Prakash: He laid the foundation of the city and fort of "Nahan". He was a disciple of "Baba
Banwari Dass", whose descendents still hold the temple of “Jaganath” at Nahan.

85. Consider the given three statements and choose the incorrect answer from the given options:
1. Sibba is an offshoot of Datarpur and was visited by Jahangir in 1622 A.D.
2. Baghal was the smallest of all Principalities in Kangra Area.
3. Jagat Singh fought a battle at Dahlog against Chamba Raja Janaradhan.
Code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above.

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• Sibba is the offshoot of Guler. It was founded by Sibaram in 1450 . Jahangir visited Siba in 1622. It was
under the control of Sansar Chand, Guler and Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
• In 1622, Battle of Dhalog (near Dhalousie) was fought between Raja Janardhan of Chamba and Raja Jagat
Singh of Nurpur in which Raja Jagat Singh emerged victorious. Mughals sided Raja Jagat Singh. (Taragarh
fort was constructed by him).
• Kutleher is the smallest of all Principalities in Kangra Area .

86. Who was the Commander-in- Chief of the army in Shimla when the first war of independence broke out
A. William Hay
B. Edwards
C. General Anson
D. Lord Canning

ANSWER: C
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EXPLANATION:
• The first hand information of the accounts of violence which took place in the plains was brought to Shimla
by some lucky survivors. To name them was William Howard Russel, famous correspondent of The Times,
who with his friend, Captain Alison, ascended the mountains on 14 June 1859. The Commander- in-Chief
of the Army was General Anson, who was in Shimla, when first war of independence broke out.

87. Consider the given two statements and choose the correct answer from the given options
1. The Shimla Kalka railway line was opened for traffic on 9 November 1903.
2. The Shimla Kalka passenger train was flagged off only on 5 March 1891.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• Lord Curzon (1899-1905) took keen interest in the speedy completion Kalka-Shimla railway under the
supervision of the Chief Engineer, Mr. H.S. Harrington. The total length of the line is about 60 miles,
involved construction of 103 tunnels, totalling about five miles.
• The railway line was opened for traffic on 5March 1891 and the passenger train was flagged off only on 9
November 1903. In 1905, a tunnel was constructed under the Ridge running from near the "Blessington
tennis courts' in the-north- and opening on to the Lower Bazar below the Jami Masjid' in the South.. Hence,
Statement A and Statement B are incorrect.

88. The Himachal Pradesh Ancient and Historical Monuments and Archaeological sites and Remains act was
passed in:
A. 1972
B. 1974
C. 1976
D. 1978

ANSWER: C

89. Choose the correct statement(s):

Statement 1: The total area under tea cultivation in H.P is 2,314.71 hectares.
Statement 2: Small and Marginal farmers are provided agriculture inputs on 70 per cent subsidy basis.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above.

ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
• The total area under tea cultivation was 2,314.71 hectares with a production level of 11.45 lakh kilograms
in 2020-21. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Small and Marginal farmers are provided agriculture inputs on 50 per cent subsidy basis. Tea is mainly
cultivated in district Kangra, Mandi and Chamba and at present there are 5,900 tea growers in the State.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

90. Choose the correct statement(s):

Statement 1: Forests in Himachal Pradesh cover an area of 38,948 Sq. Km.
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Statement 2: H.P has a vision of enhancing the forest cover in the State from the present about 24.72 per
cent of its geographical area to 30 percent by 2030.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above.

