Instruments/Avionic Systems - Avionic Systems.

1. Autopilot servo brake is energised.

A. to actuate on.
B. at the same time as the clutch.
C. to actuate off.

2. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?.

A. Aerial work aircraft.
B. Light aircraft.
C. Heavy passenger aircraft
3. Emergency frequency is.
A. 125.5 Hz. B. 121.5 Hz. C. 123.5 Hz.

4. 121.5 MHz is what frequency?.

A. ILS. B. VOR. C. VHF.

5. 112.1 MHz is what frequency?.

A. VHF. B. ILS. C. VOR.

6. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?.

A. Cellulose only.
B. Not cellulose.
C. Polyurethane.

7. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna.

A. use any paint.
B. use cellulose paint.
C. do not use cellulose paint.

8. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?.

A. Four. B. Three C. Two.

9. ILS marker beacon lights are.

A. blue, amber, white.
B. blue, white, green.
C. green, blue, amber.

10. 111.1 MHz is.

A. a VOR frequency. B. an ILS frequency. C. a HF
frequency.
11. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is.
A. energised on.
B. energised at the same time as the clutch.
C. energised off.

12. The aviation distress frequency is.

A. 121.5 kHZ. B. 122.5 MHz. C. 121.5 MHz.
13. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to.
A. 100 ft. B. 2500 ft. C. 2000 ft.

14. 112.1 MHz is.

A. an ILS frequency.
B. an ADF frequency.
C. a VOR frequency.
15. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?.
A. Very High Frequency.
B. Low Frequency.
C. High Frequency.

16. Which of the following has an hyperbolic curve?.

A. VOR. B. DME. C. Loran C.
17. A GPS satellite will come into view.
A. 20° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
B. 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
C. 10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.

18. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones

apply to.
A. transport category aircraft only.
B. private aircraft.
C. aerial work and transport category aircraft.
19. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is.
A. to allow the pilot to override.
B. to limit the range of control movement.
C. to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent
runaway
20. Track mode of an RA is operational.
A. from 0 to 2,500 feet.
B. from 1.0 to 100 feet.
C. above 10,000 feet.
21. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?.
A. 1. B. 3. C. 2.

22. Wavelength of band radar is.

A. 3 cm. B. 5 cm. C. 10 m.

23. Precipitation static is caused by.

A. lightning strikes.
B. HF radiation.
C. skin to air particle collisions.

24. HF aerials have weak points designed at.

A. both ends.
B. the front end.
C. the back end.

25. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft

transponder?.
A. 1000 MHz. B. 1030 MHz. C. 1090 MHz.
26. CAT 2 RVR limit is.
A. 1200 ft. B. 1000 ft. C. 10,000 ft.

27. With autopilot engaged, which control surface is

inhibited?.
A. THS. B. Elevators. C. Ailerons.

28. When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system

will.
A. angle of incidence remains the same.
B. increase the angle of incidence of the THS.
C. decrease the angle of incidence of the THS.

29. In autopilot, the control column.

A. does not move.
B. moves in pitch.
C. moves in pitch and roll.

30. A hyperbolic system is.

A. VOR. B. LORAN C. C. ILS.
31. When is autothrottle disengaged?.
A. On landing.
B. After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that
TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency.
C. On selection of thrust reverse.

32. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch

command input will cause.
A. column will not move and trim system will move.
B. column to move but trim system not to move.
C. column to move and trim system to move.

33. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the

pulse frequency?.
A. Number of pulses per signal.
B. Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per
second.
C. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second.

34. CAT 2 RVR limit is.

A. 400 m.
B. 200 m.
C. 800 m.
35. How many programs can a FMC store?.
A. One current.
B. Two. Both active.
C. Two. One active and one standby.

36. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at.

A. take off. B. approach. C. cruise.

37. How does an IRS calculate velocity?.

A. Integration of accelerometers.
B. Differentiation of laser gyro.
C. Double integration of accelerometers.

38. In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?.

A. Glideslope. B. VOR. C. Localizer.

39. Glideslope controls autopilot in.

A. yaw. B. roll. C. pitch.
40. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by
dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at.
A. all voltage levels. B. low current levels.
C. high voltage levels.
41. What is B-RNAV?.
A. Indicates true airspeed.
B. Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active
waypoint.
C. Ability to store 6 waypoints.

42. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs

from the following ground based transmitters.
A. DME, ILS, ADF. B. VOR, ILS. C. RA, ADF, ILS.
43. What is the wavelength of C band radar?.
A. 17 m. B. 3 cm. C. 7 cm.

44. What is primary radar?.

A. Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected
pulse.
B. Land based.
C. Radar that gives height and position.

45. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?.

A. 75 MHz. B. 100 MHz. C. 50 MHz
46. TCAS is selected.
A. by a switch, by pilot on selector panel.
B. automatically.
C. not available in cruise.
47. The manual VOR input is for.
A. glideslope. B. course deviation bar. C. RMI.

48. The mach trim is initiated by.

A. an electric motor.
B. the autopilot motor.
C. a PCU.

49. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?.

A. Amber.
B. Blue.
C. White.

50. A GPS system is formed from.

A. receiver, processing unit, interactive console.
B. satellites, processing unit, display unit.
C. space, control, user.
51. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is
available, it.
A. can be connected to either side.
B. must be connected to the left side.
C. must be connected to the right side.
52. Laser gyros are.
A. aligned to the magnetic north.
B. aligned to the true north.
C. aligned to the aircraft structure.

53. Laser gyros.

A. have rotational parts.
B. do not have rotational parts.
C. have movable parts.

54. A radio coupled approach is.

A. localiser first, followed by glideslope.
B. in any order.
C. glideslope first, followed by localiser.
55. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel.
A. for yaw damping compensation.
B. for turn command back-up.
C. for turn coordination.
56. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS.
A. changes with radio altitude.
B. does not change.
C. changes with barometric altitude.
57. What frequency are VOR and ILS?.
A. UHF. B. VHF. C. HF.

58. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for.

A. weather radar.
B. marker beacons.
C. HF communications.
59. An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and
thrust reversers are deployed. What happens to auto
throttle?.
A. Automatically switches off.
B. Advances throttles.
C. Stays armed for go around in an emergency.
60. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned.
A. on right side of control wheel.
B. on side of control wheel furthest from throttles.
C. on left side of control wheel.

61. ILS and VOR operate in which range.

A. HF. B. VHF. C. UHF.
62. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected.
A. on the ground by the pilot.
B. in the air by the pilot.
C. by calendar date monthly.
63. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to
ground will give.
A. amber warning.
B. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'.
C. red caption and aural 'pull up, undercarriage, flaps,
throttle'.
64. The components of an ILS are.
A. a localizer and the marker beacons.
B. a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons.
C. a localizer and a glide slope.
65. In ILS, the glideslope provides.
A. distance checks.
B. vertical steering.
C. lateral steering.

66. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver

predominates, the deviation indicator will show.
A. fly right.
B. the flag
C. fly left.
67. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?.
A. 750 ft. B. 1000 ft. C. 500 ft.

68. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses.

A. ADF. B. VOR. C. glideslope.

69. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only

modes that can be selected in.
A. cruise. B. approach. C. take off.
70. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for.
A. magnetic orientation.
B. location.
C. aircraft type.

71. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?.

A. Dataplate on the FMC.
B. BITE.
C. FMC via CDU.
72. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:.
A. Radio altimeter.
B. Air speed indicator. C. Pressure altimeter.
73. INS has mercury switches on.
A. all gimbals. B. outer gimbal. C. inner gimbal.

74. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during

an ILS approach, the aircraft must fly.
A. up.
B. down.
C. nowhere - this is normal on an ILS approach.
75. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser
in an ILS?.
A. 150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway
centreline.
B. 90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide
path.
C. 150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway
centreline.

76. In what frequency range does the automatic direction

finding (ADF) system operate?.
A. 108.00 - 117.95 MHz.
B. 1025 - 1150 KHz.
C. 190 - 1759 KHz.

77. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance

Measuring Equipment reply from those for other aircraft?.
A. By changing at random the time delay between the
pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.
B. By modulation of an audio tone.
C. By using an alternate frequency.
78. From where is bearing information received for
display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator
(DDRMI)?.
A. From VOR and ADF systems.
B. From ADF only.
C. From VOR only.

79. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio

communication?.
A. HF. B. VHF. C. VHF and UHF.

80. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency

(HF) communication system?.
A. To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical
length.
B. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for
optimum matching of impedance.
C. To select the transmission/reception frequency in the
HF band.
81. What would be the purpose of an input from an
inertial reference system being connected to a weather
radar?.
A. To place the weather radar target in azimuth and
distance for the display.
B. To ensure that there is no radar transmission with
aircraft on ground.
C. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.

82. Which systems provide envelope modulation

information for a Ground Proximity Warning System
(GPWS).
A. Rudder/ailerons. B. Autothrottle.
C. Flaps/undercarriage.
83. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB)
corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How does it
operate?.
A. It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises
higher frequencies.
B. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow
beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and
DOWN.
C. It operates in conjunction with DME at lower
frequencies than ILS.

84. The FMS navigation database is updated.

A. every 28 days.
B. after a B or C check has been completed.
C. daily.
85. In an IRS system you would expect to find.
A. ring laser gyros.
B. three strap down accelerometers.
C. an azimuth gyro system.

86. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass.

A. a remotely mounted mass on the airframe.
B. a mass suspended in free air.
C. suspended between two springs in a tube.

87. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used

primarily for.
A. reporting defects on the aircraft automatically.
B. communications between the aircraft and base.
C. as part of the passenger telephone system.

88. What are the main areas of the autopilot?.

A. Error, correction , demand, resolved.
B. Error, correction, follow up, demand.
C. Error, correction, follow up, command.
89. VHF frequency is.
A. 108 - 136 MHz. B. 108 - 112 MHz. C. 108 - 118
MHz.

90. The call system for the captain will have the audio
signal of a.
A. horn. B. hi tone chime. C. two tone chime.

91. Channel 3 on a CVR records.

A. first officer.
B. flightdeck.
C. captain.

92. DME works on the frequency of.

A. UHF. B. HF. C. VHF.

93. A radial is referenced.

A. to a VOR. B. from a beacon. C. on a compass.
94. ADF works by using.
A. both loop and sense aerial.
B. loop aerial.
C. sense aerial.
95. How is the next database on the FMC activated?.
A. Manually in the air.
B. Manually, on the ground.
C. Automatically by due date.

96. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop, Pull-up'

command?.
A. Mode 6. B. Mode 3. C. Mode 2.

97. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS

system would be.
A. Mode A. B. Mode S. C. Mode C.

98. GPS.
A. uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
B. uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits.
C. uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
99. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is
detected by placing mercury switches.
A. on both gimbal rings.
B. on outer gimbal ring.
C. on inner gimbal ring.
100. The IRS laser gyro is a.
A. displaced gyro.
B. displacement gyro.
C. rate gyro.

101. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to

make?.
A. RA. B. TA. C. either RA or TA.

102. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS

display ?.
A. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
B. White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
C. White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
103. The laser ring gyro.
A. does not have gimbal and rotating parts.
B. has a stabilized platform.
C. does not have gimbal.

104. 3 autopilot computers are considered.

A. Fail resistant.
B. Fail Operable.
C. Fail Passive.
105. In autopilot with THS in motion, the.
A. elevator is inhibited.
B. Mach trim is inhibited.
C. Auto Trim is inhibited.

106. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?.

A. By deselecting auto-throttle first.
B. It is not possible.
C. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers.

107. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?.

A. Within reach of the Captain.
B. Within reach of both pilots.
C. Within reach of the First Officer.

108. Decca navigation uses.

A. VHF.
B. HF.
C. LF.

109. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one

FMS fails during flight.
A. the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot
switches over to standby.
B. it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the
stand-by mode, now it is active.
C. the failed FMS has a blank screen.

110. Which of the following has priority over TCAS

warnings?.
A. Gear position warning.
B. Stall warning.
C. Resolution Advisories.
111. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of.
A. 75 MHz.
B. 50 MHz.
C. 100 MHz.

112. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is

related to.
A. the CDI offset bar.
B. the ILS system.
C. the RMI.
113. A flat plate antenna is a.
A. a Doppler antenna.
B. parabolic antenna.
C. a series of slots and wave guides.

