Objective Questions in

Food Process Enginerring

 PREFACE

Food processing is very much older than chemical processing. These facts about food processing
show a sharp contrast to the much younger chemical processing. Chemical industry is far ahead of the
food industry in a scientific sense. The contrast outlined here can be largely explained by differences
in raw materials which result in differences in processes. Food processes are mainly based on
experience and tradition. In recent years, science and engineering have become involved in foods, and
thus food science and engineering are young branches of science. The manufacture of a number of
foods is still more an art than a science and engineering. Food processing is one of the major
agricultural engineering disciplines, which apply basic and advanced engineering principles and
technology in foods. Food Engineering is the study of the Chemical, Physical and Biological nature of
foods and the changes they undergo when processed, packaged and transported. Food Engineering is
based on derivations of equations and the quantitative manipulations of those equations to solve
problems. This objective book is prepared by keeping the ARS-NET syllabus of Food Process
Engineering discipline in mind. In this book, detailed information about major food processing
techniques are elaborated individually and shown in more than twenty chapters. The book will be very
useful for students, who prepare Agricultural Research Service (ARS)/National Eligibility Test (NET)
in Food Process Engineering discipline conducted by Agricultural Scientist Recruitment Board
(ASRB), New Delhi. The authors are deeply thankful to individuals, who helped on time for
preparing this book.

AUTHORS
 Engineering Properties of Food Materials
1. Dimension of kinematics viscosity can be expressed as

(A) M°L2T-2 (B) ML2T-2

(C) M°L2T-1 (D) ML2T-1

2. Stoke’s law for calculating terminal velocity is equal to

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

3. Fluids which exhibit a linear as increase in shear stress with rate of shear are called as -------- fluids

(A) Bingham (B) Newtonian

(C) Pseudo plastic (D) Dilatant

4. The science of flow and deformation is known as

(A) Fluid mechanics (B) Viscometry

(C) Rheology (D) None of these

5. The principle of operation of viscometer is based on ---------- equation of the flow is Newtonian

(A) Bernoullie (B) Poiseoulle

(C) Robinowitsch-mooney (D) Cannon-fenske

6. Pascal is a unit of

(A) Displacement (B) Temperature

(C) Pressure (D) Viscosity

7. Viscosity of a gas

(A) Increases with increasing temperature

(B) Decreases with increasing temperature

(C) Does not depend on temperature

 (D) First decreases then increases

8. The relationship between the true density (ρ) and bulk density (B) is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

9. The constant of proportionality in relating stress and strain for elastic bodies is known as

(A) Young’s modulus (B) Bulk modulus

(C) Rigidity modulus (D) None of these

10. Solid food materials are generally

(A) Elastic (B) Visco elastic

(C) Visco plastic (D) Plastic

11. The food qualities such as taste, odour, colour etc., are measured in terms of

(A) Quick index (B) Organoleptic scale

(C) Score card (D) Hedonic scale

12. The property of material to form into thin sheet by beating is called

(A) Durability (B) Malleability

(C) Brittleness (D) Softness

13. Maxwell model connects

(A) Dashpot and spring in parallel

(B) Dashpot and spring in both parallel and series

(C) Dashpot and spring in series

(D) None

14. Which of the following is not related?

(A) Initial tangent modulus (B) Secant modulus

 (C) Chord modulus (D) Modulus of rigidity

15. Bulk density connects

(A) Mass and bulk volume (B) Mass and true volume

(C) Mass and volume (D) Bulk volume and porosity

16. Which of the following is not a textural character?

(A) Firmness (B) Fibrousness

(C) Smoothness (D) None

17. Porosity of food grains is in the range of

(A) Above 75 % (B) 30-40 %

(C) 10-20 % (D) 50-70 %

18. End effect of viscometer is related to

(A) Capillary viscometer (B) Rotational viscometer

(C) Both (D) Not related to viscosity

19. A good example for oblong is

(A) Pumpkin (B) Radish

(C) Jack fruit (D) All

20. Firmness of fruits relates

(A) Force and depth of penetration

(B) Force and time of application

(C) Depth of penetration and time

(D) All the above

21. Following is not a method in the study of textural characteristics

(A) Subjective method (B) Objective method

(C) Rheological method (D) Puncture test

22. Sphericity of food grains is

(A) Above one (B) Less than one

(C) Equal to one (D) Above 10

23. Kelvin model connects

(A) Dashpot and spring in series

(B) Dashpot and spring in parallel

(C) Dashpot and spring in both parallel and series

(D) None

24. The model used to represent the behaviour of unconsolidated / fibre materials will have the

following number of elements

(A) Two three four five (B) Three

(C) Four (D) Five

25. Generally hardness of cereal grains decreases with the increase in the

(A) Moisture content (B) Temperature

(C) Size (D) Volume

26. The quantity of wax required to coat on fruits is estimated based on

(A) Surface area (B) Projected area

(C) Roundness (D) All the above

27. In a rotational viscometer relationship is established between

(A) Shear stress and shear rate

(B) Density and shear rate

(C) Density and shear stress

(D) Viscosity and density

28. In a rotational viscometer the inner container is called

(A) Bob (B) Cup

(C) Rod (D) All

29. The classical ideal material is represented as

(A) Hooken body (B) St. Venant body

(C) Newtonian liquid (D) All of them

30. Ideal viscous behavior is observed in

 (A) Hooken body (B) St. Venant body

(C) Newtonian liquid (D) All of them

31. Ideal plastic behavior is represented by

(A) Hooken body (B) St. Venant body

(C) Newtonian liquid (D) All of them

32. Ideal elastic behavior is represented by

(A) Hooken body (B) St. Venant body

(C) Newtonian liquid (D) All of them

33. Mechanical model for determination of visco elastic behavior contains

(A) Spring (B) Dashpot

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

34. Mechanical models consisting of spring and dashpot are used to explain and interpret the
rheological behavior of

(A) Elastic material

(B) Plastic material

(C) Linear visco elastic material

(D) Non linear visco elastic material

35. Two basic mechanical elements used in mechanical models are spring which obey ---- and

dashpot with a -----------

(A) Newtonian liquid & Hooke’s law

(B) Hooke’s law & Newtonian liquid

(C) Hooke’s law & Fourier law

(D) Hooke’s law & St. Venant body

36. Air compression pycnometer is used to measure (NET, 2013)

(A) Weight (B) Volume

(C) Specific gravity (D) Temperature

37. A fast and accurate method for determining volume and weight density of food material is
 accomplished by

(A) Platform balance

(B) Specific gravity gradient tube

(C) Specific gravity balance

(D) Air compression pycnometer

38. Which solvent is used to measure the specific gravity of seed and grains in pycnometer?

(NET,2013)

(A) Benzene (B) n-hexane

(C) Toluene (D) Water

39. Which method is not used to measure the specific gravity of fruits and vegetables?

(A) Platform balance

(B) Specific gravity gradient tube

(C) Pycnometer method

(D) Specific gravity balance

40. Stress is directly proportional to strain with in elastic limit is known as

(A) Bond law (B) Kick law

(C) Hookes law (D) Rittinger law

41. Geometric properties such as graininess, flakiness, lumpiness etc. denoted to

(A) Shape, size and orientation

(B) Arrangement of the constituents

(C) Appearance of food

(D) All of the above

42. Mechanical properties such as hardness, cohesiveness, viscosity, elasticity, adhesiveness,

gumminess etc. dealing with

(A) Strength (B) Flow characteristics

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

43. The angle of repose is generally ------------ than angle of internal friction for grain approximately
at the same moisture content. (ARS, 2013)

(A) Smaller (B) Higher

(C) No change (D) None of the above

44. The frictional force acting between surfaces of contact at rest with respect to each other is called

(A) Static friction (B) Internal friction

(C) Kinetic friction (D) All of the above

45. The friction force existing between the surfaces in relative motion is called

(A) Static friction (B) Internal friction

(C) Kinetic friction (D) All of the above

46. The shape is formed when ellipse rotates about its major axis like lemon is known as

(A) Prolate spheroid (B) Oblate spheroid

(C) Right circular cone (D) None of the above

47. The shape is formed when ellipse rotates about its minor axis like grape is known as

(A) Prolate spheroid (B) Oblate spheroid

(C) Right circular cone (D) None of the above

48. The coefficient of friction is calculated by the relationship

(A) W/F (B) 2W/F

(C) 2F/W (D) F/W

49. The higher values of angle of internal friction indicate that the material is (NET, 2013)

(A) Cohesive (B) Easily flowing

(C) Normal flowing (D) No indication of flow

50. The specific heat of dry grains in kcal/kg oC ranges from

(A) 0.25 – 0.35 (B) 0.35 – 0.45

(C) 0.40 – 0.60 (D) 0.80 – 1.0

51. As moisture content increases, angle of repose

(A) Decrease (B) Increase

 (C) Either increase or decrease (D) Remain same

52. Electrical conductance and capacitance properties can be used for determining

(A) Temperature (B) Moisture content

(C) Shape (D) Size

53. Among the following materials, the specific heat is highest for

(A) Silver (B) Water

(C) Iron (D) Glass

54. Advantages of dielectric heating are

(A) Uniformity of heating

(B) High rate of temperature rise

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

55. Electrostatic charges can be used to

(A) Measurement of moisture content

(B) Separation of grains

(C) Measurement of temperature

(D) All of the above

56. Which of these is an aerodynamic property? (NET, 2013)

(A) Porosity (B) Bulk density

(C) Normal stress (D) Terminal velocity

57. Density plays an important role in (NET, 2013)

(A) heat transfer calculation

(B) Measurement of rolling resistance

(C) Design of silos and storage bin

(D) The calculation of sphericity

58. The range of sphericity of majority of grains is between

(A) 1.32 to 2.32 (B) 0.32 to 1.0

 (C) 1.32 to 2.0 (D) 0.32 to 1.32

59. Ratio of diameter of the largest inscribing circle to the diameter of the smallest circumscribing
circle is called

(A) Shape factor (B) Sphericity

(C) Roundness (D) None of the above

60. The density of foods after freezing

(A) Decreases (B) Increases

(C) Unchanged (D) First increases and decreases

61. The boiling point of milk (oC)

(A) 101 (B) 99.1

(C) 100.17 (D) 89.6

62. The thermal properties of food grains are

(A) Specific heat (B) Thermal conductivity

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

63. The frictional coefficient for food grains depends on

(A) Grain shape (B) Surface characteristics

(C) Moisture content (D) All of the above

64. In generalized Kelvin model of rheology, the first spring

(A) Instantaneous elastic strain

(B) Retarded strain

(C) Experienced flow in creep test

(D) Viscoelasticity

65. Sphericity of food grains is

(A) Above one (B) Less than one

(C) Equal to one (D) Above 100

66. Thermal conductivity of single grain is ----------- the bulk grain (NET, 2013)

(A) 3 to 4 times less than

 (B) 3 to 4 times greater than

(C) Equal to

(D) None of the above

67. Calorific value of paddy husk is

(A) 3600 kcal/kg (B) 5600 kcal/kg

(C) 7600 kcal/kg (D) 4600 kcal/kg

68. Stokes law is used to find out (NET, 2013)

(A) Terminal velocity (B) Drag coefficient

(C) Surface tension (D) Specific gravity

69. Thermal diffusivity of a product is dependent on

(A) Density (B) Thermal conductivity

(C) Specific heat (D) All of the above

70. It is measures of the sharpness of the solid material (NET, 2013)

(A) Roundness (B) Porosity

(C) Sphericity (D) True density

71. The angle of repose of food grains is in the range of

(A) 10-20o (B) 25-35o

(C) 50-70 o (D) Above 70 o

72. Porosity of food grains depends on

(A) Shape (B) Dimension

(C) Roughness (D) All of the above

73. Generally hardness of cereal grains decreases with the increase in the (NET, 2013)

(A) Moisture content (B) Temperature

(C) Size (D) Volume

74. With increase in temperature, thermal conductivity of fluids

(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) Remain constant (D) None of the above

75. Terminal velocity of wheat varies from

(A) 6 to 9 m/s (B) 9 to 11.5 m/s

(C) 11.5 to 14.5 m/s (D) 14.5 to 18 m/s

76. Hardness of rice endosperm ranges from

(A) 6 to 9 kg/mm2 (B) 9 to 11.5 kg/mm2

(C) 11.5 to 14.5 kg/mm2 (D) 14.5 to 18 kg/mm2

77. Hardness of barley endosperm ranges from

(A) 6 to 9 kg/mm2 (B) 9 to 11.5 kg/mm2

(C) 11.5 to 14.5 kg/mm2 (D) 14.5 to 18 kg/mm2

78. The dielectric constant of water is--------------than that of ice.

(A) 25 times lower (B) 25 times higher

(C) 50 times higher (D) 75 times higher

79. Thermal conductivity of ice is around------- times that of water

(A) 2 (B) 4

(C) 6 (D) 8

80. Unit of sphericity is

(A) mm (B) mm2

(C) kg/mm (D) dimensionless

81. The geometric mean diameter of the particle is also called

(A) Mean diameter (B) Arithmetic mean diameter

(C) Geometric diameter (D) Equivalent diameter

82. The butter consists of approximately ----------- fat content

(A) 60% (B) 70%

(C) 80% (D) 90%

83. Specific heat of ice is ---------- of the specific heat of water.

(A) Half (B) Same

(C) Double (D) Triple

84. Thermal diffusivity of solids --------- than those for liquids and gases.

(A) Less (B) More

(C) Same (D) None of the above

85. The farinograph gives information about --------- properties of flour.

(A) Drying (B) Mixing

(C) Size reduction (D) Absorption

86. Penetration or division by the sharp edge of an object is termed as

(A) Cracks (B) Cut

(C) Puncture (D) Shatter crack

87. A cleavage without complete separation of the parts of the foods is called

(A) Crack (B) Cut

(C) Puncture (D) Shatter crack

88. Division or separation into parts of foods is called

(A) Cut (B) Puncture

(C) Split (D) Crack

89. Fracture of the periderm or a crack limited to the skin of fruits and vegetables is called

(A) Cut (B) Skin break

(C) Puncture (D) Stem end tearing

90. Those properties having to do the behavior of the material under applied force are known as

(A) Rheological properties (B) Mechanical properties

(C) Rheological properties (D) All of the above

91. Cracking due to uptake of water by osmotic pressure is denoted as

(A) Stem end tearing (B) Swell cracking

(C) Shatter cracking (D) Feathering

92. The plot of equilibrium moisture content of a material versus relative humidity of the environment
at a given temperature is referred to as

(A) Drying curve (B) Freezing curve

 (C) Sorption desorption isotherms (D) Psychrometric chart

93. This is the heat required to raise the temperature of the grain by one degree

(A) Thermal conductivity (B) Specific heat

(C) Thermal diffusivity (D) None of the above

94. Nature of crop grain is (NET, 2013)

(A) Aerodynamic (B) Hygroscopic

(C) Wet & Dry (D) None of the above

95. Higher viscosity _________ consistency

(A) Lower (B) Higher

(C) No change (D) None of the above

96. Colours are the type of additives in ____________ number series

(A) E100-E199 (B) E200-E299

(C) E300-E399 (D) E400-E499

97. Textural properties is measured by

(A) Colorimeter (B) Calipers
(C) Polarimeter (D) Penentrometer

98. Using Succulometer to measure texture is a ______________ method

(A) Non Destructive method

(B) Destructive method
(C) Sensory evaluation
(D) None of the above
99. Sensation perceived by tongue __________
(A) Firmness
(B) Aroma
(C) Flavour

(D) None

100. In ___________ sensory evaluation method, standard sample is designated and panel is
asked to select most similar to the standard sample
 (A) Triangle method
(B) Ranking method
(C) Duo-trio method
(D) Ordinal method
101. Preservatives are the type of additives in ____________ number series
(A) E100-E199 (B) E200-E299
(C) E300-E399 (D) E400-E499
102. The member in a taste panel should be
(A) Colour blind (B) Only Female
(C) Smokers (D) Free from cold
103. Colour of food can be defined by numerical values of ________ factors
(A) Value (B) Hue
(C) Chroma (D) All of the above
104. Quality control in food processing provides
(A) Customer satisfaction
(B) Increased consumption and sales
(C) Quality of product
(D) All of the above
105. Two types of descriptive tests in sensory evaluation are
(A) Flavour profile and Texture profile
(B) Difference test and sensitivity
(C) Triangle and Duo trio method
(D) None
106. Capacity of a thing to harm is
(A) Hazard (B) Risk
(C) Safe (D) All of the above
107. Humectants as food additives
(A) Prevent microbial growth
(B) Prevent oxidation
(C) Prevent Spoilage or inhibit microbial growth
(D) Prevent food from drying
108. Side effects of additives are
 (A) Allergies (B) Raised blood pressure
(C) Cancer (D) All of the above
109. Antioxidants and acid regulators are the type of additives in ____________ number
series
(A) E100-E199 (B) E200-E299
(C) E300-E399 (D) E400-E499
Answer Key - Engineering Properties of Food Materials

1 C 2 B 3 B 4 C 5 B 6 C 7 A 8 D 9 A 10 B

11 D 12 B 13 C 14 D 15 A 16 D 17 B 18 B 19 C 20 A

21 C 22 B 23 B 24 D 25 A 26 A 27 A 28 B 29 D 30 C

31 B 32 A 33 C 34 C 35 B 36 B 37 B 38 C 39 C 40 C

41 D 42 C 43 B 44 A 45 C 46 A 47 B 48 D 49 A 50 B

51 B 52 B 53 B 54 C 55 B 56 D 57 C 58 B 59 B 60 A

61 C 62 C 63 D 64 C 65 B 66 B 67 A 68 A 69 D 70 A

71 B 72 D 73 A 74 A 75 B 76 C 77 A 78 B 79 B 80 D

81 D 82 C 83 A 84 A 85 B 86 B 87 A 88 C 89 B 90 B

91 B 92 C 93 B 94 B 95 B 96 A 97 D 98 B 99 C 10 C
0

10 B 10 D 10 D 10 D 10 A 10 A 10 D 10 D 10 C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
 Destructive and Non-Destructive Quality Evaluation of Food Materials

1. Ultraviolet–visible spectroscopy refers to ---------- in the ultraviolet-visible spectral region.

(A) Absorption spectroscopy (B) Reflectance spectroscopy

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

2. UV spectroscopy is routinely used in analytical chemistry for the quantitative determination of

different analyses, such as

(A) Transition metal ions

(B) Highly conjugated organic compounds

(C) Biological macromolecules

(D) All of the above

3. UV Spectroscopic analysis is commonly carried out in.........

(A) Solutions (B) Solids

(C) Gases (D) All of the above

4. The Beer-Lambert law states that the absorbance of a solution is ----------- to the concentration of
the absorbing species in the solution and the path length.

(A) Directly proportional (B) Indirectly proportional

(C) Same (D) None of the above

5. A UV/Vis spectrophotometer may be used as a detector for ----------.

(A) HPLC (B) NIR

(C) NMR (D) X-Ray

6. The Woodward-Fieser rules, for instance, are a set of empirical observations used to predict λ max,
the wavelength of the most intense UV/Vis absorption, for conjugated organic compounds such as
---------.

(A) Dienes (B) Ketones

 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

7. Ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy measures the -----------

(A) Intensity of light passing through a sample

(B) Compares it to the intensity of light before it passes through the sample

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

8. The radiation source is often used in UV spectroscopy

(A) Tungsten filament (B) Deuterium arc lamp

(C) Xenon arc lamp (D) All of the above

9. The detector used in UV spectroscopy is typically a ------------.

(A) Photomultiplier tube (B) Photodiode

(C) Charge-coupled device (D) All of the above

10. Fixed monochromators are used with ----------

(A) CCDs (B) Photodiode arrays

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

11. In UV spectroscopy samples are typically placed in a

(A) Transparent cell (B) Cuvette

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

12. The most widely applicable cuvettes are made of high quality ---------- because these are
transparent throughout the UV, visible and near infrared regions.

(A) Fused silica (B) Quartz glass

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

13. Cuvettes are typically --------- in shape

(A) Rectangular (B) Circular

(C) Square (D) Triangle

14. The extinction coefficient (ε) can be determined as a function of

(A) Wavelength (B) Frequency

 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

15. Micro spectrophotometers are used in ----------- industries for monitoring the thickness of thin
films after they have been deposited.

(A) Semiconductor (B) Micro-optics

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

16. The wavelengths for ultraviolet lights which range from

(A) 10 nm to 400 nm (B) 400 nm to 780 nm

(C) 780 nm to 920 nm (D) > 920 nm

17. The wavelengths for visible lights which range from

(A) 10 nm to 400 nm (B) 400 nm to 780 nm

(C) 780 nm to 920 nm (D) > 920 nm

18. UV-visible spectroscopy is also known as

(A) Electronic spectroscopy (B) NIR spectroscopy

(C) NMR spectroscopy (D) CT spectroscopy

19. The excited state of molecule is also called as

(A) Bonding state (B) Anti-bonding state

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

20. ---------- electrons have the lowest energy level and are the most stable electrons.

(A) σ-bond (B) π-bond

(C) Non-bonding (D) All of the above

21. -------- electrons have much higher energy levels for the ground state.

(A) σ-bond (B) π-bond

(C) Non-bonding (D) All of the above

22. ---------- are generally electrons belonging to lone pairs of atoms.

(A) σ-bond (B) π-bond

(C) Non-bonding (D) All of the above

23. Most of the absorption in the ultraviolet-visible spectroscopy occurs due to or.

(A) π-electron transitions (B) n-electron transitions

(C) σ- electron transitions (D) Both (A) and (B)

24. A spectrometer records the degree of --------- by a sample at different wavelengths.

(A) Absorption (B) Reflectance

(C) Transmittance (D) All of the above

25. Which of the following is a Chromophore?

(A) C = C (B) C = O

(C) N = O (D) All of the above

26. Certain chemical groups are susceptible to absorb light due to the electronic configuration of the
electrons in the functional group is called as.

(A) Chromophore (B) Spectrum

(C) Orbit (D) Magenta

27. Conjugation of π-electrons affects the energy levels of the ----------.

(A) σ- electron (B) π-electron

(C) Non-bonding (D) All of the above

28. Terminology or descriptive term for to greater absorbance is

(A) Hyperchromic (B) Hypochromic

(C) Bathchromic or Red Shift (D) Hypsochromic or Blue Shift

29. Terminology or descriptive term for to lesser absorbance is

(A) Hyperchromic (B) Hypochromic

(C) Bathchromic or Red Shift (D) Hypsochromic or Blue Shift

30. Terminology or descriptive term for to longer wavelength is

(A) Hyperchromic (B) Hypochromic

(C) Bathchromic or Red Shift (D) Hypsochromic or Blue Shift

31. Terminology or descriptive term for to shorter wavelength is

(A) Hyperchromic (B) Hypochromic

 (C) Bathchromic or Red Shift (D) Hypsochromic or Blue Shift

32. Near-infrared spectroscopy is widely applied in agriculture for determining the quality of

(A) Forages (B) Grains and grain products

(C) Coffee and tea, (D) All of the above

33. The detector used in NIR-Spectroscopy is

(A) PbS (B) Silicon-based CCDs

(C) InGaAs (D) All of the above

34. Fourier transform spectroscopy is a measurement technique whereby spectra are collected based
on measurements of the coherence of a radiative source, using ------ measurements of the
electromagnetic radiation.

(A) Time-domain (B) Space-domain

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

35. The higher-energy NIR, approximately ----------- cm-1 can excite overtone or harmonic vibrations.

(A) 12800–4000 (B) 4000–400

(C) 400–10 (D) Less than 10

36. The mid-infrared, approximately ---------- cm -1 may be used to study the fundamental vibrations
and associated rotational-vibrational structure.

(A) 12800–4000 (B) 4000–400

(C) 400–10 (D) Less than 10

37. The far-infrared, approximately -------- cm−1 lying adjacent to the microwave region, has low
energy and may be used for rotational spectroscopy

(A) 12800–4000 (B) 4000–400

(C) 400–10 (D) Less than 10

38. The vibrational degrees of freedom for linear molecules have

(A) 3N – 4 (B) 3N – 5

(C) 3N – 6 (D) 3N – 7

39. The vibrational degrees of freedom for non linear molecules have

(A) 3N – 4 (B) 3N – 5
 (C) 3N – 6 (D) 3N – 7

40. H2O, a non-linear molecule will have -------- degrees of vibrational freedom or modes.

(A) 3 (B) 6

(C) 12 (D) 15

41. Simple diatomic molecules have only one bond and --------- vibrational band.

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

42. H2, a linear molecule will have -------- degrees of vibrational freedom or modes.

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 6

43. If the molecule is symmetrical, e.g. N2, the band is not observed in the

(A) IR spectrum (B) Raman spectrum

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

44. Asymmetrical diatomic molecules, e.g. CO, absorb in the ------- spectrum.

(A) IR spectrum (B) Raman spectrum

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

45. FTIR is called as

(A) Fellgett's advantage (B) Multiplex advantage

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

46. IR spectroscopy is often used to identify structures because functional groups give rise to
characteristic bands both in terms of

(A) Intensity (B) Position

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Wave number

47. --------- rule states that the strength of a bond correlates with the frequency of its vibrational mode.

(A) Weins (B) Lambert

(C) Badger (D) Planks

48. ---------- rule represents the increase in bond strength leads to corresponding frequency increase
and vice versa.

(A) Weins (B) Lambert

(C) Badger (D) Planks

49. Infrared spectroscopy is a simple and reliable technique widely used in ------ chemistry,

(A) Organic (B) Inorganic

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

50. Infrared spectroscopy is used for

(A) Quality control (B) Dynamic measurement

(C) Monitoring applications (D) All of the above

51. Examples of magnetic isotopes

(A) 13C (B) 1H

(C) 19F (D) All of the above

52. 12C isotope is

(A) Magnetic (B) Not magnetic

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

53. If a nucleus is -----------, it can't be studied by nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy.

(A) Magnetic (B) Not magnetic

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

54. In isotope orientation the protons are aligned with the external magnetic field (north pole of the
nucleus aligned with the South Pole of the magnet and South Pole of the nucleus with the north
pole of the magnet) is called as

(A) Alpha orientation (B) Beta orientation

(C) Gamma orientation (D) None of the above

55. The nuclei are aligned against the field (north with north, south with south) is called the

(A) Alpha orientation (B) Beta orientation

(C) Gamma orientation (D) None of the above

56. The fluctuation of the magnetic field associated with this relaxation process is called
 (A) Spectrum (B) Resonance

(C) Vibrating (D) Ionization

57. ----------- waves are at the very low energy end of the electromagnetic spectrum

(A) Micro (B) Radio

(C) IR (D) X-ray

58. The frequency and ppm are

(A) Directly proportional (B) Indirectly proportional

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

59. NMR Spectroscopy determines the ----------- properties of atoms or the molecules

(A) Physical (B) Chemical

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

60. NMR Spectroscopy can provide detailed information about the ------------- of molecules.

(A) Structure (B) Dynamics

(C) Reaction state (D) All of the above

61. NMR spectra are highly unique, well-resolved, analytically tractable and often highly predictable
for ---------------.

(A) Small molecules (B) Large molecules

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

62. The impact of NMR spectroscopy on the sciences has been substantial because of the range of
information and the diversity of samples including

(A) Solutions (B) Solids

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

63. NMR spectra are highly unique, well-resolved, analytically tractable and often highly predictable
for

(A) Small molecules (B) Large molecules.

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

64. A spinning charge generates a magnetic field that results in a magnetic moment ------to the spin.
 (A) Directly proportional (B) Indirectly proportional

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

65. Some of the most useful information for structure determination in a one-dimensional NMR
spectrum comes from

(A) J-coupling (B) scalar coupling

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

66. Coupling to n equivalent (spin ½) nuclei splits the signal into a ----------- multiplet with intensity
ratios following Pascal's triangle.

(A) n+1 (B) n-1

(C) n+2 (D) n-2

67. CH3 group is split into a triplet with an intensity ratio of -------- by the two neighboring CH 2
protons.

(A) 1:2:2 (B) 1:2:1

(C) 2:1:1 (D) 1:2:3

68. CH2 is split into a quartet with an intensity ratio of -------- by the three neighboring CH3 protons.

(A) 1:2:3:1 (B) 1:1:2:2

(C) 1:3:3:1 (D) 1:2:2:1

69. Magnetic in equivalence can lead to highly complex spectra which can only be analyzed by

(A) PCA (B) Regression coefficient

(C) Arithmetic mean (D) Computational modeling

70. Correlation spectroscopy is one of several types of ----------- nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)
spectroscopy

(A) One dimensional (B) Two-dimensional

(C) Three dimensional (D) None of the above

71. Which of the following is the two dimensional NMR spectroscopy

(A) Exchange spectroscopy

(B) Nuclear Overhauser effect spectroscopy

 (C) Total correlation spectroscopy

(D) All of the above

Answer Key- Destructive and Non-Destructive Quality Evaluation of Food

Materials

1 C 2 D 3 A 4 A 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 D 9 D 10 C

11 C 12 C 13 A 14 A 15 C 16 A 17 B 18 A 19 B 20 A

21 B 22 C 23 D 24 A 25 D 26 A 27 C 28 A 29 B 30 C

31 D 32 D 33 D 34 C 35 A 36 B 37 C 38 B 39 C 40 A

41 A 42 A 43 A 44 A 45 C 46 C 47 C 48 C 49 C 50 D

51 D 52 D 53 B 54 A 55 B 56 B 57 B 58 A 59 C 60 D

61 A 62 C 63 A 64 A 65 C 66 A 67 B 68 C 69 D 70 B

71 D
 THERMODYNAMICS AND ITS PROPERTIES

1. The statement that energy can be neither created nor destroyed but only converted from one form to
another is known as

(A) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (B) First law of thermodynamics

(C) Second law of thermodynamics (D) Kinetic theory of gases

2. First law of thermodynamics deals with (NET, 2013)

(A) Conservation of heat (B) Conservation of mass

(C) Conservation of energy (D) Conservation of momentum

3. “When a process are performed on a system in such a way that the final state is identified with the
initial state” it is known as

(A) Thermodynamic cycle (B) Thermodynamic process

(C) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (D) Thermodynamic property

4. Kelvin-planks law deals with

(A) Conservation of heat (B) Conservation of mass

(C) Conservation of heat into work (D) Conservation of work

5. Second law of thermodynamic deals with

(A) Heat (B) Work

(C) Entropy (D) Internal energy

6. The state of the substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is complete, is known as

(A) Air (B) Steam

(C) Vapour (D) Perfect gas

7. The characteristic of equation of a gas is

(A) pv = constant (B) pv = mRT

(C) pv = RT (D) pv = mR
8. Which of the following is not a thermodynamic property? (NET, 2013)

(A) Temperature (B) Heat

(C) Pressure (D) Specific volume

9. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?

