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Sat Practice Test 9 Answers Digital

The document provides answer explanations for questions from SAT Practice Test 9, focusing on reading and writing modules. Each question includes a correct answer choice along with detailed reasoning explaining why it is correct and why other choices are incorrect. The explanations aim to help students understand the reasoning behind the answers and improve their test-taking skills.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
226 views47 pages

Sat Practice Test 9 Answers Digital

The document provides answer explanations for questions from SAT Practice Test 9, focusing on reading and writing modules. Each question includes a correct answer choice along with detailed reasoning explaining why it is correct and why other choices are incorrect. The explanations aim to help students understand the reasoning behind the answers and improve their test-taking skills.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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The SAT

Practice
Test 9
#
ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

These answer explanations are for students taking the


digital SAT in nondigital format.

© 2025 College Board. College Board, SAT, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of College Board.
SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

Reading and Writing


Module 1
(33 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice A is the best answer because as used in the text, “arranged” most nearly
means “organized.” The text states that a welcome feature of Manchester’s art
galleries (as opposed to others) is that the titles of the paintings are easy to see
and that a catalogue is therefore unneeded while visitors browse the art galleries.
This suggests that the paintings are displayed in a systematic, or organized, way.

Choice B is incorrect. “Ranked” might mean either classified or placed in orderly


rows. Neither of these meanings would necessarily imply that the names of the
paintings are easy to see (even if the paintings are placed in rows, their labels
might be obscured). Choice C is incorrect because it would not make sense in
context to describe the paintings as “scheduled,” or planned to take place at a
certain time. Choice D is incorrect because if the paintings were “discussed,” or
talked about, this would have no bearing on whether the names of the paintings
could be easily seen.

QUESTION 2
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of the challenge of generating electricity from ocean waves. In this
context, “consistent” means steady or unchanging over time. The text introduces
a challenge and then explains that wave power varies, or changes, unpredictably
in ways that cause problems for electricity generation. This context conveys that
the challenge being described is a lack of consistency.

Choice A is incorrect because the text introduces a challenge and then elaborates
on it by emphasizing that the unpredictable nature of variations in ocean waves
causes problems, which doesn’t indicate that wave power isn’t “accidental,” or
isn’t happening unintentionally. It wouldn’t make sense to describe waves—a
natural occurrence—as happening intentionally. Choice B is incorrect because
“confident” means having a feeling of self-assurance, and it wouldn’t make sense
to describe wave power itself in terms of either having or lacking a sense of

2 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

confidence. Choice C is incorrect because the text introduces a challenge and


then elaborates on it by emphasizing that the unpredictable nature of variations in
ocean waves causes problems, which doesn’t indicate that wave power isn’t
“expensive,” or isn’t costly. If anything, technological and planning problems might
actually increase the expense of generating electricity from waves.

QUESTION 3
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of John Ashbery’s poems. As used in this context, “interpret” would
mean decipher the meaning of. The text indicates that Ashbery’s poems have
many unusual features, that it’s difficult to tell what exactly the poems’ subject
matter is, and that scholars strongly disagree about the poems. This context
conveys the idea that it’s difficult to interpret Ashbery’s poems.

Choice A is incorrect because “delegate” means to assign someone as a


representative of another person or to entrust something to someone else,
neither of which would make sense in context. The text is focused only on the
difficulty that readers have interpreting Ashbery’s poems due to their many
unusual features; it doesn’t suggest anything about the poems being difficult to
delegate. Choice B is incorrect because describing Ashbery’s poems as difficult
to “compose,” or put together or produce, would make sense only if the text were
about Ashbery’s experience of writing the poems. It could be true that it was
difficult for Ashbery to compose his poems, but the text doesn’t address this; it
instead discusses how readers interpret and engage with the poems. Choice D is
incorrect because describing Ashbery’s poems as being difficult to “renounce,” or
give up or refuse, wouldn’t make sense in context. The text focuses on the idea
that features of Ashbery’s poems are odd or unclear and have caused heated
scholarly debate. This context suggests that the poems are difficult to interpret,
not that the poems are difficult to renounce.

QUESTION 4
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the discussion
of the artist Diego Velázquez’s influence outside Spain. As used in this context,
“confined to” means restricted to. The text says that Velázquez was the leading
artist in the Spanish court during the seventeenth century, but it also notes that
other painters around the world were influenced by his techniques and style.
Thus, Velázquez’s influence was hardly (or almost not) confined to, or restricted to,
Spain.

Choice A is incorrect because if Velázquez was a leading artist in Spain, it doesn’t


make logical sense to claim that his influence was hardly (or almost not) derived
from, or obtained from, Spain. Moreover, the other painters around the world who
employed Velázquez’s techniques would by definition be influenced by Spanish
style. Choice B is incorrect because if Velázquez was a leading artist in the court
of King Philip IV of Spain, then his influence must have been widely recognized, or
acknowledged, rather than being hardly (or almost not) recognized. Choice D is
incorrect because the text gives no indication that deliberately limiting
Velázquez’s influence outside Spain was ever considered by anyone. Thus, even if
it is true that his influence was not repressed, or restrained, it doesn’t make logical
sense to say so in this context.

3 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

QUESTION 5
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the discussion
of Octavia Butler’s career. In this context, “impenetrable” means impossible to
enter. The text indicates that the field of science fiction was dominated by white
males when Butler, a Black woman, started writing, but she published several
science fiction short stories and a novel and later won a prestigious award; that is,
Butler pursued science fiction writing and had success. This context suggests
that Butler didn’t view the genre as impossible to enter.

Choice A is incorrect. In this context, “legitimate” would mean genuinely good or


valid. Nothing in the text suggests that Butler didn’t think the science fiction genre
was good or valid; in fact, it indicates that she pursued and made a successful
career of publishing work in that field. Choice C is incorrect. In this context,
“compelling” would mean attracting or demanding attention. The text indicates
that Butler chose to write science fiction, so it wouldn’t make sense to say that
she didn’t see the field as drawing her attention. Choice D is incorrect. To say that
Butler didn’t consider science fiction “indecipherable,” or impossible to
understand, would suggest that Butler did understand it. However, the text
doesn’t address Butler’s ability to interpret works in the genre; rather, it focuses
on Butler’s successful pursuit of writing science fiction.

QUESTION 6
Choice C is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the
underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The underlined sentence
establishes a difference between Uncle Katsuhisa and the narrator’s father by
describing Uncle Katsuhisa as “loud” and the narrator’s father as “quiet.” The text
then elaborates on that contrast, describing some ways Uncle Katsuhisa is very
noisy even when he isn’t speaking.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate what kinds of topics Uncle
Katsuhisa enjoys discussing, only that he is loud even when he isn’t speaking.
Choice B is incorrect because the text never indicates how Uncle Katsuhisa feels
about meeting new people, only how loud he is. Choice D is incorrect because the
text never describes a conversation occurring between any people; it refers to
talking only when stating that Uncle Katsuhisa is loud even when he isn’t speaking.

QUESTION 7
Choice A is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined
sentence functions in the text as a whole. According to the text, it was hard for
Yamauchi to adapt her short story into the play And the Soul Shall Dance because
the story had included little dialogue, instead describing the characters’ silent
thoughts. The underlined sentence offers information about how Yamauchi
ultimately succeeded in adapting the story into a play: it explains that Yamauchi
created situations where the characters of the play could reveal their internal
thoughts while speaking with each other.

Choice B is incorrect because neither the underlined sentence nor the text as a
whole makes any mention of playwrights other than Yamauchi or how the play

4 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

might have influenced them. Choice C is incorrect because the text states that
Yamauchi is best known for her play And the Soul Shall Dance, which conveys that
the play is better known than the short story it’s based on is. Choice D is incorrect
because neither the underlined sentence nor the text as a whole mentions the
actors who performed in the play or Yamauchi’s approach to choosing them.

QUESTION 8
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes the function of
the underlined portion in the text as a whole. The text establishes that many
countries have adopted risk-disclosure requirements for financial products due to
concerns that consumers don’t understand the risks associated with the
products. According to the text, Seira et al. found that the effects of such
messaging on consumer behavior were small and temporary. The text then adds
that the researchers assert that because the cost of the messaging is negligible,
the approach may be worth doing even if the effects are limited. Thus, the
underlined portion notes a factor—very low cost—that led the researchers to not
completely dismiss risk-disclosure messaging despite their evidence of its limited
utility.

Choice B is incorrect because the underlined portion doesn’t refer to a particular


type of risk-disclosure messaging, whether Seira et al. considered it or not; the
underlined portion simply indicates that the cost of the messaging (broadly) is
very low, which makes the approach worth pursuing even if its effects are limited.
Choice C is incorrect. Although the underlined portion does describe a
consideration that led the researchers to recommend risk-disclosure messaging
despite the messaging’s small effects on consumer behavior, it directly states
that the cost of such messaging is negligible, or very low—meaning that both the
effects and the costs are small, not that the effects are small only relative to the
costs. Choice D is incorrect because there’s no indication that Seira et al. suggest
that risk-disclosure messaging could be more effective if it had lower costs;
rather, the underlined portion indicates that Seira et al. believe the already
negligible cost of messaging makes the approach worth pursuing even if its
effects are limited.

QUESTION 9
Choice C is the best answer because, based on the information presented in the
texts, it represents how Focarelli and Panetta would most likely respond to Fan’s
findings. Text 1 indicates that Fan found that a newspaper merger would result in a
rise in subscription prices. This rise wouldn’t benefit customers, who would have
to pay more for news after a merger. Text 2 presents Focarelli and Panetta’s
argument that merger research tends to focus too much on what happens
immediately after the merger. Text 2 goes on to describe their finding that
mergers can be economically beneficial for consumers over the long term. This
suggests that Focarelli and Panetta would encourage Fan to investigate the
long-term effect of the hypothetical newspaper merger on subscription prices.

5 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

Choice A is incorrect because Text 2 doesn’t indicate that Focarelli and Panetta
connect the effects of mergers to specific locations. Instead, Focarelli and
Panetta focus on the length of time over which the effects of mergers should be
evaluated. Choice B is incorrect because Text 2 indicates that Focarelli and
Panetta found that merged companies experience “efficiency gains” over the long
term, meaning that their expenses go down relative to their output, not that their
expenses increase. Choice D is incorrect because there’s no indication in Text 2
that Focarelli and Panetta believe that the newspaper industry is different from
any other industry when it comes to the effects of mergers. Although their own
research was about consumer banking, Text 2 suggests that they view their
conclusions as applicable to mergers in general.

QUESTION 10
Choice A is the best answer because it presents an explanation that is directly
stated in the text for why ecologists are worried about Pando. The text states that
Pando is a colony of about 47,000 quaking aspen trees that represents one of the
largest organisms on Earth. According to the text, ecologists are worried that
Pando’s growth is declining, partly because animals are feeding on the trees. In
other words, the ecologists are worried that Pando isn’t growing at the same rate
it used to.

Choice B is incorrect. Rather than indicating that Pando isn’t producing young
trees anymore, the text reveals that Pando is indeed producing young trees,
stating that those trees can be protected from grazing deer by strong fences.
Choice C is incorrect because the text states that fences can be used to prevent
deer from eating Pando’s young trees, not that Pando itself can’t grow in new
areas because it’s blocked by fences. Choice D is incorrect because the text
offers no evidence that Pando’s root system is incapable of supporting new trees
or is otherwise a cause of worry for ecologists.