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:
• Forests in Himachal Pradesh cover an area of 37,948 Sq. Km. and account for 68.16 per cent of total
geographical area of the State. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The State has a declared vision of enhancing the forest cover in the State from the present about 28.60
per cent of its geographical area to 30 per cent by 2030 to meet the Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs). Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

91. Which of the following statements are correct as per Himachal Pradesh Economic Survey 2021-22?
1. There are 12 Zila Parishads, 81 Panchayat Samities and 3,611 Gram Panchayats constituted in the State.
2. Matri Shakti Bima Yojana covers all women living below the poverty line within the age group of 10-75
years.
3. The objective of Mother Teresa Asahay Matri Sambal Yojana is to provide assistance of `6,000 per child
per annum only for two children to the destitute women belonging to the BPL family.
Code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• There are 12 Zila Parishads, 81 Panchayat Samities and 3,615 Gram Panchayats constituted in this State.
• MATRI SHAKTI BIMA YOJANA: The scheme covers all women living below the poverty line within the age
group of 10-75 years. The policy provides relief to family members/insured women in case of their death
or disablement arising due to any kind of accident surgical operations like sterilization, mishap at the time
of child birth/delivery, drowning, washing away in floods, landslide, insect bite and the scheme also gives
benefit to married women in case of accidental death of her husband. The compensation amount is as
under:
• Death `2.00 lakh.
• Permanent total disability `2.00 lakh.
• Loss of one limb and one eyes or both eyes and both limbs `2.00 lakh.
• Loss of one limb/one ear `1.00 lakh.
• In case of death of husband `2.00 lakh.
• During 2021-22, 103 numbers of families have been provided financial assistance of `206.00 lakh till 31st
December, 2021 under the scheme.
• Mother Teresa Asahay Matri Sambal Yojana: The aim of this scheme is to provide assistance of `6,000 per
child per annum only for two children to the destitute women belonging to the BPL family for the
maintenance of their children till they attain the age of 18 years and whose family income does not exceed
`35,000.

92. Which of the following projects are executed under Swadesh Darshan Scheme in Himachal Pradesh?
1. Village Haat at Shimla.
2. Development of Mani Mahesh temple
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3. Art and Craft Center at Bhalei Mata Chamba.

4. Development of Maa Hateshwari Temple Hatkoti Shimla.
Code:
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 3 and 4
D. All are correct.

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
SWADESH DARSHAN SCHEME
• The Government of India, Ministry of Tourism has sanctioned the “Swadesh Darshan Scheme” in the year
2017 for Himachal Pradesh. The following projects are being executed:
• Convention Center at Kiarighat Distt. Solan.
• Construction of Heliport at Shimla.
• Beautification of Dal Lake at Distt. Kangra.
• Village Haat at Kangra.
• International Standard free standing artificial climbing wall.
• Light and Sound Show at Town square Mall Road Shimla.
• Construction of the Paragliding Center at Bir Billing Distt. Kangra.
• Art and Craft Center at Bhalei Mata Chamba.
• Development of Maa Hateshwari Temple Hatkoti Shimla.
• Signases, Ganteries, CCTV and WiFi for the entire Circuit.

93. Consider the following statements:

1. According to Census 2011, the literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh is 6.40 percentage points higher than the
national average.
2. The gender gap reduced from 17.93 percentage points in 2001 to 13.6 percentage points in 2011.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. None of the above

ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION:
• According to Census 2011, the literacy rate in Himachal Pradesh was 82.80 per cent which is 8.8
percentage points higher than the national average at 74.0 per cent.
• These rates were 89.53 per cent for men and 75.93 per cent for women in the state. These are
significant improvements from the Census 2001 rates, which were 85.35 per cent for men, 67.42 per
cent for women and 76.48 per cent overall.
• The gender gap reduced from 17.93 percentage points in 2001 to 13.6 percentage points in 2011.

94. What is the percentage of enrolled children with access to smart phones in Himachal Pradesh in 2020?
A. 58 percent
B. 90 percent
C. 95.6 percent
D. 82.80 percent

ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION:
• The availability of smart phones in children’s homes has almost doubled from 2018 to 2021. For
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example, in 2018, 58 per cent of children in government schools had at least one smart phone at
home. This proportion increased to 90 per cent in 2020 and grew further to 95.6 per cent in 2021.