(A) Energy (B) Mass

(C) Volume (D) Temperature

10. Which of the following is an extensive property of a thermodynamic system?

(A) Pressure (B) Volume

(C) Density (D) Temperature

11. A definite area or a space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as

(A) Thermodynamic law (B) Thermodynamic process

(C) Thermodynamic system (D) Thermodynamic cylce

12. When neither a mass nor energy is allowed to cross the boundary of a system, it is called

(A) Open system (B) Closed system

(C) Isolated system (D) None of the above

13. The heating of gas at constant ------------- is governed by Boyles law

(A) Pressure (B) Volume

(C) Temperature (D) None of the above

14. The heating of a gas at constant pressure is governed by

(A) Boyles law (B) Charles law

(C) Gay lussacs law (D) Joules law

15. An ordinary mercury thermometer can be used for temperature measurement

(A) 200oC (B) 300oC

(C) 400oC (D) 500oC

16. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure and specific heat at constant volume is

(A) Less than one (B) More than one

(C) Equal to one (D) None of the above

17. The value of cp/cv for air is

(A) 1.2 (B) 1.4

(C) 1.8 (D) 2.3

18. The value of universal gas constant is (J/kg K)

(A) 8314 (B) 831.4

(C) 83.14 (D) 8.314

19. Hyperbolic process is governed bu

(A) Boyles law (B) Charles law

(C) Gay lussac law (D) Joules law

20. Triple point temperature and pressure of water are

(A) 0.1 oC and 1 atm (B) 0.01 oC and 0.006028 atm

(C) 0.1 oC and 0.06028 (D) 0 oC and 1 atm

21. An adiabatic process is one is which

(A) The temperature of gas changes

(B) The changes in internal energy is equal to work done

(C) No heat enters or leaves the gas

(D) All of the above

22. An isothermal process

(A) Internal energy decreases

(B) Internal energy increases

(C) There is no change in internal energy

(D) Internal energy first increases and decreases

23. The enthalpy of dry saturated steam – with the increase in pressure

(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) Remain constant (D) None of them

24. In an isentropic process

(A) Change in internal energy is zero

 (B) Change in entropy is zero

(C) Change in enthalpy is zero

(D) Work done is zero

25. In a constant volume process, heat transferred is equal to

(A) Change in internal energy (B) Change in enthalpy

(C) Work done (D) None of these

26. Diffusion is

(A) Mixing of gas in two containers at different pressure

(B) Mixing of two portions of fluid

(C) Mixing of unlike fluids

(D) Mixing of two portions of fluids at different temperature

27. Isentropic process on the Mollier diagram is represented by a

(A) Inclined line (B) Horizontal line

(C) Curve (D) Vertical line

28. Which of the following remains constant during an adiabatic process?

(A) Enthalpy (B) Entropy

(C) Internal energy (D) All of the above

29. Food can be cooked quicker in a pressure cooker because

(A) It is made of a metal

(B) Less heat lost

(C) Steams remains within the cooker

(D) None of them

30. If petrol is used in diesel engine, then

(A) Efficiency will be low

(B) Higher knocking will occur

(C) Black smoke will be produced

(D) Low power will be produced

 Answer Key- THERMODYNAMICS AND ITS PROPERTIES

1 B 2 C 3 A 4 C 5 C 6 D 7 B 8 D 9 D 10 B

11 C 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 B 16 B 17 B 18 A 19 A 20 B

21 D 22 C 23 B 24 C 25 A 26 C 27 D 28 B 29 C 30 B
 Heat and Mass Transfer
1. Fourier law is mainly suits for

(A) Convection (B) Conduction

(C) Radiation (D) Microwave

2. For black body

(A) α=0,τ=0, ρ=1 (B) α=1,τ=0, ρ=1

(C) α=1,τ=1, ρ=0 (D) None of the above

3. The heat transfer is constant when

(A) Temperature remains constant with time

(B) Temperature increases with time

(C) Temperature decreases with time

(D) None of the above

4. Grashoff’s number is not significant in

(A) Free convection (B) Forced convection
(C) Natural convection (D) None
5. Forced convection can be related to the following dimensionless number
(A) Prantl number (B) Reynold’s number
(C) Grashoff’s number (D) Biot number
6. LMTD holds well for
(A) Counter current flow (B) co-current flow
(C) Mixed flow (D) A or B

7. The boiling point of ammonia refrigerant is ---

(A) -18°F (B) -28°F

(C) -30°F (D) 18°F

8. Azeotopes are

(A) Modern chemical refrigerants (B) natural refrigerants

(C) Mixture of refrigerants (D) harmless pure refrigerants

9. Non metallic materials usually have the following extent of thermal conductivity

(A) High (B) low

(C) Medium (D) cannot say

10. Heat exchange between the wall and a fluid is due to

(A) Conduction (B) convection

(C) Mutual exchange (D) none of these

11. According to Fourier’s law, the rate of heat flow through the material shall vary

(A) Directly with face A

(B) Directly with temperature difference

(C) Inversely with thickness

(D) All the above

12. Driving force in mass transfer is

(A) Temperature gradient (B) Concentration gradient

(C) Momentum gradient (D) All the above

13. Thermal diffusivity relates to

(A) Specific heat, thermal conductance and density

(B) Specific heat, thermal resistance and density

(C) Specific heat, thermal conductivity and kinematic viscosity

(D) Specific heat, thermal conductivity and density

14. Which one of the following will have least value of thermal conductivity?

(A) Copper (B) Water

(C) Glass (D) Air

15. The essential condition from the transfer of heat from one body to another is

(A) Both the bodies must be in physical contact

(B) One of the bodies must have a high value of thermal conductivity

(C) Heat content of the body must be more than that of others
 (D) There must exist a temperature difference between the bodies

16. The ratio of compression and expansion in Bell-Colernann refrigeration cycle

(A) Should be equal (B) should not be equal

(C) Should be equal to three (D) should be equal to two.

17. Sling psychrometer is used to determine

(A) Dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature

(B) Dry bulb temperature and enthalphy

(C) Wet bulb temperature and dew point temperature

(D) Pulse rate and respiration rate

18. R- 12 is

(A) Dichloro-difloro methane (B) Monochloro-diflro methane

(C) Dichloro-Trifloro methane (D) Dichloro-monofloro methane

19. The reciprocating compressors are very much useful for

(A) Small displacements and high condensing pressure

(B) Large displacement and high condensing pressure

(C) Small displacement and low condensing pressure

(D) Large displacments and low condensing pressure

20. In shell and coil condenser

(A) Water flows in the coil and refrigerant in shell

(B) Water flows in the shell and refrigerant in coil

(C) Water flows in both the shell and coil

(D) A and B

21. The specific gravity of a given air is 0.0095 kg of water vapour per kg of dry air. Then the partial
pressure of water vapour is

(A) 1.5248 bar (B) 0.01524 bar

(C) 0.1524 bar (D) 0.001524 bar

22. The emissivity of a body is equal to the absorptivity at the same temperature this principle is
known as

(A) Kirchoff’s law (B) Plank’s law

(C) Stefan Boltzman’s law (D) Maxwell’s law

23. The essential condition from the transfer of heat from one body to another is

(A) Both the bodies must be in physical contact

(B) One of the bodies must have a high value of thermal conductivity

(C) Heat content of the body must be more than that of the others

(D) There must exist a temperature difference between the bodies

1. Thermal diffusivity is given by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

2. Dimension of energy is expressed as

(A) ML-2T-2 (B)ML2T2 (C)

ML2T-2 (D) ML-2T2

3. Dimension for power is given by

(A) ML2T3 (B) ML2T-3

(C) ML-2T3 (D) ML-2T-3

4. Dimension for momentum is expressed as

(A) MLT-1 (B) MLT-2

(C) ML2T2 (D) ML-2T2

5. Reynolds number (Re) for flow of material is given by

 (A) (B)

(C) (D)

6. Nusselt number is given by Nu =

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

7. Heat transfer by forced convection is given by

(A) Nusselt number (B) Prandtl number

(C) Froude number (D)Grashoff number

8. Heat conduction in stream line flow is given by

(A) Grasshof number (B) Prandtl number

(C) Froude number (D) Euler number

9. Nusselt number is also given by

(A) 0.023 (Re) (Pr) (B) 0.023 (Re) (Bi)

(C) 0.023 (Bi) (Pr) (D) 0.023 (Re) (Fr)

10. Peclet number is given by Pe =

(A) D/V (B) DV/

(C) V/D (D) D/V

11. Log mean temperature difference in case of parallel flow compared to counter flow

would be

(A) More (B) Less

(C) Same (D) None of these
12. Thermal conductivity of single grain is -------- times greater than grain bulk

(A) 2 - 3 (B) 3 - 4
(C) 4 - 5 (D) 5 - 6

13. The COP of heat pump is ----------- COP of refrigerator

(A) Higher than (B) Lower than

(C) Equal to (D) None of these

14. Mass transfer occurs due to --------------- gradient

(A) Velocity (B)Temperature

(C) Pressure (D) Concentration

15. The unit of thermal diffusivity is ---------

(A) W/m2 K (B) m2/s

(C) W/m3s (D) m3/s

16. Unit of enthalpy is

(A) kW/ kg. m (B) kJ/kg.cm

(C) kW (D) None of these

17. Rate of mass transfer depends on --------------------

(A) Viscosity (B) Thermal conductivity

(C) Heat input (D) Thermal diffusivity

18. The S.I Unit for Joule

(A) kgm/s2 (B) Kg.m2 /s2

(C) kg m2/s (D) kg. m3/s2

19. If steam has 0.1 kg water and 0.9 kg vapour, the quality of the steam is

(A) 96 % (B) 90 %
(C) 92 % (D) 94 %

20. When the specific heat of liquid solution is 4.18 kJ/kgoC, the mass of the material supplied is

25 kg/h at 30oC, and then the total enthalpy is -----------

(A) 3515 Kj (B) 3400 kJ

 (C) 3135 kJ (D) 3115 kJ

21. Temperature of boiling of a solution is ------------- under reduced pressure

(A) Increased (B) Decreased

(C) Equal (D) Unpredictable

22. The temperature difference across the rising film evaporator is ------ oC

(A) 15 (B) 17
(C) 10 (D) 14

23. In convective heat transfer the following process occurs

(A) Heat, mass and momentum (B) Mass only

(C) Heat only (D) Momentum only

24. This is not a regime of heat transfer in boiling

(A) Nucleate (B) Film

(C) Fouling (D) Natural convection

25. This is not involved in the determination of prandtl number

(A) Specific heat capacity (B) Viscosity

(C) Density (D) Thermal conductivity

26. This is not a mechanism of heat transfer in heat conduction

(A) Vibration of molecules (B) Oscillation of molecules

(C) Free electron movement (D) Ionization

27. This type of heat exchanger can handle liquids of low viscosity 100 Pa. s

(A) Scrapped surface (B) Plate heat exchange

(C) Double pipe heat exchanger (D) Shell and tube heat exchanger

28. The 3D unsteady state heat conduction problem has temperature as a function of

(A) 2 spatial variables and 1 time variable (B) 1 spatial and 1 time variable
(C) 3 spatial and 1 time variable (D) 3 spatial and 1 time variable

29. The unit of thermal diffusivity is

(A) kJ/kg°K (B) m2/s

(C) W/m2°K (D) W/ m2

30. Ratio of kinematic viscosity to thermal diffusivity is

(A) Nusselt number (B) Prandtl number

(C) Reynolds number (D) Grashof number

31. If the temp at one of the ends of heat conduction domain is exponentially increasing with time (t),
it is represented by

(A) T (0, t) = T1*exp (mt) (B) T (0, t) = a*t

(C) T (0, t) = a*t raised to b (D) T (0, t) = T1*exp (-mt)

32. In a double pipe counter flow heat exchanger, the temperature difference between incoming and
outgoing liquids will be

(A) Maximum (B) Zero

(C) Minimum (D) Infinity

33. Flow across a boundary can be given by the following equation

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

34. The heat flux through a surface due to conduction is inversely proportional to

(A) Thermal conductivity (B) Area of c/s

(C) Thickness (D) Temperature difference

35. This technique is used in the formulation of heat transfer models to make mass balance

(A) Control volume (B) Control mass

(C) Grid (D) Discretization

36. hx/k is called

(A) Biot Number (B) Gurney number

(C) Reynold’s Number (D) Eigen value

37. Transport of mass depends on

 (A) Temperature gradient (B) Momentum gradient
(C) Concentration gradient (D) Pressure gradient

38. A set of linear equations can be solved by

(A) Euler’s method (B) Gauss Elimination method

(C) Taylor’s method (D) Crank’s method

39. This is not a solution technique for solving heat conduction models

(A) Separation of variables (B) Finite difference

(C) Finite element (D) Factorization

40. Reynold’s number is not affected by

(A) Viscosity (B) Thermal conductivity

(C) Density (D) Velocity

41. Nusselt number is not related to

(A) Viscosity (B) Heat transfer coefficient

(C) Diameter (D) Thermal conductivity

42. In canning for non-viscous products which are agitated the mechanism of heat transfer

into the containers is by

(A) Forced convection (B) Conduction

(C) Conduction and convection (D) Natural convection

43. In canning for non-viscous products which are not agitated the mechanism of heat transfer into the
containers is by

(A) Forced convection (B) Conduction

(C) Conduction and convection (D) Natural convection

Answer Key

1 B 2 C 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 D 7 A 8 B 9 A 10 A

11 B 12 B 13 A 14 D 15 B 16 C 17 C 18 B 19 B 20 C

21 B 22 B 23 A 24 C 25 C 26 D 27 B 28 C 29 B 30 B

31 A 32 C 33 A 34 C 35 A 36 A 37 C 38 B 39 D 40 B

41 A 42 A 43 D
 Refrigeration and Air conditioning

1. Unit of COP is

(A) Kcal/kg (B) KJ/kg

(C) Kcal/min (D) No units

2. Dry ice is used for

(A) Cooling water (B) Cooling milk

(C) Preserving food stuff (D) Transporation of prawn

3. One ton of refrigeration means

(A) 60 Kcal/min (B) 50 Kcal/min

(C) 70 Kcal/min (D) 80 Kcal/min

4. The maximum theoretical efficiency cycle is

(A) Bell-Coleman cycle (B) Carnot cycle

(C) Vapour compression cycle (D) Boot-strap system

5. The expansion of refrigerant through expansion valve follows

(A) Convection (B) Conduction

(C) Radiation (D) Infiltration

6. The icemaking capacity of a given machine is always ---------- than its refrigeration capacity.

(A) Less than (B) Higher than

(C) Equal to (D) less or equal

7. A fan used to remove air or gases from a space by suction is known as ----------

(A) Vacuuming (B) Osmosis

(C) Filteration (D) Charging

8. Second law of thermodynamics defines

(A) Heat (B) Entropy

(C) Work (D) Enthalphy

9. The vapour compression refrigeration cycle is similar to

 (A) Carnot cycle (B) Rankine cycle

(C) Reverse Carnot cycle (D) Bell-coleman cycle

10. In a vapour compression refrigeration system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the
compressor is

(A) Saturated liquid (B) wet vapour

(C) Dry saturated (D) super-heated vapour

11. The difference between wet bulb and dry bulb temperature is called

(A) Dry bulb depression (B) Wet bulb depression

(C) Dew point depression (D) Degree of saturation

12. For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is always ----------- wet bulb temperature

(A) Equal to (B) More than

(C) Less than (D) No relation

13. The process generally used in winter air-conditioning is known as

(A) Humidification (B) heating and humidification

(C) Dehumidification (D) cooling and dehumidification

14. The throttling process in a refrigeration cycle is called a ---------------- process

(A) Adiabatic (B) isentropic

(C) Isothermal (D) sub cooling

15. The refrigerant used in domestic refrigeration system is ---

(A) Ammonia (B) Freon-22

(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Freon -12

16. The evaporator in the vapour compression refrigeration systems is normally installed in

(A) High pressure side (B) Low pressure side

(C) Neutral side (D) No pressure side

17. The coefficient of performance is always --------------- one

(A) Less than (B) more than

(C) Slightly greatly than (D) None of these

18. Which of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system

(A) Pressure (B) Volume

(C)Temperature (D) density

19. The refrigerant used in the industrial application of cold storage plant is

(A) Ammonia (B) Freon gas

(C) Nitrogen (D) hydrogen

20. Dry ice is known as

(A) Water in solid form (b) Solid CO2

(C) Solid NH3 (D) Neon

21. For summer air conditioning, the relative humidity should not be less than

(A) 40 % (B) 60%

(C) 70 % (D) 75 %

22. During vapour compression refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by refrigerant in

(A) Compressor (B) Condenser

(C) Evaporator (D) Expansion valve

23. C.O.P of refrigeration is the ratio of heat absorbed to

(A) Work done in expansion

(B) Work done during compression

(C) Temperature difference between condensation and evaporation

(D) Temperature drop during expansion

24. In vapour absorption system, the function of compressor is substituted by

(A) Absorber (B) Pump

(C) Generator (D) all the above

25. Expression for work done is the same whether it is a reciprocating compressor or

(A) Rotary compressor (B) screw compressor

(C) Centrifugal compressor (D) scroll compressor

 26. In winter, compared to the cooling load in summer, the heating load is

(A) Less (B) more

(C) Equal (D) none

27. If all ducts are outside the air-conditioned space, leakage loss is assumed as

(A) 5 % (B) 10%

(C) 15% (D) 20%

30. Free convection can be related to

(A) Nusselt number (B) Prandtl number

(C) Grashof number (D) All the above

31. The heat transfer is constant

(A) Temperature remains constant with time

(B) Temperature increases with time

(C) Temperature decreases with time

(D) None of the above

32. A good absorber of thermal radiation is also a good emitter. It is called

(A) Wien’s law (B) Planck’s law

(C) Stefen’s law (D) Kirchoff’s law

33. In a heat excahanger, for given heat flow rate and also same inlet and outlet temperature, the heat
transfer area will be minimum for

(A) Counter flow (B) Straight flow

(C) Parallel flow (D) none of these

34. The property of surface of a substance which is the ability to radiate heat is called

(A) Absorptivity (B) Transmitivity

(C) Emmisivity (D) Reflectivity

35. Fins are used to

(A) Reduce heat loss (B) decorate the surface

(C) Increase the heat loss (D) increase the strength

36. Plank’s law is applicable to

(A) Conduction (B) Convection

(C) Radiation (D) Diffusion

37. The concept of overall heat transfer is employed in

(A) Conduction (B) Convection

(C) Conduction and radiation (D) Conduction and convection

38. Pipes are insulated

(A) Prevent corrosion (B) Withstand pressure

(C) Increase strength (D) Reduce heat loss

39. In heat exchangers NTU stands for

(A) Number of transfer units (B) Natural thermal units

(C) Net thermal units (D) Non thermal units

40. During sensible heating of air the specific humidity

(A) Increases (B) decreases

(C) Remains constant (D) none of these

41. The reversed brayton cycle is same as

(A) Carnot cycle (B) Reversed Carnot cycle

(C) Bell coleman cycle (D) Reverse joule cycle

42. At saturated condition the dew point temperature is --------- the wet bulb temperature

(A) Equal to (B) less than

(C) More than (D) None of these

43. In vapour absorption system, the function of compressor is substituted by

(A) Absorber (B) Pump

(C) Generator (D) All the above

44. The COP of refrigerant is the ratio of heat absorbed to

(A) Work done in expansion (B) work done in compressor

(C) Work done in condensor (D) sum of all the above

45. In shell and tube condenser

(A) Water flows in the shell and refrigerant in tube

(B) Water flows in the tube and refrigerant in shell

(C) Any one of (a) and (b) may be there

(D) None of the above

46. Thermo static expansion value operates

(a) Change in pressure in evaporator

(b) Change in temperature in evaporator

(c) Change in volume in evaporator

(d) Change in degree of super heat at the exit from evaporator

47. A35. Wet bulb depression is zero, and then relative humidity is equal to

(A) 25% (B) 50%

(C) 75% (D) 100%

48. Room sensible heat is 50 kW, Room latent heat is 50 kW, Then Room Sensible heat factor is

(A) 0.25 (B) 0.5

(C) 0.75 (D) 1.0

49. The ambient temperature recorded by ordinary thermometer is called as

(A) Dry bulb temperature (B) Wet bulb temperature

(C) Dew point temperature (D) Saturation temperature

50. Standard barometric pressure is

(A) 1.0332 kgf/cm2 (B) 760 mm of Hg

(C) 1013.25 m bar (D) all the above

51. A domestic window type air conditioner capacity may be approximately

(A) 0.1 ton (B) 1 ton

(C) 10 ton (D) 100 ton

54. The radial heat transfer rate through cylinder increases as the ratio of outer radius to inner radius

(a) Increases (b) Decreases

 (c) Constant (d) None of these

55. The quantity of heat radiation is dependent on

(A) Temperature of the body only (B) Shape of the body only

(C) Area of the body only (D) Size of the body only

56. Heat energy from sun reaches surface of earth by

(A) Conduction (B) Convection

(C) Radiation (D) Diffusion

57. The behaviour of fluid inside a tube (laminar / turbulent) is ascertained by

(A) Tube size (B) flow velocity

(C) Flow viscosity (D) Reynolds number

58. Stefan Boltzman law is related to

(A) Conduction (B) Convection

(C) Radiation (D) None of these

59. The heat transfer is constant, when

(A) Temperature remains constant with time (B) Temperature increases with time

(C) Temperature decreases with time (D) None of the above

60. The concept of overall heat transfer is employed in

(a) Conduction (b) Convection

(c) Conduction and radiation (d) Conduction and convection

61. Pipes are insulated

(A) Prevent corrosion (B) Withstand pressure

(C) Increase strength (D) Reduce heat loss

Answer Key

1 2

51 52 53 54 B 55 A 56 C 57 D 58 C 59 A 60 D

61 D
 Fluid Dynamics in Food Processing
1. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following

(A) Newton’s law of motion (B) Boundary layer theory

(C) Continuity equation (D) Pascal theory

2. The velocity of fluid particles at the centre of pipe section is

(A) Minimum (B) Maximum

(C) Average (D) Logarithmic average

3. The stress strain relation of the Newtonian fluid is

(A) Linear (B) Non linear

(C) Parabolic (D) Hyperbolic

4. The stress strain relation of the Non-Newtonian fluid is

(A) Linear (B) Non linear

(C) Involutic (D) Hyperbolic

5. The dimension of kinematics viscosity (NET, 2013)

(A) MoL2T-1 (B) MoL2T-2

(C) M-1L2T-1 (D) M2L2T-1

6. The unit of kinematics viscosity

(A) kg/m2-s (B) m2/s

(C) kg-s/m2 (D) kg-m2/s

7. The unit of dynamic viscosity

(A) kg/m2-s (B) m2/s

(C) Newton-s/m2 (D) Newton/m2-s

8. A simple pitot tube is used to measure

(A) Total pressure (B) Dynamic pressure

(C) Pressure in static fluid (D) Viscosity in a flowing stream

9. Froude number is useful in calculation for

(A) Flow through pipes (B) Compressible flow problems

(C) Surface tension forces (D) Hydraulic jump

10. Reynolds number is defined as the ratio of ----------- (NET, 2013)

(A) Viscous force to inertial force (B) Inertial force to viscous force

(C) Viscous force to gravity force (D) Gravity force to viscous force

11. Reynolds number for pipe flow is given by

(A) ρVD/µ (B) µ/ ρVD

(C) VD/µ (D) µ/ VD

12. The Weber number is the ratio of

(A) Inertial forces to viscous forces (B) Elastic forces to pressure forces

(C) Elastic forces to gravity (D) Inertial forces to surface tension forces

13. Rotameter is used to measure

(A) Flow of the fluid (B) Velocity of the fluid

(C) Density of fluid (D) Vortex flow

14. Pitot tube is used to measure

(A) Viscosity (B) Velocity

(C) Surface tension (D) Flow rate

15. Hydrometer is used to measure

(A) Relative humidity (B) Buoyancy force

(C) Specific gravity of fluid (D) Surface tension

16. The equation of continuity of flow is

(A) Mass (B) Momentum

(C) Energy (D) All of the above

17. The equation of continuity of flow is applicable when

(A) Flow is compressible (B) Flow is one dimensional

 (C) Velocity is uniform over the cross section (D) All of the above

18. The continuity equation in ideal fluid flow

(A) Applies to irrotational flow only

(B) States that the energy is constant everywhere in the fluid

(C) States that the energy remains constant along a stream line

(D) States that the net rate of in flow into any small volume must be zero

19. Mass per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called

(A) Specific gravity (B) Specific weight

(C) Mass density (D) Specific volume

20. A fluid in which resistance to deformation is independent of the shear stress is known as

(A) Pseudo plastic fluid (B) Bingham plastic fluid

(C) Dilatant fluid (D) Newtonian fluid

21. The liquid used in manometer should have (ARS, 2013)

(A) High density (B) Low density

(C) High surface tension (D) Low surface tension

22. Piezometer tube is used only for measuring

(A) High pressure (B) Moderate pressure

(C) Low pressure (D) Vacuum pressure

23. The pressure of a liquid measured with the help of Piezometer tube is

(A) Vacuum pressure (B) Gauge pressure

(C) Atmospheric pressure (D) Absolute pressure

24. Kinematic viscosity has the same dimension as

(A) Density (B) Volume

(C) Thermal diffusivity (D) Surface tension

25. Kinematic viscosity is

(A) Viscosity in the turbulent flow range

(B) Viscosity divided by density

 (C) Viscosity in the laminar flow range

(D) Viscosity multiplied by density

26. Shear stress is (NET, 2013)

(A) Same as viscosity (B) Ratio of viscosity and velocity

(C) Force per unit area (D) Ratio of shear rate and velocity

27. The equation which expresses the energy balance for fluid flow is

(A) Fourier equation (B) Bernoulli equation

(C) Continuity equation (D) All of the above

28. The fluid in which consistency decreases with increasing shear rate is known as

(A) Dilatant (B) Thixotropic

(C) Pseudo plastic (D) Bingham

29. The fluid in which consistency increases with increasing shear rate is known as

(A) Dilatant (B) Thixotropic

(C) Pseudo plastic (D) Bingham

30. Dimension of dynamic viscosity

(A) MLT-2 (B) ML-1T-2

(C) ML-1T-1 (D) ML-2T-2

31. All the liquid food products of fruits and vegetables are classified into

(A) Maxwell fluids (B) Newtonian fluids

(C) Non Newtonian fluids (D) None of the above

32. Stokes law holds good when

(A) Laminar flow (B) Turbulent flow

(C) Transient flow (D) Reynolds number is too large

33. Milk having a viscosity μ is flowing through a circular tube of diameter D. the Reynolds number
thus can be expressed as DGμ, where G is

(A) Mass flow rate (B) Mass velocity

(C) Volumetric flow rate (D) Linear velocity

34. Two pipe systems are said to be equivalent when in the two system

(A) Length of pipe and discharge are same

(B) Head loss and discharge are same

(C) Friction factor and length are same

(D) Length and diameter are same

35. The losses are more in

(A) Laminar flow (B) Turbulent flow

(C) Critical flow (D) Transition

36. Pressure drop in the following flow measuring devices remains constant irrespective of the rate of
flow

(A) Orifice meter (B) Rotameter

(C) Venturimeter (D) None of the above

37. In a fluid flow system, velocity at one point only is measured by

(A) Rotameter (B) Pitot tube

(C) Anemometer (D) Orifice meter

38. The velocity of a fluid in a pipe A of diameter D is m/s. The pipe is connected with another pipe B
of diameter 2D. Reynolds number in pipe A in relation of pipe B is

(A) Half (B) Same

(C) Triple (D) Double

39. Stokes law is used to find out (NET, 2013)

(A) Terminal velocity (B) Drag coefficient

(C) Surface tension (D) Specific gravity

40. Stokes law is applicable when Reynolds number (NET, 2013)

(A) Less than two (B) Greater than

two

(C) Less than or equal to two (D) All of the above

41. The pressure head of centrifugal pump varies

(A) Directly as the speed (B) Square of speed

 (C) Cube of speed (D) Forth power of the speed

42. Mass flow meter utilizes principle of (NET, 2013)

(A) Angular momentum (B) Bernoulli theorem

(C) Newton’s third law (D) Faradays law

43. There exit a non linear relationship between shear stress and shear rate is

(A) Newtonians fluid (B) Non Newtonian fluids

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

44. Fluids which become more fluid, viscosity decreases with time as they are stirred as known as
(NET, 2013)

(A) Psedo plastic (B) Dilatant

(C) Thixotropic (D) Rheopectic

45. At critical flow the specific energy is

(A) Maximum (B) Minimum

(C) Zero (D) Negative

46. When n>1, the fluids are called as

(A) Psedoplastic (B) Newtonian

(C) Dilatant (D) None of the above

47. When n<1, the fluids are called as

(A) Psedoplastic (B) Newtonian

(C) Dilatant (D) None of the above

48. When n=1, the fluids are called as

(A) Psedoplastic (B) Newtonian

(C) Dilatant (D) None of the above

49. Which of the following is a Newtonian fluid?

(A) Milk (B) Fruit juice

(C) Water (D) All of the above

50. Bernoulli equation represents conservation of

(A) Force (B) Mass

(C) Energy (D) Momentum

51. Pascal law relates that pressure at a point is equal in all directions in a

(A) Fluid at rest (B) Liquid at rest

(C) Laminar flow (D) Turbulent flow

52. Solid food materials are generally (NET, 2013)

(A) Visco plastic (B) Visco elastic

(C) Plastic (D) Elastic

53. The unit of Reynolds number is

(A) s (B) m/s

(C) Pa-s (D) Dimensionless

54. Ergun equation is applicable to

(A) Turbulent flow (B) Slit flow

(C) Porous media flow (D) Laminar flow

55. A bed of granular material consisting of particles having diameter D and density ρ is to be
fluidized if the depth of bed is L and bed porosity is p, the pressure drop of a fluid flowing through the
bed will be

(A) D ρ (1-p)g (B) L ρ (1-p)g

(C) D ρ pg (D) L ρ pg
ANSWER KEY- Fluid Dynamics in Food Processing

1 C 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 B 7 C 8 A 9 D 10 B

11 A 12 D 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 A 17 D 18 B 19 C 20 D

21 C 22 B 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 C 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 C

31 C 32 A 33 B 34 B 35 B 36 B 37 B 38 D 39 A 40 C

41 B 42 A 43 B 44 C 45 B 46 C 47 A 48 B 49 D 50 C

51 A 52 B 53 D 54 C 55 B
 Post Harvest Unit Operations

1. Canned fruit juice is stored at temperature of

(A) 3.5C (B) 4.4C

(C) 5.5C (D) 6.5C

2. In an aspirator, fan is placed at the air discharge part to create

(A) Atmospheric pressure (B) Positive pressure

(C) Negative pressure (D) None of these

3. The part of a refrigeration unit in which the refrigerant changes from vapour to liquid

is called as

(A) Compressor (B) Evaporator

(C) Condenser (D) Expansion

4. Velocity of air at which particle remains in suspended condition in a vertical pipe is

known as

(A) Critical velocity (B) Terminal velocity

(C) Controlled velocity (D) Suspended velocity

5. An ideal refrigerant should have

(A) Low viscosity (B) Low specific heat

(C) High thermal conductivity (D) All of the above

6. A Pitot tube is used to measure

(A) Atmospheric pressure (B) Impact pressure

(C) Static pressure (D) Both static and impact pressure

7. A Rotometer is a common device to measure

(A) Airflow (B) Viscosity

(C) Humidity (D) Turbidity
8. In vacuum oven, method of moisture determination the sample is kept at -------- for

72 - 96 hours

(A) 60 (B) 100

(C) 130 (D) 160

9. In CFTRI method of parboiling, paddy is steamed at a pressure of --------------

(A) 4 kg/cm2 (B) 4 kg/mm2

(C) 4 w/mm2 (D) 4 w/m2

10. Coefficient of rolling resistance  is given by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

11. Angle of repose () for given materials is equals to

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

12. Economy of an evaporator is given by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

13. In evaporation the exact rise in boiling point is given by

(A) Boyles law (B) Charles law

(C) Roult’s law (D) Duhring’s law

14. Domestic microwave ovens operates at

(A) 2450 MHz (B) 2540 MHZ

 (C) 2650 MHZ (D) 2560 MHZ

15. The power required to accelerate the liquid to circumferential velocity V, of the disc

atomiser is proportional to

(A) V (B) V2

(C) V+3 (D) V

16. One ton of refrigeration is the amount of heat required to melt 1 ton of ice at 0 C in

(A) 1 hour (B) 6 hours

(C) 12 hours (D) 24 hours

17. Regeneration is economical when product is

(A) Heated (B) Cooled

(C) Heated and cooled (D) None of these

18. Ergun’s equation is applicable to

(A) Newtonian flow (B) Laminar flow

(C) Porous media flow (D) Turbulent flow

19. Concentration of liquids and gases are expressed in

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

20. Chilling injury of ripened tomatoes occurs when they are stored below -----at 90% RH

(A) -2C (B) 2C

(C) 5C (D) 10C

21. Brewing of coffee is done by

(A) Single stage extraction

(B) Multi stage cross-flow extraction

(C) Multistage counter-current extraction

 (D) Continuous counter current extraction

22. ----------- is used for removing very fine dust (or) mist from gases

(A) Diffusion (B) Cyclone separator

(C) Electrostatic precipitation (D) Filter medium

23. Most of the food in fresh form which man consumes as food is ------------

(A) Alkaline (B) Acidic

(C) Neutral (D) None of these

24. The method of scratching seed coat to remove the mechanical barrier to obtain better

germination with better penetration of moisture into the seed is known as

(A) Scalping (B) Screening

(C) Scarification (D) Peeling

25. In food irradiation one gray is equivalent to

(A) 10 rad (B) 100 rad

(C) 1000 rad (D) 10000 rad

26. Disinfection of drinking water in volume removal of

(A) Bacteria (B) Turbidity

(C) Colour (D) Odour

27. In brick masonry, the frog of brick is normally kept on the

(A) Bottom face (B) Top face

(C) Side face (D) All of the above

28. The water consumption per head for domestic purposes for average condition is taken as

(A) 125 l/day (B) 135 l/day

(C) 150 l/day (D) 175 l/day

29. Size reduction of food material increase its

(A) Volume by unit mass (B) Surface area per unit mass

(C) Porosity per unit volume (D) Density per unit mass
30. Presence of algae in water indicates that water is