114. To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must

be in line of sight of.
A. 6 satellites. B. 4 satellites. C. 3 satellites.
115. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a
test is performed of the rad. alt. system?.
A. altitude alert. B. TCAS. C. GPWS.

116. The GPS satellite system consists of.

A. 20 satellites and 5 standby satellite.
B. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.
C. 24 satellites and 1 standby satellites.

117. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:.

A. Altitude.
B. Interrogation.
C. Altitude and interrogation.

118. The autothrottle system at touchdown will.

A. go to idle and disconnect.
B. go to idle.
C. apply reverse thrust.

119. When will the decision height aural warning sound?.

A. At decision height.
B. Before decision height.
C. After decision height.

120. FMCS Pin Programming is allowed.

A. to compensate for FMC position on the aircraft.
B. under CAA Rules.
C. for the database of aircraft landing altitudes.

121. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier,

the pilot must.
A. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the
INS.
B. insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint
into the INS.
C. set the altitude to be fed into the INS.

122. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has.

A. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to
the airframe.
B. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe.
C. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a
stable platform.

123. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system

has the acceleration force balanced by a.
A. constant force. B. linear force. C. non-linear force.

124. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to

detect accelerations down to.
A. 10-6 g. B. 10-2 g. C. 10-3 g.

125. A laser gyro output is.

A. inversely proportional to angular turning rate.
B. directly proportional to frequency addition.
C. directly proportional to angular turning rate.
126. In an IN system, Coriolis effect is the result of.
A. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform.
B. gyro wander.
C. platform misalignment.
127. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance
from acceleration by.
A. two successive integrations.
B. a differential followed by an integration.
C. a single integration.

128. Coriolis effect is corrected for by.

A. re-aligning the stable platform.
B. adding a correction term to the accelerometer outputs.
C. torquing the gyros.

129. In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is

linear because of a.
A. pendulous suspension.
B. linear spring.
C. force balance system.

130. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are

mounted.
A. parallel to each other.
B. orthogonally.
C. 120 degrees apart.
131. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform
is to.
A. provide attitude reference.
B. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the
accelerometers.
C. stop the gyros from toppling.

132. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a.

A. rate gyro.
B. rate integrating gyro.
C. displacement gyro.

133. Earth rate is approximately.

A. 5 degrees per hour.
B. 15 degrees per hour.
C. 84 degrees per hour.

134. In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the.

A. azimuth gimbal.
B. roll gimbal.
C. pitch gimbal.
135. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is
normal to use.
A. a pitch gimbal.
B. four gimbals.
C. three gimbals

136. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like

a Schuler pendulum.
A. the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft.
B. the platform remains fixed with respect to the local
vertical.
C. the platform oscillates with respect to the local
vertical.

137. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of.

A. 8.4 minutes. B. 84.4 seconds. C. 84.4 minutes.

138. An IN system requires data from the.

A. air data computer. B. Doppler system. C. satellites.
139. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the
IN system will flash.
A. when an error is detected.
B. thirty seconds before a track change is required.
C. two minutes before the next waypoint.
140. TK (cross track) is the.
A. perpendicular distance from the desired track.
B. angle in degrees that aircraft track is left or right of
desired track.
C. actual track across the earth's surface.

141. The output of an INS can be fed to.

A. attitude indicators.
B. vertical speed indicators.
C. altimeters.

142. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform

are mounted.
A. 90º to each other.
B. 120º apart.
C. parallel to each other.
143. A basic I.N.S. platform has.
A. 3 axis accelerometer.
B. 2 accelerometers and 3 gyros.
C. 3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll).

144. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flies.

A. course directed by ground station.
B. rhumb line.
C. great circle arc.

145. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the

aircraft moves?.
A. Present position. B. E.T.A. C. Waypoints.

146. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT

REF is made.
A. to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI
displays.
B. when attitude information is lost.
C. when navigation information is lost.

147. For the INS, the Battery Unit provides.

A. standby power only when on the ground, to maintain
the alignment phase.
B. both when airborne and on the ground.
C. standby power when airborne, switched by weight-off
switches in the undercarriage.

148. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays.

A. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise
direction from the desired track.
B. distance perpendicular from the selected track.
C. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the
right or left of the desired track.