QUESTION 11
Choice D is the best answer because it accurately reflects the data in the table.
According to the table, the dolphin with ID FB43 has a recording year of 1992.

Choice A is incorrect. None of the dolphins in the table have a recording year of
1999. Choice B is incorrect. The table shows 2012 as the recording year for the
dolphin with ID FB07, not ID FB43. Choice C is incorrect. None of the dolphins in
the table have a recording year of 2020.

QUESTION 12
Choice C is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the table
to complete the statement about the forestry student’s project. The table shows
five types of maple trees, each tree’s maximum height, and whether each tree is
native to North America. The text indicates that the student needs to recommend
a maple tree that’s native to North America and won’t reach a height greater than
60 feet. The red maple is the only tree listed in the table that meets these criteria:
its maximum height is 60 feet—meaning that it won’t grow higher than 60 feet—
and it’s native to North America.

6 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

Choice A is incorrect because the text states that the student needs to
recommend a tree that’s native to North America and won’t grow higher than
60 feet, but the table shows that the maximum height of the silver maple is
70 feet. Choice B is incorrect because the text states that the student needs to
recommend a tree that’s native to North America and won’t grow higher than
60 feet, but the table shows that the maximum height of the sugar maple is
75 feet. Choice D is incorrect because the text states that the student needs to
recommend a tree that’s native to North America and won’t grow higher than
60 feet, but the table shows that the Norway maple isn’t native to North America.

QUESTION 13
Choice D is the best answer because it best describes data in the graph
supporting Ayalew and her colleagues’ hypothesis that plants’ response to
kanamycin exposure involves altering their uptake of metals. The graph compares
the metal content of two groups of plants, one with kanamycin exposure and a
control group without such exposure. The amount of zinc in plants without
kanamycin exposure is around 400 parts per million, while the amount of zinc in
plants with kanamycin exposure is lower, at around 300 parts per million. Similarly,
the amount of iron in plants without kanamycin exposure is a little over 600 parts
per million, while the amount of iron in plants with kanamycin exposure is lower, at
a little over 200 parts per million. Thus, the graph shows that plants with
kanamycin exposure have significantly lower levels of both iron and zinc than the
plants without kanamycin exposure. This is evidence supporting the hypothesis
that kanamycin exposure results in plants altering their uptake of metals.

Choice A is incorrect because the graph shows that control plants contained
higher levels of iron than zinc, not higher levels of zinc than iron; similarly, the
plants exposed to kanamycin contained higher levels of zinc than iron, not higher
levels of iron than zinc. Choice B is incorrect. Though the claim that both groups
of plants contained more than 200 parts per million of both iron and zinc is
supported by the graph, this alone does not state whether plants with kanamycin
exposure have a different metal content than plants without kanamycin exposure.
Choice C is incorrect. The graph shows that the zinc levels for the control plants
(those without kanamycin exposure) were around 400 parts per million, not
300 parts per million, and that the zinc levels for plants with kanamycin exposure
were around 300 parts per million, not 400 parts per million.

QUESTION 14
Choice C is the best answer because it describes data from the table that support
the researcher’s hypothesis. According to the text, the researcher hypothesized
that Arctic ground squirrels would exhibit longer torpor bouts and shorter arousal
episodes than Alaska marmots do—or, put the other way, that the marmots would
show shorter torpor bouts and longer arousal episodes than the ground squirrels
do. The table shows data about torpor bouts and arousal episodes for the two
species from 2008 to 2011. According to the table, the average duration of torpor
bouts was 13.81 days for Alaska marmots, shorter than the average of 16.77 days
for Arctic ground squirrels, and the average duration of arousal episodes was
21.2 hours for Alaska marmots, longer than the average of 14.2 hours for Arctic

7 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


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ground squirrels. Thus, the table supports the researcher’s hypothesis by


showing that Alaska marmots had shorter bouts of torpor and longer arousal
episodes than Arctic ground squirrels did.

Choice A is incorrect because it inaccurately describes data from the table and
doesn’t support the researcher’s hypothesis. The table shows that the average
duration of arousal episodes was less than a day for both Alaska marmots
(21.2 hours) and Arctic ground squirrels (14.2 hours). Additionally, information
about arousal episodes for Alaska marmots and Arctic ground squirrels isn’t
sufficient to support a hypothesis involving comparisons of both arousal
episodes and torpor bouts for those animals. Choice B is incorrect because it
doesn’t support the researcher’s hypothesis, which involves comparisons of
arousal episodes as well as torpor bouts for Alaska marmots and Arctic ground
squirrels. Noting that both animals had torpor bouts lasting several days, on
average, doesn’t address arousal episodes at all, nor does it reveal how the
animals’ torpor bouts compared. Choice D is incorrect because it doesn’t support
the researcher’s hypothesis. Although the table does show that Alaska marmots
had more torpor bouts (12) than arousal episodes (11) and that their arousal
episodes were much shorter than their torpor bouts (21.2 hours and 13.81 days,
respectively), comparing data across only Alaska marmot behaviors isn’t
sufficient to support a hypothesis about torpor and arousal behaviors of both
Alaska marmots and Arctic ground squirrels.

QUESTION 15
Choice A is the best answer because it most effectively uses data from the graph
to complete the student’s conclusion about beehive structure. The text explains
that in the hives of honeybees, the hexagonal cells housing drone eggs are larger
than the hexagonal cells housing worker eggs, and that this size difference results
in a construction problem that the bees address by using nonhexagonal cells to
fill gaps between sections of drone-egg cells and worker-egg cells. The text also
states that the size difference between drone-egg cells and worker-egg cells
varies by species of honeybee. The graph displays data on the percentage of
nonhexagonal cells in the hives of three species. In the hives of the western
honeybee, the percentages of five-sided, seven-sided, and eight-sided cells are
all less than 0.5%. But in the hives of the black dwarf honeybee, the percentages
of five-sided and seven-sided cells are higher than those for the western
honeybee: about 2.5% for both. And for the dwarf honeybee, the percentages of
five-sided and seven-sided cells are also higher than those for the western
honeybee: slightly over 2.5% and slightly over 2.0%, respectively; additionally, the
dwarf honeybee possesses a higher percentage of eight-sided cells than the
western honeybee does. Taken altogether, the graph shows that the hives of the
western honeybee consist of a smaller percentage of nonhexagonal cells than the
hives of the two other species do. Since the nonhexagonal cells exist only to solve
the construction problem arising from the difference in size between drone-egg
cells and worker-egg cells, a smaller percentage of nonhexagonal cells would be
associated with a smaller size difference between the two types of cells.
Therefore, it can be concluded from the data that worker-egg cells are probably
closer in size to drone-egg cells in the hives of the western honeybee than in the
hives of the other two species.

8 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

Choice B is incorrect because, as the text states, honeybee species deposit their
eggs in hexagonal cells, not in nonhexagonal ones. Thus, the western honeybee
and black dwarf honeybee wouldn’t deposit drone eggs in eight-sided cells, and
the dwarf honeybee wouldn’t deposit drone eggs in seven-sided cells. Choice C is
incorrect. The text explains that honeybees rely mainly on one geometric shape,
the hexagon, when constructing their hives, and the graph shows that the western
honeybee relies on the same nonhexagonal shapes as the dwarf honeybee does:
five-sided, seven-sided, and eight-sided cells. In other words, the western
honeybee and dwarf honeybee rely on the same number of geometric shapes.
For the black dwarf honeybee, the graph displays data only for five-sided and
seven-sided cells, which suggests a total absence of eight-sided cells. Yet this
would be only one less nonhexagonal shape than is seen in the western
honeybee. Thus, based on the graph, it would be inaccurate to say that the
western honeybee relies on “many more” geometrical shapes than the other two
species do. Choice D is incorrect. As the text explains, honeybee hives consist
mainly of hexagonal cells, and sections of nonhexagonal cells are used to connect
sections of hexagonal cells of different sizes. Since the graph indicates that the
percentage of nonhexagonal cells is lower for the western honeybee than it is for
the dwarf honeybee or black dwarf honeybee, the western honeybee would
conversely have a higher percentage of hexagonal cells than the either the dwarf
honeybee or black dwarf honeybee does, not a lower percentage.

QUESTION 16
Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would most
directly support Barboza and Trejos’s claim that rural female entrepreneurs who
have received small loans from ALSOL are strategic in selling their goods less
frequently than they could, even if it means missing payments. The text explains
that borrowers in the ALSOL program use proceeds from their businesses to
repay loans in equal weekly payments, with almost no penalty for missed
payments. According to the text, Barboza and Trejos found that rural borrowers
miss weekly payments in part because they don’t sell their goods as often as they
could, a move the researchers claim allows the entrepreneurs to help increase
profits for the goods they sell. Finding that the cost of bringing goods to towns
with marketplaces is high for rural entrepreneurs but is largely independent of
how many goods are brought would support the researchers’ claim: traveling to
marketplaces less frequently would mean that a rural entrepreneur spends less
on travel overall, and taking a large load of goods to a marketplace for essentially
the same cost as taking a small load would allow the entrepreneur to more
substantially offset the cost of travel with greater overall sales at the marketplace,
resulting in more profit per good sold—even if those profits are earned less
frequently and don’t support weekly loan payments.

Choice A is incorrect because the finding that many marketplaces require


entrepreneurs to pay the operators of the marketplace a fixed percentage of
proceeds to be able to sell goods there wouldn’t explain why rural entrepreneurs
strategically choose to sell their goods less frequently than they could in order to
increase their profits per unit sold. With a fixed percentage of proceeds due to
operators, the amount entrepreneurs have to pay operators would also be fixed

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regardless of frequency of selling. Choice B is incorrect because the finding that


rural entrepreneurs can usually sell their goods for higher prices in cities than in
their local areas but also face higher competition to sell goods in cities wouldn’t
explain why rural entrepreneurs strategically choose to sell their goods less
frequently than they could in order to increase their profits per unit sold. This is
because both the higher prices and higher competition in cities would be stable
factors—meaning there would be no clear reason for the rural entrepreneurs not
to take every available chance to sell their goods in cities and to instead sell their
goods in cities only sometimes. Choice C is incorrect because the finding that
rural entrepreneurs have lower costs and thus tend to require smaller initial loans
than urban entrepreneurs do has no bearing on rural borrowers strategically
choosing to sell their goods less frequently than they could specifically to
increase their profits per unit sold. The cost of producing goods doesn’t depend
on the frequency with which an entrepreneur sells those goods, so lower
frequency alone wouldn’t affect profits, and the initial loan amount is set and has
nothing to do with how much profit is earned from each sale.

QUESTION 17
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Anita Allen’s argument about judges citing philosophers in their
judicial opinions. The text indicates that judges sometimes cite philosophers
when writing their judicial opinions and that, according to Allen, judges tend to
cite philosophers whose views are in agreement with those of the judges
themselves. Allen claims, however, that the best judicial opinions consider
potential objections and rebut them, which suggests that judges may be able to
strengthen their opinions by including discussions of philosophers with views
contrary to their own.