(A) Acidic (B) Alkaline

(C) Neutral (D) None of the above

31. Mixing index is given by m equal to

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

32. Separation of liquids from solids by application of pressure is known as

(A) Expression (B) Extraction

(C) Leaching (D) Filtration

33. A cyclone separator is used for separating

(A) Particles from liquid (B) Liquid droplets from gases

(C) Fine particles from solids (D) All of the above

34. In a ball mill if ‘R’ is the radius of mill, ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity and ‘r’ is the

radius of ball, then critical speed is given by

(A) (B) 2

(C) 2 (D)

35. Stoke’s law is used to find out

(A) Terminal velocity (B) Drag coefficient

 (C) Surface Tension (D) Specific gravity

36. Energy required to grind a material from one size to another is expressed by

(A) Fick’s law (B) Newton’s law

(C) Kick’s law (D) Stoke’s law

37. The relationship between EMC and RH for biological material is given by

(A) Airy (B) Rankine

(C) Janssen (D) Henderson

38. In a single effect evaporator, the economy is

(A) Less than one (B) More than one

(C) Less than or equal to one (D) None of the above

39. In attrition mill, the size of food grain is reduced by

(A) Shear and crushing (B) Impact and shear

(C) Impact and crushing (D) Impact

40. Moisture content (w.b) of paddy at the time of milling should be

(A) 9 – 10 % (B) 10 – 11 %

(C) 13 – 14 % (D) 16 – 18 %

41. For acid delinting of cotton seed, the required quantity of sulphuric acid per kg of

seed is

(A) 75 ml (B) 125 ml

(C) 175 ml (D) 250 ml

42. In dry milling of pulses prior to oil treatment the following operation is done

(A) Grading (B) Conditioning

(C) Polishing (D) Pitting

43. The bulk density of rice as approved by ASAE is

(A) 576 kg/m3 (B) 586 kg/m3

(C) 596 kg/m3 (D) None of these

44. Denaturation and coagulation of protein takes place at a temperature above

 (A) 40C (B) 50C
(C) 60C (D) 70C

45. Among the following, specific heat is highest for

(A) Glass (B) Iron

(C) Silver (D) Water

46. In ball mill most of the size reduction is done by

(A) Shearing (B) Cutting

(C) Impact (D) Crushing

47. Raisin is obtained from -----------

(A) Grapes (B) Banana

(C) Dates (D) Peas

48. The coefficient of friction between granular materials equal to the ---------- of the angle

of internal friction for the material

(A) Cosine (B) Sine

(C) Tangent (D) Secant

49. One ton of refrigeration is equivalent to ----------- kcal/min.

(A) 50 (B) 100

(C) 150 (D) 200

50. Electrolux refrigerator is operated in the principle of

(A) Vapour compression system (B) Vapour absorption system

(C) Air compression system (D) None of the above

51. Dry ice is known as solidified ----------------------

(A) Water (B) Freon - 12

(C) Carbon-dioxide (D) Nitrogen

52. Cryogenic grinding process operated at

(A) < -100C (B) <10C

(C) >-10C (D) At 0C

53. For perfect black body the absorptivity is ------------------

(A) Less than one (B) Equal to one

(C) More than one (D) Zero

54. Intermediate moisture foods are characterized by moisture between ------------------%

(A) 10 - 20 (B) 20 - 40
(C) 40 - 50 (D) 50 - 60

55. The heart of a refrigeration machine is --------------

(A) Condenser (B) Compressor

(C) Evaporator (D) Expander

56. Head rice recovery in parboiled rice is due to ----------------

(A) Hardening of starch (B) Swelling of starch

(C) Gelatinization of starch (D) None of these

57. The emissive power of a body depend on

(A) Temperature of body (B) Physical nature

(C) Nature of body (D) All of the above

58. The permeability of a component (Gas, vapour, etc.) through a packaging material in

favour of a film will depend upon

(A) Concentration difference (B) Thickness of the material

(C) Thermal conductivity (D) Area

59. The pressure drop across fluidized bed depends upon

(A) Depth of bed (B) Porosity of the bed

(C) Density of the particles (D) All the above

60. The concentration of CO2 in atmosphere is ----------------

(A) 3 % (B) 0.3 %

(C) 0.03 % (D) 30 %

61. By using hullers the average yield of white rice obtained is

(A) 55 % (B) 62 %
 (C) 70 % (D) 75 %

62. The operational life of a pair of rubber rolls is estimated as

(A) 75 tonnes (B) 85 tonnes

(C) 100 tonnes (D) 120 tonnes

63. From the most of the wheat mills the yield of floor can be obtained about

(A) 60 % (B) 65 %
(C) 75 % (D) 80 %

64. In dry milling of pulses in one pass, percentage of pulses dehusked is

(A) 30 % (B) 40 %

(C) 50 % (D) 60 %

65. 400 MPa is equal to

(A) 4000 Kg/cm2 (B) 40 Kg/cm2

(C) 40000 Kg/cm2 (D) 4 Kg/cm2

66. The ideal packaging material for high pressure processing of foods is

(A) Glass (B) Flexible pouches

(C) Metal cans (D) Rigid trays

67. Intermediate moisture foods (IMF) are in the water activity range of --------

(A) 0.6 to 0.96 (B) 0.8 to 0.9

(C) 0.3 to 0.4 (D) 0.3 to 0.6 282

68. Food which cannot be High pressure treated is -------

(A) Fish (B) Fruit juice

(C) Bread (D) Jam

69. The adiabatic heating rate for fats and oils during High pressure processing is

(A) 3ºC/100Mpa (B) 6ºC/100MPa

(C) 10ºC/100MPa (D) 2ºC/100Mpa

70. The major factor contributing to the compression energy contained in a High pressure
 vessel is

(A) Vessel size (B) Compressibility of medium

(C) Temperature (D) Vessel closure

71. High pressure treatment is expected to be less detrimental than conventional processes to low
molecular weight food compounds such as pigments, vitamins, etc.

(A) Vitamins (B) High molecular weight components

(C) Protein (D) Carbohydrates

72. In CFTRI method of parboiling steaming is done at ----------- kg/m2 pressure

(A) 3 (B) 4
C) 4.5 (D) 5.0

73. Hydraulic radius for circle is given by

(A) (B)

(C) 2D (D) 2r

74. Fluid flow in circular pipe is said to be laminar if Reynolds number is

(A) <200 (B) >200

(C) <2000 (D) > 2000

75. Freezing temperature of brine is

(A) Lower than water (B) Higher than water

(C) Lower than Freon-12 (D) Equal to Freon 12

76. The pressure head of centrifugal pump varies

(A) Directly as speed (B) Square root of speed

(C) Square of speed (D) Cube of speed

77. For removal of temporary hardness of water

(A) Alum is added (B) Lime is added

(C) Water with filtered (D) Water with boiled

78. 10 mm of water is equal to

 (A) 100 x 10-6 bar (B) 0.001 kg/m2

(C) 0.001 kg/cm2 (D) 9.81 N/m2

79. Universal gas constant for perfect gas is equal to

(A) 4.186 kJ (B) 4.186 J

(C) 0.287 kJ/kgK (D) 287 kg m/kgK

80. Glutelin (Oryzenin) is the principal protein of

(A) Rice (B) Milk

(C) Wheat (D) Pulse

81. The nutritive value of rice protein is superior than

(A) Wheat (B) Barley

(C) Oat (D) All

82. The activity of ------------ in fresh rice is probably responsible for its sticky consistency after
cooking.

(A) Alpha - amylase (B) Protease

(C) Lipase (D) Oxidase

83. The quantity of water required to soak the known quantity of paddy for parboiling is

estimated based on

(A) Bulk density (B) True volume

(C) Porosity (D) All the above

84. Rate of extraction is given by

(A) Driving force x resistance (B) Driving force / resistance

(C) Resistance / driving force (D) None of these

85. The unit for dynamic viscosity is

(A) Pascal/s (B) Pascal

(C) Kg/m s (D) kg m/s

86. If the vapour from double effect evaporators are 1.12 and 1.05 kg/min, respectively. The steam
supply is 1.45 kg/min, then the steam economy is
 (A) 1.25 (B) 1.5

(C) 1.75 (D) 2.0

87. The pore size in nano filtration in the range of --------- micron

(A) 0.1- 0.01 (B) 1.0 - 0.1

(C) 0.01 - 0.001 (D) 10 - 0.1

88. Rate of filtration ------------- with increase in thickness of filter cake

(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) Doesn’t change (D) Marginally increases

89. Leaching is also called as

(A) Solid extraction (B) Liquid extraction

(C) Gaseous extraction (D) None of these

90. ------------ is a method of separating particles according to size alone

(A) Sedimentation (B) Screening

(C) Settling (D) Centrifuge

91. The original mixture will contain more of the less volatile material after

(A) Crystallization (B) Evaporation

(C) Distillation (D) Membrane separation

92. The S.I. unit of moment of force is -----------

(A) m2kg/s2 (B) m3kg/s2

(C) m2kg/s3 (D) m2/kg/s2

93. Distillation with reflux is also known as

(A) Absorption (B) Stripping

(C) Rectification (D) None of these

94. Sea water can be made into potable water by using

(A) Ultra filtration (B) Micro filtration

(C) Nano filtration (D) Reverse osmosis

95. Contact equilibrium separation processes are

(A) Crystallization (B) Gas absorption

(C) Membrane separation (D) All of these

96. Convert the equivalent density value of 60 lb/ft3 in to kg.m3

(A) 485.55 (B) 480.55

(C) 483.55 (D) 487.55

97. This is not a popular finite difference method

(A) Euler’s method (B) Central difference method

(C) Crank Nicholson’s implicit method (D) Galerkin’s method

98. The major factor contributing to the compression energy contained in a High pressure

vessel is

(A) Vessel size (B) Compressibility of medium

(C) Temperature (D) Vessel closure

99. Common additive added in the preparation of minimally processed food for the

reduction of water activity is

(A) Sodium benzoate (B) Ascorbic acid

(C) Potassium sorbate (D) Glucose

100. High pressure treatment is expected to be less detrimental than conventional processes to

(A) Vitamins (B) High molecular weight components

(C) Protein (D) Carbohydrates

101. 40 MPa is equal to

(A) 4000 Kg/cm2 (B) 400 Kg/cm2

(C) 40000 Kg/cm2 (D) 4 Kg/cm2

102. A hydrometer is used to determine

(A) Relative humidity (B) Buoyancy force

(C) Specific gravity of fluid (D) Viscosity of liquids

103. A rotameter is a device used to measure

 (A) Velocity of fluid in pipe (B) Velocity of flow

(C) Vortex flow (D) Flow of fluid

104. Which law found suitable for course grinding of food materials?

(A) Kick’s law (B) Rittinger’s law

(C) Bond’s law (D) All the above

105. Which law found suitable for fine grinding of food materials?

(A) Kick’s law (B) Rittinger’s law

(C) Bond’s law (D) All the above

106. Which law found suitable for intermediate grinding of food materials?

(A) Kick’s law (B) Rittinger’s law

(C) Bond’s law (D) All the above

107. Gelatinization is the

(A) Swelling of starch by heating in water

(B) Process of mixing starch and water to form a paste

(C) Swelling of protein to form a gel

(D) Setting of gelatine during cooling

108. An example of denaturation is

(A) The browning of biscuits (B) Fat melting at room temperature

(C) Swelling of rice grains when heated (D) The toughening of meat when grilling

109. Crystallization of a solution will occur only if the solution is

(A) Stirred slowly (B) Supersaturated

(C) Heated slowly (D) Unsaturated

110. Quick or snap freezing results in

(A) Large ice crystals (B) Small ice crystals

(C) Rapid bacterial growth (D) Damage to cell walls

Answer Key- Post Harvest Unit Operations

1 B 2 C 3 C 4 B 5 D 6 D 7 A 8 B 9 A 10 B

11 C 12 A 13 C 14 A 15 B 16 D 17 C 18 C 19 C 20 D

21 A 22 C 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 B 28 B 29 B 30 A

31 B 32 A 33 C 34 A 35 A 36 C 37 D 38 A 39 A 40 C

41 B 42 D 43 A 44 B 45 D 46 C 47 A 48 C 49 A 50 B

51 C 52 A 53 B 54 B 55 B 56 C 57 D 58 B 59 D 60 C

61 B 62 C 63 C 64 C 65 A 66 B 67 A 68 C 69 B 70 B

71 A 72 B 73 B 74 C 75 D 76 C 77 D 78 C 79 C 80 A

81 D 82 A 83 C 84 B 85 C 86 B 87 A 88 B 89 A 90 B

91 C 92 A 93 C 94 D 95 D 96 B 97 D 98 B 99 D 10 A
0

10 B 10 C 10 D 10 A 10 B 10 C 10 A 10 D 10 C 11 B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0
 Food Grain Processing
1. In Indian vegetarian diet, pulses are major sources of

(A) Carbohydrate (B) Protein

(C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin B

2. The per capita availability of oils and fats in India is about

(A) 3 kg (B) 4 kg

(C) 5 kg (D) 6 kg

3. Oil content of soya bean is ------------- %

(A) 10 % (B) 20 %

(C) 25 % (D) 30 %

4. Percentage of oil left in cake using hydraulic press comes to

(A) 10 -15 % (B) 8 - 10 %

(C) 7 - 8 % (D) 4 - 6 %

5. In solvent extraction technique, the percentage of oil left in cake is

(A) 2 - 3 % (B) 1.5 - 2%

(C) 1 % (D) 0.5 %

6. In Rubber Roll Sheller the difference in linear speed between faster and slower roller

should be

(A) 2 m/s (B) 3 m/s

(C) 4 m/s (D) 5 m/s

7. The vertical cone polisher removes the bran from brown rice based on the principle

(A) Shearing (B) Abrasion

(C) Impact (D) Grinding

8. In size reduction of fine powders, which of the following law is not applicable?

(A) Kick’s law (B) Rittinger’s law

(C) Bonds law (D) All of the above

9. Stoke’s law is applied when reynold’s number is

(A) Less than two (B) More than two

(C) Less than or equal to two (D) None of these

10. For size reduction following method(s) is/are used

(A) Cutting (B) Crushing

(C) Compression (D) All of the above

11. The highest value of angle of internal friction indicates the material is

(A) Cohesive (B) Easy flowing

(C) Normal flowing (D) No indication of flow

12. To separate mustard seed from wheat, the best type of separator is

(A) Indented cylinder separator (B) Specific gravity separator

(C) Centrifugal separator (D) Spiral separator

13. The ‘R’ pocket type disc separator is used for

(A) Flat seed from round seed (B) Broken rice from whole rice

(C) Stores from grains (D) All of the above

14. Method of conveying granular materials with high speed of air current is called as

(A) Belt conveyor (B) Screw conveyor

(C) Pneumatic conveyor (D) Bucket elevator

15. First cleaning operation after threshing is called as

(A) Screening (B) Scalping

(C) Washing (D) Grading

16. The inclination of belt conveyor to carry grains is limited to ----------------

(A) 10 - 15 (B) 15 - 17

(C) 17 - 20 (D) 20 - 25

17. Process of conversion of crude oil to edible oil is known as --------

(A) Purifying (B) Bleaching

 (C) Refining (D) Filtering

18. Oil content of shelled groundnut is ------------- %

(A) 40 - 45 (B) 45 - 50

(C) 50 - 55 (D) 55 - 60

19. A separator used to separate grains, based on thin surface texture and stickiness

properties of grain is known as

(A) Magnetic separator (B) Spiral separator

(C) Cyclone separator (D) Pneumatic separator

20. Oil content in parboiled rice bran is ------------------ raw rice bran

(A) Very less than (B) Less than

(C) Same as (D) More than

21. Oil content of coconut (copra) is approximately

(A) 36 – 45 % (B) 46 – 55 %

(C) 56 – 65 % (D) 66 – 70 %

22. In pulse milling process, mixing with red earth is known as

(A) Dry milling (B) Wet milling

(C) Hardening (D) Pitting

23. Hot pulses are tempered after each pass in tempering bin for about -------- hours

(A) 4 (B) 6

(C) 8 (D) 10

24. Maize oil and gluten has the following per cent of protein

(A) 50 (B) 55

(C) 60 (D) 65

25. The major carbohydrate present in rice is

(A) Glucose (B) Fructose

(C) Starch (D) Pectin

26. The Fibre of rice is the hemicelluloses made up of the

(A) Pentose (B) Arabinose

(C) Xylose (D) All

27. The rice protein is richer in

(A) Arginine (B) Lysine

(C) Threonine (D) All

28. Lysine and threonine is absent in

(A) Rice (B) Wheat

(C) Barley (D) All

29. The polished rice is poor in

(A) Ca and Fe (B) Ca and P

(C) P and Fe (D) Fe and Mn

30. The pigments of coloured rice are

(A) Anthocyanin (B) Carotenoid

(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Pectin

31. Parboiling of rice is originated in

(A) Pakistan (B) India

(C) Bhutan (D) USA

32. Break rolls and reduction rolls are used in

(A) Rice milling (B) Wheat milling

(C) Burr milling (D) Spice grinding

33. Engle berg huller removes -------------------- from paddy

(A) Husk (B) Bran

(C) Husk and bran (D) Broken

34. Centrifugal dehusker removes husk from paddy based on --------------- force

(A) Impact (B) Frictional

(C) Shear (D) Abrasion
Answer Key - Food Grain Processing

1 B 2 C 3 B 4 C 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 B 9 C 10 D

11 A 12 D 13 B 14 C 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 B 19 A 20 D

21 D 22 B 23 B 24 C 25 C 26 D 27 A 28 A 29 A 30 C

31 B 32 B 33 C 34 C
 Drying and Dehydration of Food Materials
1. The process of removal of moisture from moist air is known as --------- process

(A) Humidification (B) Cooling

(C) Dehumidification (D) Drying

2. When dry bulb and wet bulb temperature are same the RH of air will be

(A) 0 % (B) 50 %

(C) 100 % (D) None of these

3. Thermal radiation emitted by a body is proportional to ----------- of its absolute

temperature

(A) Fourth power (B) Square

(C) Square root (D) Cube root

4. The heat which causes increase or decrease in the temperature of a body without changing its state
is known as -------------

(A) Latent heat (B) Specific heat

(C) Sensible heat (D) Total heat

5. A property used to measure the gravity of energy (or) irreversibility of the process is called as

(A) Enthalpy (B) Entropy

(C) Diffusivity (D) Conductivity

6. The universal moisture meter measures ----------- of the grain at given comparison

(A) Electrical conductivity (B) Electrical resistance

(C) Diffusivity (D) Thermal conductivity

7. BET equation is used for measuring the ------------ of food.

(A) Moisture content (B) EMC

(C) Water activity (D) Dry matter

8. The ratio of kg of water vapour and kg of dry air is ----------------

(A) Relative humidity (B) Percentage humidity

(C) Absolute humidity (D) Humid volume

9. In the process where there is change from one condition to other condition without transfer of heat
between system and atmosphere or surrounding during the entire process is known as

(A) Isothermal (B) Isentropic

(C) Adiabatic (D) None of them

10. During sensible heating or cooling there is no change in the values of ---------

(A) Relative humidity (B) Humidity ratio

(C) Specific humidity (D) Absolute humidity

11. The vapour pressure of the water in grain is lower than the vapour pressure of free water surface is
known as

(A) Bound water (B) Unbound water

(C) Free water (D) Surface water

12. In thin layer drying, the thickness of grain is normally up to

(A) 15 - 20 cm (B) 20 - 25 cm

(C) 25 - 30 cm (D) 30 - 35 cm

13. Method of drying used for heat sensitive produce is

(A) Spray drying (B) Tray drying

(C) Flow drying (D) Freeze drying

14. Due to moisture migration the spot of moisture accumulation taken place at -------- of storage
structures during winter

(A) Top (B) Bottom

(C) Centre (D) Side

15. The factors influencing the diameter of drying chamber in the spray dryer design are

(A) Velocity of drying air (B) Atomizer speed

(C) Density of air (D) Temperature of inlet air

16. LSU drier is a ------- type drier

(A) Continuous mixing (B) Non-mixing

(C) Thin layer (D) Deep bed

17. The optimum moisture content for paddy harvesting is -------------- %

(A) 20 (B) 22

(C) 24 (D) 26

18. Parboiling of paddy is -------------- treatment

(A) Hydration (B) Dehydration

(C) Thermal (D) Hydrothermal

19. Two fluid nozzle is used in a -------------------

(A) Spray drier (B) Drum drier

(C) Fluidized bed drier (D) Freeze drier

20. At 100% RH wet bulb temperature is ----------- dew point temperature

(A) More than (B) Less than

(C) Same as (D) None of these

21. Sensible cooling of air ------------ RH of air

(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) Doesn’t alter (D) None of these

22. Holding of grain between two drying passes is termed as -------------

(A) Stabilizing (B) Tempering

(C) Cooling (D) Equalizing

23. Density of air at normal conditions is approximately ----------- kg/m 3

(A) 1.0 (B) 1.2

(C) 1.4 (D) 1.6

24. Isobaric process are those in which ------------ is maintained constant

(A) Temperature (B) Volume

(C) Pressure (D) Humidity

25. The RH will be reduced to half of its original value of the temperature of air is increased by

(A) 21C (B) 15C

 (C) 11C (D) 8C

26. When the temperature of air increases, the RH --------

(A) Increases linearly (B) Decreases

(C) Does not change (D) Increases exponentially

27. In spray dryer, the pressure nozzle requires ------------ pressure

(A) 200 kg/cm2 (B) 25 kg/cm2

(C) 50 kg/cm2 (D) None of these

28. In drying process the moisture removal takes place by ---------

(A) Radiation (B) Conduction

(C) Diffusion (D) Convection

29. Energy required for removal of bound moisture from the materials is ------------ free

Moisture

(A) More than (B) Half of the

(C) Equal to (D) None of these

30. Mixing type columnar dryer is used for -------------

(A) Liquid material (B) Granular materials

(C) Leafy materials (D) Powder materials

31. The efficiency of the dryer is in the range of ------------

(A) 85 – 90 % (B) 95 - 100 %

(C) 90 - 95 % (D) None of these

32. Fluidized bed dryer is used for drying

(A) Milk (B) Tea leaves

(C) Fruit juice (D) Vegetables

33. In freeze drying the removal of moisture takes place due to

(A) Boiling (B) Condensation

(C) Sublimation (D) None of the above

34. If the addition of heat does not change temperature it is known as

(A) Latent heat (B) Sensible heat

(C) Super heat (D) None of the above

35. Constant rate of heating takes at -----------

(A) 1000°C (B) 1200°C

(C) 1150°C (D) All temperatures

36. E M C of a product changes with ----------- of the environment

(A) Temperature (B) RH

(C) Temperature and RH (D) None of the above

37. The vapour pressure of the moisture in the materials---------- due to addition of Heat

(A) Decreases (B) Increases

(C) Decreases initially and increases (D) Does not change

38. If the moisture content on dry basis is 25%, then what would be moisture content on wet basis

(A) 18 % (B) 20 %

(C) 22 % (D) 25 %

39. Volatile compounds needs are retained in ----------

(A) Spray dryer (B) Impingement dryer

(C) Cabinet dryer (D) None of these

40. The safe moisture for storing the grains is

(A) 14 % (B) 20 %

(C) 4 % (D) 25 %

41. In cabinet dryer the product attain --------- temperature than the used air

(A) Higher (B) Same

(C) Lower (D) None of these

42. The average particle size in spray dryer is------------

(A) 10 µm (B) 100 µm

 (C) 0.01 µm (D) None of these

43. 20 % M.C (w.b.) is equal to---------- M.C. in dry basis

(A) 10 % (B) 15 %

(C) 20 % (D) 25 %

44. The recommended temperature of drying of grains for seed purpose is about

(A) 40C (B) 50C

(C) 60C (D) 70C

45. 100 kg of grain is dried from 18% (w.b) to 13% (w.b). The amount of water removed is

(A) 4.8 kg (B) 5.0 kg

(C) 5.7 kg (D) 6.2 kg

46. Natural air-drying needs dehumidification if atmospheric humidity is

(A) Very less (B) Low

(C) Intermediate (D) High

47. In drying, end of constant rate period and start of falling rate period is known as ----------

(A) Critical moisture content (B) Equilibrium moisture content

(C) Constant drying rate period (D) Falling rate period

48. Dryers utilizing high gas temperatures of 500C or more, but for short exposure of time are called
as

(A) Fluidized bed dryers (B) Flash dryers

(C) Turbo dryers (D) Drum dryers

49. The water activity of the surface of a food product at the end of constant drying rate

(A) Remains constant at 1 (B) Drops below 1

(C) Equal to zero (D) None of the above

50. In Single effect evaporator the economy is

(A) Equal to 1 (B) More than 1

(C) Less than 1 (D) None of these

51. A large part of droplets in spray dryer can be expected to have the size of

(A) 5 microns (B) 40 microns

(C) 80 microns (D) 150 microns

Answer Key- Drying and Dehydration of Food Materials

1 C 2 C 3 A 4 C 5 B 6 B 7 C 8 C 9 C 10 B

11 A 12 A 13 D 14 A 15 B 16 A 17 B 18 D 19 A 20 C

21 A 22 B 23 B 24 C 25 C 26 B 27 A 28 C 29 A 30 B

31 D 32 B 33 C 34 A 35 D 36 B 37 B 38 B 39 D 40 A

41 C 42 B 43 D 44 A 45 C 46 D 47 A 48 B 49 B 50 C

51 A
 Milk Processing
1. A complete destruction of microorganism is achieved by

(A) Pasteurization (B) Blanching

(C) Sterilization (D) Homogenization

2. Whey is separated from milk by

(A) Osmosis process (B) Centrifugal separation

(C) Sedimentation process (D) Membrane separation

3. Heat exchangers are used to - -------------- the product

(A) Heat (B) Cool

(C) Heat (or) cool (D) Maintain constant temperature

4. Homogenization reduces the mean diameter of fat globules by a factor of

(A) 10 (B) 100

(C) 1000 (D) 10000

5. Fat percentage in butter is

(A) 50 (B) 60

(C) 70 (D) 80

6. Water content of skimmed milk is

(A) 60 (B) 70

(C) 80 (D) 90

7. The product derived out of milk after removal of water is known as --------------

(A) Skimmed milk (B) Butter milk

(C) Whey (D) Curd

8. In HTST system milk is heated to 132C for ----------------

(A) 6 sec (B) 60 sec

(C) 6 min (D) 60 min

9. Milk sugar is
 (A) Lactose (B) Glucose

(C) Sucrose (D) Maltose

10. The yellow colour of cow milk is due to the presence of

(A) Vitamin B (B) Carotene

(C) Anthocyanin (D) None of these

11. Cow milk’s protein is

(A) Albumin (B) Zein

(C) Casein (D) Lactoalbumin

12. Temperature and time of LTLT pasteurization is

(A) 45 - 49°C (28 min) (B) 51 - 59°C (25 min)

(C) 59 - 60°C (35 min) (D) 61 - 63°C (30 min)

13. Element deficiency of milk is

(A) Fe (B) Mg

(C) P (D) Ca

14. National dairy research institute is located at

(A) Delhi (B) Izatnagar

(C) Jhansi (D) Karnal

15. Casein is ------------ % of total milk protein

(A) 80 - 83 (B) 70 - 71

(C) 60 - 65 (D) 42 - 45

16. Operation flood is related to

(A) Milk (B) Rice

(C) Potato (D) None of these

17. Specific gravity of milk is

(A) 1.03 (B) 1.05

(C) 0.85 (D) 0.93

18. The fat content of double toned milk is

 (A) 1.5 % (B) 2.0 %

(C) 2.5 % (D) 3 %

19. Antibacterial substances present in milk

(A) Lactoferrin (B) Lactoperoxidase

(C) Conglutinin (D) All the above

20. Protein present in the milk is ---------------

(A) Biotin (B) Lactose

(C) Phosphatase (D) Casein

21. Density of milk fat is --------------

(A) 1080 kg/m3 (B) 980 kg/m3

(C) 930 kg/m3 (D) 1030 kg/m3

22. Boiling Point of milk is ----------------.

(A) 99.5ºC (B) 100.5ºC

(C) 100ºC (D) 101.5ºC

23. After pasteurization, immediately milk has to be cooled to --------------

(A) < 5ºC (B) 5-10ºC

(C) 10-15ºC (D) 15-20ºC

24. Milk contains 86% of water, 3.5% of fat, 5% sugar and rest protein, minerals, vitamin. What is
SNF %?

(A) 10.5 % (B) 9 %

(C) 4.5 % (D) 8.5 %

25. The lactometer reading shows 1.038, what is the density of milk -----------?

(A) 1038 (B) 1038 kg/m3

(C) 1.038 (D) 1.038 kg/m3

26. During pasteurization ------------ will be destroyed

(A) All M.Os (B) Only bacteria

(C) Enzymes inactivated and pathogenic bacteria (D) Only pathogenic bacteria

27. The Optimum temperature for psychrophilic bacteria is …………

 (A) 40-60ºC (B) 20-40ºC

(C) 10-20ºC (D) < 20ºC

28. Viscosity of milk increases when milk ----------------

(A) Temp increases (B) Temp decreases

(C) Concentration decreases (D) Total solids decreases

29. The Unit of viscosity is --------------

(A) N-s/m (B) pa-s

(C) Pa/s (D) N-s2/m

30. Milk stone is -------------------

(A) Potassium phosphate (B) Potassium sulphate

(C) Calcium phosphate (D) Calcium sulphate

31. Best homogenization temperature is -----------

(A) 50oC (B) 70oC

(C) 80oC (D) 90oC

32. Critical fat globule diameter is -------------------.

(A) <2µm (B) =2µm

(C) 0.7µm (D) 0.5 µm

33. The second stage homogenization is done to ------------

(A) Reduce the fat globule size to <2µm

(B) To disintegrate the agglomerate the fat globules

(C) To remove whey

(D) To increase the temp of milk

34. When the milk flows through the homogenizer valve ----------------

(A) Pressure head increases (B) Velocity head increases

(C) Velocity head decreases (D) Pressure head is equal to velocity head

35. Time temperature combination for UHT pasteurization of milk is

(A) 63ºC for 30 min (B) 120ºC for 1sec

(C) 72ºC for 15 sec (D) 100 ºC for 20 sec 285

36. At present times and temperatures used for pasteurization of milk is based on the

(A) Destruction of Clostridium botulinum

(B) Destruction of Coxiella burnetii

(C) Destruction of Escherichia coli O157:H7

(D) Destruction of Mycobacterium bovis

37. Time temperature combination for HTST pasteurization of milk is

(A) 63ºC for 30min (B) 120ºC for 1sec

(C) 72oC for 15sec (D) 100ºC for 20sec

38. Heating process which involves successive heat treatments in order to inactivate spores is called

(A) Pasteruization (B) Sterlization

(C) Tyndalization (D) Spore killing

39. Freezing point of milk is

(A) -0.5°C (B) -0.2°C

(C) -0.5°C (D) -0.5°C

40. Boiling and freezing point of milk is slightly ------------- water

(A) Greater than (B) less than

(C) Equal to (D) slightly less than

41. Refractive index of milk is used to indicate ------------

(A) Adulteration (B) Purity

(C) Colour (D) Fat content

42. -------- test done to determine the acceptance/rejection of milk

(A) MBR test (B) Acidity

(C) Lactometer (D) Fat

43. --------- test done to determine the heat stability of milk

(A) Clot-On-Boiling (COB) (B) Acidity

(C) Fat (D) MBR Test

44. ---- test done to determine the extent of bacterial contamination and growth in milk

