URTS (Unacademy Revision Test Series)

Test - 3

Time: 3 Hours Test Date: 07-03-2025 Maximum Marks :720

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2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology). 45
questions in each subject.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are 720.
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NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 1
 TEST SYLLABUS

Test - 3

Physics : Gravitation, Rotational Motion, Fluid Mechanics, Mechanical Properties of

Solid

Chemistry : Isomerism (Structural & Stereoisomerism), Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry

Botany : Cell : The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle & Cell Division

Zoology : Body Fluids & Circulation, Excretory Products & their Elimination

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 2
 PART-A: PHYSICS 6. If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside
1. A U tube contains water and methylated the bubble
spirit separated by mercury. The mercury (1) Increases
columns in the two arms are at the same (2) Remains the same
level with 10 cm of water in one arm and 12.5 (3) Is equal to the atmospheric pressure
cm of spirit in the other as shown in figure.
The relative density of the spirit is (4) Decreases
7. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from
(4 cm  2 cm) to (5 cm  4 cm) . If the work done
is 3  10−4 J , the value of the surface tension
of the liquid is
(1) 0.250 N m−1 (2) 0.125 N m−1
(3) 0.2 N m −1 (4) 8.0 N m −1
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.8 8. Two wires of the same diameter and of the
(3) 1.0 (4) 1.25 same material have the extension in length
𝑙 and 2𝑙 . If the force 𝐹 is applied on each, the
2. A thin liquid film formed between a U shaped
ratio of the work done on the two wires will
wire and a light slider supports a weight of
be
1.5  10−2 N, as shown in the figure. The
(1) 1:2 (2) 1:4
length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight
negligible. The surface tension of the liquid (3) 3:1 (4) 1:1
film is 9. A 5 meter long wire is fixed to the ceiling. A
weight of 10 kg is hung at the lower end and
is 1 metre above the floor. The wire was
elongated by 1 mm. The energy stored in the
wire due to stretching is
(1) Zero (2) 0.05 J
(3) 100 J (4) 500 J
10. Water flows into a large tank with flat
bottom at the rate of 10–4 m3s–1. Water is also
−1 −1
(1) 0.0125 N m (2) 0.1 N m leaking out of a hole of area 1 cm2 at its
−1 −1 bottom. If the height of the water in the tank
(3) 0.05 N m (4) 0.025 N m remains steady, then this height is:
3. Two small spheres of radii r and 3r fall (1) 2 cm (2) 5 cm
through a viscous liquid with the same
constant speed. The viscous forces (3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm
experienced by them are in the ratio: 11. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass
(1) 1:4 (2) 1:2 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at
40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended
(3) 1:3 (4) 3:1
from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown
4. In streamline flow, velocity of liquid at the mass ‘m’ is suspended from the rod at
bottom layer is: 160cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the
(1) zero value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in
(2) maximum equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) mean of velocities of all layers
(4) infinity
5. If a water drop is kept between two glass
plates, then its shape is:

(1) (2)

1 1
(1) kg (2) kg
2 3
(3) (4) None of these 1 1
(3) kg (4) kg
6 12

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 3
12. The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod 17. A uniform solid cylinder (m,r) rolls down the
of length L and mass M about an axis passing rough inclined plane, (, ) as shown in the
L figure. a0 be the acceleration of it’s centre
through a point at a distance of from one and f be the friction force on the cylinder.
3
of its ends and perpendicular to the rod is: Then-

7ML2
(1) (2) ML2
48
ML2 ML2
(3) (4)
9 3
1
13. The torque of force F = 2iˆ − 3ˆj + 4kˆ newton is (1) a0 = g sin, f = mgcos
3
acting at a point r = 3iˆ + 2ˆj + 3kˆ metre about 2 2
origin is: (2) a0 = g sin, f = mgsin
3 3
ˆ −m
(1) 6iˆ − 6ˆj + 12kN 2 1
(3) a0 = g sin, f = mgsin
ˆ −m
(2) −6iˆ + 6ˆj − 12kN 3 3
1 2
ˆ −m
(3) 17iˆ − 6ˆj − 13kN (4) a0 = g sin, f = mgcos
3 3
ˆ −m
(4) −17iˆ + 6ˆj + 13kN 18. Adjoining diagram shows three rings, each of
which has a mass M and radius R. Find the
14. A thin hollow cylinder moment of inertia of this system about the
(A) Slides without rotating with a speed v. axis XX’
(B) rolls with the same speed without
slipping
Find the ratio of kinetic energies in the two
cases.
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 3
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 5 : 4
15. A uniform solid sphere having mass 10 kg and
radius 10 cm is rolling over a horizontal 7
surface as shown in figure. Velocity of the top (1) 4MR2 (2) MR2
2
most point is found to be v0 = 10 ms–1. Total
kinetic energy of the sphere equal to: 9
(3) MR2 (4) 5MR2
2
19. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is
closest to the sun at a distance r1 and
farthest away at a distance of r2. If v1 and v2
are the linear velocities at these points
v
respectively, then the ratio 1 is
v2
(1) 700 J (2) 175 J
(3) 75 J (4) 350 J (1) (r1/r2)2 (2) r2/r1
16. In the figure shown, a ball rolls without (3) (r2/r1)2 (4) r1/r2
sliding on a horizontal surface and then it 20. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m
ascends a curved track up to height h and about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is
returns. The value of h is h1 for sufficiently twice the shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time
rough curved track to avoid sliding and is h2 for the planet to move from C to D and t 2 is
for smooth curved track then: the time to move from A to B then