Choice A is incorrect because Allen’s claim is that judges could improve their
judicial opinions by citing philosophers who disagree with the views expressed in
the opinions, which would necessarily require judges to consult philosophical
works. Choice C is incorrect because there’s no discussion in the text about
making judicial opinions more easily understood by any particular group of
readers. The focus of the text is on Allen’s claim that judicial opinions could be
strengthened by the inclusion of discussions of philosophers whose views
disagree with those of the judges authoring the opinions. Choice D is incorrect
because the text presents Allen’s argument that discussing philosophers whose
views judges disagree with could strengthen judicial opinions, not that doing so
could bring those opinions into line with views that are popular among
philosophers.

QUESTION 18
Choice A is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most
logically follows from the text’s discussion of military veterans working in civilian
government jobs in the United States. The text indicates that the proportion of
military veterans working in civilian government jobs is considerably higher than
the proportion of military veterans in the population as a whole. The text also
notes that the unusually high representation of military veterans in these jobs may

10 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 1

be a result of the organizational structures shared by civilian government entities


and the military. Hence, it’s reasonable to infer that it’s the familiarity of the
structures of civilian government that makes jobs there particularly attractive to
military veterans.

Choice B is incorrect because the text doesn’t address what a typical relationship
between military service and later career preferences would be, and there’s no
indication that it’s atypical for veterans to work in civilian government jobs after
they’ve left the military. On the contrary, the text suggests that many military
veterans are drawn to such jobs. Choice C is incorrect because the text is focused
on the high representation of military veterans in civilian government jobs and
doesn’t address nonveterans or their possible interest in military service.
Choice D is incorrect because the text conveys that military veterans may be
particularly interested in civilian government jobs due to the familiarity of
organizational structures that are already in place, but there’s no reason to think
that this interest would mean that more civilian government jobs will start to
require military experience.

QUESTION 19
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite verbs
in a relative clause. Relative clauses, such as the one beginning with “which,”
require a finite verb, a verb that can function as the main verb of a clause. This
choice correctly supplies the clause with the finite past tense verb “provided.”

Choice B is incorrect because the non-finite participle “having provided” doesn’t


supply the clause with a finite verb. Choice C is incorrect because the non-finite
to-infinitive “to provide” doesn’t supply the clause with a finite verb. Choice D is
incorrect because the non-finite participle “providing” doesn’t supply the clause
with a finite verb.

QUESTION 20
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject–verb
agreement. The singular verb “allows” agrees in number with the singular subject
“landing.”

Choice B is incorrect because the plural verb “are allowing” doesn’t agree in
number with the singular subject “landing.” Choice C is incorrect because the
plural verb “have allowed” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject
“landing.” Choice D is incorrect because the plural verb “allow” doesn’t agree in
number with the singular subject “landing.”

QUESTION 21
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is pronoun–antecedent
agreement. The plural pronoun “they” agrees in number with the plural antecedent
“woodcuts” and clearly identifies what was exhibited at the Smithsonian American
Art Museum.

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Choice A is incorrect because the singular pronoun “it” doesn’t agree in number
with the plural antecedent “woodcuts.” Choice C is incorrect because the singular
pronoun “this” doesn’t agree in number with the plural antecedent “woodcuts.”
Choice D is incorrect because the plural pronoun “some” is illogical in this context
(referring to “some” of two woodcuts).

QUESTION 22
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use
between a main clause and two supplementary elements. In this choice, the
commas after “nickname” and “however” are correctly used to separate the
supplementary adverb “however” from the main clause (“Scott-Heron…
nickname”) on one side and the supplementary participial phrase (“feeling…
bluesologist”) on the other.

Choice A is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the


supplementary adverb “however” and the supplementary phrase (“feeling…
bluesologist”). Choice B is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used in this
way to join the supplementary adverb “however” and the supplementary phrase
(“feeling…bluesologist”). Choice D is incorrect because a semicolon can’t be used
in this way to join the main clause (“Scott-Heron…nickname”) and the
supplementary word and phrase (“however” and “feeling…bluesologist”).
Moreover, placing the semicolon after “nickname” illogically signals that the
following information (Scott-Heron’s feeling that the nickname didn’t encapsulate
his devotion to the blues tradition) is contrary to the information in the previous
clause (Scott-Heron’s resistance to the nickname).

QUESTION 23
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
punctuation between titles and proper nouns. No punctuation is needed to offset
the proper noun “Yuree Lee” from the title “plant cell biologist” that describes Lee.

Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice B is incorrect


because no punctuation is needed. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation
is needed around the proper noun “Yuree Lee.” Setting the phrase off with
punctuation suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of
the sentence, which isn’t the case.

QUESTION 24
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation use
within a sentence. A colon can be used between two main clauses to signal that
what follows is an elaboration of what came before. In this choice, the colon
correctly introduces the following explanation of the divergent milk preservation
strategies that emerged.

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The main clause


(“As…emerged”) and the subordinate clause followed by another main clause
(“whereas…steppe”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction. Choice B
is incorrect. Without a comma preceding it, the conjunction “and” can’t be used in

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this way to join a main clause (“As…emerged”) and a subordinate clause followed
by another main clause (“whereas…steppe”). Choice D is incorrect because it
results in a comma splice. A comma can’t be used in this way to join a main clause
(“As…emerged”) and a subordinate clause followed by another main clause
(“whereas…steppe”).

QUESTION 25
Choice A is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms
within a sentence. The nonfinite present participle “suggesting” is correctly used
to form a restrictive participial phrase (“suggesting...Holocene”) within the main
clause (“This hypothesis...cannot stand...”). This participial phrase functions as
part of the sentence’s subject (“This...Holocene”), providing essential identifying
information about what the hypothesis states—namely, that certain trees
survived without interruption or human intervention throughout the Holocene.

Choice B is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite


verb “suggested” can’t be used in this way within the subject of the sentence.
Choice C is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite
verb “suggests” can’t be used in this way within the subject of the sentence.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in an ungrammatical sentence. The finite
verb “has suggested” can’t be used in this way within the subject of the sentence.

QUESTION 26
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is subject-verb
agreement. The singular verb “is” agrees in number with the singular subject “the
shape.”

Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “are” doesn’t agree in number with
the singular subject “the shape.” Choice C is incorrect because the plural verb
“were” doesn’t agree in number with the singular subject “the shape.” Choice D is
incorrect because the plural verb “have been” doesn’t agree in number with the
singular subject “the shape.”

QUESTION 27
Choice A is the best answer. “Meanwhile” logically signals that the action
described in this sentence (Obinze’s move to London to pursue a career) is
simultaneous with the action described in the previous sentence (Ifemelu’s move
to the United States). The first sentence establishes that the actions take place
around the same time, referring to the characters’ “divergent experiences”
following high school.

Choice B is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the


information in this sentence about Obinze’s move to London is true despite the
previous information about Ifemelu’s move to the United States. Instead, as the
first sentence establishes, Obinze’s move and Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel
experiences that occur around the same time. Choice C is incorrect because
“secondly” illogically signals that the information in this sentence is a second
point or reason separate from the previous information about Ifemelu’s move to

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the United States. Instead, as the first sentence establishes, Obinze’s move and
Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel experiences that occur around the same time.
Choice D is incorrect because “in fact” illogically signals that the information in
this sentence emphasizes, modifies, or contradicts the previous information
about Ifemelu’s move to the United States. Instead, as the first sentence
establishes, Obinze’s move and Ifemelu’s move are related, parallel experiences
that occur around the same time.

QUESTION 28
Choice B is the best answer. “Additionally” logically signals that the claim in this
sentence—that some Supreme Court justices worry that viewers (of televised
court arguments) would watch only short, misleading clips—adds to the
information in the previous sentence. Specifically, the previous sentence indicates
one concern raised by those opposed to televising the court’s oral arguments,
and the claim that follows indicates a second, additional concern.

Choice A is incorrect because “however” illogically signals that the claim in this
sentence contrasts with the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the
claim adds to the information, indicating a second, additional concern that some
Supreme Court justices have about televising the court’s arguments. Choice C is
incorrect because “in comparison” illogically signals that the claim in this
sentence is being compared to the information in the previous sentence. Instead,
the claim adds to the information, indicating a second, additional concern that
some Supreme Court justices have about televising the court’s arguments.
Choice D is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the claim in this
sentence exemplifies the information in the previous sentence. Instead, the claim
adds to the information, indicating a second, additional concern that some
Supreme Court justices have about televising the court’s arguments.

QUESTION 29
Choice D is the best answer. “Thus” logically signals that the claim in this
sentence—that animals performing only basic actions should allocate relatively
few resources to their brain tissue—is a consequence of the previous sentence’s
claim about the energy demands of animal brains (namely, that the more diverse
an animal’s behaviors, the more energy its brain needs).

Choice A is incorrect because “subsequently” illogically signals that the claim in


this sentence occurs later in a chronological sequence of events than the
previous sentence’s claim about the energy demands of animal brains. Instead,
the second claim is a consequence of the first. Choice B is incorrect because
“besides” illogically signals that the claim in this sentence provides a separate
point in addition to, or apart from, the previous sentence’s claim about the energy
demands of animal brains. Instead, the second claim is a consequence of the first.
Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that the claim in
this sentence is true in spite of the previous sentence’s claim about the energy
demands of animal brains. Instead, the second claim is a consequence of the first.

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QUESTION 30
Choice B is the best answer. “By contrast” logically signals that the information in
this sentence—that a firefly’s glow ceases when it stops drawing in oxygen—
contrasts with the previous sentence’s discussion of the processes that cause a
firefly to begin to glow.

Choice A is incorrect because “for instance” illogically signals that the information
in the sentence exemplifies the previous sentence’s discussion of how a firefly
begins to glow. Instead, it contrasts with the previous sentence’s discussion.
Choice C is incorrect because “specifically” illogically signals that the information
in the sentence provides specific details elaborating on the previous sentence’s
discussion of how a firefly begins to glow. Instead, it contrasts with the previous
sentence’s discussion. Choice D is incorrect because “in conclusion” illogically
signals that the information in the sentence sums up the previous sentence’s
discussion of how a firefly begins to glow. Instead, it contrasts with the previous
sentence’s discussion.

QUESTION 31
Choice B is the best answer. The sentence explains an advantage of microprobes,
noting that because microprobes weigh as little as 50 milligrams, they can explore
areas inaccessible to rovers.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence indicates that rovers can land successfully on
Mars despite their weight; it doesn’t explain an advantage of microprobes.
Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that microprobes have been
proposed as an alternative to rovers, it doesn’t explain an advantage of
microprobes. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes a similarity
between microprobes and rovers; it doesn’t explain an advantage of microprobes.

QUESTION 32
Choice A is the best answer. The sentence emphasizes the significance of
Ochoa’s discovery, noting that it proved critical to deciphering the human genetic
code, which resulted in a better understanding of how genetic variations affect
human health.

Choice B is incorrect. While the sentence explains what Ochoa discovered, it


doesn’t emphasize the significance of the discovery. Choice C is incorrect. While
the sentence explains what Ochoa discovered, it doesn’t emphasize the
significance of the discovery. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions
that Ochoa’s discovery was crucial, it emphasizes Ochoa’s incorrect hypothesis,
not the significance of the discovery.