(A) Dye reduction (MBR) (B) SPC

(C) DMC (D) Lactometer

45. Fat content in toned milk is

(A) 3.0 (B) 1.5

(C) 4.5 (D) 2.0

46. Fat content in double toned milk is

(A) 4.5 (B) 3.0

(C) 1.5 (D) 4.0

47. Standardized milk contains fat percentage of

(A) 3.0 (B) 4.5

(C) 5.0 (D) 1.5

48. Major types of whey proteins present in milk are

(A) α- Lactalbumin & β- Lactoglobulin

(B) β – Lactalbumin & β- Lactoglobulin

(C) α- Lactalbumin & α – Lactoglobulin

(D) immunoglobulins & Glycomacropeptide

49. Milk protein (casein) in milk present in the form of

(A) Sodium caseinate (B) Potassium caseinate

(C) Calcium caseinate (D) Calcium carbonate

50. Density of milk is

(A) 1030 Kg/m3 (B) 930 Kg/m3

(C) 1000 Kg/m3 (D) 950 Kg/m3

51. Density of Solid Not Fat (SNF) is

(A) 1030 Kg/m3 (B) 1035 Kg/m3

(C) 920 Kg/m3 (D) 950 Kg/m3

52. Density of milk is measured by

(A) Photometer (B) Spectrometer

(C) Lactometer (D) Hygrometer

53. Acidity range of fresh milk is

(A) 0.13-0.14 % (B) 0.12- 0.13 %

(C) 0.15-0.16 % (D) 0.16-0.17 %

54. pH of fresh milk is

(A) 6.6 – 6.7 (B) 6.8 -7.0

(C) 7.0-7.2 (D) 7.2-7.4

55. Best temperature for homogenization of milk is

(A) 60 - 70°C (B) 70 - 80°C

(C) 50 - 60°C (D) 70 - 75°C

56. The process of removal of dense foreign matter present in the milk is called

(A) Clarification (B) Separation

(C) Standardization (D) Evaporation

57. The process of removal of 90 per cent of bacterial cells in milk by single pass through centrifugal
machine is called

(A) Solid concentration (B) Bactofugation

(C) Clarification (D) Standardization

58. Disc bowl centrifuges used for cream separation rotate on average at ---------

(A) 5500 to 6000 rpm (B) 4000 to 5000 rpm

(C) 3000 to 4000 rpm (D) 5000 to 5500 rpm

Answer Key

1 C 2 D 3 C 4 A 5 D 6 D 7 C 8 A 9 A 10 B

11 C 12 D 13 A 14 D 15 A 16 A 17 D 18 A 19 D 20 D

21 C 22 B 23 A 24 A 25 D 26 C 27 D 28 A 29 B 30 C

31 B 32 A 33 A 34 A 35 B 36 B 37 C 38 C
 Fruits and Vegetables Processing
1. During processing of fruits and vegetables transport losses occur in general as

(A) 20 % (B) 25 %
(C) 30 % (D) 40 %

2. The most important product for preparation of fruit jelly is

(A) Acid (B) Sugar

(C) Pectin (D) Sucrose

3. To remove field heat vegetables immediately after harvesting should be

(A) Stored (B) Pre cooled

(C) Refrigerated (D) Kept open

4. In receipt of world vegetable production India is placed in the rank of

(A) First (B) Second

(C) Third (D) Fourth

5. Aluminium foil has moisture vapour transmission rate as

(A) High (B) Medium

(C) Low (D) Too low

6. Blanching is commonly done in vegetable industries to inactivate ---------

(A) Pathogen (B) Moulds

(C) Microorganisms (D) Enzymes

7. The fruit ripening is due to the production of ------------

(A) Acetylene (B) Ethylene

(C) CO2 (D) O2

8. The process commonly applied to tissue systems of fruits and vegetables prior to freezing to

inactivate the enzymes is

(A) Heating (B) Pasteurization

(C) Blanching (D) Scalding

9. Low acid foods are foods with a pH value of ----------

 (A) Greater than 4.5 (B) Less than 3.7
(C) 3.0 to 4.0 (D) 3.5 to 4.0

10. Common additive added in the preparation of minimally processed food for the

reduction of water activity is

(A) Sodium benzoate (B) Sodium chloride

(C) Potassium sorbate (D) Ascorbic acid

11. In autoclaved sausages which are stored unrefrigerated the primary hurdle is

(A) pH (B) Water activity

(C) Sub lethal damage to spores (D) Eh

12. The basic principle of antibody based detection is the

(A) Binding of antigen with antibody

(B) Binding of antibody to an enzyme conjugate

(C) Binding of antibody to membrane

(D) None of the above

13. Milk and fruit juice are deaerated before they are allowed to flow through pasteurizer. This is done
in order to:

(A) Reduce fouling of pasteurizer (B) Increase rate of heat transfer

(C) Reduce oxidative deterioration (D) None of these

14. Intermediate moisture foods (IMF) are in the water activity range of

(A) 0.6 to 0.9 (B) 0.8 to 0.9

(C) 0.3 to 0.4 (D) 0.3 to 0.6

15. The ideal packaging material for high pressure processing of foods is

(A) Glass (B) Flexible pouches

(C) Metal cans (D) Rigid trays

16. The process commonly applied to tissue systems of fruits and vegetables prior to freezing to
inactivate the enzymes is

(A) Heating (B) Pasteurization

(C) Blanching (D) Scalding

17. Food which cannot be High pressure treated is

(A) Meat (B) Fruit juice

(C) Bread (D) Jam

18. The browning involved when bread is toasted is

(A) Dextrinisation (B) Caramalization

(C) Enzymatic browning (D) Coagulation

19. A Millard reaction is an example of the browning of

(A) Protein (B) Starch

(C) Sugar (D) Protein and sugar

20. Mayonnaise does not separate into oil and vinegar because

(A) Sugar and salt is added to act as emulsifiers

(B) Egg yolk is added to act as an emulsifier

(C) Egg white is added to act as emulsifier

(D) The ingredients are beaten vigorously so the oil and vinegar do not separate

21. The main purpose of blanching vegetables before freezing is to

(A) Increase colour (B) Soften cellulose

(C) Deactivate enzymes (D) Prevent the loss of Vitamin C

22. Advances in food packaging has increased food availability because the

(A) Information on the package assists consumers prepare the food

(B) Food is easier to store and transport without spoilage

(C) Packages are mostly recyclable and reusable

(D) Packages are attractive to consumers

23. Ethylene is a

(A) Gas given off during ripening of fruit (B) A naturally occurring enzyme

(C) An alternative source of fuel (D) A gas used to stop fruit ripening
24. The following are examples of semi perishable foods

(A) Canned tomatoes, freeze dried coffee, tinned peaches

(B) Milk, strawberries, meat

(C) Frozen peas, brazil nuts, cereals

(D) Bread, meat, dried apricots

25. Enzymatic browning is

(A) Occurs in raw fruit and vegetables (B) Caused by oxygen reacting with tannins

(C) A chemical reaction (D) All of the above

26. The sensory assessment of food involves judging food

(A) Using sight, taste, texture and aroma (B) Without looking

(C) In a controlled situation (D) All of the above

Answer Key - Fruits and Vegetables Processing

1 C 2 C 3 B 4 B 5 C 6 D 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 B

11 C 12 A 13 C 14 A 15 B 16 C 17 C 18 A 19 D 20 B

21 C 22 B 23 B 24 A 25 A 26 A
 Advances in Food Processing
1. Microwaves are produced by

(A) Vacuum tube devices (B) Magnetrons

(C) Klystrons (D) All of these

2. The ideal packaging material for high pressure processing of foods is

(A) Glass (B) Flexible pouches

(C) Metal cans (D) Rigid trays

3. Intermediate Moisture Foods are in the aw

(A) 0.80-0.40 (B) 0.60-0.75

(C) 0.60-0.40 (D) 0.90-0.60

4. In thermal processing of foods the destruction of nutrient and quality factors obey the reaction
kinetics of the following order

(A) Fourth (B) Third

(C) Second (D) First

5. For every 10 oC rise in temperature, rate of reaction becomes

(A) Single (B) Double

(C) None of these (D) Triple

6. The temperature dependence kinetics of the microorganisms can be described by

(A) TDT curve (B) Survivor curve

(C) Lethal rate curve (D) Probability curve

7. ----------- heat include superheated steam and hot air

(A) Saturated (B) Dry

(C) Wet (D) None of these

8. Desiccants can be placed inside a package to control

(A) Odour (B) Water vapour

(C) None of these (D) Gas

9. Low dose irradiation is effective in activation of

(A) Spore forming pathogens (B) Non spore forming pathogens

(C) Fungi (D) All of these

10. The zone of slowest heating is called ------------ of a container

(A) Worm point (B) Heat point

(C) Cold point (D) None of these

11. Which is defined as the ratio of reaction rate at T+10 to that at T i.e the increase in reaction rate
caused by an increase in temperature of 10 oC

(A) Q10 (B) Fo

(C) None of these (D) Z

12. The presence of 1% air in steam may reduce the heat transfer coefficient by up to

(A) 100% (B) 50%

(C) 75% (D) 25%

13. 1 Gray is = ---------- rads

(A) 10 (B) 100

(C) 1000 (D) 10000

14. The area under the lethal rate curve is called

(A) Lethality (B) Fo

(C) Log phase (D) None of these

15. A 99.9999% reduction in microbial population would be equivalent to how many log cycle
reduction

(A) Two (B) Four

(C) Six (D) One

16. Wavelength is equal to

(A) Speed of light/frequency (B) Frequency/ speed of light

(C) Speed of light/power (D) Volts/frequency

17. The application of heat and ultrasound is termed as

(A) Thermo Sterilization (B) Themo sonication

(C) Sonication (D) None of these

18. The water activity of paneer and gravy is lowered by using

(A) Surfactants (B) Kemactants

(C) Humectants (D) None of these

19. In which packaging procedure air is drawn out of the package prior to sealing but no other gases
are introduced

(A) Control (B) Modified

(C) Active (D) Vacuum

20. The basis of application of high hydrostatic pressure is the ---------- principle

(A) Le chatelier (B) Isostatic

(C) Arheniers (D) Newtons law

21. High pressure treatment is expected to be less detrimental than conventional processes to low
molecular weight food compounds such as

(A) Vitamins (B) High molecular weight components

(C) Protein (D) Carbohydrates

22. In autoclaved sausages which are stored unrefrigerated the primary hurdle is

(A) pH (B) Water activity

(C) Sub lethal damage to spores (D) Eh

23. Low acid foods are foods with a pH value of

(A) Greater than 4.5 (B) Less than 3.7

(C) 3.0 to 4.0 (D) 3.5 to 4.0

24. Common additive added in the preparation of minimally processed food for the reduction of
water activity is

(A) Sodium benzoate (B) Nacl

(C) Potassium sorbate (D) Ascorbic acid

25. In the improved general method the process time is calculated by plotting a curve of

(A) Temperature and lethal rate (B) Time and lethal rate

(C) D value and temperature (D) D value and lethal rate

26. The adiabatic heating rate for fats and oils during High pressure processing is

(A) 3ºC/100MPa (B) 6ºC/100MPa

(C) 10ºC/100MPa (D) 2ºC/100MPa

27. Time to reduce the microbial population by multiple of D value is

(A) Z value (B) F value

(C) Q value (D) Bot cook

28. If 100 C.botulinum spores were there in each container of a low acid food then the incidence of
survival of the spore following a 12 D process would be less than one in

(A) 10 to the power 10 containers (B) 10 to the power 9 containers

(C) 10 to the power 2 containers (D) 10 to the power 11 containers

29. Food which cannot be High pressure treated is

(A) Fish (B) Fruit juice

(C) Bread (D) Jam

30. In canning for non viscous products which are not agitated the mechanism of heat transfer into
the containers is by

(A) Forced convection (B) Conduction

(C) Conduction and convection (D) Natural convection

31. The principal mechanism of microbial inactivation in ohmic heating is

(A) Chemical (B) Electrochemical

(C) Thermal (D) Both a&b

32. Time temperature combination for UHT pasteurization of milk is

(A) 63ºC for 30min (B) 120ºC for 1sec

(C) 72ºC for 15sec (D) 100 ºC for 20sec

33. The major factor contributing to the compression energy contained in a High pressure vessel is
 (A) Vessel size (B) Compressibility of medium

(C) Temperature (D) Vessel closure

34. The process commonly applied to tissue systems of fruits and vegetables prior to freezing to
inactivate the enzymes is

(A) Heating (B) Pasteurization

(C) Blanching (D) Scalding

35. 400 MPa is equal to

(A) 4000 Kg/cm2 (B) 40 Kg/cm2

(C) 40000 Kg/cm2 (D) 4 Kg/cm2

36. In Ball’s formula method the major assumption is the heating and cooling curves will have --------

(A) Different slopes (B) Same slopes

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

37. The major site of action when compressed gases like CO2 used for inactivation of microorganisms
are within the ----------------- regions of the cell membrane.

(A) Hydrophilic (B) Hydrophobic

(C) Mesophilic (D) Psychrotropic

38. Curing of meat is a --------- method of food preservation

(A) Physical (B) Chemical

(C) Biological (D) None of these

39. Clostridium botulinum, the most dangerous food poisoning bacterium is unable to grow at an a w
of

(A) 0.93 (B) 0.90

(C) 0.85 (D) 0.80

40. High acid foods need ---------- heat treatment than low acid foods

(A) High (B) Low

(C) Medium (D) All of the above

41. As the process temperature increases the thermal death time -------------
 (A) Decrease (B) Increase

(C) Does not change (D) None of the above

42. Ohmic heating is ------------ method of processing foods

(A) Thermal (B) Non thermal

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

43. In microwave heating, water heats much faster than ice due to the high --------factor of water

(A) Dielectric constant (B) Dielectric loss

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

 Answer Key - Advances in Food Processing

1 D 2 B 3 D 4 D 5 B 6 A 7 B 8 B 9 B 10 C

11 A 12 B 13 B 14 A 15 C 16 A 17 B 18 C 19 D 20 A

21 A 22 C 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 A 29 C 30 D

31 C 32 B 33 B 34 C 35 A 36 B 37 B 38 B 39 A 40 B

41 A 42 A 43 B
 Design of Processing Machinery
1. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin cylindrical shell, if the ratio of the wall thickness of the shell
to its diameter is

(A) Equal to 1/10 (B) Less than 1/10

(C) More than 1/10 (D) None of the above

2. The design of pressure vessel is based on

(A) Longitudinal stress (B) Longitudinal and hoop stress

(C) Hoop stress (D) None of the above

3. The longitudinal stress is -------------- of the circumferential stress.

(A) One half (B) Two third

(C) Three fourth (D) None of the above

4. In case of pressure vessels having open ends, the fluid pressure induces

(A) Longitudinal stress (B) Circumferential stress

(C) Shear stress (D) None of the above

5. In a thick cylindrical shell, the maximum radial stress at the outer surfaces of the shell is

(A) Zero (B) p

(C) -p (D) 2p

6. For high pressure oil and gas cylinders, the thickness of the cylinder is determined by

(A) Lame equation (B) Clavarino equation

(C) Barlow equation (D) Birnie equation

7. In case of thick cylinder, the tangential stress across the thickness of cylinder is

(A) Maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface
(B) Maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface

(C) Maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface
(D) Zero at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface

8. Cast iron pipes are mainly used

(A) For conveying steam

 (B) In water and sewage systems

(C) In pressure lubrication system on prime movers

(D) All of the above

9. When the internal diameter of the pipe exceeds twenty times its wall thickness, then ---------
cylindrical shell formula may be applied.

(A) Thin (B) Thick

(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of the above

10. Which of the following joint is commonly used for joining pipes carrying water at low pressure?

(A) Uniform joint (B) spigot and socket joint

(C) Socket or a coupler joint (D) Nipple joint

11. The expansion joint is mostly used for pipes which carry steam at --------- pressure.

(A) Low (B) High

(C) Low & High (D) None of the above

12. The pipes carrying fluid pressure varying from 5 to 14 N/mm2 should have

(A) Uniform joint (B) spigot and socket joint

(C) Oval flanged joint (D) Socket joint

13. An oval type flange is fastened by means of

(A) Two bolts (B) Four bolts

(C) Six bolts (D) Eight bolts

14. A flanged pipe joint will be a leak proof, if the circumferential pitch of the bolts is

(A) Less than 20√d (B) More than 20√d

(C) Between 20√d and 30√d (D) Less than 30√d

15. The diameter of a pipe carrying steam Q (m3/min) at a velocity v m/min is

(A) Q/v (B) √Q/v

(C) 3.14/4 (√Q/v) (D) 1.13 (√Q/v)

16. The stress which vary from a minimum value to a maximum value of the same nature (i.e. tensile
or compressive) is called
 (A) Repeated stress (B) Yield stress

(C) Fluctuating stress (D) Alternating stress

17. failure of a material is called fatigue when it fails

(A) At the elastic limit (B) Below the elastic limit

(C) At the yield point (D) Below the yield point

18. The resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by

(A) Elastic limit (B) Young modulus

(C) Ultimate tensile strength (D) Endurance limit

19. In cyclic loading, stress concentration is more serious in

(A) Brittle materials (B) Ductile Materials

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

20. The yield point in static loading is ----------- as compared to fatigue loading.

(A) Higher (B) Lower

(C) Same (D) None of the above

21. The included angle for the V-belt is usually

(A) 20o – 30o (B) 30o – 40o

(C) 40o – 60o (D) 60o – 80o

22. The V-belts are particularly suitable for ------------- drivers.

(A) Short (B) Long

(C) Medium (D) None of the above

23. The groove angle of the pulley for V-belt drive is usually

(A) 20o – 25o (B) 25o – 32o

(C) 32o – 38o (D) 38o – 45o

24. A V-belt designed by A-915-50 denotes

(A) A standard belt (B) An oversize belt

(C) An undersize belt (D) None of the belt

25. The wire ropes make contact at

 (A) Bottom of groove of the pulley

(B) Sides of groove of the pulley

(C) Sides and bottom of groove of the pulley

(D) Any where in the groove of the pulley

26. Which one of the following is a positive drive?

(A) Crossed flat belt drive (B) Rope drive

(C) V-belt drive (D) Chain drive

27. The chain drive transmits ------------- power as compared to belt drive.

(A) More (B) Less

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

28. The speed of the sprocket reduces as the chain pitch --------- for a given number of teeth.

(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) First decreases and increases (D) None of the above

29. The standard length of the shaft is

(A) 5 m (B) 6 m

(C) 7 m (D) All of these

30. Two shafts A and B are made of the same material. The diameter of the shaft A is twice as that of
shaft B. The power transmitted by the shaft A will be ---------- of shaft B.

(A) Twice (B) Four times

(C) Eight times (D) Sixteen times

31. Logarithmic mean radius of a pipe in relation to its arithmetic mean radius is always

(A) Smaller (B) Greater

(C) Same (D) None of the above

32. Critical thickness of insulation for spheres is given by

(A) k/h (B) 2k/h

(C) h/2k (D) 4k/h

33 The law governing the distribution of radiant energy over wavelength for a black body at fixed
temperature is referred to as (NET, 2013)

(A) Planks law (B) Wiens law

(C) Lamberts Law (D) Kirchoffs law

34 In a counter flow heat exchanger the hot fluid enters at 90 oC and leaves at 70oC. The cold fluid
enters at 30 oC and leaves at 50 oC. The logarithmic mean temperature difference is (NET, 2013)

Hint: (∆ti-∆te)/ln (∆ti/∆te), ∆ti = 90-50, ∆te= 70-30,

(A) 70oC (B) 40oC

(C) 36oC (D) 20oC

35 In heat exchanger -------% cut baffles are generally used.

(A) 10 (B) 25

(C) 30 (D) 40

36.In a counter flow heat exchanger, log mean temperature difference is given by following
expression

(A) ∆ti-∆te (B) (∆ti+∆te)/2

(C) (∆ti-∆te)/ln (∆ti/∆te) (D) (∆ti+∆te)/ln (∆ti/∆te)

37 The coefficient of performance of refrigerator working on reversed carnot cycle (T2-higher

temperature, T1-lower temperature)

(A) T2 /(T2 – T1) (B) T1 /(T2 – T1)

(C) (T2 – T1)/ T2 (D) (T2 – T1)/ T1

38.One ton of refrigeration is equal to ---------- kcal/min

(A) 50 (B) 100

(C) 210 (D) 300

39 One ton of refrigeration is equal to ---------- kJ/hr

(A) 500 (B) 1000

(C) 3000 (D) 3800

40.A counter current heat exchanger carrying the same flow rate of the same liquid as hot and cold
streams has an NTU (number of transfer unit) of 4. The effectiveness of heat exchanger is
 Hint: NTU/(NTU+1)

(A) 0.65 (B) 0.70

(C) 0.80 (D) 0.90

41 Freezing time is calculated by using ---------- equation.

(A) Kick (B) Bond

(C) Planks (D) Newtons

42 In planks equation, freezing time is ------------ proportional to the temperature driving force.

(A) Directly (B) Inversely

(C) Square root (D) Independent

43. Which rule is commonly used to describe boiling point rise of a solution

(A) Ficks law (B) Duhring rule

(C) Bond law (D) Pearson rule

44 Ina single effect evaporator 1000 kg of water is evaporated per hour. The steam consumption is
980 kg/h. The economy of operation will be

(A) 1.00 (B) 1.02

(C) 1.80 (D) 2.50

45. In a single effect evaporator, the economy is

(A) Equal to 1 (B) Less than 1

(C) Greater than 1 (D) None of the above

46. Kg of steam/Kg of water vapor removed in an evaporator is called as (NET, 2013)

(A) Efficiency (B) Electiveness

(C) Steam use ratio (D) Specific steam consumption

47. The ratio of amount of water evaporated per hour to the amount of steam consumed per hour is
called

(A) Efficiency (B) Steam economy

(C) Effectiveness (D) Evaporated capacity

48.Psychrometric chart is a graphical representation of which properties of air (NET, 2013)

 (A) Chemical (B) Aerodynamic

(C) Hygroscopic (D) Thermodynamic

49. At 100% relative humidity, wet bulb temperature of air is

(A) Less than dew point temperature (B) More than dew point temperature

(C) Same as dew point temperature (D) None of the above

50. Drying constant is determined by

(A) Graphical method (B) Half life period method

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

51. Coefficient of performance of dryer is

(A) 1-HUF (B) 1+HUF

(C) (1-HUF)/ (1+HUF) (D) (1+HUF)/ (1-HUF)

52. Page model is used to describe

(A) Continuous drying (B) Fluidized bed drying

(C) Thin layer drying (D) Deep bed drying

53. The heat utilization factor of a drying system is equal to

(A) 1-COP (B) 1+COP

(C) 1/COP (D) COP

54. The usual range of speed of disc atomizer of spray drier is

(A) 6000-10000 rpm (B) 6000-20000 rpm

(C) 20000-25000 rpm (D) Less than 6000

55. The relationship between EMC and RH for biological materials has been given by (NET, 2013)

(A) Perry (B) Rankine

(C) Henderson (D) Janssen

56. The drying time in constant rate period is ---------- wet bulb depression.

(A) Directly proportional to (B) Inversely proportional to

(C) Not affected (D) None of the above

57. Half time period of drying is equal to

 (A) k/ln2 (B) ln2/k

(C) k×ln2 (D) None of the above

58. Deep bed drying problems are solved by

(A) Henderson equation (B) Ficks law

(C) Hukill analysis (D) Newton law

59. Thin layer drying is limited to -------- cm of bed depth.

(A) 15 (B) 20

(C) 30 (D) 40

60. Separation efficiency of cyclone separator is (NET, 2013)

(A) WV2/gR (B) V2/gR

(C) mV2/R (D) mWV2/R

61. In reverse osmosis, particle sizes removal ranges is

(A) < 5 nm (B) 5 nm-0.1 mm

(C) 10-50 mm (D) 0.1 mm-10 cm

62. The terminal velocity of the solid particles in a fluid medium is proportional to -------- of the
diameter of the particle.

(A) Square root (B) Square

(C) Cube (D) Cube root

63. The efficiency of a cyclone separator increase by

(A) Reducing the air outlet diameter (B) Increasing the air inlet velocity

(C) Reducing the size of separator (D) Decreasing the size of particles

64. A disc type centrifuge has milk inlet at radius R cream outlet at radius R 1 and skim milk outlet at
radius R2. In order to have a very high separation of milk fat globules from milk, the position of R
should be

(A) Close to R1 (B) Close to R2

(C) Midway between R1 and R2 (D) None of the above

65. The number of holes per square inch in a 20 mesh screen will be (NET, 2013)

(A) 20 (B) 200

 (C) 400 (D) 500

66. Indented cylinder can be used for grading rice on the basis of

(A) Thickness (B) Length

(C) Specific gravity (D) All of the above

67. Disc separator can be used for grading rice on the basis of

(A) Thickness (B) Length

(C) Specific gravity (D) All of the above

68. A wire mesh screen mean (ARS, 2013)

(A) A opening per inch (B) A opening per square inch

(C) A×A opening per inch (D) A2 opening per square inch

69. 4 mesh wire screen indicate (NET, 2013)

(A) 4 opening per inch (B) 4 opening per square inch

(C) 16 opening per inch (D) 16 opening per square inch

70. Standard screens are used to measure the grain size in the range of (NET, 2013 & ARS, 2013)

(A) 0-30 μm (B) 76 mm – 38 μm

(C) 76 mm – 250 mm (D) More than 100 mm

71. Cyclones are used for the removal of particles from air streams (NET, 2013)

(A) 10 μm or more (B) 1 μm or more

(C) 1 μm or less (D) 0.1 m or less

72. The pitch adjustment in air screen grain cleaner is

(A) 2 to 4o (B) 4 to 12o

(C) 12 to 20o (D) 20 to 30o

73. The length of screen surface should be

(A) 2 to 3 times its width (B) 3 to 4 times its width

(C) Equal to width (D) None of the above

74. In a ball mill if R is the radius of mill, g is acceleration due to gravity and r is the radius of the
ball, then critical speed is given by
 (A) nc = 1/2л (√(g/(R-r)) (B) nc = 1/2л (√(g/(R+r))

(C) nc = 2л (√(g/(R-r)) (D) None of the above

75. The operation speed of hammer mill should be

(A) 750 to 1000 rpm (B) 1000 to 1250 rpm

(C) 1400 to 1500 rpm (D) 1500 to 3000 rpm

76. If the fineness modulus is decreased, the power consumption of size reduction equipment

(A) Decreases (B) Increases

(C) Remain same (D) None of the above

77. Kicks assumed that the energy required to reduce the material in size was proportional to the size
reduction ratio

(A) Directly (B) Inversely

(C) Equally (D) None of the above

78. The power requirement to reduce the size of particles given by Rittinger law is ------than Kick
law.

(A) Equal (B) Less

(C) Greater (D) All of the above

79. Peripheral speed of the slower roll in rubber rolls Sheller is

(A) 5 m/s (B) 8-10 m/s

(C) 10 - 13 m/s (D) 20 m/s

80. Peripheral speed of the fast roll in rubber rolls Sheller is

(A) 5 m/s (B) 8-10 m/s

(C) 10 - 13 m/s (D) 20 m/s

81. Differential speed of rubber rolls Sheller is

(A) 1: 2.5 (B) 1: 1.25

(C) 1: 2 (D) 1: 1.5

82. The differential speed of rolls of wheat flour mill is

(A) 3:1 (B) 2:1

 (C) 3.5:1 (D) 2.5:1

83. Coefficient of hulling is expressed as (n1 = amount of grain before hulling and n2 = amount of
unhulled grain after hulling)

(A) (n1 – n2)/ n1 (B) (n2 – n1)/ n1

(C) (n1 – n2)/ n2 (D) (n2 – n1)/ n2

84. Groundnut decorticators rotate at about

(A) 90 rpm (B) 110 rpm

(C) 200 rpm (D) 300 rpm

85. The power required to accelerate the liquid to circumferential velocity V of the disc atomizer is
proportional to

(A) V (B) V2

(C) V3 (D) V4

86. Critical speed of a ball mill of 1200 mm diameter filled with 75 mm balls is

(A) 30 rev/min (B) 38 rev/min

(C) 45 rev/min (D) 58 rev/min

87. Pressure in shallow bin is determined by

(A) Fick’s law (B) Janssen law

(C) Rankine law (D) Fourier law

88. Pressure in deep bin is determined by

(A) Ficks law (B) Janssen law

(C) Rankine law (D) Fourier law

89. Design velocity for cross section of aeration duct is generally (NET, 2013)

(A) 5 m/s (B) 10 m/s

(C) 15 m/s (D) 20 m/s

90. A cylinder silo of 3 m diameter and 20 m in height is filled with wheat. The hydraulic radius of
the silo is (NET, 2013)

(Hint: Hydraulic radius = d/4)

(A) 0.75 m (B) 1.5 m

 (C) 1.75 m (D) 0.075 m

91. An index of mixing is given by

(A) (SO – S)2/(S-Sr)2 (B) (SO2 – S2)/ (SO2 – Sr2)

(C) (SO2 + S2)/ (SO2 – Sr2) (D) (SO2 – S2)/ (SO2 +Sr2)

92. For conveying of paddy on belt, the most suitable trough angle is (NET, 2013 & ARS 2013)

(A) 20o (B) 25o

(C) 30o (D) 35o

93. Effective speed of elevator (rpm) is

(A) 20.10 / √r (B) 29.90 / √r

(C) 30.10 / √r (D) 29.90/ √r

94. The capacity of screw conveyor is

(A) 0.785 (D-d)×p×n (B) 0.785 (D2-d2)×p×n

(C) 0.785 (D2+d2)×p×n (D) 0.785 (D+d)×p×n

95. Speed of bucket elevator ranges from

(A) 2.5 to 2.8 m/s (B) 2.5 to 4 m/s

(C) 3.5 to 6 m/s (D) 5 to 10 m/s

96. Platform scale method is used for determination of volume of apple fruit. If the weight displaced
water is 500 gram, then the volume of fruit is

(A) 50 cc (B) 500 cc

(C) 5000 cc (D) 5 cc

97. If bulk density of a particles is 600 kg m-3 and true density is 1000 kg m-3. The porosity of material
is

(A) 30% (B) 40%

(C) 50% (D) 60%

Answer Key- Design of Processing Machinery

1 B 2 C 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 B 8 B 9 A 10 C

11 A 12 C 13 A 14 C 15 D 16 C 17 D 18 D 19 B 20 A

21 B 22 A 23 B 24 A 25 A 26 D 27 A 28 A 29 D 30 C

31 A 32 B 33 A 34 B 35 B 36 C 37 B 38 A 39 C 40 C

41 C 42 B 43 B 44 B 45 B 46 D 47 B 48 D 49 C 50 C

51 A 52 C 53 A 54 B 55 C 56 B 57 B 58 C 59 B 60 B

61 A 62 B 63 B 64 A 65 C 66 B 67 B 68 A 69 A 70 B

71 A 72 B 73 A 74 A 75 C 76 B 77 A 78 C 79 B 80 C

81 B 82 D 83 A 84 B 85 B 86 B 87 C 88 B 89 B 90 A

91 B 92 A 93 B 94 B 95 B 96 B 97 B
 Material Handling and Transport
1. For conveying of grains in belt conveyor, the belt speed recommended is

(A) 1.5 to 2.5 m/s (B) 2.5 to 2.8 m/s

(C) 2.8 to 3.2 m/s (D) 3.2 to 3.5 m/s

2. In belt conveyor trough angle for paddy grains is (NET, 2013)

(A) 10 (B) 20

(C) 25 (D) 30

3. In belt conveyors spacing between idlers should not exceed ---------- m

(A) 1.2 (B) 1.5

(C) 1.8 (D) 2.0

4. In bucket elevator, the optimum speed for centrifugal discharge is -------- rpm

(A) (B)

(C) 30 r (D) 30

5. For optimum centrifugal discharge in bucket elevator the centrifugal force should be

-------- the force of gravity

(A) Equal to (B) Less than

(C) Greater than (D) Less than (or) Equal to

6. In screw conveyor the pitch of standard screw is --------- its diameter

(A) Less than (or) Equal to (B) Less than

(C) Equal to (D) Greater than

7. The capacity of screw conveyor varies with

(A) Screw diameter (B) Inclination of screw blade

(C) Speed of blade (D) All of the above

8. A screw conveyor when inclined 25 degrees it will carry about -------- of the rated

horizontal capacity

(A) 15 % (B) 25 %
(C) 50 % (D) 75 %

9. For discharge of bulk materials in Pneumatic conveyor, air velocity in the range of

--------- m/s is required

(A) 10 - 15 (B) 15 - 30
(C) 30 - 40 (D) 40 - 50

10. Which of the following conveyor have high mechanical efficiency? (NET, 2013)

(A) Belt conveyor (B) Screw conveyor

(C) Bucket elevator (D) Pneumatic conveyor

11. Belt conveyor discharge pattern fallows? (NET, 2013)

(A) Bell shape (B) Non linear

(C) Parabolic (D) Sigmoid

12. Which type of conveyor moves granular material in closed duct by high speed current of air?

(A) Chain (B) Bucket

(C) Pneumatic (D) Belt

13. For transportation of grains, the belt speed in belt conveyor should not increase

(A) 2 m/s (B) 3.5 m/s

(C) 4.5 m/s (D) 6 m/s

14. Which one of the following of belt conveyor is largely dependent on idlers? (NET, 2013 & ARS,
2013)

(A) Length (B) Width

(C) Speed (D) Efficiency

15. In a belt conveyor, the belt unit is coupled with the

(A) Loading end of the belt (B) Discharge end of the belt

(C) Midway of loading and discharging end (D) None of the above

16. The belt conveyor for grains could be employed up to an inclination of

 (A) 15o (B) 25o

(C) 35o (D) 45o

17. The shape of trough in screw conveyor is used as

(A) L shaped (B) U shaped

(C) V shaped (D) J shaped

18. Screw conveyor is generally use to move grains horizontally, however it can also be used up to an
angle of

(A) 25o (B) 45o

(C) 65o (D) 90o

19. Which one of the following bucket elevator is used for grain handling? (NET, 2013)

(A) Positive discharge (B) Centrifugal discharge

(C) Continuous bucket type (D) All of the above

20. Centrifugal discharge is used ---------- of conveyor

(A) Belt (B) Bucket

(C) Pneumatic (D) Screw

21. The conveyor system comparatively cheaper is

(A) Belt conveyor (B) Chain conveyor

(C) Pneumatic conveyor (D) Screw conveyor

22. ------------ conveyors are used as metering and feeding device

(A) Belt conveyor (B) Chain conveyor

(C) Pneumatic conveyor (D) Screw conveyor

23. ------------ conveyor works on the principle of inertia

(A) Belt (B) Chain

(C) Vibratory (D) Screw

24. Conveyors are primarily used for ------------ movement

(A) Horizontal (B) Vertical

(C) Inclined (D) Tangent

25. Bucket elevator is a very efficient device for ---------- conveyance of bulk grains

(A) Horizontal (B) Vertical

(C) Inclined (D) All of the above

26. ------------- is used for transporting the large quantities of materials over a very large distance at a
low cost.