95. Which of the following are top 3 districts of Himachal Pradesh in District Good Governance Index 2019?
A. Hamirpur, Bilaspur and Kullu
B. Bilaspur, Hamirpur and Kangra
C. Hamirpur, Kullu and Mandi
D. Bilaspur, Mandi and Hamirpur

ANSWER: D
EXPLANATION:

96. Consider the following statements:

1. In the centre of a grassy meadow surrounded by cedar forest, a small lake called kund it situated.
2. This lake lies in a depression formed by ancient glaciation.
3. A Nag temple is also located here.
The above statements is describing which of the following lakes of Himachal Pradesh?
A. Rewalsar lake
B. Ghadasaru lake
C. Khajjiar lake
D. Lama dal lake

ANSWER – C
EXPLANATION:
• In the centre of a grassy meadow surrounded by cedar forest, a small lake called kund it situated. Khajjiar
Lake lies in a depression formed by ancient glaciation. A Nag temple of Khajjiar Nag is also located here.

97. Consider the following statements:

1. The Great Himalayan range separates the drainage of Satluj from Beas.
2. Zanskar range separates Shimla and Kinnaur from Tibet.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
A. 1 only
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B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. None of the above

ANSWER – D
EXPLANATION:
• The Great Himalayan range separates the drainage of Spiti from Beas.
• Zanskar range separates Spiti and Kinnaur from Tibet.

98. Match List 1 and List 2 and choose the correct answer
LIST 1 (CLIMATE) LIST 2 (DISTRICT)
A. Wet sub-temperate zone 1) Una district
B. Humid sub-temperate 2) Palampur and
zone Dharmshala
C. Humid sub-tropical zone 3) Kullu and Shimla
districts
D. Sub-humid tropical zone 4) Nahan area of
Sirmaur and
Bhattiyat valley

Code
A. A-2 , B-3 , C-4 , D-1
B. A-1 , B-2 , C-3 , D-4
C. A-4 , B-1 , C-2 , D-3
D. A-2 , B-4 , C-3 , D-1

ANSWER – A
EXPLANATION:
Physiographically, the state can be divided into five zones, viz.
1. Wet sub-temperate zone comprising of Palampur and Dharmshala area of Kangra listrict, Joginder Nagar
area of Mandi district and Dalhousie area of Chamba district;
2. Humid sub-temperate zone, comprising of Kullu and Shimla districts and parts of Mandi, Solan, Chamba,
Kangra and Sirmaur districts
3. Dry temperate, alpine high lands which include major parts of Lahaul-Spiti, Pangi and Kinnaur;
4. Humid sub-tropical zone, comprising of Bilaspur, major parts of Mandi district, Nahan area of Sirmaur
district, Bhattiyat valley of Chamba district, Nalagarh area of Solan district, Hamirpur district and Dehra
and Nurpur areas of Kangra district, and
5. Sub-humid tropical zone comprising of Una district, Paonta Sahib area of Sirmaur district and Indora area
of Kangra district.

99. What is the Infant Mortality Rate and Total Fertility Rate for Himachal Pradesh according to 2011
census?
A. 45 and 1.9
B. 47and 2.0
C. 45 and 1.8
D. 39 and 2.5

ANSWER – C
EXPLANATION:
• TFR for Himachal is 1.8 and for India is 2.5 according to 2011 census.
• The IMR for Himachal Pradesh is 45.
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100. Consider the following statements:

1. He was appointed to the East Punjab High Court and then was appointed as the Prime Minister of Kashmir.
2. He was also Constitutional Adviser to the State of Bikaner.
3. He was Chief Justice of India from 4th January 1954 to 23rd December 1954.
4. His autobiography is named 'Looking Back‘.
The above statement(s) is/are correct about Justice Meher Chand?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above

ANSWER – D
EXPLANATION:
• Justice Meher Chand was appointed to the East Punjab High Court and then was appointed as the Prime
Minister of Kashmir.
• He was also Constitutional Adviser to the State of Bikaner.
• Appointed to the Federal Court on 1st October 1948. He was Chief Justice of India (Supreme Court) from
4th January 1954 to 23rd December 1954.
• His work - 'Looking Back' (the autobiography).
• Immediately after his birth, was declared inauspicious and it was advised that his father must not see his
face for twelve years.