QUESTION 33
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively introduces the poetry
collection Precario/Precarious, noting that it is a collection by Vicuña that was
published in 1983 by Tanam Press.

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Choice A is incorrect. While the sentence mentions the 1983 poetry collection
Precario/Precarious, it focuses mainly on Vicuña’s visual art. Choice B is incorrect.
The sentence doesn’t introduce the 1983 poetry collection Precario/Precarious;
instead, it introduces Vicuña. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the
location of Vicuña’s 1971 exhibition Pinturas, poemas y explicaciones; it doesn’t
introduce the 1983 poetry collection Precario/Precarious.

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Reading and Writing


Module 2
(33 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice B is the best answer because as used in the text, “completing” most
nearly means finishing. In the text, the narrator conveys that the task of translating
a novel has been an all-consuming one and that she hopes things will “be normal
again” once she has “sent off the manuscript.” In other words, the narrator is
looking forward to finishing her work on the manuscript and returning to other
things.

Choice A is incorrect because in this context, “completing” doesn’t mean


destroying, or ruining. The narrator addresses her desire to send off the
manuscript she’s focused on and her hope that things will be “normal again” once
she does, conveying that she is looking forward to finishing the work, not to
ruining it. Choice C is incorrect because in this context, “completing” doesn’t
mean advertising, or publicly promoting. The narrator addresses her complete
focus on the translation and her hope that things will be “normal again” once she
has “sent off the manuscript,” conveying that she is looking forward to finishing
the task, not to promoting the resulting manuscript. Choice D is incorrect because
in this context, “completing” doesn’t mean rejecting, or refusing or repelling. The
narrator makes it clear that she is absorbed in working on the translation and
plans to send off the manuscript, suggesting that instead of refusing to do the
work, she is continuing to do it (even if she looks forward to things being “normal
again” when she’s done).

QUESTION 2
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of how predators feed their young. As used in this context, “provide”
means supply or make something that’s needed available. The text indicates that
some predators supply prey for their young by either leaving dead prey nearby or
by bringing live prey to them. Other predators, the text states, feed their young
directly from their own mouths. This context supports the idea that predatory
animals have various ways to provide food for their young.

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Choice A is incorrect because in this context, “avoid” would mean keep away from
or refrain from, neither of which would make sense in context. Nothing in the text
suggests that predators refrain from food for their young. Choice B is incorrect
because in this context, “guess” would mean speculate or suppose, and it’s
unclear what it would mean for predators to speculate food for their young.
Choice D is incorrect because in this context, “describe” would mean explain, and
it’s unclear what it would mean for predators to explain food for their young.

QUESTION 3
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Cole’s book Blind Spot. In this context, “enthusiasm for” means
excitement about. The text explains that Blind Spot consists of original
photographs as well as poetic prose—two elements that correspond to Cole’s
passions, identified in the text, for photography and the written word. This context
suggests that Cole’s excitement about photography and writing led him to create
a book that successfully combines the two mediums.

Choice A is incorrect because describing Cole as feeling “indifference to” his two
passions wouldn’t make sense in context. If Cole is indifferent to his passions, that
would mean he doesn’t care about photography or writing—in which case they
wouldn’t be his passions at all. Choice C is incorrect because there’s nothing in
the text to suggest that Cole feels “concern about,” or uneasiness about, his
passions. The text’s use of the word “culminates” indicates that Blind Spot
represents a triumphant climax of Cole’s passions, not a work that results from his
sense of discomfort with photography and writing. Choice D is incorrect because
there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Cole feels “surprise at,” or astonished
by, his passions. The text indicates that Cole’s feeling about his passions
“culminates” in a book that “evocatively” combines photographs and writing,
suggesting that Cole has a long-standing and skillful relationship to his passions,
not that he is startled by them.

QUESTION 4
Choice B is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Marilyn Dingle’s baskets. In this context, to say that Dingle’s baskets
are “handmade from” particular plants means that Dingle creates baskets herself
using those plants but without using machines. The text says that Dingle “skillfully
winds” parts of palmetto palm plants around sweetgrass plants to make baskets
with an appearance that “no factory can reproduce.” This context suggests that
Dingle’s baskets are handmade from sweetgrass and palmetto palm.

Choice A is incorrect because the text describes how Dingle uses sweetgrass and
palmetto palm to create her baskets, not how her baskets are “indicated by,” or
signified by, sweetgrass and palmetto palm. Choice C is incorrect. Although
Dingle’s baskets are described as being made using sweetgrass and palm, there’s
nothing in the text to suggest that the baskets are “represented by,” or
exemplified or portrayed by, sweetgrass and palmetto palm. Instead, the focus of
the text is on Dingle’s use of sweetgrass and palmetto palm and the impossibility
of replicating the appearance of her baskets using machines. Choice D is

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incorrect because there’s nothing in the text to suggest that Dingle’s baskets are
“collected with,” or brought together in a group with, sweetgrass and palmetto
palm. Instead, the text describes how Dingle uses those plants to make her
baskets.

QUESTION 5
Choice C is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of Annie Dodge Wauneka’s work as a Navajo Nation legislator. As used
in this context, “persistent” means existing continuously. The text states that
Wauneka “continuously worked to promote public health,” traveling extensively
and authoring a medical dictionary; this indicates that Wauneka’s effort was
persistent.

Choice A is incorrect because describing Wauneka’s effort related to public


health as “impartial,” or not partial or biased and treating all things equally,
wouldn’t make sense in context. The text suggests that Wauneka’s continuous
work was partial in one way, as she focused specifically on promoting public
health throughout the Navajo homeland and to speakers of the Navajo language.
Choice B is incorrect because the text emphasizes that Wauneka’s effort to
promote public health as a Navajo Nation legislator was continuous and extensive,
involving wide travels and the authoring of a medical dictionary. Because this work
clearly involved care and dedication, it wouldn’t make sense to describe it as
“offhand,” or casual and informal. Choice D is incorrect because nothing in the
text suggests that Wauneka’s effort to promote public health was “mandatory,” or
required by law or rule, even though Wauneka was a Navajo Nation legislator.
Rather than suggesting that Wauneka’s effort was required for any reason, the
text emphasizes the continuous and extensive nature of her work.

QUESTION 6
Choice D is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the
underlined sentence functions in the text as a whole. The text begins by pointing
out one of the advantages of oral histories: that they allow researchers to
document the daily experiences of people. The text then goes on to describe how
Karida Brown utilized interviews with coal miners and their families for her book
about twentieth-century coal mining in Kentucky. The underlined sentence
affirms that the general advantages of oral histories mentioned earlier in the text
were also benefits in Brown’s particular case. Thus, the underlined sentence
describes how Karida Brown benefited from incorporating oral history in her book.

Choice A is incorrect because though the text mentions coal miners who live in
Kentucky, the underlined sentence does not offer a geographical fact about
Kentucky. Choice B is incorrect because the underlined sentence does not
mention United States politics or that Brown is an expert in this particular area.
Choice C is incorrect. Although the text mentions that Brown’s book revolved
around coal miners during the twentieth century, the underlined sentence does
not focus on a major historical event during this time.

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QUESTION 7
Choice D is the best answer because it accurately states the text’s main purpose.
The poem begins with the speaker urging a child to “go forth” with her
encouragement (“my heart’s desire”). The speaker goes on to suggest that new
experiences (“Great reaches, yet unknown”) lie ahead for the son that “life is
calling” him to seek out. Thus, the main purpose is to encourage a child to
embrace the experiences available to him in his life.

Choice A is incorrect because the speaker encourages the child to pursue new
experiences (“Great reaches”) without knowing exactly what those experiences
will be (“yet unknown”) or suggesting that they should match the speaker’s own
accomplishments. Choice B is incorrect because the speaker focuses on positive
possibilities for her son (“Great reaches, yet unknown”) and her enthusiastic
encouragement to embrace those possibilities (“life is calling you!”), while there is
no mention of raising a child or associated struggles. Choice C is incorrect
because the speaker frames the possibilities for her son in a positive light when
she says that “great reaches, yet unknown” are waiting for him, and this positive
outlook for the son is consistent throughout the text.

QUESTION 8
Choice D is the best answer because it best describes how the underlined
sentence functions in the text as a whole. The first sentence of the text
establishes that Lily can be “keenly sensitive to” scenes that serve as a “fitting
background” for her feelings—that is, she’s very aware of when a setting seems to
reflect her mood. The next sentence, which is underlined, then demonstrates this
awareness: Lily views the landscape she’s in as a large-scale reflection of her
current mood, identifying with elements such as its calmness. Thus, the function
of the underlined sentence is to illustrate an idea introduced in the previous
sentence.

Choice A is incorrect because the underlined sentence describes the scene only
in very general terms, referring to its calmness, breadth, and long stretches of
land. It’s the next sentence that adds specific details about colors, light, and
various trees nearby. Choice B is incorrect because nothing in the underlined
sentence suggests that Lily is experiencing an internal conflict. In fact, the
sentence indicates that Lily thinks the landscape reflects her own feeling of
calmness. Choice C is incorrect because the only assertion in the underlined
sentence is that Lily feels that broad aspects of the landscape, such as its
calmness, reflect her current mood, and that assertion isn’t expanded on in the
next sentence. Instead, the next sentence describes specific details of the scene
without connecting them to Lily’s feelings.

QUESTION 9
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately describes how the
underlined statement functions in the text as a whole. The underlined statement
mentions a category of animals that have a feature in common: they tend to have
fixed geographic ranges throughout their lifetimes. The text then presents the
speculation of some researchers that the Arctic woolly mammoth might also

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share this characteristic. However, an examination of the content of strontium in


the strata (or layers) of a woolly mammoth tusk indicated that contrary to the
researchers’ hypothesis, the mammoth had an expanding range in its environment
that contracted in its last 1.5 years of life. Thus, the underlined statement
discusses a characteristic shared by certain animals in order to explain why
researchers raised a possibility that turned out not to be supported by data
described later in the text.

Choice B is incorrect. Though the underlined statement presents a pattern of


behavior (the habit of certain animals of staying within a fixed geographic range),
the rest of the text does not present a theory of exceptions to that pattern; rather,
the researchers are merely concerned with whether one particular animal has
behavior consistent with the pattern. Choice C is incorrect. Though the underlined
statement does describe a similarity in the behavior of certain animals (their
tendency to stay within a fixed geographic range), this is not done in order to
show why a method described later in the text failed to show whether another
animal showed that behavior; rather, the method of analysis of strata of a woolly
mammoth tusk showed that the mammoth’s behavior was different from that of
the animals mentioned in the underlined statement. Choice D is incorrect. Though
the underlined statement mentions a trait shared by a number of animals (their
fixed geographic range), the rest of the text does not present a hypothesis
regarding the origin of that trait; rather, the researchers are concerned with
whether another particular animal shares that trait.

QUESTION 10
Choice A is the best answer because it presents information about Gloria
Richardson that is supported by the text. The text provides a number of details
about Gloria’s involvement in efforts to promote racial equality, including that she
was the leader of what became known as the Cambridge movement.

Choice B is incorrect because the text never indicates that Gloria Richardson led
her daughter Donna’s high school. The text says only that Gloria was inspired by
her daughter to become involved in efforts to promote racial equality. Choice C is
incorrect because the text doesn’t mention protests related to environmental
protections. Rather, the text discusses Gloria Richardson’s involvement in efforts
to promote racial equality. Choice D is incorrect because the text doesn’t indicate
that Gloria Richardson led a new business in Cambridge, Maryland. Rather, the
text states that she led what became known as the Cambridge movement.