(A) Belt conveyor (B) Chain conveyor

(C) Pneumatic conveyor (D) Screw conveyor

27. In ----------- the initial cost of the conveyor is lower than any other conveyor with the same length
and capacity

(A) Belt conveyor (B) Chain conveyor

(C) Pneumatic conveyor (D) Screw conveyor

28. ---------- conveyor is used to convey fine powder materials.

(A) Belt conveyor (B) Chain conveyor

(C) Pneumatic conveyor (D) Screw conveyor

29. ---------- conveyor is used to convey sticky materials. (NET, 2013)

(A) Belt conveyor (B) Chain conveyor

(C) Pneumatic conveyor (D) Screw conveyor

30. Material handling is concerned with

(A) Movement (B) Time and place

(C) Quantity and space (D) All of the above

31. ------------ used for free flowing materials.

(A) Belt conveyor

(B) Chain conveyor

(C) Pneumatic conveyor

(D) Bucket conveyor

32. In elevating of grains, the discharge from bucket elevator is a combination of

(A) Centrifugal (B) Gravitational

 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

33. Belt speed of high capacity belt conveyor is around?

(A) 4.5 m/s (B) 3.5 m/s

(C) 2.8 m/s (D) 2.5 m/s

34. Capacities of bucket elevator may vary from

(A) 1000 to 2000 t/h (B) 2000 to 4000 t/h

(C) 2 to 1000 t/h (D) 10 to 20 t/h

35. Selection of material handling system should be taken according to

(A) Conveying material (B) Capacity and speed conveyor

(C) Stability of conveyor (D) All of the above

36. The design of belt conveyor system is based on

(A) Horizontal conveying length (B) Characteristic of material to be conveyed

(C) Capacity requirement (D) All of the above

37. The pitch of idler in belt conveyor is determined by

(A) Idler rating or the carrying capacity of each idler

(B) Sag of belt between idlers

(C) Belt tension and belt speed

(D) All of the above

38. High capacity belt conveyor has conveying capacity of

(A) 2000 tonnes/h of the grain (B) 4000 tonnes/h of of grain

(C) 5000 tonnes/h of grain (D) 8000 tonnes/h of grain

39. A number of operations that can be executed either by hand or by mechanical means or device to
convey material and to reduce human drudgery is express as

(A) Material separation (B) Material handling

(C) Filteration (D) Bulk storage

Answer Key - Material Handling and Transport

1 B 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 D 8 C 9 B 10 A

11 C 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 B 16 A 17 B 18 D 19 B 20 B

21 C 22 D 23 C 24 A 25 B 26 A 27 C 28 D 29 D 30 D

31 D 32 C 33 A 34 C 35 D 36 D 37 D 38 A 39 B
 Food Packaging
1. Packaging is an essential part of

(A) Heating and cooling (B) Processing and distribution

(C) Manufacturing and marketing (D) All of the above

2. Food packaging surrounds, enhances and ---------- the foods

(A) Spoilage (B) Process

(C) Protects (D) Transport

3. Packaging is a techno economical function aimed at minimizing cost of delivery while

(A) Net sale (B) Maximizing sales

(C) Minimizing sales (D) None of the above

4. Packaging is a ---------system of preparing goods for transport, distribution, storage, retailing and
end use.

(A) Temporary (B) Permanent

(C) Coordinated (D) Modern

5. The ability of packing to protect foods from mechanical damage is measured by

(A) Yield strength (B) Young modulus of elasticity

(C) Tensile strength (D) All of the above

6. Packing means of ensuring safe delivery to ultimate consumer in sound condition at

(A) Minimum cost (B) Maximum cost

(C) Optimum cost (D) Zero cost

7. The ------------ is one which is in direct contact with the container product

(A) Primary package (B) Secondary package

(C) Tertiary package (D) None of the above

8. The ---------- contains a number of primary packages.

(A) Primary package (B) Secondary package

(C) Tertiary package (D) None of the above

9. The package contain a number of secondary packages is called

(A) Primary package (B) Secondary package

(C) Tertiary package (D) None of the above

10. Food packing can be classified into-------- type of container.

(A) Primary (B) Secondary

(C) Tertiary (D) All of the above

11. Most important general requirement of food packaging are

(A) Be non toxic (B) Acts as a barrier

(C) Protects against contamination (D) All of the above

12. The filling of commercially sterile product into sterile container under aseptic conditions and
sealing of container so that reinjection is prevented is called

(A) Active packing (B) Intelligent packing

(C) Aseptic packing (D) Sterilization

13. Which chemical component is used as sterilizing medium in aseptic packing?

(A) H2S (B) H2O

(C) SO2 (D) H2O2

14. The gram of water vapor transmitted from 1 m2 of film area in 24 hours is known as

(A) Water vapour permeability (B) Water vapour permeance

(C) Water vapour transmission rate (D) Moisture transfer coefficient

15. Food packaging is as old as

(A) Civilization (B) Industrialization

(C) Automazation (D) Stone age

16. Standard is the effect of

(A) Standardization (B) Automation

(C) Calibration (D) Quantification

17. During exterior surface treatment of glass bottles, non toxic silicon is atomized and sprayed at the
rate of
 (A) 0.5 - 1.0% (B) 0.0 - 1.0%

(C) 0.5% - 1.5% (D) 1.0 - 2.0%

18. Peracetic acid is

(A) Anti rusting agent (B) Anti microbial agent

(C) Anti floculating agent (D) Anticolouring agent

19. Most widely used bio degradable packaging material is

(A) Wheat gluten (B) Paper

(C) Corn zein (D) Starch

20. GSM of solid fiber board is

(A) 256 - 558 (B) 356 - 758

(C) 536 – 1285 (D) 556 – 1758

21. Wire bound boxes can be used up to a load of

(A) 100 kg (B) 180 kg

(C) 200 kg (D) 250 kg

22. Wooden boxes are not

(A) Bio degradable (B) Environment friendly

(C) Stackable (D) Termite proof

23. Among the following metal ----------- is more potential to corrode

(A) Cu (B) Au

(C) Cr (D) Fe

24. _____________ is not an extrinsic factor involved in the estimation of shelf life

(A) Temperature (B) pH

(C) RH (D) Light

25. In general MAP contains lower ________________ than normal atmosphere

(A) Oxygen (B) CO2

(C) Nitrogen (D) RH

26. Thickness of aluminium foil is

 (A) 4 - 150 micron (B) 50 - 100 micron

(C) 10 - 100 micron (D) 1 - 100 micron

27. Corrugated paper board has

(A) Tubular structure (B) Cellular structure

(C) Hole structure (D) Solid structure

28. ________________ is used to sterilize packaging materials in the aseptic processing

(A) Chlorine water (B) Ozonated water

(C) Hydrogen per oxide solution (D) HCl

29. Chill temperature is (oC)

(A) 0 (B) 0 - 7

(C) 5 - 15 (D) - 12 to - 18

30. Nanotechnology focus its research on matter having a length of

(A) 1 to 100 nm (B) 1 to 10 nm

(C) 10 to 100 nm (D) 10 to 1000nm

31. Lacquered aluminium containers no used for packaging

(A) Bear (B) Whisky

(C) Wine (D) All the three

32. Bottles suitable for sterilizing at 121.1 oC, contains SiO2 of

(A) 62.8% (B) 72.8%

(C) 82.8% (D) 92.8%

33. Three wall corrugated paper board contains

(A) 3 ply (B) 4 ply

(C) 6 ply (D) 7 ply

34. Polypropelene melts at

(A) 160-178oC (B) 120-138oC

(C) 130 to 148oC (D) 160-178oC

35. The insulating effect of a package is determined by its

 (A) Thermal conductivity (B) Reflectivity

(C) Both (D) None of these

36. Paperboard and polystyrene have

(A) Low thermal conductivity (B) High thermal conductivity

(C) No (D) None

37. ___________are the most prone to thermal shock

(A) Glass (B) Plastics

(C) Paper (D) Metals

38. Fresh foods that are respiring require __________degree of permeability in the material to allow
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

(A) High (B) Low

(C) No (D) None

39. The package which is in direct contact with the contained product is called ______ package

(A) Primary (B) Secondary

(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary

40. The package containing number of primary package is called__________

(A) Primary (B) Secondary

(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary

41. The package containing number of secondary package is called_________

(A) Primary (B) Secondary

(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary

42. Package used to facilitate the handling of tertiary package is called_______

(A) Primary (B) Secondary

(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary

43. A metal can, paperboard carton and glass bottle are example of __________

(A) Primary (B) Secondary

(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary

44. A corrugated case and boxes are example of _______ packaging

(A) Primary (B) Secondary

(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary

45. Stretch wrapped pallet of corrugated case are examples of ____ packaging

(A) Primary (B) Secondary

(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary

46. _________ functions as a silent salesman

(A) Package (B) Product

(C) Consumer (D) Distributor

47. UPC stands for

(A) Universal Product Code (B) United Packaging Code

(C) Universal Packaging Code (D) None

48. RFID stands for

(A) Radio Frequency Identification (B) Rapid Frequency Identification

(C) Radio Frequent Identification (D) None

49. The time between the production and packaging of the product and the point at which the product
first becomes unacceptable under defined environmental conditions is called

(A) Self life (B) Shelf life

(C) Product life (D) Market life

50. The degree of moisture protection of a package is measured in terms of

(A) Water paper transpiring rate (B) Water vapor turning rate

(C) Water vapor transmission rate (D) None

51. The degree of protection of packaged food for oxygen sensitive foods is measures in terms of

(A) Water vapor transmission (B) Oxygen transmission rate

(C) Oxygen transfer rate (D) None

52. Vertical, vibration, compression, racking and piercing are examples of ___________hazard

(A) Impact (B) Climatic

 (C) Biological (D) All of the above

53. High and low temperature, low pressure and light are examples of __________hazard

(A) Impact (B) Climatic

(C) Biological (D) All of the above

54. Rodent, micro-organisms, moths and termites are examples of _________hazard

(A) Impact (B) Climatic

(C) Biological (D) All of the above

55. To have greater shelf life, fruits and vegetables should be harvested at__________ stage

(A) Optimum maturity (B) Ripened

(C) Over ripened (D) None

56._________is used as a flush gas in controlled atmospheric storage

(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Nitrogen (D) None

57. CAS stands for

(a) Controlled atmospheric storage (B) Cautious atmospheric storage

(C) Cold atmospheric storage (D) None

58. CAS can increase the storage life of fruits and vegetable by _____________times

(A) 0 (B) 4

(C) 10 (D) Both B and C

59. MAP stands for

(A) Modified atmospheric storage (B) Mango atmospheric storage

(C) Manmade atmospheric storage (D) None

60._______________is capital intensive and expensive to operate

(A) CAS (B) MAP

(C) MAS (D) None

61. The main gas used in MAP is

(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide

 (C) Nitrogen (D) None

62. Carbondioxide in MAP has ____________property

(A) Bacteriostatic (B) Fungistatic

(C) Both (D) None

63. The solubility of Carbondioxide _________with decrease in temperature

(A) Increase (B) Decrease

(C) No change (D) None

64. The antimicrobial activity of carbondioxide is _____at lower temperature

(A) Greater (B) Less

(C) No change (D) None

65. Oxygen ______fat oxidation, browning reaction and pigment oxidation

(A) Promotes (B) Retards

(C) No effect (D) None

66. ___ is an inert gas used in MAP

(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen

(C) Carbon dioxide (D) All

67. Nitrogen gas is____________

(A) Tasteless (B) Odorless

(C) Both (D) None

68.________ retards the growth of aerobic microbes but does not prevent the growth of anaerobic
bacteria

(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen

(C) Carbon dioxide (D) All

69. EOPO stands for__________

(A) Edible Oil Packaging Order (B) Edible Oil Pack Order

(C) Edible Oil Patenting Order (D) None

70. EOPO came in_______

 (A) 1948 (B) 1968

(C) 1992 (D) 1998

71. SWWA stands for

(A) Standards of Weights & Measures Act

(B) Stationary Weights & Measures Act

(C) Stainless steel Weight & Measures Act

(D) None

72. Every commodity in packaged form should bear upon it

(A) Net quantity (B) Number of commodity contained

(C) Sale price (D) Sale price

73. Minimum package of bread is

(A) 25 g (B) 50 g

(C) 100 g (D) 500 g

74. Minimum package of biscuit is

(A) 25 g (B) 50 g

(C) 100 g (D) 500 g

75. Minimum package of baby food is

(A) 25 g (B) 50 g

(C) 100 g (D) 500 g

76. Minimum package of weaning food is

(A) 25 g (B) 50 g

(C) 100 g (D) 500 g

77. Minimum package of butter is

(A) 25 g (B) 50 g

(C) 100 g (D) 500 g

78. Minimum package of cereals and pulses is

(A) 25 g (B) 50 g
 (C) 100 g (D) 500 g

79. Minimum package of coffee is

(A) 25 g (B) 50 g

(C) 100 g (D) 500 g

80. Minimum package of tea is

(A) 25 g (B) 50 g

(C) 100 g (D) 500 g

81. Minimum package of Milk powder is

(A) 25 g (B) 50 g

(C) 100 g (D) 500 g

82. Minimum package of Milk powder is

(A) 25 ml (B) 50 ml

(C) 100 ml (D) 500 ml

83. Minimum package of salt is

(A) 10 g (B) 50 g

(C) 100 g (D) 500 g

84. The laws governing the packaging of commodity is governed by

(A) Packaged Consumers Rules (B) Packaged Commodity Rules

(C) Packed Consumers Rules (D) None

85. IS stands for

(A) Indian Statistics (B) Indian standards

(C) Indian Socialites (D) None

86. PE means

(A) Polymethylene (B) Polyethylene

(C) Polyoxymethylene (D) None

87. PVC means

(A) Poly vinyl chlorine (B) Poly vinyl chloride

 (C) Polyester vinyl chloride (D) None

88. PAT means

(A) Poly alkylene terephthalate (B) Poly alkylene teraphthalate

(C) Poly alkylene tetraphthalate (D) None

89. Any packaged food which does not conform to the requirements under the PFA is deemed

(A) Misleading (B) Misbranded

(C) Mismatching (D) None

90. A green colored circle and square or the packaged food indicates __________food

(A) Vegetarian (B) Non vegetarian

(C) Both (D) None

91. A brown colored circle and square on the packaged food indicates __ food

(A) Vegetarian (B) Non vegetarian

(C) Both (D) None

92. FPO stands for

(A) Food Products Order (B) Fruits Product Order

(C) Fun Products Order (D) None

93. MFPO stands for

(A)Meat Food Products Order (B) Meat Fruits Products Order

(C) Meat & Fowl Products Order (D) None

94. EOPO comes under

(A) Essential Commodities Act (B) Meat Food Products Order

(C) Fruits Product Order (D) None

95. AGMARK stands for

(A) Agricultural Grading and Marking Act

(B) Agro industry Grading and Marking Act

(C) Agricultural Grading and Marketing Act

(D) None
96. BIS stands for

(A) Bureau of Indian Standards B) Bureau of International Standards

(C) Bureau of India Standard (D) None

97. For the packaging of pasteurized flavored milk ______________are recommended

(A) Glass bottles (B) LDPE lined cartons

(C) Both (D) None

98. Condensed milk and sterilized cream are packed in

(A) Hermetically sealed containers (B) LDPE lined cartons

(C) Both (D) None

99. Jams, jellies and marmalades are packaged in

(A) Glass bottles (B) Open top cans

(C) Both (D) None

100. Meat should be packed in

(A) Polyethylene sheets (B) Glass bottles

(C) Plastics (D) None

101. Cooked meat products should be packed in

(A) Butter paper (B) Grease proof paper

(C) Wrapping paper (D) All

102. Bread should be packed in

(A) LDPE (B) Waxed paper

(C) Grease proof paper (D) All

103. Biscuits should be packed in

(A) Tinplate containers (B) Cardboard paper

(C) Cellol LDPE/PET/LDPE (D) All

104. Peanut butter should be packed in

(A) Wide mouthed glass jar (B) Polystyrene tubs

(C) Both (D) None

105. Flours and starches should be packed in

(A) LDPE coated jute bags (B) LDPE coated raffia bags

(C) Both (D) None

106. Edible spray dried potato flour should be packed in

(A) HDPE (B) Metalized polyester bags

(C) BOPP/LDPE (D) All

107. Oil should be packed in

(A) Tinplate containers (B) Glass bottles

(C) Food grade PVC and PET (D) All

108. Carbonated beverage should be packed in

(A) PET bottles (B) Cans

(C) Both (D) None

109. Chillies should be packed in

(A) PET bottles /EVA (B) BOPP/EVA

(C) LDPE coated raffia bags (D) All

110. Paper derives its name form

(A) Papyrus (B) Paparus

(C) Popar (D) None

111. The first authentic papermaking has been attributed to

(A) Tsai Lun (B) Robert Koch

(C) Both (D) None

112. The property of paper packaging material is

(A) Good stiffness (B) Good absorbent

(C) Good printability (D) All

113. Raw material for production of paper is

(A) Pulp (B) Wood

(C) Bark (D) None

114. The main constituents of wood cell wall is

(A) Cellulose (B) Hemicelluloses

(C) Lignin (D) All

115. The cell wall of softwood contain __ % cellulose

(A) 40-44 (B) 25-29

(C) 25-31 (D) None

116. The cell wall of softwood contain __ % hemicellulose

(A) 40-44 (B) 25-29

(C) 25-31 (D) None

117. The cell wall of softwood contain___________ % lignin

(A) 40-44 (B) 25-29

(C) 25-31 (D) None

118. The fibers of ____________wood are 2.5 times longer

(A) Soft (B) Harder

(C) Both are same (D) None

119. The pulps that retain most of the wood lignin produce __________papers

(A) Strong (B) Weak

(C) No (D) None

120. The pulp is cooked with solutions of various chemicals to remove

(A) Cellulose (B) Hemicelluloses

(C) Lignin (D) None

121. The bleaching agents to bleach the mechanical pulps are

(A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Sodium hypochlorite

(C) Sodium hydro sulfite (D) All

122. The pulps for paper making are

(A) Chemical (B) Mechanical

(C) Both (D) None

123. The chemical commonly used in cooking of pulp in chemical pulping is

(A) Sodium hydroxide (B) Sodium chloride

(C) Magnesium chloride (D) All

124. Unbleached pulps exhibit a range of brightness values from

(A) 0-15 (B) 15-60

(C) 60-90 (D) None

125. The color of the pulp is mainly due to

(A) Lignin (B) Cellulose

(C) Hemicelluloses (D) All

126. The process of bleaching of pulp_____ the strength of pulp

(A) Improve (B) Reduce

(C) No effect (D) None

127. The most effective bleaching agent is

(A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Sodium hypochlorite

(C) Sodium hydro sulfite (D) All

128. Beating and refining operations ___ the strength of finished sheet

(A) Improve (B) Reduce

(C) No effect (D) None

129. The objective of beating of the fibers is to __________of fibers

(A) Increase the surface area (B) Increase water imbibing capacity

(C) Both (D) None

130. Sizing process renders the paper sheet more resistant to penetration by

(A) Sunlight (B) Water

(C) Oxygen (D) None

131. The most common sizing agent is

(A) Rosin (B) Hydrogen peroxide

(C) Sodium hydroxide (D) None

132. The weight of paper per unit area is called

(A) Grammage (B) Hammrage

(C) Tamprage (D) None

133. According to ISO standards, the paperboard has a grammage of ______g/square meter

(A) 224 (B) 324

(C) 424 (D) 524

134. The final moisture content of the paper is

(A) 1-4 (B) 4-10

(C) 10-15 (D) 15-20

135. ________is the process used to smoothen the surface of paper and give it glossy finish

(A) Candle (B) Calendaring

(C) Cylindering (D) None

136. Machine finished (MF) are those which have undergone

(A) Calendaring (B) Chemical pulping

(C) Bleaching (D) None

137. Sizing and coating are applied to _______of paper

(A) Improve appearance (B) Strength

(C) Prevent excess water penetration (D) All

138. The surface Sizing agents include CMC which is

(A) Cabon methyl cellulose (B) Carboxy methyl cellulose

(C) Carbon methylene cellulose (D) None

139. The commonly used adhesives used for paperboard is

(A) Acrylic based emulsions (B) Starch

(C) CMC (D) PVC

140. ____________is used in the form of film for paperboard to produce a water vapor barrier