149. The Earth Rate Compensation is computed from.

A. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of
the longitude.
B. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the cosine
of the latitude.
C. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of
the latitude.
150. INS wind speed is calculated from.
A. the vectorial addition of TAS and GS.
B. the vectorial addition of IAS and TAS.
C. the vectorial addition of IAS and GS.
151. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by.
A. an additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer
to cancel the centripetal error.
B. allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate.
C. the platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer
along its insensitive axis.
152. Transport Rate compensation is achieved by.
A. an additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer
output depending on heading.
B. allowing the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate.
C. the platform being torqued by a computed torquing
signal.

153. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System).

A. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn
sounds.
B. an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
C. a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds.
154. An IRS alignment.
A. takes 10 minutes and present position can be entered
any time during the alignment.
B. takes 10 minutes and present position must be
entered before alignment.
C. takes 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down
present position is used for the alignment.
155. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System
Performance Test' the.
A. latitude entered must be within given limits of the
latitude computed by IRU.
B. the No. 1 and No.2 must both have the same latitude
and longitude present position entered.
C. entered present latitude and longitude must agree
with the latitude and longitude at the last power down.
156. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that.
A. that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at
different frequencies.
B. the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together.
C. optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating
beams to lock together.
157. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director
comes from the.
A. flight director computer.
B. VHF comm system.
C. VHF nav system.

158. The heading error signal used in the heading select

mode.
A. is the difference between the desired course and the
actual course.
B. is the difference between the desired heading and the
actual heading.
C. comes direct from the compass system.

159. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC

modes is displayed by the.
A. difference between the course arrow and aircraft
heading.
B. difference between the selected heading and aircraft
heading.
C. selected course counter.
160. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the.
A. DME system. B. VLF nav system. C. VHF nav set.

61. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal

modulation is.
A. 90 Hz. B. 90 KHZ. C. 150 Hz.

162. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the

localiser centre line, as seen from the localiser
transmitter, is.
A. 150 Hz. B. 90 Hz. C. 90 KHz.
163. The correct sense demand generated for a selected
heading 180°, when the aircraft heading is 150° is.
A. straight ahead. B. turn right. C. turn left.
164. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre
line of the runway it is in the.
A. equi-signal sector.
B. 90 Hz modulation sector.
C. 150 Hz modulation sector.
165. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the
runway in terms of.
A. the vertical plane.
B. distance to touch down.
C. the horizontal plane.

166. The glideslope transmitter is located.

A. adjacent to the touch-down point of the runway.
B. at the end opposite to the approach end of the runway.
C. at the approach end of the runw.

167. The glideslope and localiser frequencies.

A. are fixed and common to all runways therefore
frequency selection is not necessary.
B. have to be selected separately.
C. are paired and one frequency selector suffices for both.

168. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to

runways in terms of.
A. the horizontal plane.
B. the vertical plane.
C. distance to touchdown.
169. The glideslope equipment operates in the.
A. VHF band. B. HF band. C. UHF band.

170. The localiser equipment operates in the.

A. UHF band. B. HF band. C. VHF band.
171. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a
ground station by comparing.
A. the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960
Hz modulation.
B. the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations.
C. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations.

172. The number of different radials provided by a ground

station is.
A. infinite. B. 360. C. 180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in
360°.

173. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to

VOR?.
A. 103.9 MHz. B. 127.2 MHz. C. 114.3 MHz.

174. Aerial masts may be damaged by.

A. killfrost anti-icing fluid.
B. Skydrol hydraulic fluids.
C. water.
175. Most radio aerial masts are.
A. insulated from the fuselage.
B. not bonded.
C. bonded.

176. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic)

towards a VOR station the reference and variable signals
will be.
A. 270° out of phase. B. 180° out of phase. C. in phase.

177. The middle marker modulation is keyed with.

A. dots. B. dashes. C. alternate dots and dashes.

178. The modulation of the outer marker is.

A. 400 Hz. B. 1300 Hz. C. 3000 Hz.

179. The approximate distance of the middle marker from

the runway threshold is.
A. 7 miles. B. 3 miles. C. 3500 ft.
180. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot.
A. visually.
B. aurally.
C. both visually and aurally.
181. An over station sensor (OSS) detects.
A. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a
localiser transmitter.
B. the rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of
confusion.
C. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a
VOR transmitter.