QUESTION 11
Choice D is the best answer because it provides a detail about Elinor that is
established in the text. The text indicates that although Elinor is “only nineteen,”
she gives good advice and exhibits such a high level of understanding and
judgment that she serves as “the counsellor of her mother.” Thus, Elinor is mature
beyond her years.

Choice A is incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text: although the text says
that Elinor advises her mother and often counteracts her mother’s impulses,
there’s no mention of Elinor arguing with her mother or failing to change her

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mother’s mind. Choice B is incorrect because it isn’t supported by the text:


although the text mentions that Elinor has strong feelings, it doesn’t indicate that
she’s excessively sensitive when it comes to family issues. Choice C is incorrect
because it isn’t supported by the text: there’s no mention of what Elinor thinks
about her mother and no suggestion that she thinks her mother is a bad role
model. Because she’s described as having “an excellent heart,” Elinor likely
doesn’t think ill of her mother.

QUESTION 12
Choice A is the best answer because it most accurately states the main idea of
the text. The text describes the book Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a
Geechee Girl as Smart-Grosvenor’s “most influential project” and as “unusual for
its time.” The text also notes that the book and author have influenced
contemporary approaches to writing about food and cooking. Therefore, the text
mainly conveys that Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a Geechee Girl is an
unconventional and important contribution to food writing.

Choice B is incorrect. Although the text mentions that Smart-Grosvenor worked in


national public television and radio and was a food writer, these details aren’t the
main focus. Rather than focusing on Smart-Grosvenor’s various jobs, the text
focuses specifically on one specific book she wrote. Choice C is incorrect.
Although the text suggests that Vibration Cooking: or, the Travel Notes of a
Geechee Girl was groundbreaking, it doesn’t suggest that the book didn’t receive
praise when it was published. In fact, the text states that the book is “long
admired.” Choice D is incorrect because the text states that Smart-Grosvenor
was a culinary anthropologist and that her book influenced later approaches to
food writing but doesn’t indicate that Smart-Grosvenor or her book influenced
people to begin cooking for themselves.

QUESTION 13
Choice D is the best answer because it presents a statement about Mrs.
Ochiltree’s acquaintances that is supported by the text. The text indicates that
Mrs. Ochiltree makes comments about her acquaintances that are frank, or direct
and blunt, and sometimes startling. It also states that because of this behavior,
the acquaintances tend to avoid Mrs. Ochiltree. Together, these details suggest
that the acquaintances choose not to be around Mrs. Ochiltree because they are
offended by the things she has said about them.

Choice A is incorrect because the text doesn’t suggest that Mrs. Ochiltree’s
acquaintances avoid discussing topics that would upset Mrs. Ochiltree; instead, it
states that they avoid being around Mrs. Ochiltree at all. Choice B is incorrect
because the text makes it clear that Mrs. Ochiltree knows her acquaintances
often avoid her and is pleased about it (she “rather exulted in it”), not that she
wants to spend more time with them. Choice C is incorrect because the text
doesn’t suggest that Mrs. Ochiltree’s acquaintances don’t speak with Mrs.
Ochiltree because they are too focused on their own concerns, but rather
because they don’t like the frank comments she makes.

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QUESTION 14
Choice C is the best answer because it presents a quotation that illustrates the
claim that Mrs. Spring Fragrance demonstrates concern for what’s happening at
home while she’s in California. By giving reminders to “care for the cat, the birds,
and the flowers,” “not eat too quickly,” and avoid engaging in strenuous activity in
the heat, Mrs. Spring Fragrance shows that she’s thinking about what’s happening
at home and wants to ensure everything is taken care of.

Choice A is incorrect because the quotation, while it does suggest that Mrs.
Spring Fragrance has made fudge at home before, is focused on preparations for
an upcoming festival, not on concerns for anything happening at home while Mrs.
Spring Fragrance is away. Choice B is incorrect because the quotation has to do
with an upcoming event during Mrs. Spring Fragrance’s trip—visiting San José
and meeting someone new—rather than her concern for what’s happening at
home. Choice D is incorrect because the quotation is focused on how Mrs. Spring
Fragrance feels about her trip and the friends she’s seeing, not on her concern for
what’s happening at home.

QUESTION 15
Choice C is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would
weaken Foster’s hypothesis that damage to eelgrass roots improves the health of
eelgrass meadows by boosting genetic diversity. The text indicates that sea
otters damage eelgrass roots but that eelgrass meadows near Vancouver Island,
where there’s a large otter population, are comparatively healthy. When Foster
and her colleagues compared the Vancouver Island eelgrass meadows to those
that don’t have established otter populations, the researchers found that the
Vancouver Island meadows are more genetically diverse than the other meadows
are. This finding led Foster to hypothesize that damage to the eelgrass roots
encourages eelgrass reproduction, thereby improving genetic diversity and the
health of the meadows. If, however, other meadows not included in the study are
less healthy the larger the local otter population is and the longer the otters have
been in residence, that would suggest that damage to the eelgrass roots, which
would be expected to increase with the size and residential duration of the otter
population, isn’t leading meadows to be healthier. Such a finding would therefore
weaken Foster’s hypothesis.

Choice A is incorrect because finding that small, recently introduced otter


populations are near other eelgrass meadows in the study wouldn’t weaken
Foster’s hypothesis. If otter populations were small and only recently established,
they wouldn’t be expected to have caused much damage to eelgrass roots, so
even if those eelgrass meadows were less healthy than the Vancouver Island
meadows, that wouldn’t undermine Foster’s hypothesis. In fact, it would be
consistent with Foster’s hypothesis since it would suggest that the greater
damage caused by larger, more established otter populations is associated with
healthier meadows. Choice B is incorrect because the existence of areas with
otters but without eelgrass meadows wouldn’t reveal anything about whether the
damage that otters cause to eelgrass roots ultimately benefits eelgrass
meadows. Choice D is incorrect because the health of plants other than eelgrass
would have no bearing on Foster’s hypothesis that damage to eelgrass roots

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SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

leads to greater genetic diversity and meadow health. It would be possible for
otters to have a negative effect on other plants while nevertheless improving the
health of eelgrass meadows by damaging eelgrass roots.

QUESTION 16
Choice D is the best answer because it presents a finding that, if true, would
support Paredes’s argument about the origin of Mexican American folklore. The
text describes a disagreement among scholars about whether Mexican American
folklore mostly derived from the folklore of Spain (the view held by Espinosa and
others) or originated in Mexico and the United States through ongoing cultural
interactions there (the view held by Paredes and others). If Mexican American
folklore collected in the twentieth century mostly consists of ballads about
history and social life that originated recently, then that would support Paredes’s
argument by suggesting that the folklore mostly arose after Spanish rule ended in
the early nineteenth century and that the folklore reflects cultural interactions in
Mexico and the United States rather than traditions from Spain.

Choice A is incorrect because the inclusion of songs influenced by sixteenth-


century Spanish poetry among Mexican American folklore collected in the
twentieth century would not support Paredes’s view that the folklore was the
result of cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States rather than an
offshoot of Spanish folklore. If anything, the presence of such songs among the
folklore collected in the twentieth century would weaken Paredes’s argument,
since it would reflect the influence of Spanish culture on the folklore. Choice B is
incorrect because the mere presence of similarities in Mexican American folklore
across regions would not be sufficient to draw a conclusion about where the
folklore originated, let alone to support Paredes’s argument that the folklore
reflects various cultural interactions in Mexico and the United States. In fact,
Paredes would likely expect there to be regional variations in folklore as different
cultures have interacted in different places. Choice C is incorrect because
scholars’ previous ignorance of the folklore would have no bearing on Paredes’s
argument that Mexican American folklore mostly reflects cultural interactions in
Mexico and the United States; the folklore’s actual origins exist regardless of the
scholars’ awareness.

QUESTION 17
Choice B is the best answer because it presents the conclusion that most
logically follows from the text’s discussion of the study by Versace and
colleagues. The text indicates that newborn animals of some species are
attracted to faces and to stimuli that resemble faces. These species, the text
says, share two characteristics: they’re social and they practice parental care,
meaning that parents care for their young. The text goes on to describe Versace
and colleagues’ experiment, which showed that Testudo tortoises, which aren’t
social and don’t practice parental care, were attracted to a stimulus that
resembles a face. Since Versace and colleagues have shown that a species that
isn’t social and doesn’t practice parental care nevertheless has the innate
characteristic of being attracted to face-like stimuli, it follows that this
characteristic shouldn’t be assumed to be an adaptation related to social
interaction or parental care.

24 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect because the text indicates that the tortoise hatchlings,
which are solitary and don’t practice parental care, were attracted to the face-like
stimuli, not that they perceived the stimuli as threatening. Choice C is incorrect
because the phenomenon discussed in the text is an attraction to faces and
face-like stimuli on the part of newborn animals, which can’t show any learned
characteristics since they were just born. Additionally, the text tells us that the
tortoises Versace and colleagues studied aren’t social and don’t practice parental
care, so any findings about those tortoises wouldn’t be relevant to the question of
whether an attraction to faces in social species that practice parental care is
innate or learned. Choice D is incorrect because the text gives no indication that
adult tortoises were tested on face-like stimuli and, if adults were in fact tested, no
information about how they responded is provided. Since no information about
adult tortoises’ responses is provided, no conclusion comparing those responses
to the responses of newly hatched tortoises can be supported.

QUESTION 18
Choice D is the best answer because it most logically completes the text’s
discussion of aptamers’ capacity to test for pathogens in food. The text explains
that although synthetic aptamer molecules can be used to test for foodborne
bacterial pathogens because they bind to target molecules, it hasn’t been clear
how likely it is that they will indicate a negative result when a target pathogen is
absent in real-world foods. The text then indicates that Somvanshi et al. created
test paper that changes from pink to purple when aptamers in it bind to a
particular strain of E. coli bacteria, O157:H7, and tested it with store-bought pear
juice (that is, a real-world food); the paper changed to purple when exposed to
juice to which the target pathogen E. coli O157:H7 had been added, but it
remained pink when exposed to juice treated with other E. coli strains or other
bacteria species. Based on this result, it seems the aptamers in the paper
successfully bound to the target (O157:H7) and the tests had a high degree of
specificity (providing negative results for samples where the target was absent
even though other bacteria were present) when applied to a real-world food.

Choice A is incorrect because nothing in the text suggests that E. coli O157:H7
differs from other pathogens in a way that makes it more suitable for aptamer-
based testing of any kind and that specificity is likely to be lower when aptamer-
based tests target other bacteria; the text simply indicates that Somvanshi et al.
used O157:H7 as the target for aptamer-based test paper in their study and
suggests that the paper had a high degree of specificity. Choice B is incorrect
because the text indicates that the specificity of aptamer-based tests in real-
world foods is uncertain for pathogens broadly, not just for E. coli, and similarity
between strains (of E. coli or of other pathogens) isn’t mentioned. Moreover, the
results presented in the text suggest that aptamers are actually capable of
distinguishing between strains of E. coli, since Somvanshi et al.’s paper turned
purple when exposed to E. coli O157:H7 and remained pink when exposed to
other strains. Choice C is incorrect because the text suggests that the aptamers
in the test papers didn’t bind to different strains of E. coli. The text explains that
the test papers turn purple when the aptamers bind to the targeted pathogen and
that in the pear juice tests, the test papers turned purple when exposed to

25 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

samples with the targeted strain of E. coli (O157:H7) but remained pink when
exposed to samples with other strains of E. coli. In other words, the aptamers
bound only to the targeted strain, not to the other strains. Further, specificity
would be affected if the aptamers had bound to multiple strains and not just the
targeted one; that result would cause the specificity to be low.