(A) Paraffin wax (B) Guar gum

(C) Acrylic based emulsion (D) All

141. The papers used for writing, books and cover papers are

(A) Fine (B) Coarse

(C) Both (D) None

142. Fine papers are made of

(A) Bleached pulp (B) Unbleached pulp

(C) Both

143. Coarse papers are made of

(A) Bleached pulp (B) Unbleached pulp

(C) Both (D) None

144. Kraft paper is

(A) Fine (B) Coarse

(C) Both (D) None

145. Bleached paper is _____________than unbleached paper

(A) Weaker (B) Stronger

(C) No strength (D) None

146. Grease proof paper is resistant to

(A) Oil (B) Grease

(C) Both (D) None

147. Glassine paper has

(A) Smooth surface (B) High density

(C) Transparency (D) All

148. Vegetable parchment paper is strongest when

(A) Wet (B) Dry

(C) Both (D) None

149. The major types of waxed paper

(A) Wet waxed (B) Dry waxed

(C) Wax laminated (D) All

150. Paper is termed board when its grammage exceeds __________ g/m2

(A) 224 (B) 324

(C) 424 (D) 524

151. Linerboard has atleast

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

152. Food board is used for food packaging having a single or multiply construction and made for 100
%

(A) Bleached virgin (B) Unbleached virgin

(C) Virgin (D) None

153. ASTM stands for

(A) American Society for Testing and Materials

(B) American Society for Testing and Marketing

(C) American Socialites for Testing and Materials

(D) None

154. The main types of glass container used in food packaging are

(A) Bottles (B) Jars

(C) Both (D) None

155. Bottles are those with

(A) Narrow (B) Wide

(C) Both (D) None

156. Jars are those with

(A) Narrow (B) Wide

(C) Both (D) None

157. The principal ingredient of glass is

(A) Alumina (B) Silica

(C) Manganese (D) Iron ore

158. Silica for glass making is derived from

(A) Sand (B) Flint

(C) Quartz (D) All

159. Glass is in_____ state

(A) Solid (B) Liquid

(C) Glassy (D) None

160. In the basic structural unit, silica is co-ordinated to surrounding oxygen atoms

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 4 (D) 4

161. The closures of glass bottle or jar consists of

(A) Cap (B) Cork

(C) Both (D) None

162. The actual sealing component of the closure of glass bottle is

(A) Gasket (B) Liner

(C) Lug (D) Both A& B

163. Gasket is made form

(A) Rubbers (B) Plastisols

(C) Both (D) None

164. The crown cork helps to

(A) Retain internal pressure (B) Protects contents

(C) Maintain vacuum inside container (D) Secure contents inside container

165. The bark cork helps to

(A) Retain internal pressure (B) Protects contents

(C) Maintain vacuum inside container (D) Secure contents inside container

166. The pry off or press on twist cork helps to

(A) Retain internal pressure

(B) Protects contents

 (C) Maintain vacuum inside container

(D) Secure contents inside container

167. Crown corks are used in

(A) Carbonated drinks (B) Wine

(C) Heat processed food (D) Peanut butter

168. Bark corks are used in

(A) Carbonated drinks (B) Wine

(C) Heat processed food (D) Peanut butter

169. Pry off corks are used in

(A) Carbonated drinks (B) Wine

(C) Heat processed food (D) Peanut butter

170. Which of the packaging material is most susceptible to heat shock

(A) Paper (B) Glass

(C) Metal (D) Plastic

171. Glass is optically

(A) Isotropic (B) Anisotropic

(C) Both (D) None

172. The largest constituent of glass manufacturing is

(A) Silica (B) Cullet

(C) Both (D) None

173. Which of the following gas is produced during refining process in the manufacture
of glass

(A) CO2 (B) SO2

(C) Both (D) None

174. The mass or lump of molten glass is called

(A) Gob (B) Mob

 (C) Tob (D) Fob

175. The process to make glass containers from molten glass is

(A) Blow and blow (B) Press and blow

(C) Both (D) None

176. Bottles are normally produced by

(A) B&B (B) P&B

(C) Neck press & blow (D) All

177. Jars are mostly produced-by

(A) B&B (B) P&B

(C) Neck press & blow (D) All

178. The process of removal of stress from the glass is

(A) Smelting

(B) Annealing

(C) Fusion

(D) Blowing

179. The annealing temperature of the glass is __ °C

(A) 140 (B) 240

(C) 440 (D) 540

180. The annealing involves

(A) Heating (B) Cooling

(C) Both (D) None

181. Which of the following is property of glass

(A) Inert (B) Impermeable

(C) Odorless (D) All

182. The disadvantage of glass is

 (A) Fragile (B) Heavy weight

(C) Expensive (D) All

183. Metal commonly used for food packaging is

(A) Steel (B) Aluminium

(C) Tin (D) All

184. ECCS stands for

(A) Electron chromium coated steel

(B) Electrolytically chromium coated steel

(C) Electrically chromium coated steel

(D) None

185. TFS stands for

(A) Tin Free Steel (B) Tin Filmed Steel

(C) Tin Featured Steel (D) None

186. Metal used during soldering of three piece metal can is

(A) Lead (B) Copper

(C) Both (D) None

187. Property of metal as a packaging material

(A) High mechanical strength (B) Low toxicity

(C) Superior barrier to gases (D) All

188. Property of metal as a packaging material

(A) Barrier to moisture (B) Barrier to

light

(C) Ideal surface for lacquering (D) All

189. Tinplate refers to __ steel sheet

(A) Low carbon (B) Higher carbon

 (C) No carbon (D) None

190. Method of tinplating is

(A) Dipping (B) Electroplating

(C) Immersion (D) All

191. Method of electroplating of tin is

(A) Ferrostan process (B) Halogen process

(C) Both (D) None

192. The oil used in food packaging to be used on the metal plates is

(A) Cotton seed oil (B) Dioctyl sebacate

(C) Acetylbutyl citrate (D) All

193. ECCS has

(A) Dull bluish (B) Bright bluish

(C) Dull yellow (D) Bright yellow

194. Property of aluminium is

(A) Weak (B) Light weight

(C) Ductile (D) All

195. Which of the following is a type of can manufacture

(A) 2 piece (B) 3 piece

(C) 4 piece (D) Both A & B

196. Two piece can is manufactured by -------process

(A) Drawn and ironed (B) Drawn and redrawn

(C) Both (D) None

197. The function of protective coating on metal cans is to

(A) Avoid contamination (B) Barrier to corrosion

(C) Decoration (D) All

 198. The internal enamels for metal containers is

(A) Vinyl (B) Vinyl organosol

(C) Acrylic (D) All

199. The internal enamels for metal containers is

(A) Polybutadiene (B) Phenolic

(C) Epoxyphenolic (D) All

200. The thickness of aluminium foil is -------------µm

(A) 1-4 (B) 4-150

(C) 150-250 (D) 250-300

201. Homopolymers consist of

(A) Single repeating unit (B) 2 repeating units

(C) 2-10 repeating units (D) None

202. Copolymers consist of

(A) Single repeating unit (B) More than 1 repeating units

(C) Both (D) None

203. Plastic is type of _________ polymer

(A) Thermosetting (B) Thermoplastic

(C) Both (D) None

204. The common plastic used for food packaging is

(A) Polyolefins (B) Polyvinyls

(C) Polyesters (D) All

205. Most of the plastic used in food packaging is

(A) Thermosetting (B) Thermoplastic

(C) Both (D) None

206. Those plastics which soften upon heating and harden upon cololing are called
 (A) Thermosetting (B) Thermoplastic

(C) Both (D) None

207. Which of the following fall in thermoplastic group

(A) Vinyl plastics (B) Polyolefins

(C) Both (D) None

208. The advantage of plastic is

(A) Light weight (B) Good strength

(C) Design flexibility (D) All

209. The disadvantage of plastic is

(A) Low cost (B) Coloring

(C) Disposability (D) All

210. Polyethylene is a polymer of

(A) Ethylene (B) Methylene

(C) Styrene (D) Propylene

211. The density of LDPE film is ___ kg/m3

(A) 110-140 (B) 410-440

(C) 910-940 (D) 1040-1140

212. LLDPE stands for

(A) Linear Low Density Polyethylene

(B) Long Low Density Polyethylene

(C) Laminar Low Density Polyethylene

(D) None

213. LLDPE is _______ than LDPE

(A) Stronger (B) Weaker

(C) Similar (D) None

214. LLDPE is _________transparent than LDPE

(A) More (B) Less

(C) Opaque (D) None

215. LLDPE has _______resistance to environmental stress cracking than

LDPE

(A) More (B) Less

(C) Opaque (D) None

216. HDPE is __ than WIJE

(A) Stiffer (B) Harder

(C) Weaker (D) Both A & B

217. The density of polypropylene is __ kglm3

(A) 500 (B) 600

(C) 900 (D) 1200

218. The density of HDPE is kg/m3

(A) 900-940 (B) 941-965

(C) 966-1000 (D) 1001-1025

219. Polystyrene is made by polymerization if

(A) Styrene (B) Ethylene

(C) Methylene (D) Propylene

220. EVOH means

(A) Ethylene vinyl alcohol (B) Ethanol vinyl alcohol

(C) Ethyl vinyl alkene (D) None

221. PET is __ polymer

(A) Thermoplastic (B) Thermosetting

 (C) Both (D) None

222. The bonding of two or more webs is called

(A) Coating (B) Laminating

(C) Both (D) None

223. The laminating is bonded by __ process

(A) Wet bond (B) Dry bond

(C) Extrusion (D) All

224. The filling of sterile containers with commercially sterile product

under aseptic conditions is

(A) Aseptic packaging (B) MAP

(C) CAS (D) All

225. The sterilization of packaging material for aseptic packaging material is

(A) Irradiation (B) Heat

(C) Chemical (D) All

226. Irradiation of packaging material uses gamma rays from ______ as

source

(A) Cesium (B) Cobalt

(C) Both (D) None

227. A radiation dose of _______kGy is sufficient to ensure sterility

(A) 25 (B) 50

(C) 75 (D) 100

228. Wavelength of UV radiation used for sterilization of aseptic packaging material is

(A) 100-200 nm (B) 200-315 nm

(C) 400-515 nm (D) 600-615 nm

229. Most effective wavelength of UV radiation used for sterilization of

aseptic packaging material is
 (A) 200-225 nm (B) 226-247 nm

(C) 248-280 nm (D) 281-300 nm

230. Steam is ________efficient than dry heat for sterilization of packaging Material

(A) More (B) Less

(C) No (D) None

231. Steam sterilization for packaging material is done at _____ ºC/20

minutes

(A) 121 (B) 151

(C) 171 (D) 191

232. Dry heat sterilization for packaging material is done at__________ºC/20 minutes

(A) 121 (B) 151

(C) 171 (D) 191

233. Chemical sterilants used in packaging material

(A) Hydrogen peroxide (B) Peracetic acid

(C) Both (D) None

234. The systems of cans was pioneered by

(A) WM Martin (B) KM Smith

(C) RL Gayle (D) None

235. Modern Food Packaging era began with

(A) Canning (B) Retorting

(C) Bottling (D) Heat sealing

236. Corrugated paper board has

(A) Tubular structure (B) Cellular structure

(C) Hole structure (D) Solid structure

237. Body of heat insulated paper cup's inner surface is coated with

(A) Foamed modified LDPE (B) Unfoamed modified LDPE

 (C) Modified LDPE (D) Unfoamed modified LLDPE

238. E Flute contains ________ flutes per meter length.

(A) 115 (B) 225

(C) 315 (D) 415

239. GSM of solid paper board is __________

(A) 356 - 1658 (B) 256 - 758

(C) 156 – 1756 (D) 556 - 1758

240. Thickness of aluminium foil normally used in aseptic packaging is ___________

(A) 7 - 11 micron (B) 15 - 29 micron

(C) 10 - 20 micron (D) 40 - 50 micron

241. Aluminium foil is barrier to __________

(A) Light (B) Oxygen

(C) Odour (D) All the three

242. Boxed beef concept is _____

(A) Keeping beef in box (B) Sealing beef in box

(C) Vacuum packaging of beef (D) Beef in corrugated box

243. Cling property is related to _________

(A) Shrink packaging (B) Vacuum packaging

(C) Stretch packaging (D) Retort packaging

244. Glass annealing temperature is ___

(A) 527.7 C (B) 537.7 C

(C) 547.7 C (D) 447.7 C

245. Material suitable for shrink packaging is ________

(A) Shrink PVC (B) Shrink PET

(C) Shrink ionomer (D) Shrink monomer

246. Density of HDPE is ___________ g /cc

(A) 900-910 (B) 915 - 925

 (C) 940 - 965 (D) 965 - 990

247. Density of HDPE is ___________ g /cc

(A) 900-910 (B) 915 - 925

(C) 940 - 965 (D) 965 – 990

248. Melting point of PP is ___________

(A) 80 - 90°C (B) 100 - 120°C

(C) 60 - 95°C (D) 140 - 150°C

249. Among the list _____________ is condensation polymer

(A) LDPE (B) PP

(C) PET (D) PVC

Answer Key - Food Packaging

1 B 2 C 3 B 4 C 5 D 6 A 7 A 8 B 9 C 10 D

11 D 12 C 13 D 14 C 15 D 16 A 17 C 18 B 19 B 20 D

21 B 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 A 27 B 28 C 29 B 30 A

31 D 32 B 33 D 34 A 35 C 36 A 37 A 38 A 39 A 40 B

41 C 42 D 43 A 44 B 45 C 46 A 47 A 48 A 49 B 50 C

51 B 52 A 53 B 54 C 55 A 56 C 57 A 58 D 59 A 60 A

61 D 62 C 63 A 64 A 65 A 66 A 67 C 68 A 69 A 70 D

71 A 72 D 73 C 74 A 75 D 76 D 77 A 78 C 79 A 80 A

81 B 82 C 83 A 84 B 85 B 86 B 87 B 88 A 89 B 90 A

91 B 92 B 93 A 94 A 95 A 96 A 97 C 98 C 99 C 10 A
0

10 D 10 D 10 D 10 C 10 C 10 D 10 D 10 C 10 D 110 A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

111 A 112 D 11 A 11 D 11 A 11 B 11 C 118 A 119 A 12 C

3 4 5 6 7 0

12 D 12 C 12 A 12 B 12 A 12 A 12 A 12 A 12 C 13 B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

13 A 13 A 13 A 13 B 13 B 13 A 13 D 13 B 13 A 14 A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

14 A 14 A 14 B 14 B 14 A 14 C 14 D 14 A 14 D 15 A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0
15 B 15 A 15 A 15 C 15 A 15 B 15 B 15 D 15 C 16 D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

16 C 16 D 16 C 16 A 16 B 16 A 16 B 16 B 16 C 17 B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

17 17 A 17 C 17 A 17 C 17 A 17 A 17 B 17 D 18 C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

18 D 18 D 18 D 18 B 18 A 18 C 18 D 18 D 18 A 19 D
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

19 C 19 D 19 A 19 D 19 D 19 C 19 D 19 D 19 D 20 B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

20 A 20 B 20 C 20 D 20 B 20 B 20 C 20 D 20 C 21 A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

211 C 21 A 21 A 21 B 21 A 21 D 21 C 21 B 21 A 22 A
2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

22 A 22 B 22 D 22 A 22 D 22 C 22 A 22 B 22 C 23 A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

23 A 23 C 23 C 23 A 23 A 23 B 23 B 23 C 23 D 24 A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0

24 D 24 C 24 C 24 B 24 A 24 C 24 C 24 D 24 C
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
 Storage Engineering
1. The estimated losses of world food production damaged by insects during storage is about

(A) 1-3 % (B) 5-10 %

(C) 10-15 % (D) 20-40 %

2. The estimated losses of food grains of India due to insect is about

(A) 1-3 % (B) 5-10 %

(C) 10-15 % (D) 20-40 %

3. The capacity of morai storage structure varies between

(A) 3.5 to 18 tonnes (B) 9-35 tonnes

(C) 35 to 50 tonnes (D) 50 to 100 tonnes

4. The capacity of bukhari storage structure varies between

(A) 3.5 to 18 tonnes (B) 9-35 tonnes

(C) 35 to 50 tonnes (D) 50 to 100 tonnes

5. The capacity of kothar storage structure varies between (NET, 2013)

(A) 3.5 to 18 tonnes (B) 9-35 tonnes

(C) 35 to 50 tonnes (D) 50 to 100 tonnes

6. In India morai storage structure is commonly used in the rural area of

(A) Eastern region (B) Southern region

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Western region

7. One of the following structures has inverted truncated cone shape

(A) Bukhari (B) Morai

(C) Kothari (D) Pusa bin

8. A wooden floor surrounded by 22 gauge corrugated metal cylinder upto height of 90 cm is in

(A) Morai (B) Kothari

(C) Bukhari (D) Pusa bin

9. How much grain is contaminated by rodent of own actual weight?

 (A) Ten times (B) Twenty times

(C) Thirty times (D) Fifty times

10. The height of grain loaded in morai structure is about

(A) 90 cm (B) 120 cm

(C) 150 cm (D) 180 cm

11. Kanaj is a type of

(A) Grain storage structure (B) Food products

(C) Drying methods (D) Grain separator

12. The capacity of kanaj varies between

(A) 3.5 to 18 tonnes (B) 1 to 20 tonnes

(C) 35 to 50 tonnes (D) 50 to 100 tonnes

13. In which of grain storage structure, plastic film of 700 gauges is used

(A) Morai (B) Kothar

(C) Pusa bin (D) Bukhari

14. The capacity of CAP storage structure is

(A) 500 tonnes (B) 1000 tonnes

(C) 1500 tonnes (D) 2000 tonnes

15. The height of stack in CAP grain storage structure should not be more than

(A) 12 bags (B) 18 bags

(C) 28 bags (D) 38 bags

16. High moisture and warm climate for stored grain is responsible for

(A) Mold growth (B) Insects growth

(C) Increase respiration of grain (D) All of the above

17. At present in India, most quite grain storage structure used is

(A) Fiber glass and asbestos sheet bin

(B) Mild steel bin and RCC bin

(C) Plain or corrugated galvanized sheet bin

 (D) Aluminium sheet and mild black sheet

18. A bin whose relative dimensions are such that the plane of rupture meets the grain surface before
it strikes the opposite side is called

(A) Shallow bin (B) Deep bin

(C) CAP (D) Silo

19. A bin in which plane of rupture meets the opposite side before it emerges from the grain is called

(A) Shallow bin (B) Deep bin

(C) CAP (D) Silo

20. If Ω is the angle of repose of material, then the angle of rupture may be taken as (90 + Ω)/2 with
the horizontal as per

(A) Henderson theory (B) Jensen theory

(C) Airy theory (D) Rankine theory

21. In winder season, grain stored in bin will be spoiled at

(A) Top (B) Bottom

(C) Centre (D) Near wall of bin

22. Spoilage of grain in bin during warm season takes place due to moisture accumulation at

(A) Top (B) Bottom

(C) Centre (D) Near wall of bin

23. Grain is spoiled in bin due to accumulation of (NET, 2013)

(A) Temperature (B) Heat

(C) Relative humidity (D) Moisture

24. The size of food grains is represented by

(A) Length (B) Width

(C) Diameter (D) Equivalent diameter

25. The shape of food grains is represented by

(A) Length (B) Width

 (C) Sphericity (D) Equivalent diameter

26. If L and h be breath and depth of the grain storage structure, then the structure can be taken to
shallow if

(A) h < L tan (90 + Ω )/2 (B) h > L tan (90 + Ω )/2

(C) h < L tan (90 - Ω )/2 (D) h < L tan (90 - Ω )/2

27. If L and h be breath and depth of the grain storage structure, then the structure can be taken to
deep if (ARS, 2013)

(A) h < L tan (90 + Ω )/2 (B) h < L tan (90 - Ω )/2

(C) h < L tan (90 - Ω )/4 (D) None of the above

28. If L and h be breath and depth of the grain storage structure, then the structure can be taken to
deep if (NET, 2013)

(A) h < L tan (90 + Ω )/2 (B) h > L tan (90 + Ω )/2

(C) h < L tan (90 - Ω )/2 (D) h < L tan (90 - Ω )/2

29. The equivalent diameter is taken ---------- times the hydraulic radius of the circular bin.

(A) Three (B) Four

(C) Five (D) Six

30. In a deep bin, depth of grain ------------ than equivalent diameter.

(A) Less (B) Equal

(C) Greater (D) Less or equal

31. A grain bin referred to as shallow bin when the depth of the grain is ---------- to the equivalent
diameter

(A) Less (B) Equal

(C) Greater (D) Less or equal

32. If H is the depth of grain and R is hydraulic radius, the relationship for deep bin will be

(A) H = 4R (B) H < 4R

(C) H > 4R (D) H = 5R

33. If H is the depth of grain and R is hydraulic radius, the relationship for shallow bin will be

(A) H = 4R (B) H < 4R

 (C) H > 4R (D) H = 5R

34. Vertical grain silo may be

(A) Circular (B) Hexagonal

(C) Square (D) Any one of the above

35. A good quality storage structure should be

(A) Structurally adequate (B) Durable and hygienic

(C) Gas sealable for fumigation (D) All of the above

36. Rankine coefficient (K) for silo designing is equivalent to

(A) (1 – sin Ω)/ (1 + sin Ω) (B) (1 + sin Ω)/ (1 - sin Ω)

(C) (1 – cos Ω)/ (1 + sin Ω) (D) (1 – sin Ω)/ (1 + cos Ω)

37. The Rankine formula is used for determination of pressure induced by granular materials against
retaining wall in

(A) Shallow bin (B) Deep bin

(C) Squat bin (D) Shed

38. The Jenssion formula is used for determination of pressure induced by granular materials against
retaining wall in (NET, 2013)

(A) Shallow bin (B) Deep bin

(C) Squat bin (D) Shed

39. The process of moving air through stored grain at low flow rate to maintain or improve its quality
is called

(A) Ventilation (B) Fumigation

(C) Aération (D) Migration

40. Aeration has some minor benefits like

(A) It prevents the storage odor (B) It reduces the moisture accumulation

(C) Application of fumigation (D) All of the above

41. Most common air flow rates for aerating paddy range varies from

(A) 0.01 – 0.04 m3/min/tonne (B) 0.04 – 0.07 m3/min/tonne

(C) 0.07 – 0.28 m3/min/tonne (D) 0.28 – 0.42 m3/min/tonne

42. Recommended perforation of aeration in grain storage shall be

(A) 10 % (B) 15 %

(C) 20 % (D) 25 %

43. The perforation in duct for aeration should be uniformly spaced with minimum area of

(A) 10 % (B) 20 %

(C) 25 % (D) 30 %

44. Methyl bromide or phosphine are used as

(A) Pesticide (B) Fumigant

(C) Germicide (D) Fungicide

45. Stored food products have main of heat from

(A) Sensible heat of products (B) Heat of respiration

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Specific heat

46. Air tight storages are normally used

(A) To arrest the insects infestation (B) To protect the wet grain from mold attack

(C) To decrease the oxygen content (D) Both (A) and (B)

47. Controlling insect and moisture levels, the losses in Bunker structure can be reduced up to

(A) 0-0.5% (B) 1-3%

(C) 5-10% (D) 10-15%

48. The granular material behave as composite mass having the characteristic of

(A) Liquid and gel (B) Liquid and solid

(C) Solid and gas (D) Semi solid and semi liquid

49. The protection of food by packing means safeguard against

(A) Physical activity (B) Chemical activity

(C) Biological activity (D) All of the above

50. Aeration can provide major benefits in the storage of grain if

(A) It cools the grains and slowdown insect activity

 (B) Prolongs the effectiveness of pesticides by cooling

(C) It can provide an appreciable drying function

(D) All of the above

51. For increasing safe storage period of fruits and vegetables under CAP conditions by

(A) Increasing CO2 level (B) Decreasing O2 level

(C) Decreasing the temperature (D) All of the above

52. In a godown extra space for alleyways for inspection and disinfection of stacks is provided which
is generally about (NET, 2013)

(A) 10 % (B) 20 %

(C) 30% (D) 40 %

53. In which region of country, kother type storage structure are used

(A) Eastern (B) Western

(C) Northern (D) Southern

54. In bag storage structure, the clear distance between the stack is kept as

(A) 2 m (B) 3 m

(C) 4 m (D) 5 m

55. An ideal storage temperature for potato is

(A) 0oC (B) 4oC

(C) 10oC (D) 16oC

56. Recommended temperature for safe storage of grapes is

(A) 5 to 10oC (B) -1 to 10oC

(C) 10 to 15oC (D) 20 to 25oC

57. Air tight grain storage structure insects are killed when o2 levels falls to about

(A) 2% (B) 4%

(C) 6% (D) 8%

58. Maximum moisture content (wet basis) for safe storage of wheat is

(A) 22 % (B) 18%

 (C) 13% (D) 28%

59. Deterioration of food grains during storage is caused by (NET, 2013)

(A) Micro organism (B) Rodents

(C) Environmental factors (D) All of the above

60. Angle made by material with respect to horizontal when piled is

(A) Angle of rotation (B) Angle of repose

(C) Angle of friction (D) Dynamic angle of friction

61. Paddy is normally stored at (in terms of wet basis)

(A) 16 -18 (B) 20 -22

(C) 10 -12 (D) 18 – 20

62. The rate of respiration of paddy increases with increase in

(A) Temperature (B) Moisture Content

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Mass

63. The higher values of angle of internal friction indicate that the material is (NET, 2013)

(A) Cohesive (B) Easy flowing

(C) Normal flowing (D) No indication of flow

64. In equilibrium moisture content during the seed storage, vapor pressure of grain is

(A) < atm (B) > atm

(C) = atm (D) None of the above

65. Pusa bin storage structure, which is; (NET, 2013)

(A) Made of plastic (B) Made of cow dung

(C) Made of cement (D) Made of katcha brick with moisture proof film

66. Rat proofing cone are provided in grain storage structure at a height of

A) 0.9 m (B) 1.2 m

(C) 1.5 m (D) 1.8 m

67. Bag storage structure are used to store the grains

(A) 10 to 25 tonnes (B) 25 to 100 tonnes

 (C) 25 to 500 tonnes (D) 500 to 1000 tonnes

68. For smooth floor surfaces, in vertical silo the slope angle should be

(A) 20-25o (B) 25 -30o

(C) 30-35o (D) 35-40o

69. Airys theory is used to calculate lateral pressure exerted by grain in a

(A) Shallow bin (B) Deep bin

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

70. Jenssen formula is used to determine the pressure in a (NET, 2013)

(A) Shallow bin (B) Deep bin

(C) Both types of bin (D) Medium bin

71. Jenssen equation is related to

(A) Size reduction of particles (B) Storage silo design

(C) Grain transportation system (D) Size separation of grains

72. Pressure in shallow bin determined by

(A) Kicks law (B) Bond law

(C) Jenssion formula (D) Rankine formula

73. Pressure drop in fluid flow through granular materials is best estimated by

(A) Blake kozney equation (B) Ergun equation

(C) Fourier equation (D) Henderson equation

74. The pressure of moving grains on the walls the bin is

(A) Slightly greater than that of stationary grain

(B) Slightly less than that of stationary grain

(C) Same as that of stationary grain

(D) None of the above

75. The moisture migration in stored grain results from (NET, 2013)

(A) Température changes (B) Moisture changes

(C) Pressure changes (D) Changes in hydraulic conductivity

76. If dried grain are stored in a silo for a long period of time and the bottom layer of the grain is
spoiled due to accumulation of moisture, then the reason for the spoiled grain in comparison to
outside air is

(A) Warmer (B) Cooler

(C) More wet (D) Drier

77. Which of the following is not a solid fumigant? (ARS, 2013)

(A) Methyl bromide (B) Celphos

(C) Delta (D) Phostoxin

78. Which of the following is not a liquid fumigant?

(A) Ethylene dichloride (B) Carbon tetrachloride

(C) Phostoxin (D) Ethylene dibromide

79. An example of solid fumigant?

(A) Ethylene dibromide (B) Aluminium phosphide

(C) Malathion (D) Methyl bromide

80. The most common fumigant for storage of cereals is

(A) Zinc phosphide (B) DDT

(C) Ethylene dibromide (D) Aluminium phosphide

81. Design velocity for cross section of aeration duct is generally

(A) 10 m/s (B) 15 m/s

(C) 20 m/s (D) 25 m/s

82. Concentration of CO2 and O2 in CA storage for apple should maintain at

(A) 1.5 to 10 % & 2.5 % (B) 5 to 10 % & 3 %

(C) 5 to 10 & 5 % (D) None of the above

83. Wax coating is done on fruits and vegetables to retard

(A) Retard respiration (B) Retard dehydration

(C) Enhance appearance (D) All of the above

84. Sprouting of potato can be prevented by application of

(A) Natural gas (B) Ethylene

(C) Oxygen (D) Carbon dioxide

85. Tensile strength of annealed aluminum foil increases in strength as gauge or thickness is

(A) Increased (B) Decreased

(C) Equalizes (D) None of the above

86. High density polyethylene is manufactured by

(A) High pressure process (B) Low pressure process

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

87. Packing films which is used for better MAP is (NET, 2013)

(A) LDPE (B) HDPE

(C) Polyproplene (D) PVC

88. Which is one of the best packing materials to inhibit moisture migration from the packaged
products?

(A) CFB (B) Steel

(C) Laminated foil (D) HDPE

89. Permeability of gases and vapor through a packaging film depends on (NET, 2013)

(A) Concentration difference between the two sides of the film

(B) Thickness of the film

(C) Thermal conductivity of film

(D) Area of the film surface

90. Which of the following does not affect the quality of food properly packed?

(A) Moisture (B) Ingredients

(C) Oxygen (D) Light transfer

91. The permeability of a polymeric film is affected by

(A) Thickness of film (B) Temperature

(C) Pressure difference across the film (D) All of the above
92. Which type of package is best suited for packaging of fresh grapes?

(A) Bamboo baskets (B) CFB box

(C) Jute bags (D) Paper bags

93. Controlled atmosphere storage is used for storage of

(A) Jams (B) Juices

(C) Dried products (D) Fresh fruits and vegetables

94. Aseptic processing and packaging encompasses the filling of – food into - containers

(A) Sterilized and cooled, pre sterilized (B) Raw, cooled

(C) Preserved, hot (D) Sterilized, hot

95. The grain – is always to be considered in conjunction with its moisture?

(A) Oil (B) Protein

(C) Temperature (D) Starch

96. Most of the storage – do not develop below 0 oC

(A) Temperature (B) Fungi

(C) Moisture (D) Chemical

97. Major variables which cause various changes and deteriorations in food grains during storage are
respiration and heating

(A) Physical (B) Physiological

(C) Biological (D) Chemical

98. Equilibrium moisture content is determined by

(A) Static method (B) Dynamic method

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

99. A minimum thickness of silo wall is kept

(A) 15 cm (B) 20 cm

(C) 25 cm (D) 30 cm
100. The cracked grains have respiratory rates than whole grains under the same conditions

(A) Lower (B) Equal

(C) Same (D) Higher

Answer Key- Storage Engineering

1 B 2 A 3 A 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 B 8 A 9 A 10 A

11 A 12 B 13 C 14 B 15 B 16 D 17 B 18 A 19 B 20 D

21 A 22 B 23 D 24 D 25 C 26 A 27 D 28 B 29 B 30 C

31 A 32 C 33 B 34 D 35 D 36 A 37 A 38 B 39 C 40 D

41 C 42 B 43 A 44 B 45 C 46 D 47 A 48 B 49 D 50 D

51 D 52 B 53 C 54 A 55 B 56 B 57 A 58 C 59 D 60 B

61 C 62 C 63 A 64 C 65 D 66 B 67 C 68 C 69 C 70 B

71 B 72 B 73 B 74 A 75 A 76 B 77 A 78 C 79 B 80 D

81 A 82 A 83 D 84 B 85 B 86 B 87 C 88 C 89 B 90 B

91 D 92 B 93 D 94 A 95 C 96 B 97 B 98 C 99 A 100 D
 Process Plant Design
1. A plant is a place, where – are brought together for manufacturing products.

(A) Men (B) Materials

(C) Money (D) All of the above

2. An ideal plant location is one which results in

(A) Lower production cost (B) Least distribution cost

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

3. Process layout is also known as

(A) Line layout (B) Functional layout

(C) Management layout (D) All of the above

4. Product layout is also known as (NET, 2013)

(A) Line layout (B) Functional layout

(C) Management layout (D) All of the above

5. Aims of line balancing

(A) Distribute the tasks

(B) Grouping the facilities

(C) To minimize the idle time for man and machine

(D) All of the above

6. Continuous production – type of plant layout is suitable (NET, 2013)

(A) Line layout (B) Functional layout

(C) Management layout (D) All of the above

7. Objective of inventory controls are

(A) To minimize investment in inventory (B) To maximize the service levels

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

8. Materials management controls the

(A) Money (B) Location

(C) Movement (D) All of the above

9. Economic order quantity permits

(A) Lower cost per unit (B) Higher cost per unit

(C) Medium cost per unit (D) None of the above

10. Fixed cost involves

(A) Building (B) Equipment

(C) Administrative expanses (D) All of the above

11. Prime cost is also called as

(A) Fixed cost (B) Variable cost

(C) Total cost (D) Depreciation cost

12. ----------- type of cost involves function of output

(A) Fixed cost (B) Variable cost

(C) Total cost (D) Depreciation cost

13. Break even analysis is the

(A) Point of maximum profit (B) Point of minimum profit

(C) Point of zero profit (D) Point of medium profit

14. Break even analysis can be carried out by

(A) Algebraic method (B) Graphical method

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

15. Break even point is calculated by (where, FC-fixed cost, VC- variable cost & SP- sales price per
unit) (NET, 2013)

(A) FC/(SP-VC) (B) FC/(SP+VC)

(C) FC/(VC-SP) (D) FC/(VC+SP)

16. Controls charts is also known as

 (A) Shewhart chart (B) Process behavior chart

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

17. Development of a plan for how to make a product is called

(A) Processing blocks (B) Operation process chart

(C) Work development activities (D) None of the above

18. Process layout involves

(A) Lack of flexibility of equipment (B) Lack of materials handling efficiency

(C) Lack of diversity of tasks (D) None of the above

19. Which is not the part of plant layout?

(A) Process layout (B) Product layout

(C) Location economics (D) Combination layout

20. Factors affecting plant location

(A) Cement (B) Steel

(C) Brick (D) Transport facility

21. Site of the food processing plant should be

(A) Away from garbage dump (B) Well connected by rail/road

(C) Away from bone crushing units (D) All of the above

22. Line flow pattern is used where,

(A) Building are wider (B) Building having long length

(C) Buildings are less long (D) For rotary handling system

23. Which of the following are used to represent flow pattern?

(A) L type (B) U type

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) K type

24. What is the disadvantage of single story building?

(A) Easy to expand (B) They need more land

(C) Greater flexibility in layout (D) Natural light and ventilation can be supplied

25. Function not related to materials management

 (A) Materials planning (B) Inventory control

(C) Sales and marketing (D) Receiving and warehousing

26. Which is not the classification of inventory?

(A) Raw inventory (B) In-process inventory

(C) Marketing (D) Finished inventory

27. Break even point is used to determine

(A) Effect of change in price (B) Effect of change in cost

(C) Safety margin (D) All of the above

28. Function of inventories

(A) Raw inventories

(B) Maintain smooth and efficient production flow

(C) In process inventories

(D) Finished inventories

29. Food processing wastes contain (NET, 2013)

(A) High bio oxygen chemical content (B) Low BOD

(C) Low suspended solids (D) None of the above

30. BOD refers to

(A) Biological oxygen demand (B) Biological optimum demand

(C) Biology of operation disinfection (D) Bacteria over dose

31. COD refers to (NET, 2013)

(A) Chemical optimum demand (B) Chemical oxygen demand

(C) Chemical of operation disinfection (D) Chemical over dose

32. BOD of most of food wastes is (NET, 2013)

(A) Considerable more than domestic sewage

(B) Less than domestic sewage

(C) Considerable less than domestic sewage

(D) Equal to domestic sewage

33. Decision parameter in a plant layout represent as (ARS, 2013)

(A) Rectangular (B) Diamond

(C) Square (D) Triangle

34. PERT is

(A) Event oriented technique (B) Activity oriented technique

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

35. CPM is

(A) Event oriented technique (B) Activity oriented technique

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

36. Zimpro process is used for

(A) Gravity thickening (B) Thermal condition

(C) Waste water treatment (D) Chemical thickening

37. The amount of money paid to a worker in cash for the efforts put in by him in an industry is
known as

(A) Nominal wages (B) Real wages

(C) Fair wages (D) Minimum wages

38. Keep adding variables resources to the fixed resources as long as the added return is more than the

(A) Initial cost (B) Added cost

(C) Total cost (D) Added cost

39. Annual depreciation of a machine is included in

(A) Variable cost (B) Fixed cost

(C) Hiring cost (D) None of the above

40. Trickling bed is terminology used in

(A) Evaporation (B) Distillation

(C) Food waste treatment (D) Drying

41. The bed depth of the trickling filter using plastic media for waste water treatment may be up to

(A) 4 m (B) 6 m
 (C) 8 m (D) 2m

42. Time study can be performed by

(A) Stop watch method (B) Motion picture camera

(C) Time recording machine (D) All of the above

43. The objective of motion study is

(A) To find the best ways of doing job (B) To eliminate wastage and labor

(C) To improve design of work place layout (D) All of the above

44. The X bar and R chart is used for

(A) Control of numbers of defects per unit

(B) Analysis of fraction defectives

(C) Variables and quality characteristics

(D) Plotting attributes characteristics

45. Productivity can be improved by

(A) Increasing the inputs maintaining the same outputs

(B) Decreasing the outputs with the same input

(C) Increasing outputs and decreasing inputs

(D) All of the above

46. Method of calculating depreciation

(A) Sinking fund method

(B) Straight line method

(C) Reducing balance method

(D) All of the above

47. S flow occurs in

(A) Horizontal flow system (B) Vertical flow system

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

48. Depreciation of plant, building and equipment are

(A) Prime cost (B) Fixed cost

 (C) Variable cost (D) None of the above

49. Cost of placing an order from a vendor is

(A) Annual cost (B) Carrying cost

(C) Ordering cost (D) Total cost

50. The common flow patterns are

(A) L (B) Line

(C) Circular (D) All of the above

51. Boiler fuel is (NET, 2013)

(A) Diesel (B) Petrol

(C) Kerosene (D) All of the above

ANSWER KEY- Process Plant Design

1 D 2 C 3 B 4 A 5 D 6 A 7 C 8 D 9 A 10 D

11 B 12 B 13 C 14 C 15 A 16 C 17 B 18 B 19 C 20 D

21 D 22 B 23 C 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 D 28 B 29 A 30 A

31 B 32 A 33 B 34 A 35 B 36 C 37 A 38 C 39 B 40 C

41 B 42 D 43 C 44 C 45 C 46 D 47 C 48 B 49 C 50 D

51 D
 Meat Processing
1. Animals store ________ in their muscle as a source of reserve energy

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

2. The most abundant muscle pigments of the meat are ______ and _____.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

3. ______ loosens the feathers of poultry and makes easier plucking and pinfeather removal.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

4. Ideal temperature of storage of egg in warehouses is _______.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

5. The bacteria which is pathogenic to humans and commonly found in the egg and egg products
is_______.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

6. Egg yolk on freezing without additives becomes gummy and thick which is known as _______.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

7. ______ are added to the meat cure to increase the water binding capacity and thereby the yield.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

8. The membrane connecting the Vitelline membrane, thick albumen and the thin Albumen of egg is
known as ____.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
9. The most widely used method of assessing the Albumen quality of egg is by its ______.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

10. Egg white becomes _______ if it is aged due to increase in pH.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

11. The two principle proteins in the myofibril fraction of the protein are _______ and _____.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

12. _____ is the principle component of the connective tissue fraction of the meat.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

13. Connective tissues of the meat muscle fibre contains two protein fractions called ________ and
_____.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

14. Aging or ripening of meat is generally done at a temperature of ______.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

15. After nitrite curing the pink red stable colour of the meat after cooking is due to the ______.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

16. The most abundant muscle pigments of the meat are ______ and _____.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
17. The bacteria which is pathogenic to humans and commonly found in the egg and egg
products is_______.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

18. The membrane connecting the Vitelline membrane, thick albumen and the thin Albumen
of egg is known as ____.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

19. The most widely used method of assessing the Albumen quality of egg is by its ______.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

20. Haugh unit should be _________ for higher grade egg.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

21. Scalding of poultry is done at ________C for 2 minutes.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

22. Egg contains _____ percent of albumen.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

23. Yolk index is given by ________.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

24. Protein content in poultry meat _____ %

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

25. If egg shell is intact and unbroken it is called____ egg.

 (A) Good (B) Clean

(C) Sound (D) All the above

26. Immersing poultry in hot water is called as

(A) Scalding (B) Sineging

(C) Stunning (D) Evisceration

27. ________ property of egg yolk is due to its licitho-protein complex.