(1) h1 = h2
(2) h1 < h2
(1) t1 = 4t2 (2) t1 = 2t2
(3) h1 > h2 (3) t1 = t2 (4) t1 > t2
(4) h2 = 2h1
NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 4
21. Two astronauts are floating in gravity free 27. For a satellite, escape velocity is 11 km/s. If
space after having lost contact with their the satellite is launched at an angle of 60°
spaceship. The two will with the vertical, then escape velocity will be
(1) move towards each other (1) 11 km/s (2) 11 3 km/s
(2) move away from each other
(3) will become stationary 11
(3) km/s (4) 33 km/s
(4) keep floating at the same distance 3
between them. 28. Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2 are moving
22. If R is the radius of the earth and g is the in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times
acceleration due to gravity on the earth the mass of S2. Which one of the following
surface. Then the mean density of the earth statements is true?
will be : (1) The potential energies of earth and
satellite in the two cases are equal.
RG 3R
(1) (2) (2) S1 and S2 are moving with the same
12g 4gG speed.
3g 4G (3) The kinetic energies of the two satellites
(3) (4) are equal.
4RG 3gR
(4) The time period of S1 is four times that
23. Starting from the centre of the earth having of S2.
radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due 29. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the
to gravity) is shown by earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential
energy is
(1) 1/2 (2) 1 / 2
(3) 2 (4) 2
30. Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling
(1) (2) (rigid support) and stretched by a weight W
attached at its free end. The longitudinal
stress at any point of cross-sectional area A
of the wire is
(1) W/2A (2) Zero
(3) 2W/A (4) W/A
(3) (4) 31. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’.
24. Match List-I and List-II : If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the
List-I List-II
fractional decrease in radius is
A. Gravitational constant (G) I. [L2T–2] B 3p
(1) (2)
B. Gravitational potential energy II. [M–1L3T–2] 3p B
C. Gravitational potential III. [LT–2]
p p
D. Gravitational intensity IV. [ML2T–2] (3) (4)
Choose the correct answer from the options 3B B
given below : 32. If the ratio of diameters, lengths and Young’s
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III modulus of steel and copper wires shown in
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III the figure are p, q and s respectively, then
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I the corresponding ratio of increase in their
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III lengths would be
25. A body of mass m is placed on earth’s
surface which is taken from earth surface to
a height of h = 3R, then change in
gravitational potential energy is
mgR 2
(1) (2) mgR
4 3
3 mgR
(3) mgR (4)
4 2
26. The radius of a planet is twice the radius of 5q 7q
(1) (2)
2
earth. Both have equal average mass- (7sp ) (5sp2 )
densities. VP and VE are escape velocities of
2q 7q
the planet and the earth, respectively, then (3) (4)
(1) VP = 1.5 VE (2) VP = 2 VE (5sp) (5sp)
(3) VE = 3 VP (4) VE = 1.5 VP
NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 5
33. In a rectangle ABCD (BC = 2AB). The moment 38. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating
of inertia is minimum along axis passing about their regular axis passing through
through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc
has angular velocities 1 and 2. They are
brought into contact face to face coinciding
the axis of rotation. The expression for loss
of energy during this process is
1
(1) I (1 − 2 )2 (2) I (1 – 2)2
4
1 1
(1) BC (2) BD (3) I (1 − 2 )2 (4) I (1 + 2 )2
8 2
(3) HF (4) EG
39. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is
34. Four identical thin rods each of mass M and rotating about its axis with constant angular
length l, form a square frame. Moment of velocity . Two objects each of mass m are
inertia of this frame about an axis through attached gently to the opposite ends of a
the centre of the square and perpendicular diameter of the ring. The ring now rotates
to its plane is with angular velocity given by
2 2 13 2 (M + 2m) 2M
(1) Ml (2) Ml (1) (2)
3 3 2m M + 2m
1 2 4 2 (M + 2m) M
(3) Ml (4) Ml (3) (4)
3 3 M M + 2m
35. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc 40. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of
about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia two materials A and B are as shown in the
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and figure. If YA and YB are the Young’s moduli of
passing through a point on its rim will be the materials, then
(1) 5 I (2) 3 I
(3) 6 I (4) 4 I
36. Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the
opposite ends of a rigid rod of length L, and
negligible mass. The rod is to be set rotating
about an axis perpendicular to it. The
position of point P on this rod through which
the axis should pass so that the work
required to set the rod rotating with angular
velocity 0 is minimum, is given by

(1) YB = 2YA (2) YA = YB

(3) YB = 3YA (4) YA = 3YB
41. With rise in temperature, the Young’s
modulus of elasticity
(1) increases (2) decreases
(3) remains unchanged (4) None of these
m2 m2L 42. Statement I : The compressibility of solids is
(1) x = L (2) x = less than that of gases and liquids.
m1 m1 + m2
Statement II : There is light coupling between
m1L m1 the neighbouring atoms in solids.
(3) x = (4) x = L
m1 + m2 m2 (1) Both statement I and II both are
incorrect.
37. The instantaneous angular position of a point
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
on a rotating wheel is given by the equation
incorrect.
(t) = 2t3 – 6t2. The torque on the wheel
becomes zero at (3) Statement I is incorrect, and statement II
is correct.
(1) t = 1 s (2) t = 0.5 s
(4) Both statement I and II are correct.
(3) t = 0.25 s (4) t = 2 s

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 6
43. The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are 51. The total structural isomers possible for the
10 × 1010 N m–2 and 2 × 1011 N m–2 respectively. alkane with molecular formula C6H14 is
A brass wire and a steel wire of the same (1) 3 (2) 4
length are extended by 1 mm under the same
force. The radii of the brass and steel wires (3) 5 (4) 6
are RB and RS respectively. Then
RB 52.
(1) RS = 2 RB (2) RS =
2
R Types of geometrical isomerism shown at
(3) RS = 4RB (4) RS = B point x, y and z of the above compound are
4 respectively
44. To get the maximum flight a ball must be
thrown as : (1) x-cis, y-cis, z-trans
(2) x-trans, y-cis, z-cis
(1) (2) (3) x-cis, y-trans, z-trans
(4) x-cis, y-trans, z-cis
(3) (4) any of (1), (2) and (3)
53. Which of the following cycloalkanes will
45. An incompressible liquid levels as shown in show cis-trans isomerism?
figure. The speed of the fluid in the lower
branch will be