QUESTION 19
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
possessive determiners. The plural possessive determiner “their” agrees in
number with the plural conjoined noun phrase “Watson and Crick” and thus
indicates that the findings were those of Watson and Crick.

Choice A is incorrect because “they’re” is the contraction for “they are,” not a
possessive determiner. Choice B is incorrect because “it’s” is the contraction for
“it is” or “it has,” not a possessive determiner. Choice D is incorrect because the
singular possessive determiner “its” doesn’t agree in number with the plural
conjoined noun phrase “Watson and Crick.”

QUESTION 20
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of finite and
nonfinite verb forms within a sentence. The nonfinite to-infinitive “to tell” is
correctly used to form a nonfinite (infinitive) clause that explains the reason Engle
uses poetry in her novel.

Choice A is incorrect because the finite present tense verb “tells” can’t be used in
this way to explain the reason that Engle uses poetry in her novel. Choice B is
incorrect because the finite past tense verb “told” can’t be used in this way to
explain the reason that Engle uses poetry in her novel. Choice C is incorrect
because the finite present progressive tense verb “is telling” can’t be used in this
way to explain the reason that Engle uses poetry in her novel.

QUESTION 21
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms
within a sentence. The plural verb “study” agrees in number with the plural subject
“many.”

Choice A is incorrect because the singular verb “is studying” doesn’t agree in
number with the plural subject “many.” Choice B is incorrect because the singular
verb “has studied” doesn’t agree in number with the plural subject “many.”
Choice D is incorrect because the singular verb “studies” doesn’t agree in number
with the plural subject “many.”

QUESTION 22
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is punctuation
between a subject and a verb. When, as in this case, a subject (“her 2019 novel
Gingerbread”) is immediately followed by a verb (“offers”), no punctuation is
needed.

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SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the subject and


the verb. Choice B is incorrect because no punctuation is needed between the
subject and the verb. Choice D is incorrect because no punctuation is needed
between the subject and the verb.

QUESTION 23
Choice B is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
punctuation within a sentence. This choice uses a semicolon in a conventional
way to join the first main clause (“Gitlin’s…content”) and the second main clause
beginning with a supplementary phrase (“in…audiences”). Further, placing a
comma after “era” separates the supplementary phrase “in that era” from the rest
of the main clause that follows (“even…audiences”).

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction


following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses. Further,
this choice fails to mark the boundary between the supplementary phrase “in that
era” and the rest of the main clause that follows (“even…audiences”). Choice C is
incorrect because it results in a run-on sentence. The two main clauses (“Gitlin’s…
content” and “in…audiences”) are fused without punctuation and/or a conjunction.
Choice D is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Without a conjunction
following it, a comma can’t be used in this way to join two main clauses.

QUESTION 24
Choice D is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
punctuation around noun phrases. No punctuation is needed because the noun
phrase “aluminum oxide” is a restrictive appositive, meaning that it provides
essential identifying information about the noun phrase before it, “the chemical
compound,” and thus doesn’t require punctuation around it.

Choice A is incorrect because no punctuation is needed. Choice B is incorrect


because no punctuation is needed. Choice C is incorrect because the noun
phrase “aluminum oxide” is a restrictive appositive. Setting the phrase off with
punctuation suggests that it could be removed without affecting the coherence of
the sentence, which isn’t the case.

QUESTION 25
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of verb forms
in a sentence. The nonfinite past participle phrase “highly prized” is correctly used
to form a supplementary element that modifies the main clause “this…artistry,”
describing memorable features of Brass Era automotive design.

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Using the finite present
tense verb phrase “are highly prized” creates a second main clause in the
sentence, and two main clauses can’t be joined in this way with only a comma
after “artistry.” Choice B is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Using
the finite past perfect tense verb phrase “had been highly prized” creates a
second main clause in the sentence, and two main clauses can’t be joined in this
way with only a comma after “artistry.” Choice D is incorrect because it results in a

27 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

comma splice. Using the finite past tense verb phrase “were highly prized” creates
a second main clause in the sentence, and two main clauses can’t be joined in this
way with only a comma after “artistry.”

QUESTION 26
Choice C is the best answer. The convention being tested is the use of
punctuation within a sentence. This choice correctly uses a comma to separate
the supplementary adverb “though” from the preceding main clause
(“Economists…conservation”) and uses a semicolon to join the next main clause
(“efficiency gains…rises”) to the rest of the sentence. Further, placing the
semicolon after “though” indicates that the information in the preceding main
clause (“improvements in efficiency often correlate negatively with resource
conservation”) is contrary to what might be assumed from the information in the
previous sentence (resource consumption would be expected to decrease with
the development of new, more efficient technologies).

Choice A is incorrect because it results in a comma splice. Commas can’t be used


in this way to punctuate a supplementary word or phrase between two main
clauses. Choice B is incorrect because it fails to mark the boundary between the
two main clauses (“Economists...though” and “efficiency gains…rises”) with
appropriate punctuation. Moreover, placing the semicolon after “conservation”
illogically indicates that the information in the next clause (gains in efficiency may
lead to an increase in resource consumption) is contrary to the information in the
previous clause (“improvements in efficiency often correlate negatively with
resource conservation”). Choice D is incorrect because placing a comma after
“conservation” illogically indicates that the information in the next clause (gains in
efficiency may lead to an increase in resource consumption) is contrary to the
information in the previous clause (“improvements in efficiency often correlate
negatively with resource conservation”).

QUESTION 27
Choice C is the best answer. “Similarly” logically signals that the activity
described in this sentence (Nancy Tuttle Craig distributing Votes for Women Tea in
her Los Angeles grocery stores) is like the activity described in the previous
sentence (the Woman’s Suffrage Party selling Equality Tea at fairs in San
Francisco). Together, the two examples support the preceding claim that “activists
across the state sold tea to promote the cause of suffrage.”

Choice A is incorrect because “for example” illogically signals that the activity
described in this sentence exemplifies the activity described in the previous
sentence. Instead, the two activities are similar, and both support the preceding
claim about selling tea to promote women’s right to vote. Choice B is incorrect
because “to conclude” illogically signals that the activity described in this
sentence concludes or summarizes the information in the previous sentences.
Instead, the activity is similar to the one described in the previous sentence, and
both support the preceding claim about selling tea to promote women’s right to
vote. Choice D is incorrect because “in other words” illogically signals that the
activity described in this sentence paraphrases the activity described in the
previous sentence. Instead, the two activities are similar, and both support the
preceding claim about selling tea to promote women’s right to vote.

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QUESTION 28
Choice A is the best answer. “Specifically” logically signals that the information in
this sentence—that the Sun releases charged particles that later collide with
atoms, resulting in auroral light—provides specific, precise details about how
auroras result from the Sun’s activity.

Choice B is incorrect because “similarly” illogically signals that the information in


this sentence is similar to the general information about auroras in the previous
sentence. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details about how
auroras form. Choice C is incorrect because “nevertheless” illogically signals that
the information in this sentence is despite the general information about auroras
in the previous sentence. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise details
about how auroras form. Choice D is incorrect because “hence” illogically signals
that the information in this sentence is a result of the general information about
auroras in the previous sentence. Instead, this sentence provides specific, precise
details about how auroras form.

QUESTION 29
Choice B is the best answer. The sentence compares the lengths of the two rail
tunnels, noting that the Channel Tunnel (about 31 miles long) is slightly shorter
than the Seikan Tunnel (roughly 33 miles long).

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence makes a generalization about the length of


some rail tunnels; it doesn’t compare the lengths of the two rail tunnels. Choice C
is incorrect. The sentence describes a single rail tunnel; it doesn’t compare the
lengths of the two rail tunnels. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions
the two rail tunnels, it doesn’t compare their lengths.

QUESTION 30
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence effectively emphasizes the fossil’s
significance, explaining that the fossil is rare and illustrates an early stage in the
evolution of pinnipeds from their land-dwelling ancestors.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes the fossil Rybczynski found; it


doesn’t emphasize the fossil’s significance. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence
mentions that a fossil resembling both pinnipeds and their ancestors was found; it
doesn’t emphasize the fossil’s significance. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence
notes a term used to describe the fossil Rybczynski found; it doesn’t emphasize
the fossil’s significance.

QUESTION 31
Choice D is the best answer. The sentence uses “whereas” to contrast the
emissivities of the two fibers, noting that the emissivity of the reflective metal
fibers was just 0.02, far lower than that of the silicon carbide fibers (0.74).

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence emphasizes the ability of reflective metal


fibers and silicon carbide fibers to emit heat; it doesn’t contrast the emissivities of
the two fibers. Choice B is incorrect. The sentence states a law of

29 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n READING AND WRITING: MODULE 2

thermodynamics: the amount of heat a material absorbs is equal to the amount it


emits. The sentence doesn’t contrast the emissivity of reflective metal fibers with
that of silicon carbide fibers. Choice C is incorrect. While the sentence includes a
generalization about the emissivities of reflective metal fibers and silicon carbide
fibers, it emphasizes Abebe’s plans for their use in a garment; it doesn’t contrast
the emissivities of the two fibers.

QUESTION 32
Choice C is the best answer. The sentence explains an advantage of the “Women
and the Vote” format, noting that the format appealed to audiences because it
allowed them to control the experience.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes a digital drawing on the “Women


and the Vote” website; it doesn’t explain an advantage of the play’s format.
Choice B is incorrect. The sentence explains how audiences interacted with the
“Women and the Vote” website; it doesn’t explain an advantage of the play’s
format. Choice D is incorrect. While the sentence mentions that “Women and the
Vote” had an interactive format, it doesn’t explain what advantage this format
might have.

QUESTION 33
Choice B is the best answer. The sentence presents both the study and its
methodology (that is, the researcher’s approach to the problem), explaining that
Yuan used computer simulations to study the effect of the mother duck’s wake on
the ducklings’ energy expenditure.

Choice A is incorrect. The sentence describes the findings of Yuan’s study; it


doesn’t present the study and its methodology. Choice C is incorrect. While the
sentence provides general information about Yuan’s study, it doesn’t present the
study’s methodology. Choice D is incorrect. The sentence describes the findings
of Yuan’s study; it doesn’t present the study and its methodology.

30 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

Math
Module 1
(27 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice B is correct. The perimeter of a triangle is the sum of the lengths of all
three of its sides. It’s given that the lengths of two sides of a triangle are
4 centimeters and 6 centimeters. Let x represent the length, in centimeters, of
the third side of this triangle. The sum of the lengths, in centimeters, of all three
sides of the triangle can be represented by the expression 4 + 6 + x . Since it’s
given that the perimeter of the triangle is 18 centimeters, it follows that
4 + 6 + x = 18, or 10 + x = 18. Subtracting 10 from both sides of this equation
yields x = 8. Therefore, the length, in centimeters, of the third side of this triangle
is 8.