(A) Foaming (B) Emulsifying

(C) Solubility (D) Textural

28. Stunning of poultry birds is done by passing through _____ volt electrically charged water bath.

(A) 40-70 (B) 70-100

(C) 100-130 (D) 130-160

29. Average protein content of fish is __________ %

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

30. Fish _______ is a good source of vitamin

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

31. Optimum fish : ice required for cooling of fish is _____

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

32. Surimi has ______ gel strength

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

33. Products from smoking heavily salted fish are called as _____

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

34. Smoking of meat helps in destruction of bacteria and prevents _______.

 (A) (B)

(C) (D)

35. Egg contains _____ percent of yolk.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

36. Yolk index is given by ________.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

37. Protein content in poultry meat _____ %

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

38. Phenols generated during smoking of meat

(A) Acts as antioxidant (B) Improves flavour

(C) Kills bacteria (D) All the above.

39. Phosphates are added during meat curing to increase

(A) Water binding (b) Colour

(c) Flavour (d) Taste

40. Albumen index is given by _________

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

41. Egg contains _________% of shell.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

42. The chief pigments present in meat are myoglobin and _______.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

43. Nitrate is required for _______ development during curing of meat

 (A) (B)

(C) (D)

44. _________ is an exterior quality of egg.

(A) Candling (B) Yolk index

(C) Soundness (D) Haugh unit

45. During stunning of poultry birds is allowed to pass through _____ volt electrically charged water
bath.

(A) 40-70 (B) 70-100

(C) 100-130 (D) 130-160

46. The amount and rate of smoke deposition meat is influenced by smoke____

(A) Density (B) Air velocity

(C) Relative humidity (D) All the above.

47. Cooking of meat increases its _________

(A) Palatability (B) Nutrition

(C) Toughness (D) Hardness

48. According to ICMR, per capita consumption of meat should be

(A) 34 grams per day (B) 35 grams per day

(C) 40 grams per day (D) 45 grams per day

49. The connective tissue sheath in meat is called ---------

(A) Epimysium (B) Endomysium

(C) collagen (D) elastin

50. The connective tissues surrounding each muscle fibre are called as

(A) Collagen (B) Elastin

(C) epimysium (D) Entomysium

51. Major protein of the muscle fibre in meat is ------------

(A) Myosin (B) Elastin

(C) Collagen (D) Tendon

52. Two major proteins present in the connective tissues are

 (A) Collagen (B) Elastin

(C) Tendon (D) Myosin

53. When animal is well fed, fat penetrates between the muscle fibre bundles known as

(A) Fat marbling (B) Rigor Mortis

(C) Fat gloubling (D) Standardization

54. Rigormortis is correlated with -------------- from the muscle of newly killed animals

(A) Loss of glycogen and disappearance of ATP

(B) Gain of glycogen and disappearance of ATP

(C) Loss of glycogen and high level appearance of ATP

(D) Disappearance of ATP

55. ----------- group of enzymes are mostly used for tenderization of meat

(A) Proteolytic (B) Non-proteolytic

(C) Lipolytic (D) Catalytic

56. If the carcass is chilled too rapidly, the result is called

(A) Wetting (B) Shortening

(C) Cold shortening (D) Tempering

57. Average weight of poultry egg is

(A) 50 – 60 g (B) 60 - 70 g

(C) 70 - 80 g (D) 80 - 90 g

58. For poultry housing in warm climates, window area should be ----------- % of floor area

(A) 25 (B) 30

(C) 35 (D) 40

59. In autoclaved sausages which are stored unrefrigerated the primary hurdle is

(A) pH (B) Water activity

(C) Sub lethal damage to spores (D) Eh

60. The correct temperature range for a refrigerated cabinet storing fresh meat is

(A) 0ºC to 4ºC (B) -10ºC to 0ºC

 (C) 5ºC to 8ºC (D) -18ºC to -3ºC

61. Natural emulsifier (lecithin) found in

(A) Egg (B) Meat

(C) Apple (D) Cereals

62. Meat preservative agents are

(A) Nitrite and nitrate (B) Sugar

(C) Acetic Acid (D) Benzoic acid

63. The major protein of muscles fibre in meat is

(A) Myosin (B) Elastin

(C) Gyosin (D) None

64. When an animal is well fed, fat percentage between the muscle fibre bundles is called

(A) Fat reduction (B) Fat marbling

(C) Fat budding (D) Fat bundling

65. The substance added to meat as mild preservative and flavor enhancer is

(A) Common salt (B) Sugar

(C) Vinegar (D) Brine

66. The chief muscle pigment in meat protein is called

(A) Myosin (B) Cyoglobin

(C) Hemoglobin (D) Myoglobin

67. The ideal temperature of meat smoke room is

(A) 52 degree (B) 55 degree

(C) 57 degree (D) 60 degrees

68. The smoking of meat is done for the period of

(A) 15 - 20 hrs (B) 18 - 24 hrs

(C) 20 - 25 hrs (D) 30 - 35 hrs

69. Oxymyoglobin has a colour of

(A) Black (B) White

 (C) Red (D) Bright red

70. The shell of egg is made of

(A) Calcium carbonate (B) Magnesium carbonate

(C) Sodium carbonate (D) Calcium propionate

71. Number of layer in outer membrane of egg is made by

(A) Eight (B) Ten

(C) Six (D) Seven

72. Number of layer in inner membrane of egg is made by

(A) Three (B) Ten

(C) Six (D) Seven

73. Two carbohydrates are found is meat is ------------

(A) Glucose and fructose (B) Glycogen and glucose

(C) Maltose and fructose (D) Chitin and lignin

74. Removal of feather from scaled bird is known as

(A) Singing (B) Pinning

(C) Picking (D) Scalding

75. Removal of feather from carcass is known as

(A) Singing (B) Pinning

(C) Picking (D) Scalding

Answer Key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 C 58 A 59 C 60 C

61 A 62 A 63 A 64 B 65 A 66 D 67 C 68 B 69 D 70 A

71 C 72 A 73 B 74 C 75 B
 Food Microbiology
1. Among the various DNA based detection schemes of food borne bacterial pathogens, which is not
correct?

(A) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms

(B) Ribo typing

(C) Amplified fragment length polymorphism

(D) Micro-ouchterlony Slide gel diffusion Method

2. Which is true for endotoxins?

(A) Found only in gram -ve bacteria

(B) Usually binds to specific cellular receptors

(C) Highly toxic and fatal in microgram quantities

(D) Toxoids are used to immunize

3. Atmospheric gases that have antimicrobial property

(A) O2 and O3 (B) O3 and CO2

(C) CO2 and O2 (D) O2 and N2

4. Gram-positive rod that is a food borne pathogen

(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

(C) Escherichia coli (D) Salmonella enteritides

5. MPN test is used for the analysis of

(A) Meat (B) Water

(C) Blood (D) Fish

6. One of the fungal pathogens is uncommon on fruits

(A) Penicillium (B) Geotrichum

(C) Fusarium (D) Talaromyces flavus

7. Micro-organism associated with food poisoning

(A) Streptococcus (B) Clostridium tetanii

 (C) C. botulinum (D) Lactic acid bacteria

8. Which of the following statements regarding microorganisms and food is not correct?

(A) The definition of food spoilage does not say that all spoiled food is unsafe to eat

(B) All microbial growth in food is bad and should be avoided

(C) Most food spoilage bacteria do not grow in foods with a pH lower than about 5.0.

(D) All of the above are correct statements

9. Species considered being the most heat resistant spore former found in foods

(A) Geobacillus stearothermophilus (B) Bacillus cereus

(C) Clostridium botulinum (D) Microbacterium lacticum

10. Low acid foods are foods with a pH value of

(A) Greater than 4.5 (B) Less than 3.7

(C) 3.0 to 4.0 (D) 3.5 to 4.0

11. Spore forming bacteria do not grow at pH values

(A) Less than 7 (B) More than 7

(C) Less than 3.7 (D) More than 5

12. The danger zone for food storage where rapid growth of food poisoning bacteria occurs is

(A) From 0°C - 100°C (B) Between –12°C and 0°C

(C) From 12°C to 80°C (D) Between 4°C and 60°C

13. Which of the following foods would be most likely to be contaminated by salmonella bacteria

(A) Canned meat, salmon, frozen peas (B) Mince meat, sausages, chicken

(C) Ham, apple pie, custard (D) Smoked fish, meat paste, vegetable pasties

14. Which of the following is NOT an intrinsic factor in food spoilage?

(A) pH (B) Moisture content

(C) Available nutrients (D) Temperature

15. Louis Pasteur established the modern era of food microbiology in 1857 when he

showed that microorganisms cause ----------- spoilage

(A) Beer (B) Wine

 (C) Juice (D) Grain

16. Species responsible for thermophilic flat-sour defect in canned foods

(A) Bacillus polymyxa (B) Geobacillus stearothermophilus

(C) Clostridium butyricum (D) Clostridium perfringens

17. Despite efforts to eliminate spoilage organisms during canning, sometimes canned foods are
spoiled. This may be due to

(A) Spoilage before canning

(B) Under processing during canning

(C) Leakage of contaminated water through can seams during cooling

(D) All of the above

18. Storage condition that retard surface spoilage of foods

(A) Low Eh (B) Low Relative Humidity

(C) Acidic environment (D) Unaltered gaseous environment

ANSWER KEY

1 D 2 A 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 D 7 C 8 B 9 A 10 A

11 C 12 D 13 B 14 D 15 A 16 B 17 D 18 B
 Food Consumer Science
1. Countries living in poverty tend to suffer from

(A) Heart disease (B) Anorexia

(C) Obesity (D) Anemia

2. A physiological factor that may influence an individual’s food selection their

(A) Belief that the food is nutritious (B) Appetite

(C) Cultural background (D) Economic background

3. A psychological factor that may influence an individual’s food selection is their

(A) Belief the food is nutritious (B) Appetite

(C) Cultural background (D) Economic background

4. Current food consumption patterns in India indicate

(A) Chicken consumption is increasing (B) Butter consumption in increasing

(C) Red meat consumption is increasing (D) Egg consumption is increasing

5. When selecting food females need to consider they require

(A) More calcium and energy than men (B) Less calcium and energy than men

(C) More calcium and less energy than men (D) Less calcium and more energy than men

6. Many vegetarians in India select not to eat meat because of their

(A) Geographic location (B) Values

(C) Peer group (D) Education level

7. Marketers of food realize that in Indian households the greatest influence on the selection of food
comes from the

(A) Main grocery buyer (B) Main income earner

(C) Main chef (D) Children

8. An example of a social function of food is

(A) Two teenage boys refusing to eat mum’s steak and kidney pie.

(B) Two teenage boys raiding the refrigerator after playing soccer in the backyard
 (C) A pregnant woman eating red meat for its iron content

(D) A pregnant woman meeting up with her prenatal class friends for coffee and cake,

9. Self-concept in food selection refers to the fact we

(A) Are influenced by others (B) Won’t eat standing up

(C) Are conscious of our weight (D) Select foods based on how we see ourselves

10. Appetite can be described as

(A) An unpleasant feeling that results when a person is deprived of food

(B) A pleasant feeling that results when a person’s hunger is satisfied

(C) The desire to eat food based on personal experiences

(D) Eating foods that give you the feeling of fullness

11. Consumers are now demanding to changes to food packaging materials because of their interest in

(A) Nutrition (B) The environment

(C) Saving money (D) Leisure activities

12. Potatoes have a higher satiety value if they are

(A) Fried (B) Baked

(C) Boiled (D) Roasted

13. A change in life style that has contributed to more convenience foods is

(A) Decrease in smoking (B) An increase in active sports participation

(C) Dual career families (D) Increase in part time and casual employment

14. Which of the following best describes a food allergy?

(A) An abnormal, unpleasant or adverse reaction to food by a non-allergy mechanism

of an unknown origin

(B) Any abnormal, unpleasant or adverse reaction to food

(C) An abnormal, unpleasant or adverse reaction to food involving the body’s immune

system

(D) All of the above

15. Food intolerance is best described as;

(A) Poor digestion

(B) Inability to complete digestion

(C) A buildup of chemicals from food due to incomplete digestion

(D) The absence of an enzyme in the intestine

16. Which of the following are three social factors affecting food selection?

(A) Festivals, friendship, occupation (B) Emotions, status, money

(C) Friendship, hospitality, celebrations (D) None of the above

17. Which of the following effects food selection the most?

(A) Peers, media, family (B) Peers, media, resources

(C) Media, marketing, family (D) Income, family and marketing

18. Shelf life if food refers to the expected time a food

(A) Will retain optimum colour, texture and nutritive value

(B) Resist microbial spoilage

(C) Can be stored at room temperature

(D) Remain fit to eat

19. A technological development that greatly influenced the storage of food at home was the

(A) Microwave (B) Refrigerator

(C) Ice box (D) Pantry

ANSWER KEY

1 D 2 B 3 A 4 A 5 C 6 B 7 A 8 D 9 D 10 C

11 D 12 A 13 C 14 D 15 D 16 B 17 D 18 D 19 B
 On-Farm Storage Structures

1. The volume of standard brick is

(A) 2.178 x 10-3 cu m (B) 2.378 x 10-3 cu m

(C) 2.578 x 10-3 cu m (D) 2.778 x 10-3 cu m

2. Floor area required per hundred adult hens is

(A) 7 - 17 sq.m. (B) 17 - 27 sq.m.

(C) 27 - 37 sq.m. (D) 37 - 42 sq.m.

3. In which region of country, kothar type storage structure are used

(A) Eastern (B) Western

(C) Northern (D) Southern

4. The average capacity of septic tank should not be less than

(A) 2.5 cu m (B) 2.1 cu m

(C) 2.03 cu m (D) 2.01 cu m

5. The Airy’s equation can be used to determine the lateral pressures exerted by grains in a

(A) Shallow bin only (B) Deep bin only

(C) Both type of bins (D) None of these

6. For seeds and beans the grade of concrete generally used is

(A) 1:2:4 (B) 1:3:6

(C) 1:4:8 (D) 1:5:10

7. The grain silos are used to store grain in

(A) Bulk (B) Bags

(C) Both bulk and bags (D) None of these

8. In deep litter poultry house, the floor area provided per bird is usually

(A) 0.1 m2 (B) 0.4 m2

(C) 1.0 m2 (D) 1.4 m2

9. From the management point of view, the farm should be located

(A) Near the centre of the farm (B) On one side of the farm

(C) Near well in the farm (D) None of the above

10. In the stall barn, the floor area (m2) required for per cow is

(A) 3.5 to 5.5 (B) 5.6 to 7.5

(C) 7.6 to 9.5 (D) 9.6 to 11.6

11. A water closet is usually made of

(A) Cement concrete (B) Porcelain

(C) Glazed berth ware (D) Stone ware

12. The strength of cement concrete depends on

(A) Quality of cement (B) Quality of sand

(C) Quality of aggregate (D) Water cement ratio

13. The seasoning of timber is done to

(A) Make it water proof (B) Increase its strength

 (C) Heat the timber (D) Expel moisture from timber

14. Slump test for concrete is carried out to determine

(A) Durability (B) Strength

(C) Water content (D) Workability

15. In which type of barn cows are housed and milked in same building

(A) Loose housing barn (B) Stanchion barn

(C) Open air barn (D) All of the above

16. Rat proof cones are provided in a grain storage structure at a height of

(A) 0.9 m (B) 1.2 m

(C) 1.5 m (D) 1.8 m

17. Janssen formula is used to measure lateral pressure in a

(A) Shallow bin (B) Deep bin

(C) Both the bins (D) None of these

18. In a godown, space for inspection and disinfection of stacks is provided, which is generally about

(A) 30% (B) 20%

(C) 5 % (D) 1%

19. What is average size of (m x m) of bull shed

(A) 5 x 10 (B) 15 x 10

(C) 10 x 10 (D) 15 x 15

20. Fire bricks are use

 (A) To reflect heat (B) Fire resistant

(C) For increasing heat flow (D) For decreasing heat flow

21. A 3-ply plywood may have a thickness of

(A) 3 - 6 mm (B) 6 - 10 mm

(C) 9 - 12 mm (D) 12 - 15 mm

22. When bitumen is graded as he figure 75 represents as

(A) Softening point inC (B) Power point inC

(C) Fire point C (D) Flash pointC

23. The average water requirements of cow is ------ liters per capita per day

(A) 150 (B) 200

(C) 300 (D) 400

24. The unit slug is used for expressing

(A) Pound force (B) Pound mass

(C) Gram mass (D) Gram

25. Generally cow should be fed silage at a rate of --------- % of the body weight per day

(A) 3 (B) 6

(C) 8 (D) 10

26. Stack to stack distance in 500 ton grain warehouse should be --------- m

(A) 0.8 (B) 1.2

 (C) 1.8 (D) 2.0

27. Wall to stack in 500 ton grain warehouse should be ------------ m

(A) 0.4 (B) 0.8

(C) 1.2 (D) 1.6

28. Thickness of walls of reinforced concrete water tank should not be less than --------

(A) 12 cm (B) 15 cm

(C) 18 cm (D) 21 cm

29. For designing manure pit, space requirement is calculated at ------ cu m per cow per day

(A) 0.024 (B) 0.042

(C) 0.061 (D) 0.082

30. A minimum thickness of silo wall is kept as ----------

(A) 5 cm (B) 7.5 cm

(C) 10.0 cm (D) 12.5 cm

31. The maximum ratio of height to diameter of a RCC silo is ------------

(A) tan (45 x ) (B) tan (90 x )

(C) tan (D) None of these

32. The minimum diameter of man hole opening is ---------- cm.

(A) 30 (B) 50
 (C) 70 (D) 90

33. Hardness limit for potable water ranges between ------------- ppm

(A) 30 to 45 (B) 45 to 75

(C) 75 to 115 (D) 115 to 135

34. Barbed fencing wire is made with ---------- gauge wire.

(A) 12 (B) 14

(C) 16 (D) 18

35. One cubic metres of silage weight ------------- kg

(A) 600 (B) 650

(C) 700 (D) 750
Answer Key

1 A 2 C 3 C 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 A 8 B 9 A 10 B

11 C 12 D 13 D 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 B 18 A 19 B 20 D

21 A 22 A 23 B 24 B 25 A 26 D 27 B 28 B 29 B 30 B

31 A 32 C 33 C 34 B 35 B
 Agricultural Wastes and By-Products Utilization
1. The gobar gas required to operate one HP engine per hour is -----------------

(A) 250 litres (B) 425 litres

(C) 325 litres (D) 500 litres

2. Gobar gas manure contains --------------- per cent of nitrogen

(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5

(C) 2.0 (D) 2.5

3. Bio gas contains mainly -------------------

(A) Methane (B) Ethylene

(C) Acetylene (D) CO

4. To feed even smallest size of biogas plant, the requirement of minimum number of cattle is ---------

(A) 2 - 4 (B) 4 - 6
(C) 6 - 8 (D) 8 - 10

5. Smallest size of economic gobar gas plant is -----------------

(A) 30 cu.ft. (B) 70 cu.ft.

(C) 120 cu.ft. (D) 150 cu.ft.

6. Heat value of biogas is about ------------------

(A) 4500 - 5000 kcal/kg (B) 5000 - 5500 kcal/kg

(C) 5500 - 6000 kcal/kg (D) 6000 - 6500 kcal/kg

7. Biogas can be used for

(A) Cooking (B) Lighting

(C) Running the engine (D) All of the above

8. The calorific value of cow dung cake is ----------------- kcal/kg

(A) 3300 (B) 4000

(C) 4300 (D) 4800

9. The thermal efficiency of traditional chulah is ---------- %

(A) 3 (B) 6
 (C) 9 (D) 12

10. The thermal efficiency of improved cook stove is in the range of ------------ %

(A) 5 - 10 (B) 10 - 15

(C) 10 - 15 (D) 15 - 20

11. Pure lime contains ----------------- % or more calcium oxide

(A) 75 (B) 85

(C) 90 (D) 95

12. Generally surki is mixed with ------------ for best results

(A) Cement (B) Sand

(C) While lime (D) None of these

13. Percentage of bran received from paddy is

(A) 2 (B) 5

C) 8 D) 10

14. Biomass energy can be converted into secondary energy form as

(A) Liquid fuel (B) Solid fuel

(C) Gaseous fuel (D) All the above

15. Biogas derived by anaerobic digestion of biomass contains ------ per cent methane.

(A) 50 (B) 55

(C) 60 (D) 65

16. Biomass is converted to gas through pyrolysis at temperature of ------ oC by heating in absence of
oxygen

(A) 100 – 400 (B) 500 - 900

(C) 1000 – 1400 (D) 1400 - 1800

17. 1000 kg of biomass Hill produce ------- m3 of biogas.

(A) 16 (B) 26
(C) 36 (D) 46

18. Ethylene blended with petrol to produce

 (A) Gasohol (B) Ethanol
(C) Methanol (D) None of these

19. Absolute alcohol without trace of water is known as

(A) Dehydrated alcohol (B) Dry alcohol

(C) Pure alcohol (D) Power alcohol

20. Particle board can be made from

(A) Coir pith (B) Paddy straw

(C) Bagasse (D) All the above

21. Modulus of rupture for particle board was determined using load cell capacity

(A) 250 kg (B) 500 kg

(C) 1000 kg (D) 1500 kg

22. Concentrated acid hydrolysis process yield -------- sugar yield than dilute acid hydrolysis process

(A) Higher (B) Lower

(C) Same (D) None of these

23. The factors affect yield of lignocelluloses to monomeric sugars is

(A) Properties of substrate

(B) Acidity of system

(C) Rate of decomposition

(D) All the above

24. Briquetting process with binder material requires ---------- pressure.

(A) High (B) Low

(C) Equal (D) None of these

25. ------------ is swelling of starch granule in presence of heat and water.

(A) Cooking (B) Puffing

(C) Gelatinization (D) Bulging

26. Hydrolysis of starch to glucose requires two types of -----------

(A) Yeast (B) Enzyme

(C) Catalyst (D) All the above
27. The step(s) involved in conversation of conversation of starch to dextrose is/are

(A) Gelatinization (B) Liquefaction

(C) Saccharification (D) All the above

28. The alpha-amylase is optimally active at pH

(A) 3.5 - 4.5 (B) 4.5 - 5.5

(C) 5.5 - 6.5 (D) 6.5 - 7.5

29. In activated carbon the basic requirement is

(A) Porous and more surface area (B) Compact and more surface area

(C) Compact and less surface area (D) Porous and less surface area

30. In production of ethanol from cassava saccharification is done at temperature

(A) 45 - 55oC (B) 55 - 65oC

(C) 65 - 75oC (D) 75 - 85oC

31. Briquetting -----ash content after combustion.

(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) Stabilizes (D) None of these

32. Tamarind Kernel Powder (TKP) contains ------------------ % of carbohydrates

(A) 50 - 55 (B) 55 - 60
(C) 60 - 65 (D) 65 - 70

33. ---------------- is a step used in sago industry to extract starch from cassava

(A) Pulping (B) Crushing

(C) Rasping (D) Mashing

34. Calorific value of paddy husk is approximately --------------- kcal/kg

(A) 3000 - 3500 (B) 4000 - 4500

(C) 4500 - 5000 (D) 5000 - 6000

35. Heat treatment given to inactivate enzyme in rice bran is called as

(A) Homogenization (B) Sterilization

(C) Stabilization (D) Blanching

36. Paddy husk can be used to produce --------------

(A) Activated carbon (B) Silicon tetra chloride

(C) Sodium silicate (D) All of the above

Answer Key - Agricultural Wastes and By-Products Utilization

1 B 2 C 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 B 7 D 8 C 9 B 10 B

11 D 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 D 20 D

21 B 22 A 23 D 24 B 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 A 29 A 30 B

31 B 32 D 33 C 34 A 35 C 36 D
 Instrumentation and process control

1. The error which is repetitive in nature is

(A) Environmental error (B) Observational error

(C) Random error (D) Systematic error

2. Zero error of a micrometer is

(A) Random error (B) Systematic error

(C) Environmental error (D) Observational error

3. Threshold of the instrument is defined as the

(A) Drift of the output of the instrument due to ageing of components

(B) Smallest measurable input signal which can be detected by the instrument

(C) Smallest input measurable change

(D) Ratio of the output of the instrument to the corresponding input signal

4. The smallest change in the value of input variable being measured, that will cause a change in the
output signal of the instrument is termed as

(A) Drift (B) Resolution

(C) Hysteresis (D) Threshold

5. Repeatability of the instrument with respect to a given fixed input is

(A) Sensitivity (B) Resolution

(C) Accuracy (D) Precision

6. The gradual departure of the instrument output caused by certain interfering input and component
instabilities is termed as

(A) Dead band (B) Threshold

(C) Hysterics (D) Drift

7. Error caused by the act of measurement on the physical system being tested is

(A) Random error (B) Loading error

(C) Hysteresis error (D) Systematic error

8. Maximum power is transmitted by an electrical transducer if the impedance of the external load

(A) Matches with the internal impedance of the transducer

(B) Increases from very low values to very high values

(C) Is very low

(D) Is very high

9. The gain adjustment of a simple linear instrument gets increased by a small fixed amount. Then,

(A) Both accuracy and precision decrease

(B) Accuracy decreases while precision is unaffected

(C) Precision decreases while accuracy remain unaffected

(D) Accuracy, precision and resolution of the instrument increase proportionally

10. Static sensitivity of the instrument is the

(A) Least reading of the scale/range of scale

(B) Least reading of the scale/unit measurable quantity

(C) Ratio of the change in output to the corresponding change in the input variable

(D) Range of the scale/least count of the scale

11. The desired input to the instrument may be constant or varying slowly with respect to time

(A) Static character (B) Dynamic character

(C) Static and dynamic characters (D) None of the above

12. The desired input is not constant but varies rapidly with time

(A) Static character (B) Dynamic character

(C) Static and dynamic characters (D) None of the above

13. Name the most sensitive type of sensing element for strain measurement

(A) Wire resistance strain gauge (B) Semiconductor strain gauge

(C) Potentiometric transducer (D) Extensometer

14. LVDT used for displacement measurement is

(A) An externally power operated transducer (B) A capacity transducer

(C) A self generating passive transducer (D) A digital transducer

15. The most common transducer for shock and vibration mearurement is

(A) Dial gauge (B) LVDT

(C) Ring type load cell (D) Piezoelectric pick up

16. LVDT works on the principle of

(A) Variable resistance (B) Variable mutual induction

(C) Variable self induction (D) Variable capacitance

17. Which material out of the following has got the property of generating wmf when subjected to
mechanical strain

(A) Piezo electric material (B) Thermosetting plastics

(C) Strain gauge material (D) Steel conductor

18. The calibration of strain gauge bridge circuit is carried out by

(A) Applying the known voltage across the dummy gauge

(B) Applying a known mechanical strain on the active gauge

(C) Shunting a known resistance across a dummy gauge

(D) Heating the active gauge to a known temperature

19. A solar cell is

(A) Photo-voltaic transducer (B) Photo-emissive transducer

(C) Photo-conductive transducer (D) Photo-resistance transducer

20. The abbreviation LVDT stands for

(A) Low voltage digital transducer

(B) Linear voltage differential transducer

(C) Least varying differential transformer

(D) Linear variable differential transformer

21. Name the instrument for angular measurement

(A) Shaft encoder (B) Strobometer

(C) Tachometer (D) LVDT

22. For which type of measurements a piezo electric transducer is suitable

 (A) High temperature (B) Low temperature

(C) Static pressure (D) Dynamic pressure

23. A thermostatic cut out works on the principle of

(A) Thermal expansion of fluids (B) Expansion due to air pressure

(C) Variation of resistance with temperature (D) Thermal expansion of metals

24. The basis for measuring the thermodynamic property, the temperature is given by

(A) Third law of thermodynamics (B) Second law of thermodynamics

(C) First law of thermodynamics (D) Zeroth law of thermodynamics

25. According to the Stefan Boltzman law, the amount of radiant energy per unit area is proportional
to

(A) Absolute temperature (B) Square of absolute temperature

(C) Fourth power of absolute temperature (D) Cube of absolute temperature

26. Bimetallic strips made of two different materials bent during a rise in temperature on account of

(A) Different in coefficient of linear expansion (B) Difference in elastic properties

(C) Difference in the thermal conductivities (D) None of the above

27. The principle of working of the constant volume thermometer is based on

(A) Boyles law (B) Charles law

(C) Gay-lussac law (D) Equation of state

28. The units of Stefan –Boltzmann constant as

(A) W/cm2-K (B) W/cm2-K4

(C) W/cm2-K2 (D) W/cm-K4

29. The Stefan Boltzman law is applicable for heat transfer by

(A) Conduction and radiation combined (B) Convection and radiation combined

(C) Radiation alone (D) Convection alone

30. Optical pyrometer is used to measure

(A) Light intensity (B) Low temperature

(C) High temperature (D) Light intensity and high temperature

31. At what temperature do the Fahrenheit and celcius scales coincide?

(A) 0 (B) 20

(C) 40 (D) -40

32. Boiling point of water which is used as one of the fixed point in the international practical
temperature scale in K is given by

(A) 100 (B) 212

(C) 273.15 (D) 373.15

33. The approximate range up to which ordinary mercury in glass thermometer can be used is

(A) 0 to 100oC (B) -20 to 340oC

(C) -50 to 560oC (D) -100 to 500oC

34. The primary transducer element in a pressure thermometer is

(A) Bourdon tube (B) Capillary tube

(C) Bulb (D) Bulb together with capillary tube and bourdon tube

35. A thermocouple arrangement is to be used to measure a high temperature of 1400 oC. Point out the
pair of thermocouple that would be most suitable for this application

(A) Chromel-constantan (Type E) (B) Iron-constantan (Type J)

(C) Copper-constantan (Type T) (D) Platnum-13% rhodium/platnum (Type R)

36. The instrument which measures the temperature of the source without direct contact is

(A) Bimetallic cut out (B) Vapor pressure thermometer

(C) Pyrometer (D) Thin film thermometer

37. The sensing element of the industrial pressure thermometer is usually made of

(A) Brass (B) Platinum

(C) Steel (D) Constantan

38. Which of the following thermocouples has the lowest measuring range

(A) Iron-constantan (B) Chromel-alumel

(C) Copper-constantan (D) Chromel-constantan

39. Which property of quartz crystal changes with the change in temperature?
 (A) Capacitance (B) Inductance

(C) Resistance (D) Resonant frequency

40. Which of the following temperature sensors has excellent linear characteristics?

(A) RTD (B) Thermocouple

(C) Radiation pyrometer (D) Silicon based IC chip

41. A meter suitable for flow totalisation is

(A) Turbine flow meter (B) Venturimeter

(C) Rotameter (D) Orifice plate

42. An electromagnetic flow meter must be

(A) Mounted vertically

(B) Mounted horizontally

(C) Rotated at constant speed to develop proper EMF

(D) Can be mounted in any position

43. A flow meter that is independent of fluid density is

(A) Rotameter (B) Electromagnetic flow meter

(C) Venturimeter (D) Orifice meter

44. Rotameter is a

(A) Drag for flow meter (B) Variable area flow meter

(C) Variable head flow meter (D) Rotating propeller type flow meter

45. Which of the following is a positive displacement device

(A) Rotameter (B) Sliding vane flow meter

(C) Turbine flow meter (D) Volumetric tank method

46. Which of the following are used for clean fluids only?

(A) Ultrasonic flow meter (B) Turbine flow meter

(C) Rotameter (D) None of the above

47. The tube of the rotameter

(A) Tapers upwards (B) Is of uniform cross section

 (C) Tapers downwards (D) Tapers in the horizontal direction

48. Which of the following flow meters is capable of giving the rate of flow as well as the totalisation
flow?

(A) Nutating disc flow meter (B) Electromagnetic flow meter

(C) Orifice meter (D) Lobbed impeller flow meter

49. A rotameter can be used

(A) Only in a vertical orientation (B) Only in horizontal orientation

(C) In any orientation (D) Only for air

50. The head loss of an orifice meter is

(A) Less than that of the venturimeter (B) Less than that of the nozzle flow meter