A. B.

C. D.
(1) 1 m s–1 (2) 1.5 m s–1
(3) 2.25 m s–1 (4) 3 m s–1 Choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below.
PART-B : CHEMISTRY
(1) only A (2) only B
46. Which of the following is the functional
isomer of methyl acetate? (3) both C and D (4) both A and B
(1) Ethyl acetate (2) Propanoic acid 54. In which case Gauche form is more stable
(3) Ethyl ethanoate (4) Propanone than anti form?
47. The number of different amines
corresponding to the formula C3H9N is A. B.
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
C.
48. Keto enol tautomerism is not shown by
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(1) CH3–CHO (2) (3) A and C (4) A, B and C
55. Which of the following form of ethane, has
maximum torsional strain?
(3) (4) (1) Eclipsed
(2) Staggered
(3) Skew
49. (4) All have equal torsional strain
56. Functional isomerism exists between
The tautomer of II is A. and
(1) I (2) III
(3) both I and III (4) neither I nor III B. NH2 and CH3NHCH3
50. The number of aromatic isomers of C7H7Cl C. C6H5CH2OH and C6H5OCH3
are (1) A, B and C (2) B and C
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) A and C (4) A and B
(3) 3 (4) 4
NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 7
57. Keto-enol tautomerism is observed in 63. Which of the following will not show
tautomerism?

A. B. A. B.

C.
C. D. D. CH3–CH=CH–CHO
E. Ph–CH=CH–CHO
Choose the most appropriate answer from
(1) both A and B (2) A, B and C the options given below.
(3) only A (4) both A and D (1) A, B and C (2) A, C and E
58. Incorrect statement in the following is (3) C, D and E (4) A, C, D and E
(1) 64. cis-2-Butene cannot be changed to trans-2-
butene because
represent metamers (1) cis isomer has two hydrogen atoms on
(2) CH3COOC3H7 and C4H9COOH represent the same side of the  bond
functional isomerism (2) trans isomer has two hydrogen atoms on
(3) ortho and meta forms are position the opposite of the  bond
isomers (3) of restricted rotation about the carbon-
(4) Isomers have same molecular formula carbon double bond
(4) the transformation does not require
59. and represent energy
65. The maximum number of geometrical
isomers possible for the compound
(1) position isomers (2) chain isomers
CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH2 is
(3) functional isomers (4) stereo isomers
(1) 4 (2) 3
60. CH3–O–CH2–CH2–CH3 and (3) 2 (4) 5
66. Which type of conformation is shown by I and
What type of structural isomerism is shown II?
by the above pair of compounds?
(1) Metamerism (2) Functional
(3) Geometrical (4) Tautomerism
61. Cyclohexane and hexene are
(1) chain isomers
(2) ring chain isomers
(1) I is eclipsed, II is staggered.
(3) position isomers
(2) II is eclipsed, I is staggered.
(4) metamers
(3) Both are eclipsed.
(4) Both are staggered.
67. The priority of groups –OH, –COOH, –CHO, –
62. I. II. OCH3 attached to a chiral carbon is in orders
(1) –OH > –COOH > –CHO > –OCH3
(2) –OCH3 > –OH > –CHO > –COOH
(3) –OCH3 > –OH > –COOH > –CHO
(4) –OCH3 > –COOH > –CHO > –OH
III. IV. 68. Which of the following statements is true for
enantiomers?
(1) They have identical melting points and
Considering above compounds, which of the
boiling points.
following statements are correct?
A. I, II and III are functional isomers. (2) They rotate plane-polarized light in
B. I and II are position isomers but not opposite directions.
(3) They have identical densities.
functional isomers.
(4) All of the above
C. III and IV are chain isomers.
D. III and IV are metamers. 69. Which of the following molecules cannot
Choose the most appropriate answer from exist as optical isomers?
(1) CHClBrF
the options given below.
(2) CH3CH(Cl)CH2CH3
(1) both A and D (2) both C and D
(3) both A and C (4) both B and D (3) CH3CH(OH)CH(Cl)CH3
(4) CH3CH(CH3)CH(CH3)CH3