Choice A is incorrect. If the length of the third side of this triangle were
2 centimeters, the perimeter, in centimeters, of the triangle would be 4 + 6 + 2, or
12, not 18. Choice C is incorrect. If the length of the third side of this triangle were
10 centimeters, the perimeter, in centimeters, of the triangle would be 4 + 6 + 10,
or 20, not 18. Choice D is incorrect. If the length of the third side of this triangle
were 24 centimeters, the perimeter, in centimeters, of the triangle would be
4 + 6 + 24, or 34, not 18.

QUESTION 2
Choice C is correct. It’s given that 16x + 30 = 190. Subtracting 30 from each side
of this equation yields 16x = 160. Therefore, the equation 16x = 160 is equivalent
to the given equation and has the same solution.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

31 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 3
Choice B is correct. It’s given that Ty plans to walk at an average speed of
4 kilometers per hour. The number of kilometers Ty will walk is determined by the
expression 4s, where s is the number of hours Ty walks. The given goal of at least
24 kilometers means that the inequality 4s $ 24 represents the situation.
Dividing both sides of this inequality by 4 gives s $ 6, which corresponds to a
minimum of 6 hours Ty must walk.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 4
Choice A is correct. It’s given that g ^xh= x 2 + 9. Substituting 25 for g ^xh in this
equation yields 25 = x 2 + 9. Subtracting 9 from both sides of this equation yields
16 = x 2 . Taking the square root of each side of this equation yields x =!4. It
follows that g ^xh= 25 when the value of x is 4 or -4. Only 4 is listed among the
choices.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 5
Choice A is correct. Since x is a factor of each term in the given expression, the
expression is equivalent to x ^9xh+ x ^5h, or x ^9x + 5h.

Choice B is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 45x 2 + 5x , not 9x 2 + 5x .


Choice C is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 9x 2 + 45x , not 9x 2 + 5x .
Choice D is incorrect. This expression is equivalent to 9x 3 + 5x 2 , not 9x 2 + 5x .

QUESTION 6
The correct answer is 9. The mean of a data set is the sum of the values in the
data set divided by the number of values in the data set. It follows that the mean
height, in centimeters, of these plants is the sum of the heights, in centimeters, of
each plant, 6 + 10 + 13 + 2 + 15 + 22 + 10 + 4 + 4 + 4, or 90, divided by the
number of plants in the data set, 10. Therefore, the mean height, in centimeters, of
these plants is 90
10
, or 9.

QUESTION 7
The correct answer is 224. It’s given that a student council group uses the
function p ^xh= 5x - 220 to determine their profit p ^xh, in dollars, for selling
x school posters. Substituting 900 for p ^xh in the given function yields
900 = 5x - 220. Adding 220 to each side of this equation yields 1,120 = 5x .
Dividing each side of this equation by 5 yields 224= x . Therefore, in order to earn
a profit of $900, they must sell 224 school posters.

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SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 8
Choice A is correct. Since Jay walks at a speed of 3 miles per hour for w hours,
Jay walks a total of 3w miles. Since Jay runs at a speed of 5 miles per hour for
r hours, Jay runs a total of 5r miles. Therefore, the total number of miles Jay
travels can be represented by 3w + 5r . Since the combined total number of miles
is 14, the equation 3w + 5r = 14 represents this situation.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect
and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from
conceptual errors.

QUESTION 9
Choice C is correct. It’s given that John made a $16 payment each month for
p months. The total amount of these payments can be represented by the
expression 16p. The down payment can be added to that amount to find the total
amount John paid, yielding the expression 16p + 37. It’s given that John paid a
total of $165. Therefore, the expression for the total amount John paid can be set
equal to that amount, yielding the equation 16p + 37 = 165.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 10
Choice B is correct. Adding 57 to each side of the given equation yields
y = px + 57. Therefore, the equation y = px + 57 correctly expresses y in terms
of p and x.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect
and may result from conceptual errors. Choice D is incorrect and may result from
conceptual errors.

QUESTION 11
Choice A is correct. Since it’s given that the account balance, A ^t h, in dollars,
after t years can be modeled by an exponential function, it follows that function A
can be written in the form A ^t h= Nr t , where N is the initial value of the function
and r is a constant related to the growth of the function. It’s given that the initial
balance of the account is $36,100.00, so it follows that the initial value of the
function, or N, must be 36,100.00. Substituting 36,100.00 for N in the equation
A ^t h= Nr t yields A ^t h= 36,100.00r t . It’s given that the account balance after
13 years, or when t = 13, is $68,071.93. It follows that A ^13h= 68,071.93,
or 36,100.00r 13 = 68,071.93. Dividing each side of the equation
36,100.00r 13 = 68,071.93 by 36,100.00 yields r 13 = 68 ,071.93
36,100.00
. Taking the

13th root of both sides of this equation yields r = 13 68,071.93


36,100.00
, or r is
approximately equal to 1.05. Substituting 1.05 for r in the equation
A ^t h= 36,100.00r t yields A ^t h= 36,100.00 ^1.05ht , so the equation
A ^t h= 36,100.00 ^1.05ht could define A.

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SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

Choice B is incorrect. Substituting 0 for t in this function indicates an initial


balance of $31,971.93, rather than $36,100.00. Choice C is incorrect. Substituting
0 for t in this function indicates an initial balance of $31,971.93, rather than
$36,100.00. Additionally, this function indicates the account balance is
decreasing, rather than increasing, over time. Choice D is incorrect. This function
indicates the account balance is decreasing, rather than increasing, over time.

QUESTION 12
Choice B is correct. Since PR and QS are diameters of the circle shown, OS ,
OR , OP , and OQ are radii of the circle and are therefore congruent. Since
+SOP and +ROQ are vertical angles, they are congruent. Therefore, arc PS and
arc QR are formed by congruent radii and have the same angle measure, so they
are congruent arcs. Similarly, +SOR and +POQ are vertical angles, so they are
congruent. Therefore, arc SR and arc PQ are formed by congruent radii and have
the same angle measure, so they are congruent arcs. Let x represent the length
of arc SR. Since arc SR and arc PQ are congruent arcs, the length of arc PQ can
also be represented by x. It’s given that the length of arc PS is twice the length of
arc PQ. Therefore, the length of arc PS can be represented by the expression 2x .
Since arc PS and arc QR are congruent arcs, the length of arc QR can also be
represented by 2x . This gives the expression x + x + 2x + 2x . Since it’s given that
the circumference is 144r, the expression x + x + 2x + 2x is equal to 144r. Thus
x + x + 2x + 2x = 144r , or 6x = 144r . Dividing both sides of this equation by 6
yields x = 24r . Therefore, the length of arc QR is 2 ^24rh, or 48r.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the length of arc PQ, not arc QR. Choice C is
incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is
incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 13
The correct answer is 40. It’s given in the first equation of the system that
y =-2x . Substituting -2x for y in the second equation of the system yields
3x + ^-2xh= 40. Combining like terms on the left-hand side of this equation
yields x = 40. Therefore, the value of x is 40.

QUESTION 14
The correct answer is 14. The maximum value is the largest value in the data set.
The frequency refers to the number of times a data value occurs. The given
frequency table shows that for this data set, the data value 6 occurs three times,
the data value 7 occurs three times, the data value 8 occurs eight times, the data
value 9 occurs eight times, the data value 10 occurs nine times, the data value 11
occurs eleven times, the data value 12 occurs nine times, the data value 13
occurs zero times, and the data value 14 occurs six times. Therefore, the
maximum data value in the data set is 14.

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QUESTION 15
Choice C is correct. The Pythagorean theorem states that for a right triangle, the
sum of the squares of the lengths of the two legs is equal to the square of the
length of the hypotenuse. It’s given that one leg of a right triangle has a length of
43.2 millimeters. It’s also given that the hypotenuse of the triangle has a length of
196.8 millimeters. Let b represent the length of the other leg of the triangle, in
millimeters. Therefore, by the Pythagorean theorem, 43.2 2 + b 2 = 196.8 2 , or
1,866.24 + b 2 = 38,730.24. Subtracting 1,866.24 from both sides of this equation
yields b 2 = 36,864. Taking the positive square root of both sides of this equation
yields b = 192. Therefore, the length of the other leg of the triangle, in millimeters,
is 192.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 16
Choice D is correct. It’s given that a wire with a length of 106 inches is cut into
two parts. It’s also given that one part has a length of x inches and the other part
has a length of y inches. This can be represented by the equation x + y = 106. It’s
also given that the value of x is 6 more than 4 times the value of y. This can be
represented by the equation x = 4y + 6. Substituting 4y + 6 for x in the equation
x + y = 106 yields 4y + 6 + y = 106, or 5y + 6 = 106. Subtracting 6 from each side
of this equation yields 5y = 100. Dividing each side of this equation by 5 yields
y = 20. Substituting 20 for y in the equation x = 4y + 6 yields x = 4 ^20h + 6, or
x = 86.

Choice A is incorrect. This value represents less than half of the total length of
106 inches; however, x represents the length of the longer part of the wire, since
it’s given that the value of x is 6 more than 4 times the value of y. Choice B is
incorrect. This value represents less than half of the total length of 106 inches;
however, x represents the length of the longer part of the wire, since it’s given
that the value of x is 6 more than 4 times the value of y. Choice C is incorrect.
This represents a part that is 6 more than the length of the other part, rather than
6 more than 4 times the length of the other part.

QUESTION 17
Choice B is correct. It’s given that f ^xh=^x + 6h^x + 5h^x - 4h and y = f ^xh- 3.
Substituting ^x + 6h^x + 5h^x - 4h for f ^xh in the equation y = f ^xh- 3 yields
y =^x + 6h^x + 5h^x - 4h- 3. Substituting -6 for x in this equation yields
y =^-6 + 6h^-6 + 5h^-6 - 4h- 3, or y =-3. Substituting -5 for x in the
equation y =^x + 6h^x + 5h^x - 4h- 3 yields y =^-5 + 6h^-5 + 5h^-5 - 4h- 3, or
y =-3. Substituting 4 for x in the equation y =^x + 6h^x + 5h^x - 4h- 3 yields
y =^4 + 6h^4 + 5h^4 - 4h- 3, or y =-3. Therefore, when x =-6 then y =-3,
when x =-5 then y =-3, and when x = 4 then y =-3. Thus, the table of values
in choice B represents y = f ^xh- 3.

35 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

Choice A is incorrect. This table represents y = x - 3 rather than y = f ^xh- 3.


Choice C is incorrect. This table represents y = x + 3 rather than y = f ^xh- 3.
Choice D is incorrect. This table represents y = f ^xh+ 3 rather than y = f ^xh- 3.