182. Incompatible Flight Director modes are.

A. VRU and compass.
B. VOR and glidepath.
C. altitude hold and ILS.

183. The VOR system comprises.

A. reference phase signal.
B. variable phase signal.
C. variable and reference phase signals.

184. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is.
A. they both have the same sensitivity.
B. ILS.
C. VOR.

185. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from

a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator would show.
A. no indication. B. from. C. to.

186. How does the flight director computer differentiate

between VOR and ILS frequencies?.
A. Discriminator on control panel.
B. Frequency discriminator in receiver.
C. Trigger pulse from ground station.

187. The glideslope transmitter operates on.

A. frequencies of 108 to 118 MHZ.
B. the UHF band.
C. the VHF band.
188. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is
on the.
A. left of the control column.
B. side of the controls away from the throttles.
C. right of the control column.

189. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the

autoland mode, the audible warning.
A. can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot.
B. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button.
C. switches off after a time interval.

190. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational

automatic landing equipment will have.
A. a decision height depending on RVR.
B. no decision height.
C. a decision height of 50ft.

191. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing,

an autothrottle system is.
A. a matter of choice for the operator.
B. mandatory.
C. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow
speeds.

192. With autothrottle engaged, the application of

reverse thrust will.
A. disconnect the autothrottle.
B. drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position.
C. drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position.
193. During ATC transponder operation, side lobe
suppression acts to.
A. mute the DME operation during transmit phase.
B. supply altitude readout.
C. mute coms transmission during transponder operation.
194. During operation of a twin HF radio system
transceiver.
A. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2
operation.
B. #1 HF system can transmit but not receive.
C. both systems can be operated simultaneously.
195. L band DME transmits on a frequency of.
A. 2210 MHz. B. 4133 MHz. C. 1090 MHz.
196. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation
system with reference to aircraft and beacon is;.
A. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon
and latter provides distance between aircraft and beacon.
B. the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon
and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon.
C. None of above.

197. Which two frequencies are paired?.

A. DME and Glideslope.
B. Localizer and DME.
C. Glideslope and localizer.
198. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two
edges of beam are apart at the runway threshold by.
A. 700 ft. B. 7 ft. C. 70 ft.

199. What happens if frequency decreases without

altering the physical length of aerial?.
A. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
B. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
C. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
200. What happens if frequency increases without
altering the physical length of aerial?.
A. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
B. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
C. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.

201. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular

frequency, when its load is purely.
A. resistive. B. inductive. C. capacitive.
202. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is.
A. to stop the motor overheating.
B. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force.
C. to give control surface feel.
203. Most aerials are.
A. bonded.
B. made from non-conductive material.
C. not bonded.
204. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?.
A. White.
B. Blue.
C. Amber.
205. Laser gyros have.
A. no rotating parts.
B. rotating parts.
C. moving parts.

206. Laser gyros are aligned to.

A. magnetic north.
B. true north.
C. aircraft structure.

207. Triplex autopilot is.

A. fail operational.
B. fail soft.
C. fail passive.
208. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises.
A. VOR, ADF, DME.
B. ILS, VOR, ADF.
C. ILS, DME, ADC.
209. ACARS is.
A. a satellite communication system.
B. a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in
flight.
C. a navigation system.
210. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?.
A. The altimeter.
B. The ATC control panel.
C. The airspeed indicator.
211. How many data bases are required in an FMS
system?.
A. 3 (one is used for redundancy).
B. 1.
C. 2.
212. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope
control?.
A. Roll.
B. Pitch.
C. Yaw.
213. What is secondary radar?.
A. Signal returned from a transponder.
B. A backup radar on an airfield.
C. Reflected radar bounce from an aircraft.
214. In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust
mode used?.
A. Approach.
B. Take-off.
C. Cruise.

215. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?.

A. Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate.
B. Excessive descent rate, unsafe terrain clearance.
C. Excessive terrain closure rate, altitude loss after take-
off.
216. For radio communication over a distance of over 250
miles we use.
A. VHF. B. HF. C. VLF.
217. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many
axis are used?.
A. 2. B. 4 C. 3