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 8
70. Which statement is correct for a racemic 77. A system absorbs 10 kJ of heat and does
mixture? 4 kJ of work. The internal energy of the
(1) It is optically inactive. system :
(2) It contains equal amounts of enantiomers. (1) Decreases by 6 kJ
(3) Its specific rotation is zero. (2) Increases by 6 kJ
(4) All of the above. (3) Decreases 14 kJ
(4) Increases by 14 kJ
71. 6 mol of oxygen are heated at constant
volume from 10°C to 20°C. What will be the 78. Out of boiling point (I), entropy (II), pH (III)
change in the internal energy of gas. The and emf of a cell (IV), intensive properties
molar heat capacity of oxygen at constant are :
pressure is 7.03. (1) I, III, IV (2) I, II
(1) 301.8 cal (2) 260.5 cal (3) I, II, III (4) All of these
(3) 265.5 cal (4) None of these 79. If heat of reaction A + 5B → 2C + 3D, is
–50 kJ. What is the heat of reaction 2A + 10B
72. One mole of gas occupying 3 litre volume is
expanded against a constant external → 4C + 6D.
pressure of one atm to a volume of 15 litre. (1) –50 kJ (2) –25 kJ
The work done by the system is : (3) –100 kJ (4) +100 kJ
(1) –1.215 x 103 J (2) +12.15 x 103 J 80. A process has H = 200 J mol–1 and S = 40
(3) +121.5 x 10 J
3
(4) +1.215 x 103 J J K–1 mol–1. Out of the values given below,
choose the minimum temperature above
73. A system absorb 300 cal of heat with the
which the process will be spontaneous :
result of that, the volume of the system
(1) 5 K (2) 20 K
becomes double of its initial volume and
temperature changes from 273 K to 546 K. (3) 12 K (4) 4 K
The work done by the system on the 81. If the enthalpy change for the transition of
surroundings is 200.0 cal. Calculate E. liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol–1 at 27°C,
the entropy change for the process would be:
(1) 273 Kcal (2) 500 cal
(1) 100 J mol–1 K–1 (2) 10 J mol–1 K–1
(3) 100 cal (4) –500 cal
(3) 1.0 J mol K–1 –1
(4) 0.1 J mol–1 K–1
74. From the following data which oxide of
82. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure
nitrogen is most stable
changed isothermally from pi to pf, the
1 entropy change is given by :
A. N2(g) + O2(g) → N2O(g); H = +430 kJ
2 p  p 
(1) S = RTln  i  (2) S = nRln  f 
1 1 p p
B. N2(g) + O2(g) → NO(g); H = +110 kJ  f   i 
2 2
p  p 
1 (3) S = nRln  i  (4) S = nRTln  f 
C. N2(g) + O2(g) → NO2(g); H = –440 kJ p  p 
2  f  i
5 83. Consider the following characteristics of
D. N2(g) + O2(g) → N2O5(g); H = –385 kJ open system :
2
I. There is exchange of energy between
(1) NO2 (2) N2O5
system and surroundings.
(3) NO (4) N2O II. There is exchange of matter between
75. Which of the following is correct : system and surroundings.
H S Nature of reaction III. Example of open system is reactants in
(1) (–) (+) Spontaneous only at high open beaker.
temperature. Choose the most appropriate answer from
(2) (+) (–) non-spontaneous the options given below :
regardless of temperature (1) Only I and II are correct
(3) (+) (+) spontaneous only at low (2) Only II and III are correct
temperature. (3) Only I and III are correct
(4) (–) (–) Spontaneous as all (4) All I, II and III are correct
temperature 84. A thermodynamic system in which mass is
76. Entropy of vaporisation of water at 100°C, if not exchanged with surrounding is/are
molar heat of vaporisation is 9710 cal mol–1 (1) closed system
will be : (2) isolated system
(1) 20 cal mol–1 K–1 (2) 26.0 cal mol–1 K–1 (3) open system
(3) 24 cal mol K
–1 –1
(4) 28.0 cal mol–1 K–1 (4) Both (1) and (2)

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 9
85. The quantity of heat required to raise the 93. Regarding to cilia and flagella which of the
temperature of one mole of a substance by following statements is incorrect?
unit degree Celsius or one kelvin is termed (1) Cilia is small and flagella is long
as : (2) Cilia can move either cell or surrounding
(1) molal heat capacity fluid
(2) mole heat capacity (3) Flagella are responsible for movement of
(3) molar heat capacity surrounding fluid
(4) millimole heat capacity (4) Cilia work like oars
86. If the enthalpies of combustion of diamond 94. Radial spokes of flagella helps in connection
and Graphite are –395.4 kJ and –393.5 kJ, between :
then the enthalpy of transition of the (1) Peripheral triplets
allotropic transformation from diamond to (2) Central singlet microtubules
graphite is : (3) Peripheral doublet and central sheath
(1) –1.9 kJ/mol (2) –15.5 kJ/mol (4) Two successive peripheral doublets
(3) –20.55 kJ/mol (4) –0.99 kJ/mol
95. Find out the incorrect about secondary
87. If 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l);rH° = –572 kJ/mol constriction.
Then the standard enthalpy of formation of (1) Non-staining
water will be : (2) Constant position
(1) –1055 kJ/mol (2) –286 kJ/mol (3) Known as satellite
(3) +800.5 kJ/mol (4) +139 kJ/mol
(4) Present in some chromosomes
88. The combustion of glucose takes place as :
96. Classification of chromosomes is based on :
C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O, rH° = –2802.0 (1) the size of satellite
kJ/mol
(2) number of telomeres
The energy required for the production of
(3) position of centromere
10.1 g of glucose (mol. Mass 180) is :
(4) position of secondary constriction
(1) 185.11 kJ (2) 120.12 kJ
97. Match the following columns :
(3) 157.22 kJ (4) 190.33 kJ
Column-I Column-II
89. Given that bond energies of H–H and F–F
bonds are 430 kJ/mol and 200 kJ/mol A. Typical bacteria I. 0.02-0.2 m
respectively. fH for H–F is –100 kJ/mol. The B. PPLO II. 0.1 m
bond enthalpy of H–F is : C. Viruses III. 10-20 m
(1) 415 kJ/mol D. Typical eukaryotic cell IV. 1-2 m
(2) 425 kJ/mol (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) 245 kJ/mol (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) 290 kJ/mol (3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
90. H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O; H = x (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
HCl + NH4OH → NH4Cl + H2O; H = y 98. Algal cell wall consists of
CH3COOH+NH4OH→CH3COONH4+H2O; H = z (1) Cellulose
The correct order for the enthalpies of above (2) Galactans
reactions is : (3) Mannans and minerals like, CaCO3
(1) x > y < z (2) x > y > z (4) All of these
(3) x < y < z (4) x = y < z 99. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
PART-C : BOTANY telophase
91. Which of the following is not the function of (1) It is the final stage of karyokinesis during
cell wall? mitosis
(1) Protection from mechanical damage and (2) Chromosomes reach their respective
infection poles
(2) Cell to cell interaction (3) Golgi bodies, nucleolus and other
(3) Barrier to undesirable macromolecules organelles reappear
(4) Secretion (4) Chromosomes at the poles start to
92. ER, GB, lysosomes and vacuoles are condense
components of endomembranous system 100. In some organisms multinucleate condition
because arises when
(1) Their structures are distinct (1) Cytokinesis is not followed by karyokinesis
(2) Their functions are distinct (2) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis
(3) Their functions are coordinated (3) Chromosomes do not align along
(4) All of these (4) Chromosomes are decondensed at the poles