(C) Greater than that of the flow meter (D) None of the above

51. Electromagnetic flow meter are used to measure the

(A) Flow of non-conducting fluids

(B) Flow of non-conducting fluids in a metallic pipe

(C) Flow of conducting fluids in a plastic pipe

(D) Wind velocity

52. The discharge over a V-notch is proportional to

(A) H3/2 (B) H5/2

(C) H1/2 (D) H-3/2

53. Hot wire anemometer is a device used to measure

(A) Pressure in glass (B) Liquid discharge

(C) Gas velocities (D) Temperature

54. In which flow meter the pressure drop remain nearly constant but area changes?

(A) Pitot tube (B) Venturimeter

(C) Rotameter (D) Orifice meter

55. The transducer preferred to mearure highly fluctuating velocities is

(A) Hot wire anemometer (B) Electromagnetic flow meter

(C) Rotameter (D) Turbine flow meter

56. In an electromagnetic flow meter the induced voltage is proportional to

(A) Flow rate (B) Square root of flow rate

(C) Square of flow rate (D) Logarithm flow rate

57. Which flow meter is used for measuring the flow rate in an open channel?

(A) Orifice meter (B) Ultrasonic flow meter

(C) Weir (D) Rotameter

58. Natural error in measurement may be due to (NET, 2013)

(A) Humidity (B) Temperature

(C) Wind (D) Any of the above

59. If a measurement tape is too long as compared to standard, the error will be known as

(A) Instrumental error (B) Personal error

(C) Natural error (D) Manufacturing error

60. The amount of moisture in air is measured by

(A) Sling psychrometer (B) Orsat appratus

(C) Mass spectrometer (D) Photo conductive cell

61. Which of the following can be used as thermal detector?

(A) Thermister (B) Pyrometer

(C) Thermocouple (D) Any one of the above

62. Which of the following device can be used to give an indication for temperature change?

(NET, 2013)

(A) Bourdon tube (B) Thermister

(C) Thermocouple (D) Transistor

63. Thermocouple are generally used for temperature measurement up to

(A) 250oC (B) 500oC

 (C) 1000oC (D) 1600oC

64. The function of reference electrode in a pH meter is to (NET, 2013 & ARS, 2013)

(A) Measure average pH value (B) Produce a constant voltage

(C) Provide temperature compensation (D) Produce a constant current

65. A hydrometer can be used to measure

(A) Relative humidity of air (B) Conductivity of gases

(C) Temperature coefficient of liquids (D) Specific gravity of liquids

66. A pitot tube converts (NET, 2013)

(A) Pressure heat in to velocities head (B) Velocities head into pressure head

(C) Pressure head into temperature rise (D) Velocities head into temperature rise

67. A salinometer measures

(A) Temperature in cryogenic regions (B) Intensity of illumination

(C) Sound level (D) Density of brine

68. A LVDT has

(A) One primary coil and two secondary coils

(B) Two primary coil and one secondary coils

(C) One primary coil and one secondary coil

(D) Two primary coil and two secondary coil

69. A pirani gauge is used to measure (NET, 2013)

(A) Pressure above 100 kg/cm2 (B) Pressure upto 100 kg/cm2

(C) Atmospheric pressure (D) Very low pressure

70. Precision of an instrument is in fact dependent on the (NET, 2013)

(A) Accuracy (B) Error

(C) Repetability (D) Resolution

71. One torr is a pressure equivalent to (NET, 2013)

(A) 1 mm Hg (B) 10 mm Hg

(C) 780 Hg (D) None

72. Which strain gauge transducer are widely used for measurement of several physical variables like
strains, forces, torque, pressure, vibration etc. (NET, 2013)

(A) Unbounded strain gage (B) Bonded strain gage

(C) Resistance strain gage bridges (D) None

72. Which device is used for the measurement of both static and dynamic force?

(A) Static force (B) Dynamic force

(C) Frictional force (D) Gravitational force

73. Selective radiation pyrometer is a temperature measuring device works on the principle of (NET,
2013)

(A) Planks law (B) Newtons law

(C) Coulombs law (D) Kirchhoffs law

74. Electrical resistance of a thermister

(A) Increases as the temperature increases

(B) Decrease as temperature increases

(C) Remain unaffected with the change in temperature

(D) Increase at low temperature and decreases at high temperatures

75. The best use of iron constantan thermocouple is in the temperature range of (NET, 2013)

(A) 63 to 1473oK (B) 223 to 2033oK

(C) 3 to 673oK (D) 3 to 1273oK

76. The best use of resistance thermometer is in the range of (NET, 2013)

(A) Below 630oC (B) 0oC to 1400oC

(C) 630 to 1200oC (D) 100 to 400oC

77. The least count of any instrument is taken is taken as the

(A) Accuracy (B) Resolution

(C) Precision (D) Linearity

78. The smallest measurable input above the zero value is called
 (A) Linearity (B) Threshold

(C) Accuracy (D) Error

79. The largest change of the measurement to which the instrument does not respond is known as

(A) Drift (B) Dead band

(C) Backlash (D) Linearity

80. The maximum angle or distance through which any part of the mechanical system may be moved
in one direction without causing motion of next part

(A) Drift (B) Linearity

(C) Backlash (D) Dead band

81. A pirani gauge works on the principle of change of

(A) Thermal conductivity of medium (B) Electrical resistivity

(C) Conductance (D) Capacitance

82. Which of the following is an indirect method of pressure measurement?

(A) Bourdon gauge (B) Flat diaphragm

(C) Ionisation gauge (D) Radioactive vacuum gauge

83. Which of the following meter is preferably for the measurement of pressure in steam condenser?

(A) Manometer (B) Kentometer

(C) Pitot tube (D) Mcleod gauge

84. The advantage of piezo electric crystal transducer is

(A) High frequency response (B) Small size

(C) High output (D) All of the above

85. The error that always follows the same definite mathematical or physical law is known as

(A) Mathematical error (B) Systematic error

(C) Detectable error (D) Physical error

86. The elements that senses and convert the desired input to a more convenient and practicable form
to be handled by the measurement system
 (A) Transducer element (B) Data presentation element

(C) Auxiliary element (D) Signal conditioning system

87. That elements implies for living the information of the measured variable in the quantitative form

(A) Data presentation element (B) Signal conditioning element

(C) Transducer element (D) Auxiliary element

88. The activity in which increasing the amplitude of the signal without affecting its waveform is
called

(A) Amplification (B) Attenuation

(C) Data presentation (D) Signal filteration

Answer Key - Instrumentation and process control

1 D 2 B 3 B 4 B 5 D 6 D 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 C

11 A 12 B 13 B 14 A 15 D 16 B 17 A 18 B 19 A 20 D

21 A 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 C 26 A 27 A 28 B 29 C 30 C

31 D 32 D 33 B 34 D 35 D 36 C 37 C 38 C 39 D 40 D

41 A 42 D 43 B 44 B 45 B 46 B 47 C 48 D 49 A 50 C

51 C 52 B 53 C 54 C 55 A 56 A 57 C 58 D 59 A 60 A

61 D 62 C 63 D 64 B 65 D 66 B 67 D 68 C 69 D 70 C

71 A 72 B 73 A 74 B 75 A 76 A 77 B 78 B 79 B 80 C

81 A 82 C 83 B 84 D 85 B 86 A 87 A 88 A
 Food Standards
1. Food safety and standards authority of India was established in the year (NET & ARS, 2013)

(A) 1986 (B) 1996

(C) 2006 (D) 2012

2. ISO standards is (NET, 2013)

(A) Mandatory (B) Non mandatory

(C) Obligatory (D) Compulsory

3. ISO 9000 represents (ARS, 2013)

(A) Quality system (B) Safety system

(C) Quality & Safety (D) None of the above

4. ISO 22000 represents

(A) Quality system (B) Safety system

(C) Quality & Safety (D) None of the above

5. Consumer protection act was established in the year (NET, 2013)

(A) 1955 (B) 1976

(C) 1986 (D) 2006

6. Environmental protection act was established in the year (NET, 2013)

(A) 1955 (B) 1976

(C) 1986 (D) 2006

7. The insecticide act is regulated and governed by

(A) Department of consumer affairs

(B) Directorate of plant production

(C) Department of commerce

(D) Ministry of law, justice and company affairs

8. Export (quality control and inspection) act was framed by

 (A) Department of consumer affairs

(B) Directorate of plant production

(C) Department of commerce

(D) Ministry of law, justice and company affairs

9. Consumer protection act is enforced by the

(A) Department of consumer affairs

(B) Directorate of plant production

(C) Department of commerce

(D) Ministry of law, justice and company affairs

10. The edible oil packaging order is regulated by the

(A) Department of consumer affairs

(B) Directorate of plant production

(C) Department of commerce

(D) Department of sugar and edible oil

11. Meat product order was established in the year

(A) 1963 (B) 1973

(C) 1986 (D) 1996

12. Fruit product order

(A) 1936 (B) 1955

(C) 1965 (D) 1975

13. APEDA act was established in the year

(A) 1920 (B) 1945

(C) 1963 (D) 1980

14. The milk and milk product order

(A) 1986 (B) 1962

(C) 1992 (D) 2005

15. The preventions of food adulteration act

 (A) 1954 (B) 1975

(C) 1984 (D) 1986

16. Essential commodities act

(A) 1936 (B) 1955

(C) 1966 (D) 1986

17. Marine product export development authority

(A) 1942 (B) 1972

(C) 1962 (D) 1985

18. AGMARK act

(A) 1927 (B) 1937

(C) 1947 (D) 1957

19. Which of the following ministry involved for setting legislation in AGMARK act?

(A) Ministry of agriculture

(B) Ministry of rural development –Directorate of marketing and inspection

(C) Ministries of food processing industries

(D) Ministry of commerce

20. Which of the following ministry involved for setting legislation in insecticide act?

(A) Ministry of agriculture

(B) Ministry of rural development –Directorate of marketing and inspection

(C) Ministries of food processing industries

(D) Ministry of commerce

21. Which of the following ministry involved for setting legislation in prevention of food adulteration
act?

(A) Ministry of agriculture

(B) Ministry of rural development –Directorate of marketing and inspection

(C) Ministries of food processing industries

(D) Ministry of health and family welfare

22. Which of the following ministry involved for setting legislation in Fruits and vegetables product
order?

(A) Ministry of agriculture

(B) Ministry of rural development –Directorate of marketing and inspection

(C) Ministries of food processing industries

(D) Ministry of health and family welfare

23. Which of the following ministry involved for setting legislation in Food safety and standards act?

(A) Ministry of agriculture

(B) Ministry of rural development –Directorate of marketing and inspection

(C) Ministries of law and justice

(D) Ministry of health and family welfare

24. Which of the following ministry involved for setting legislation in Meat product order?

(A) Ministry of agriculture

(B) Ministry of rural development –Directorate of marketing and inspection

(C) Ministries of law and justice

(D) Ministry of health and family welfare

25. Which of the following ministry involved for setting legislation in standards of weights and
measure act?

(A) Ministry of agriculture

(B) Ministry of rural development –Directorate of marketing and inspection

(C) Ministries of Food and civil supplies & consumers affairs and public distribution

(D) Ministry of health and family welfare

26. Which of the following ministry involved for setting legislation in standards of aquaculture
authority notification?

(A) Ministry of agriculture

(B) Ministry of rural development –Directorate of marketing and inspection

(C) Ministries of environments and forests

(D) Ministry of health and family welfare

27. Atomic energy rules (control of irradiation of food) were established in the year?

(A) 1921 (B) 1941

(C) 1981 (D) 1991

28. Which of the following factor affect plant sanitation?

(A) Equipments (B) Conveyors

(C) Cans and other containers (D) All of the above

29. HACCP is a systematic approach to assure

(A) Food safety (B) Food quality

(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

30. Who is responsible for implementation of HACCP?

(A) Farmers (B) Processors

(C) Government (D) Both (B) and (C)

Answer Key - Food Standards

1 C 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 C 6 C 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 D

11 B 12 B 13 C 14 C 15 A 16 B 17 B 18 B 19 B 20 A

21 D 22 C 23 C 24 A 25 C 26 C 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 D

BASICS IN FOOD SCIENCE AND NUTRITION

1. Falling number test is used to measure ---------------
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
2. Enzyme complex in baker’s yeast is known as --------------
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
3. In dehydrated products --------- is capable of resisting drier condition than yeast and
bacteria
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
4. Redox potential measures the degree of -------------- of the fruit juice
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
5. In pasteurized juice heat resistant spores of genus ---------- and ---------- may occur
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
6. The covering medium used for canned fruits is ----------
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
7. The covering medium used for vegetables is -------------
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
8. Total meat production in India is ------------- tonnes
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
9. ------------ protein in egg act as an antibiotic
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
10. Emulsion temperature should not exceed ----------- ºC in the manufactures of sausages
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
11. Freeze dried meat products contain around ---------------- % moisture
 (A) (B)
(C) (D)
12. -------------- is a carcinogenic compound present in wood smoke
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
13. During enzymatic desugarization of liquid egg --------------- is converted into ---------
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
14. -------------- type of cans are used for non-acidic products like peas and corn
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
15. ------------ is an excellent fixing material used in clarification of fruit juice
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16. ----------- type of sugar forms syrup and jelly
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
17. Intermediate moisture foods are characterized by moisture content between ----------- %
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
18. Highly perishable fruits are pre cooled to -------------- ºC
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
19. --------------- is the enzyme in the blanching treatment
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
20. In jam preparation it is advisable to use glucose and sucrose in the ratio of -------------
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

21. Table butter contains minimum ----------- % fat

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
22. ------------- and ----------- neutralizers are used in high acid cream
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
23. --------------- and -------------- are used as bleaching agent and maturing agent respectively
in wheat flour
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
24. High amylose content varies of rice cook -----------
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
25. Rice bran contains about ------------ % fat
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
26. Maize consuming population suffers from --------------- disease
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
27. Rice is recommended as diet for the patient suffering from blood pressure because of its
low in
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

28. Hydrolysis of starch can be carried out by enzymes such as -------------

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

29. Almost all vitamins are present in eggs except --------------

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
30. Colour of meat is due to the pigment -------------
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
31. The name of the chemical used for preparing lye solution

(A) Calcium Chloride (B) Potassium hydroxide

 (C) Sodium hydroxide (D) Sodium chloride

32. Brewed vinegars are made from

(A) Fruits (B) Potato

(C) Honey (D) All the above

33. Jelly is prepared by using

(A) Pulp (B) Clear juice

(C) Pectin extract (D) All the above

34. The TSS content of jam according to FPO is

(A) 60ᵒ - 65ᵒB (B) 50ᵒ- 55ᵒB

(C) 66ᵒ - 67ᵒB (D) 68ᵒ- 70ᵒB

35. The preservative used in the preparation of grape squash is

(A) Potassium Meta Bisuphite (B) Sodium benzoate

(C) Calcium chloride (D) Citric acid

36. The FPO standard for acidity of squash is

(A) 1% (B) 0.5%

(C) 0.75% (D) 1.5%

37. TSS content of tomato puree is

(A) 8-10% (B) 9-12%

(C) 25-33% (D) 15-33%

38. The name of the product prepared from cabbage and salt is called as

(A) Brine cabbage (B) Sauerkraut

(C) Pickle (D) None

39. Removal of moisture by the application of artificial heat under controlled condition is called as

(A) Drying (B) Dehydration

(C) Desiccation (D) Freeze drying

40. The type of can is used for acidic foods

(A) SR cans (B) AR cans

(C) Tin containers (D) Glass containers

41. Nisin is an antibiotic produced by

(A) Streptococcus lactis (B) Staphylococcus

(C) Bacillus subtilis (D) Clostridium

42. The clarifying agent used for clarifying the fruit juice is

(A) Gelatin (B) Albumin

(C) Pectin (D) All the above

43. The percentage of salt that prevents microbial growth in the brine

(A) 1 -2% (B) 2-3%

(C) 15-20% (D) 10-15%
44. Black neck is due to iron present in
(A) Salt (B) Spices
(C) Machineries (D) all the above

45. Name of the wine produced from cashew apple

(A) Berry wine (B) Nira

(C) Feni (D) Cider

46. The emulsifier used in mayonnaise is

(A) Myoglobin (B) Cellulose

(C) Soya protein (D) Lecithin
47. Following food is a rich source of retinol
(A) Milk (B) carrot
(C) Spinach (D) Soyabean
48. Gluten Free Diet (GFD) is given to patients with
(A) Crohn’s disease (B) Celiac disease
(C) Irritable bowel disease (IBD) (D) Liver disease
49. Tube feeding is also known as
(A) Parental Nutriton (B) Enteral nutrition
(C) Total parental nutrition (D) Supplemental nutrition

50. The process of cutting materials by means of a high velocity jet of high temperature ionized gas

(Argon) is called
 (A) Laser cutting (B) Plasma cutting
(C) Water jet cutting (D) Die cutting
51. LEAF stands for
(A) Lasting ecologically approved fabrics
(B) Labelling ecologically approved fabrics
(C) Latest ecologically approved fashion
(D) Lean ecological apparel and fashion
52. When black colour is added to any colour it is called
(A) Chroma (B) Tint
(C) Shade (D) Colour value

53. Foods rich in carbohydrate and fats are called ---------- foods.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

54. Foods rich in ----------- are called body building foods.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

55. Foods rich in protein vitamins and minerals are called ___________ foods.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

56. The food guide pyramid is based on the principles of________, _______ and _________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

57. -------- is a method of cooking foods by just immersing then in water at 100º C.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

58. Simmering of food in a pan with a tight fitting lid using small quantities of liquid to cover

only half the food is known as -------------

(A) (B)
 (C) (D)

59. When steam under pressure is used the method is known as -------

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

60. --------------- is a method use to prepare cakes.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

61. When food is totally immersed in hot oil, it is called -------------

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

62. ------------- is a combined method of roasting and stewing in a pan with a tight fitting lid

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

63. ------------- is the outer layer of the kernel.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64. Cereals are deficient in amino acid ------------
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

65. Parboiling reduces the loss of vitamins ---------------

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

66. The process of removing bran and germ is called --------------

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

67. ------------ is a controlled germination process which activates the enzymes of the resting

grain.
 (A) (B)
(C) (D)

68. Pulses give ------------ calories per 100gms.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

69. Soybean contains about _________ percent protein.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

70. Pulse proteins are deficient in _______ amino acids.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

71. All pulses contain sufficient amount of _______which is deficient in cereals.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

72. Germination increases the vitamin _________ content of pulses.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73. ___________ is a process that involves the soaking of pulses overnight.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

74. Addition of cooking soda causes loss of _________in pulses.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

75. ___________ is prepared using defatted soya flour from which most of the oil and

carbohydrates is removed.

(A) (B)
 (C) (D)

76. Roots and tubers are rich in _______

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

77. __________ is the green pigment of leafy vegetables.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

78. _________ is the pigment present in carrot.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

79. The pigment present in tomato is _________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

80. _________ are a group of reddish water soluble pigments occurring in many fruits and

vegetables.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

81. Anthoxanthins are present in ___________ vegetables.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

82. The pigment present in beetroot _________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

83. The main protein present in milk is known as ______________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

84. ____________ is the sugar present in milk.

 (A) (B)
(C) (D)

85. The fat content of toned milk is _____________ percent.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

86. The process of breaking fat globules is known as __________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

87. The pH of milk is ________________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

88. The boiling point of milk is ___________ and its freezing point is ________________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

89. When fat is removed from whole milk, the resultant product is known as _____.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

90. ______________ is prepared by evaporating whole milk in an open cast iron pan.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

91. _____________ is obtained by melting butter.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

92. In the preparation of cheese, milk is curdled using ____________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
93. The protein content of meat varies from __________ to_______ percent.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

94. Liver is a rich source of vitamin ____________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

95. _________________ present in fishes helps to prevent degenerative diseases of the heart.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

96. The colour of good quality mutton is ______________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

97. Fresh eggs should __________ when immersed in water.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

98. Yolk should be in the ______________ when observed against light.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

99. Nuts are a rich source of ________ and _______

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

100. Groundnuts contain ________ gram of protein.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

101. The iron content of cashew nut is _________ gram

(A) (B)
 (C) (D)

102. The protein content of almond is _________gram.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

103. Groundnuts are exceptionally rich in vitamin ________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

104. Fats contribute _____________ kilocalories per 100 gm.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

105. In hydrogenation ___________ fatty acids are converted to____________ fatty acids by

the addition of hydrogen.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

106. Hydrogenated oil in India is known as ______________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

107. _____________ is a good substitute for butter.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

108. The development of disagreeable flavours and odours in fat is known as __________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

109. Fats with ____________ smoking point are suitable for frying.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

110. Sugar provides ________________ k cal / g.

 (A) (B)
(C) (D)

111 The iron content of jaggery is __________________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

112. ________________ confectionary cracks into pieces.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

113. Fudge is a ______________________ confectionary.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

114. Caramel is obtained when sugar is boiled to ________ºC.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

115. A hard ball is obtained at ______________ temperature.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

116. The calorific value of polyol is ________________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

117. ____________ is a synthetic derivative of aceto acetic acid and is used as a sweetener.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

118. To prepare good tea, _____________ teaspoonful of tea leaves for 1 cup is ideal.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

119. Coffee is classified as a ____________ beverage.

 (A) (B)
(C) (D)

120. The protein content of cocoa is _______________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

121. Fruit squashes are prepared by combining _______ and______.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

122. The mineral present in significant amounts in milk beverages is _______________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

123. Carbonated non-alcoholic beverages contain _______ percent of sugar.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

124. The expansion of ARF is _____________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

125. Nera is prepared from __________________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

126. Tender coconut water is a significant source of the mineral,___________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

127. The pH of sugarcane juice is ____________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
128. Jaggery, ginger and cardamom are used in preparing a traditional beverage
called______.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

129. In the preparation of alcoholic beverages _____________ is converted to ___________

by the fermentation of__________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

130. Beer is made by fermenting _____________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

131. The alcoholic distillate from a fermented mash of grain is____________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

132. Keeping out of microorganism is known as____________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

133. Low temperatures ________________the growth of microorganisms.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

134. High temperatures ________________ the growth of microorganisms.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

135. Artificial drying is known as _____________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

136. Jam is prepared using fruit ___________ while jelly is prepared using fruit __________.
 (A) (B)
(C) (D)
137. The preservation of fruits and vegetables using salt, vinegar, oil and spices is known as

_______________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

138 Fruit squashes contain _________% sugar and________% fruit juice.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

139. During the canning process, fruits and vegetables are blanched in order to ________ and

_________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

140. Adulterants that are added deliberately are known as________ adulterants.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

141. The adulterant found in ghee is ________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

142. Milk is usually adulterated with ___________ and_______

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

143. The word Agmark is derived from the words ________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

144. Foods modified through the transfer of genes are known as _________

(A) (B)
 (C) (D)

145. ________ and ________ are a subclass of terpenes

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

146. _______, _______, ______ Foods produced without the use of artificial fertilizers and

pesticides are known as__________ foods.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

147. A ___________ is any food that has a positive effect on a person’s health beyond the

benefit of nutrition.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

148. Good nutrition is required to maintain ______________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

149. ___________ is impairment of health resulting from deficiency, excess or imbalance of

nutrients.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

150. Diet survey is an ______________ of assessing the nutritional status of the community.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

151. Formation of glycogen from non carbohydrate sources is called __________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

152. Extra calories from glucose are deposited in the body as___________

(A) (B)
 (C) (D)

153. The starch splitting enzyme is __________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

154. Saliva contains the enzyme _________ which acts up on starch

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

155. The hormone __________ secreted by the cells of islets of langerhans helps in the

utilization of sugar by the tissues.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

156. Proteins are distinguished from Carbohydrate and fat by the presence of _______.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

157. Amino acid that cannot be synthesized in the body is called ________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

158. Histidine is a __________ amino acid.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

159. __________ protein is the reference protein.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

160. Amino acids are linked together by _________linkages.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

161. Deficiency of Protein is manifested as ________.

 (A) (B)
(C) (D)

162. Fats are digested in ___________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

163. The physiological fuel value of fat is ____________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

164. Macromolecular complexes of lipids with proteins are called__________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

165. _________ is also called the good cholesterol.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

166. Fats which form an integral part of food are called _________fat.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

167. One gram of fat when oxidized yields _________ Kcal.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

168. Cholesterol and phospholipids are transported via vehicles called ________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

169. The unit of energy is ____________.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

170. The energy value of foods is measured using a _______.

 (A) (B)
(C) (D)
171. 1 gm of carbohydrate yields ________ kcal.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

172. 1 gm of fat yields ___ kcal.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

173. Protein is not digested completely due to _________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

174. Fever _________BMR.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

175. A teacher is classified as doing ________activity.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

176. The rate of energy expenditure in terms of BMR units for moderate activity is___.

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

177. Administration of water or fluid orally to correct dehydration is called_________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

178. Water which is safe and wholesome is called___________ water

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

179. The normal intake of water amounts to _________

(A) (B)
 (C) (D)

180. The equilibrium between water intake and output is called _________

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

181. Starch is made up of ----------

(A) Amylose + Amylopectin (B)

(C) (D)

182. -------- vitamin is responsible for absorption of calcium in blood

(A) D (B)
(C) (D)

183. ------------ Vitamin is sensitive to heat

(A) C (B)
(C) (D)

184. ------------mineral occurs in the highest amounts in the body

(A) Calcium (B)

(C) (D)

185. Mineral, which is highly responsible for the formation of teeth and for the contraction of the

heart and muscle

(A) Calcium (B)

(C) (D)

186. Phosphorus mineral is present in -------------- % of the body weight

(A) 1 (B)
(C) (D)

187. Adult human body contains --------- gms of magnesium

(A) 25 (B)
(C) (D)
188. Normal human serum contains about ---------------- mg of magnesium per 100 ml

(A) 2-3 mg (B)

(C) (D)

189. In healthy individual blood contains approximately ----------- gm of haemoglobin per 100 ml.

(A) 14 (B)
(C) (D)

190. Iodine is a constituent of ----------------- hormone secreted by thyroid hormone

(A) Thyroxin (B)

(C) (D)

191. In an adult, ----------- gms of zinc is present

(A) 2 to 3 (B)
(C) (D)

192. The existence of more than one compound with the same molecular formula is called ---------

(A) Isomerism (B)

(C) (D)

193. An example for invert sugar is ----------

(A) Honey (B)

(C) (D)

194. Mixture of glucose and fructose is called -----------

(A) Invert sugar (B)

(C) (D)

195. Major storage carbohydrate present in plants is ------------

(A) Starch (B)

(C) (D)

196. Decomposition reactions by melting dry sugars to an extent by heating their syrups above 100 °C

is called ----------

(A) Caramelization (B)

 (C) (D)

197. Browning and roasted aroma during cooking, frying, baking or roasting is caused by the ----------

(A) Maillard Reaction (B)

(C) (D)

198. Fatty acids in foods and in the body contain ---------- number of carbon atoms

(A) 4- 24 (B)
(C) (D)

199. Oleic acid is an example of ------------

(A) Unsaturated Fatty Acid (B)

(C) (D)

200. Linoleic acid is an example of -----------

(A) Poly Unsaturated Fatty Acid (B)

(C) (D)

201. Fatty acids with more than 14 carbon atoms are --------------- and -----------------

(A) Flavourless, Odourless (B)

(C) (D)

202. Process of adding vitamins and nutrients to food and drinks is called -------------

(A) Food fortification (B)

(C) (D)
State true or false

1. Perishable foods have low moisture content.

2. Green leafy vegetables are rich in vitamins and minerals.
3. Beta- amylase produces maltose.
4. Farinograph measures water absorption.
5. Freshly milled flour produces better dough for bread making.
6. Ascorbic acid is oxidizing and reducing agent.
7. Air classifier work on electrostatic forces.
8. Paraboiled rice takes less time for cooking and grains are sticky.
9. Flour from germinated wheat contains more alpha- amylase.
10. Egg albumin is rich source of fat soluble vitamins.
11. Raw egg is more nutritious than hard cooked egg.
12. Salt is added first in the preparation of emulsified meat products among ingredients.
13. Myoglobin molecule has higher moleculare weight than haemoglobin molecule.
14. Presence of about one percent glucose in egg powder enhance its shelf life.
15. There is no relationship between the age of the animal at slaughter and the texture of
meat obtained.
16. Nitrite can be added in cured meat products upto two percent level.
17. Dried onion and chillies being hygroscopic in ature have lot of sulphur.
18. Zein is complete protein in maize.
19. Yoghurt contains low concentration of acetaldehyde.
20. Cottage cheese is off type of cheese.
21. Use of ionizing ration for preservation of met is not approved by FDA.
22. Fish spoils at faster rate than other meat.
23. Smoking improves the flavour of meat.
24. Phosphorous content in rice is high but is not available to human beings.
25. After the death of animals pH of the meat decreases.
26. Fruits containing salts generally deteriorate the quality of jelly.
27. Parboiling process protect the grain from rancidity.
28. Vinegar is nothing but 4% citric acid.
29. Mango stones are used for extraction of proteins.
30. Soft wheat is used for bread making.
31. Fatty fish have more calorific value than lean fish.
32. Due to the presence of casein, milk is adhesive in nature.
33. Human milk is sweeter than cow or buffalo milk.
34. Deshi eggs are superior to exotic eggs.
35. Porosity of the shell can be determined by candling.
36. Blast freezing is commonly followed for poultry freezing.
37. Co2 is commonly used in stunning of pork.
38. Higher the age of animal, superior is the quality of meat.
39. Blanching is generally not followed in vegetable.
40. Hand pounded rice is having antinutritional properties
41. High amylopectin varieties of rice are preferred in India.
42. Squash should contain more than 10% of fruit juice.
43. Wheat germ is good source of starch.
44. The vegetable have very high waste index as compared to fruits.
45. Durum wheat is used for preparation of cake.
46. Staling of bread is prevented by using bread improver.
47. Preservative action of sodium benzoate is reduced in presence of acidic medium.
48. Higher the pH of the produce more will be the cooking time required.
49. Higher degree of invert sugar in jam is preferred.
50. Ghee and butter oil mainly differ from each other on the basis of its fat content.
51. O.5% acidity and pH 3.2 is the optimum level for setting jelly.
52. Pickling is the result of fermentation of salmonella.
53. Pimaricin an antifungal antibiotic used for preserving fruit juices.
54. Sulphur dioxide is the preservative produced from sodium benzoate.
55. Sterilization at 149ᵒC for 1-2 secs does not yield products of highest quality.
56. Exhausting minimizes discolouration in canned food.
57. Bacterial spores grow or germinate below at pH 4.5 in canning.
58. Stack-burning can be avoided by rapid cooling of processed cans.
59. In pickling the softness and slipperiness is due to the use of weak brine.
60. Moulds and yeast become active in the presence of carbon dioxide.
61. Highly acidic medium enhances the growth of food spoilage organisms.
62. Wine made from pears is known as cider.
63. Freezing is the best way of preserving pure fruit juice.
64. The ketchup should be filled cold to prevent browning.
65. The minimum percent of total soluble solids in mango nectar is 30%