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 10
101. Diakinesis 108. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed
(1) is final stage of meiotic prophase II under the microscope do not show all of the
(2) is marked by terminalisation of following, except
chiasmata (1) Golgi complexes
(3) represents transition to meiotic prophase I (2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) is marked by formation of synaptonemal (3) Chromosomes
complex (4) Nuclear envelope
102. Which stage of cell division does the given 109. Assertion (A) : Phospholipids are arranged in
figure represent? the form of bilayer in biomembrane.
Reason (R) : In biomembrane non-polar tail
of phospholipid is protected from aqueous
environment.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
correct explanation of the (A).
(1) Telophase
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
(2) Prophase
correct explanation of the (A).
(3) Interphase
(3) (A) is true but the (R) is false.
(4) Transition to Metaphase
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
103. Cytoplasm division occurs
110. A. Unicellular organisms are capable for
(1) In G1 phase
independent existence.
(2) Between G1 and S phase
(3) At the end of S phase B. Cell is the fundamental structural and
(4) After karyokinesis during M phase functional unit of all unicellular
104. G0 or quiescent stage is usually exhibited by organisms only.
(1) Skin cells C. All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(2) Heart cells D. The cytoplasm is the main arena of
(3) Gamete mother cells cellular activities of cells.
(4) Yeast cells (1) Statements A, C and D are correct
105. Which of the following is not true w.r.t. (2) Statements A, B and D are not correct
prophase (3) Statements A, B and C are correct
(1) 1st stage of karyokinesis of mitosis (4) Statements B, C and D are not correct
(2) New DNA molecules are synthesized 111. Which one of the following statements is not
(3) Chromosome compaction occurs correct for the vacuoles?
(4) Chromosome material become untangled (1) Contractile vacuoles are helpful in
106. How many statements are correct regarding excretion
plastids? (2) Food vacuoles are formed by engulfing
A. Plastids are found in all plant cells and in the food particles
euglenoides. (3) Sap vacuole is bound by tonoplast
B. Based on the types of pigments plastids (4) Tonoplast facilitates the transport of ions
can be classified into chloroplasts, against the concentration gradient into
chromoplasts and leucoplasts. cytoplasm
C. In the chromoplasts fat soluble 112. Which of the following is true for
carotenoid pigments like carotene, mitochondria?
xanthophylls and others are present. A. Mitochondrial ribosome is smaller than
D. The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are prokaryotic ribosome
larger than the cytoplasmic ribosomes. B. Single stranded circular DNA is present in
E. Leucoplasts are the colourless plastids matrix
with stored nutrients. C. Protein synthesis occurs in Mitochondrial
(1) Two (2) Three matrix
(3) Four (4) Five D. Outer membrane is highly folded and
107. Match the following : form cristae
A. Robert I. Ribonucleo protein (1) A, C and D only (2) A, B and D only
Brown
B. Flemming II. Nucleus as cell organelle
(3) Only C (4) A and D only
C. Palade III. Packaging of materials 113. Eukaryotes have 80S, while prokaryotes have
D. Camillo IV. Staining of nucleus 70S ribosomes in cytoplasm. Here “S” :
Golgi material A. denotes sedimentation coefficient
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III B. is an indirect measure of density
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I C. is an indirect measure of size
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A only (2) A and B only
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) B and C only (4) A, B and C

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 11
114. Interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct 121. Morphology of chromosomes is best studied
network of nucleoprotein fibres called in
chromatin, but during different stages of cell (1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase
division, cells show “structured (3) Prophase (4) Telophase
chromosomes” in place of the : 122. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(1) Nucleus (2) Chromatin metaphase
(3) Chromatid (4) Nucleolus (1) Condensation of chromosomes is
115. Space between parallel nuclear membranes completed
is called perinuclear space which is : (2) Chromosomes get aligned along
(1) 10-50 m (2) 0.1-0.4 m metaphase plate
(3) 10-50 nm (4) 1-4 nm (3) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
116. A single human cell has approximately ……….. (4) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of
long thread of DNA distributed among its chromosomes.
………. chromosomes : 123. Cytokinesis in plants occurs by
(1) 2 cm, 46 (2) 2 metre, 46 (1) Formation of a furrow in the plasma
(3) 2 cm, 23 (4) 2 metre, 23 membrane
117. Choose the correct statements from the (2) Formation of cell-plate
codes given below. (3) Formation of syncytium
I. Schleiden studies were based on (4) Both (1) and (2)
different kinds of plant cells and tissues. 124. If a diploid cell with 48 chromosomes
II. An incomplete cell structure does not undergoes meiosis, what would be the
ensure independent living. number of chromatids in each daughter cell
III. Cells of plant tissues are often connected after meiosis I ?
with one another through cytoplasmic (1) 48 (2) 24
bridges called plasmodesmata. (3) 46 (4) 96
IV. Human cheek cells do not possess a cell 125. Duplication of cell organelles occur at which
wall. of the given phase(s) of cell cycle?
(1) II and III (2) I and II (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) I, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV (3) Interphase (4) Anaphase
118. Centrioles are found in all given organisms, 126. What will be the number of chromosome in
except S phase if the number of chromosome in G1
(1) Algae (2) Fungi phase is 46?
(3) Animals (4) Higher plants (1) 23 (2) 92
119. __A__ usually ensures the production of (3) 12 (4) 46
haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually 127. Which of the following helps in respiration,
reproducing organisms whereas __B__ secretion process and increase the surface
restores the diploid phase. area and enzymatic content?
A and B in the above statements respectively (1) Plasma membrane
are (2) Cell wall
(1) Mitosis, Meiosis (3) Mesosomes
(2) Meiosis, Mitosis (4) Glycocalyx layer
(3) Mitosis, Cytokinesis 128. Mark the incorrect match for transport of
(4) Meiosis, Fertilization molecules across the membrane :
120. Match the column I and II and choose correct (1) Neutral solute – simple diffusion
option : (2) Water – osmosis
Column-I Column-II (3) Non-polar molecules – facilitate diffusion
A. Plasma I. Helps in cell division of (4) ATP utilized – active transport
membrane animals cells
129. Mitochondria :
B. Centriole II. Protein synthesis
C. Ribosomes III. Not present in animal cell
A. are easily visible under the microscope
(without specifically stained)
D. Plastids IV. Rich in hydrolytic enzymes
E. Lysosome V. Barrier between cytoplasm B. are typically sausage-shaped or cylindrical.
and outer environment, in C. are double membrane bound structures
an animal cell. D. have two aqueous compartments
(1) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-III, E-IV (1) A, D correct and B, C incorrect
(2) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I, E-IV (2) A, B correct and C, D incorrect
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I, E-V (3) A incorrect and B, C, D correct
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I, E-V (4) A, D incorrect and B, C correct

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 12
130. The number of mitochondria per cell is 135. Zygotene stage of meiosis I is
variable, depending on : (1) The 1st stage of prophase I
(1) Size of cells (2) Characterized by synapsis formation
(2) Shape of cells (3) The 3rd stage of prophase I
(3) Physiological activity of cells (4) Characterized by chiasmata formation
(4) Type of genes present in mitochondrial PART-D : ZOOLOGY
DNA 136. Cortical nephrons can be distinguished from
131. Consider the following statements and juxtamedullary nephrons on the basis of
choose the option containing the correct (1) Length of loop of Henle
statements.
(2) Vasa recta
I. The endomembrane system includes ER,
(3) Size and number of nephrons
Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles.
(4) All of these
II. ER helps in the transport of substances,
137. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
synthesis of proteins, lipoproteins and
haemodialysis?
glycogen.
(1) Nitrogen wastes are removed from the
III. Ribosomes are involved in protein
blood by simple diffusion.
synthesis.
(2) Dialysis unit has a coiled cellophane tube.
IV. Mitochondria helps in oxidative
(3) For dialysis, blood is taken out from the
phosphorylation and generation of ATP.
body through an artery.
(1) I, II, III and IV
(4) Anti-heparin is added to blood prior to
(2) Only I haemodialysis.
(3) Only II 138. Which of the following option is correct for
(4) Only III interstitial fluid?
132. Which of the following statements are (1) Blood – [Formed elements + Large
incorrectly matched? protein]
A. Osmosis – movement of water by (2) Blood – [WBC + Large protein]
diffusion. (3) Blood – [Plasma + Formed element]
B. Passive transport – Movement of (4) Blood – [Plasma + Clotting factors]
molecule without any requirement of 139. Identify the wrong statement w.r.t. human
energy against the concentration RBCs.
gradient.
(1) They are devoid of nucleus.
C. Active transport – Movement of molecule (2) They are biconvex in shape.
across plasma membrane by utilisation of
(3) They have iron-containing complex
energy along the concentration gradient.
protein called haemoglobin.
(1) B and C (2) Only B
(4) They are formed in the red bone marrow
(3) Only A (4) A, B and C in adults.
133. Select the mismatched pair 140. Select the correct statement w.r.t. safe
(1) Telophase – Nuclear envelope assembles blood transfusion.
around the chromosome clusters (1) The donor RBCs should not contain
(2) Anaphase – Daughter chromatids move antibodies against recipient serum.
to opposite poles (2) The recipient serum should not contain
(3) Metaphase – Morphology of chromosomes antibodies against donor RBC antigens.
is most easily studied (3) The recipient serum should not contain
(4) Prophase – Golgi complex and ER reform antigens against antibodies present in
and reappear donor serum.
134. Read the statements and select the correct (4) The recipient RBCs should not have
option. antigens found on donor RBCs.
Statement A : Chromosomes cluster at 141. Complete the following reaction :
opposite spindle poles and their identity is A
lost as discrete elements in the telophase. Prothrombin ⎯⎯→ Thrombin
Statement B : Small disc-shaped structures Thrombin
B ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Fibrin
at the surface of the centromeres are called
kinetochores. Choose the correct option w.r.t. A and B :
(1) Both the statements are incorrect (1) A-Thromboplastin, B-Fibrinogen
(2) Only statement A is correct (2) A-Thrombokinase, B-Fibrinogen
(3) Only statement B is correct (3) A-Fibrinogen, B-Calcium
(4) Both the statements are correct (4) A-Thromboplastin, B-Calcium

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 13
142. Which of the following is a correct 148. Given below are two statements choose the
statement? most appropriate answer from the options
(1) Stroke volume divided by heart rate gives given below:
the cardiac output. Statement I : In birds and mammals,
(2) Cardiac output divided by heart rate gives oxygenated and deoxygenated blood received
the stroke volume. by right and left atria respectively.
(3) Heart rate multiplied by cardiac output
gives the stroke volume. Statement II : In humans, the atrium and
ventricle of same side are separated by thick
(4) Stroke volume multiplied by cardiac
fibrous tissue called atrioventricular septum.
output gives the heart rate.
143. Following are the stages of pathway for (1) Both statement I and II both are
conduction of an action potential through the incorrect.
heart. (2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
A. AV bundle B. Purkinje fibres incorrect.
C. AV node D. Wall of ventricles
(3) Statement I is incorrect, and statement II
E. SA node
is correct.
Choose the correct sequence of pathway
from the options given below : (4) Both statement I and II are correct.
(1) B-D-E-C-A (2) E-A-C-B-D 149. Which of the following is an incorrect match
(3) E-C-A-B-D (4) A-E-C-B-D of the organisms and their excretory wastes?
144. Match the options given in column I with
(1) Reptiles, land snails and birds – Uricotelic
those in column II.
Column-I Column-II (2) Insects, frog and bony fish – Ureotelic
A. Albumin I. Defence mechanism (3) Mammals, frog and shark – Ureotelic
B. Globulin II. Osmotic balance (4) Aquatic insects and aquatic amphibians –
C. Fibrinogen III. Blood coagulation Ammonotelic
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III (2) A-II, B-I, C-III
150. Read the following statements and choose
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II (4) A-III, B-II, C-I
the correct option.
145. Release of atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) from
heart does not results in (1) Counter current mechanism helps to
(1) Vasodilation and lowering of blood maintain a concentration gradient in the
pressure medullary interstitium.
(2) Increased sodium elimination by urine (2) Presence of interstitial gradient helps in
(3) Inhibition of renin – angiotensin an easy passage of water from the
mechanism collecting tubule.
(4) Release of low urine output (3) The osmotic gradient between cortex and
146. Read the following statements and choose medulla is created by NaCl and Urea.
the incorrect one
(4) All of the above
(1) Low secretion of ADH makes the urine
dilute 151. Given below are two statements :
(2) Glomerular filtrate has the same Statement I : PCT is lined by simple cuboidal
composition as blood plasma brush border epithelium which increases the
(3) Glucose is completely reabsorbed in the surface area for reabsorption.
PCT of nephrons in a healthy person
(4) JGA is a special sensitive region formed Statement II : The ascending limb of loop of
by cellular modification of DCT and Henle is impermeable to water but allows
Afferent arteriole transport of electrolytes actively or passively.
147. Read the following statements carefully and In the light of the above statements, choose
find out the incorrect one w.r.t. a healthy the most appropriate answer from the
adult human options given below :
(1) Around 25-30 g of urea is excreted per (1) Both statement I and II both are
day incorrect.
(2) Glomerular filtration rate in a healthy
individual is around 180 mL/min. (2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Our lungs remove around 12 L of CO2 per
hour (3) Statement I is incorrect, and statement II
(4) Around 1-1.5 L of urine is excreted per day is correct.
by an adult human (4) Both statement I and II are correct.
NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 14
152. Which is/are related with functioning of 158. Cardiac activity could be moderated by the
collecting duct of nephron? autonomous neural system. Choose the
(1) It plays a role in the maintenance of pH correct option w.r.t. it.
and ionic balance of blood by the (1) The parasympathetic system stimulates
selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions. the increase of heart rate and stroke
(2) Large amounts of water could be volume
reabsorbed from this region to produce a (2) The sympathetic system stimulates the
concentrated urine. increase of heart rate and stroke volume
(3) This segment allows passage of small (3) The parasympathetic system decreases
amounts of urea into the medullary the heart rate but increase stroke volume
interstitium to keep up the osmolarity. (4) The sympathetic system decreases the
(4) All of the above heart rate but increase stroke volume
153. Match the items given in Column-I (Excretory 159. Mark the pair of substances among the
organs) with those in Column-II (Animals) following which is essential for coagulation
and select the correct option given below : of blood.
Column-I Column-II (1) Heparin and calcium ions
(2) Calcium ions and platelet factors
A. Nephridia I. Cockroach
(3) Oxalates and nitrates
B. Malpighian tubules II. Earthworm
(4) Platelet factors and heparin
C. Protonephridia III. Human 160. Arrange the following events of cardiac cycle
D. Kidneys IV. Flat worms in correct order :
(1) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III (1) Joint diastole, ventricular diastole,
auricular systole.
(2) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III
(2) Joint diastole, auricular systole,
(3) A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III
ventricular systole.
(4) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
(3) Joint diastole, ventricular systole,
154. Mark the incorrect matching : auricular diastole.
(1) Ventricular diastole – 0.5 second (4) Joint diastole, ventricular diastole,
(2) Basophils – Inflammatory reactions auricular diastole.
(3) Podocytes – Ultrafiltration 161. Match the column-I (Types of
(4) Angina – Heart stops beating Leucocytes/WBCs) with column-II (Their % of
total WBC) and choose the correct option.
155. The principal nitrogenous excretory
compound in humans is synthesised : Column-I Column-II
(1) in the liver, but eliminated mostly A. Neutrophils I. 2–3
through kidneys B. Basophils II. 6–8
(2) in kidneys but eliminated mostly through C. Monocytes III. 0.5 – 1
liver D. Eosinophils IV. 60 – 65
(3) in kidneys as well as eliminated by
(1) A-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I
kidneys
(2) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
(4) in liver and also eliminated by the same
through bile (3) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
156. Which of the following human organ(s) (4) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
receive only oxygenated blood? 162. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. human
A. Heart B. Lungs kidneys.
C. Liver D. Kidney (1) The kidneys are situated between the
levels of last lumber to third thoracic
(1) A, C, D (2) C, D
vertebrae.
(3) A, C (4) Only D
(2) Internally, kidney is divided into outer
157. Which one of the following is not a part of a cortex and inner medulla.
medullary pyramid?
(3) Medulla is divided into few conical
(1) Convoluted tubules masses called medullary pyramids.
(2) Collecting ducts (4) The cortex extends in between the
(3) Henle’s loop medullary pyramids which is called as
(4) Peritubular capillaries columns of Bertini.

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 15
163. Identify the correct statement with respect 169. Which one is the first heart sound?
to Henle’s loop? (1) ‘Dub’ during closure of semilunar valves
(1) The descending limb is impermeable to (2) ‘Lub’ during closure of atrioventricular
water valves
(2) The ascending limb is impermeable to (3) ‘Dub’ during closure of atrioventricular
electrolytes. valves
(3) Reabsorption is maximum in its (4) ‘Lub’ during closure of semilunar valves
ascending limb. 170. Heart failure means :
(4) Does not play any significant role in (1) When the heart stops beating.
maintenance of pH and ionic balance of (2) When the heart muscle is suddenly
body fluids. damaged.
164. Statement I : Nearly 99% of the filtrate has (3) When the heart is not pumping blood
to be reabsorb by the renal tubules. effectively enough to meet the needs of
Statement II : Tubular secretions helps to the body.
maintain the ionic and acid-base balance of (4) When there is deposition of cholesterol in
body fluids. the lumen of coronary artery.
(1) Both statement I and II both are 171. Consider the following four statements and
incorrect. select the correct option stating which ones
are true (T) and which ones are false (F)?
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
I. Proteins contribute 6-8% of the blood
incorrect.
plasma.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, and statement II
II. Plasma contains very high amount of
is correct.
minerals like Na+, Ca++, Mg++, HCO3–, Cl–,
(4) Both statement I and II are correct. etc.
165. Fill in the blanks w.r.t. human kidney. III. Plasma without the clotting factors is
Inner to the hilum is a broad funnel shaped called serum.
space called the __A__ with projections IV. Glucose, amino acids, lipids, etc. are also
called __B__. present in the plasma as they are always
(1) A-Calyces, B-Renal pelvis in transit in the body.
(2) A-Renal column, B-Medullary pyramid (1) I-F; II-F; III-T; IV-T (2) I-T; II-F; III-T; IV-T
(3) A-Medullary pyramid, B-Renal column (3) I-T; II-T; III-F; IV-F (4) I-F; II-F; III-F; IV-T
(4) A-Renal pelvis, B-Calyces 172. Sino-atrial node (SAN) :
(1) Present in the right upper corner of the
166. Which of the following causes an increase in
right atrium
sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted
tubule? (2) Can generate the maximum number of
action potentials i.e. 70-75 min–1
(1) Increase in aldosterone level
(3) Responsible for initiating and maintaining
(2) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels the rhythmic contractile activity of heart.
(3) Decrease in aldosterone levels (4) All of the above
(4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels 173. Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by
167. Match the following columns and choose the __A__. Identify ‘A’ and its correct statement :
correct option. (1) Efferent arteriole and it carry oxygenated
Column-I Column-II blood towards the glomerulus
(2) Afferent arteriole and it carry oxygenated
1. P-wave A. Ventricular
blood towards the glomerulus
depolarisation
(3) Efferent arteriole, and it carry
2. T-wave B. Atrial depolarisation deoxygenated blood towards the
3. QRS C. Ventricular glomerulus
complex repolarisation (4) Afferent arteriole and it carry
deoxygenated blood towards the
(1) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B (2) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
glomerulus
(3) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A (4) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C 174. Find out the incorrect matching :
168. Which set of blood vessels contain (1) Rh incompatibility – Rh– mother and Rh+
oxygenated blood? foetus
(1) Pulmonary artery and Coronary artery (2) Heart attack – Heart muscles suddenly
(2) Pulmonary vein and Renal vein damage
(3) Pulmonary vein and Coronary artery (3) Renal calculi – Kidney stone
(4) Pulmonary artery and Renal portal vein (4) Angiotensin II – Powerful vasodilator

NEET UG_URTS-3_07-March-2025 16
175. Match the items given in Column-I (Function) 177. The maximum reabsorption of water occurs
with those in Column-II (Part of Excretory in :
system) and select the correct option given (1) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT).
below : (2) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).
(3) Collecting duct.
Column-I Column-II
(4) Descending limb of loop of Henle.
A. Ultrafiltration I. Henle’s loop 178. The urine is :
(1) Hypotonic to blood and isotonic to
B. Concentration of II. Ureter medullary fluid
urine (2) Hypertonic to blood and isotonic to
medullary fluid
C. Transport of urine III. Urinary (3) Hypotonic to blood and isotonic to
bladder medullary fluid
(4) Isotonic to blood and hypertonic to
D. Storage of urine IV. Bowman’s medullary fluid
capsule 179. Correct match column-I with column-II :
Column-I Column-II
(1) A-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III
A. Glycosuria I. Inflammation of
(2) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III glomeruli of kidney
(3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III B. Ketonuria II. Presence of glucose
in urine
(4) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II C. Glomerulonephritis III. Excess of urea in
blood
176. Select the correct pathway for the passage
of urine in humans : D. Uremia IV. Presence of ketone
bodies in urine
(1) Collecting duct → Ureter → Renal pelvis (1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
→ Calyx system → Urinary bladder → (2) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
Urethra (3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
(2) Collecting duct → Renal pelvis → Calyx (4) A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III
system → Urethra → Urinary Bladder → 180. During micturition :
Ureter (1) Urinary bladder relaxes and urethral
sphincter contracts
(3) Collecting duct → Calyx system → Renal
(2) Urinary bladder contracts and urethral
pelvis → Ureter → Urinary bladder →
sphincter contracts
Urethra
(3) Urinary bladder relaxes and urethral
(4) Renal pelvis → Ureter → Collecting duct sphincter relaxes
→ Calyx system → Urinary bladder → (4) Urinary bladder contracts and urethral
Urethra sphincter relaxes

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