QUESTION 18
Choice D is correct. It’s given that a hose puts 88x ounces of water in a bucket in
5y minutes. Therefore, the rate at which the hose puts water in the bucket, in
x
ounces per minute, can be represented by the expression 88 5y
. Let w represent
the number of ounces of water the hose puts in the bucket in 9y minutes at this
rate. It follows that the rate at which the hose puts water in the bucket, in ounces
w x w
per minute, can be represented by the expression 9y
. The expressions 88
5y
and 9y
88x
represent the same rate, so it follows that 5y
= 9wy . Multiplying both sides of this
792xy x
equation by 9y yields 5y
= w , or 792
5
= w . Therefore, the number of ounces of
water the hose puts in the bucket in 9y minutes can be represented by the
792x
expression 5
.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 19
Choice D is correct. A system of two linear equations in two variables, x and y,
has no solution if the lines represented by the equations in the xy-plane are
distinct and parallel. The graphs of two lines in the xy-plane represented by
equations in the form Ax + By = C , where A, B, and C are constants, are parallel if
the coefficients for x and y in one equation are proportional to the
corresponding coefficients in the other equation. The first equation in the given
system can be written in the form Ax + By = C by subtracting 9y from both sides
of the equation to yield 4x - 18y = 5. The second equation in the given system
can be written in the form Ax + By = C by subtracting 4x from both sides of the
equation to yield -4x + hy = 2. The coefficient of x in this second equation, -4,
is -1 times the coefficient of x in the first equation, 4. For the lines to be parallel,
the coefficient of y in the second equation, h, must also be -1 times the
coefficient of y in the first equation, -18. Thus, h =-1 ^-18h, or h = 18.
Therefore, if the given system has no solution, the value of h is 18.

Choice A is incorrect. If the value of h is -9, then the given system would have
one solution, rather than no solution. Choice B is incorrect. If the value of h is 0,
then the given system would have one solution, rather than no solution. Choice C
is incorrect. If the value of h is 9, then the given system would have one solution,
rather than no solution.

QUESTION 20
p
The correct answer is 52. It’s given that 13 is p% of 25. It follows that 13
25
= 100 .
Multiplying both sides of this equation by 100 gives 52= p. Therefore, the value
of p is 52.

36 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 21
The correct answer is -3. Squaring both sides of the given equation yields
^x - 2h2 = 3x + 34, which can be rewritten as x 2 - 4x + 4 = 3x + 34. Subtracting 3x
and 34 from both sides of this equation yields x 2 - 7x - 30 = 0. This quadratic
equation can be rewritten as ^x - 10h^x + 3h= 0. According to the zero product
property, ^x - 10h^x + 3h equals zero when either x - 10 = 0 or x + 3 = 0. Solving
each of these equations for x yields x = 10 or x =-3. Therefore, the given
equation has two solutions, 10 and -3. Of these two solutions, -3 is the smallest
solution to the given equation.

QUESTION 22
Choice B is correct. It’s given that g ^xh= f ^x - 1h. Since f ^xh=^x + 6h^x + 5h^x + 1h,
it follows that f ^x - 1h=^x - 1 + 6h^x - 1 + 5h^x - 1 + 1h. Combining like terms
yields f ^x - 1h=^x + 5h^x + 4h^xh. Therefore, g ^xh= x ^x + 5h^x + 4h. The
x-intercepts of a graph in the xy-plane are the points where y = 0. The
x-coordinates of the x-intercepts of the graph of y = g ^xh in the xy-plane can be
found by solving the equation 0 = x ^x + 5h^x + 4h. Applying the zero product
property to this equation yields three equations: x = 0, x + 5 = 0, and x + 4 = 0.
Solving each of these equations for x yields x = 0, x =-5, and x =-4,
respectively. Therefore, the x-intercepts of the graph of y = g ^xh are ^0, 0h,
^-5, 0h, and ^-4, 0h. It follows that the values of a, b, and c are 0, -5, and -4.
Thus, the value of a + b + c is 0 + ^-5h + ^-4h, which is equal to -9.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of a + b + c if g ^xh= f ^x + 1h. Choice C is


incorrect. This is the value of a + b + c - 1 if g ^xh=^x - 6h^x - 5h^x - 1h. Choice D
is incorrect. This is the value of a + b + c if f ^xh=^x - 6h^x - 5h^x - 1h.

QUESTION 23
Choice D is correct. It’s given that for x > 0, f ^xh is equal to 201% of x. This is
equivalent to f ^xh= 201
100
x , or f ^xh= 2.01x , for x > 0. This function indicates that as
x increases, f ^xh also increases, which means f is an increasing function.
Furthermore, f ^xh increases at a constant rate of 2.01 for each increase of x by 1.
A function with a constant rate of change is linear. Thus, the function f can be
described as an increasing linear function.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors. Choice B is incorrect
and may result from conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect. This could describe
the function f ^xh=^2.01hx , where f ^xh is equal to 201% of f ^x - 1h, not x, for x > 0.

QUESTION 24
Choice A is correct. It’s given that g ^xh= f ^x + 5h. Since f ^xh= 4x 2 + 64x + 262, it
follows that f ^x + 5h= 4 ^x + 5h2 + 64 ^x + 5h + 262. Expanding the quantity ^x + 5h2
in this equation yields f ^x + 5h= 4 ^x 2 + 10x + 25h + 64 ^x + 5h + 262. Distributing
the 4 and the 64 yields f ^x + 5h= 4x 2 + 40x + 100 + 64x + 320 + 262. Combining
like terms yields f ^x + 5h= 4x 2 + 104x + 682. Therefore, g ^xh= 4x 2 + 104x + 682.
For a quadratic function defined by an equation of the form g ^xh= a ^x - hh2 + k ,
where a, h, and k are constants and a is positive, g ^xh reaches its minimum, k,

37 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

when the value of x is h. The equation g ^xh= 4x 2 + 104x + 682 can be


rewritten in this form by completing the square. This equation is equivalent to
g ^xh= 4 ^x 2 + 26xh + 682, or g ^xh= 4 ^x 2 + 26x + 169 - 169h + 682. This
equation can be rewritten as g ^xh= 4 ^^x + 13h2 - 169h + 682, or
g ^xh= 4 ^x + 13h2 - 4 ^169h + 682, which is equivalent to g ^xh= 4 ^x + 13h2 + 6.
This equation is in the form g ^xh= a ^x - hh2 + k , where a = 4, h =-13, and k = 6.
Therefore, g ^xh reaches its minimum when the value of x is -13.

Choice B is incorrect. This is the value of x for which f ^xh, rather than g ^xh,
reaches its minimum. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or
calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect. This is the value of x for which f ^x - 5h,
rather than f ^x + 5h, reaches its minimum.

QUESTION 25
Choice D is correct. It’s given that w represents the total fence area, in square
feet. Since the fence will be stained twice, the amount of stain, in gallons, will need
to cover 2w square feet. It’s also given that one gallon of stain will cover 170
square feet. Dividing the total area, in square feet, of the surface to be stained by
the number of square feet covered by one gallon of stain gives the number of
2w w
gallons of stain that will be needed. Dividing 2w by 170 yields 170 , or 85 .
Therefore, the equation that represents the total amount of stain S, in gallons,
w
needed to stain the fence of the yard twice is S = 85 .

Choice A is incorrect. This equation represents the total amount of stain, in


gallons, needed to stain the fence once, not twice. Choice B is incorrect and may
result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result
from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 26
Choice B is correct. It’s given that 483 out of 803 voters responded that they
would vote for Angel Cruz. Therefore, the proportion of voters from the poll who
responded they would vote for Angel Cruz is 483803
. It’s also given that there are a
total of 6,424 voters in the election. Therefore, the total number of people who
would be expected to vote for Angel Cruz is 6,424 b 483
803
l, or 3,864. Since 3,864 of
the 6,424 total voters would be expected to vote for Angel Cruz, it follows that
6,424 - 3,864, or 2,560 voters would be expected not to vote for Angel Cruz. The
difference in the number of votes for and against Angel Cruz is 3,864 - 2,560, or
1,304 votes. Therefore, if 6,424 people vote in the election, Angel Cruz would be
expected to win by 1,304 votes.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the difference in the number of voters from the poll
who responded that they would vote for and against Angel Cruz. Choice C is
incorrect. This is the total number of people who would be expected to vote for
Angel Cruz. Choice D is incorrect. This is the difference between the total number
of people who vote in the election and the number of voters from the poll.

38 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 1

QUESTION 27
The correct answer is 1,260. Since it’s given that prisms X and Y are similar, all the
linear measurements of prism Y are k times the respective linear measurements
of prism X, where k is a positive constant. Therefore, the surface area of prism Y
is k 2 times the surface area of prism X and the volume of prism Y is k 3 times the
volume of prism X. It’s given that the surface area of prism Y is 1,450 cm 2 , and the
surface area of prism X is 58 cm 2 , which implies that 1,450 = 58k 2 . Dividing both
sides of this equation by 58 yields 1,450
58
= k 2 , or k 2 = 25. Since k is a positive
constant, k = 5. It’s given that the volume of prism Y is 1,250 cm 3 . Therefore, the
volume of prism X is equal to 1,250
cm 3 , which is equivalent to 1,250
cm 3 , or
k3 53
10 cm 3 . Thus, the sum of the volumes, in cm 3 , of the two prisms is 1,250 + 10,
or 1,260.

39 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Math
Module 2
(27 questions)

QUESTION 1
Choice B is correct. Subtracting 7 from each side of the given equation yields
w = 350. Therefore, the value of w that is the solution to the given equation is
350.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of w that is the solution to the equation
7w = 357, not w + 7 = 357. Choice C is incorrect. This is the value of w that is the
solution to the equation w - 7 = 357, not w + 7 = 357. Choice D is incorrect and
may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 2
Choice B is correct. The expression 16 ^x + 15h can be rewritten as
16 ^xh + 16 ^15h, which is equivalent to 16x + 240.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 3
Choice D is correct. If a member of the organization is selected at random, the
probability that the selected member is at least 40 years old is equal to the
number of members who are at least 40 years old divided by the total number of
members. According to the table, there are a total of 135 members of the
organization, and 107 of these members are at least 40 years old. Therefore, the
probability that the selected member is at least 40 years old is 107
135
.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the probability that the selected member is less than
40 years old. Choice B is incorrect. This is the probability that the selected
member lives east of the river. Choice C is incorrect. This is the probability that
the selected member lives west of the river.

40 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 4
Choice B is correct. Adding the second equation in the given system to the first
equation in the given system yields 3x + ^-3x + y h= 12 + ^-6h, which is
equivalent to y = 6.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 5
Choice D is correct. The equation of a line in the xy-plane can be written as
y = mx + b, where m represents the slope of the line and ^0, bh represents the
y-intercept of the line. It’s given that the slope of the line is 19 . It follows that m = 19 .
It’s also given that the line passes through the point ^0, 14h. It follows that b = 14.
Substituting 1
9
for m and 14 for b in y = mx + b yields y = 19 x + 14. Thus, the
equation y = 9 x + 14 represents this line.
1

Choice A is incorrect. This equation represents a line with a slope of - 19 and a


y-intercept of ^0, - 14h. Choice B is incorrect. This equation represents a line with
a slope of - 19 and a y-intercept of ^0, 14h. Choice C is incorrect. This equation
represents a line with a slope of 1
9
and a y-intercept of ^0, - 14h.

QUESTION 6
The correct answer is 70. Based on the figure, the angle with measure 110° and
the angle vertical to the angle with measure x° are same side interior angles.
Since vertical angles are congruent, the angle vertical to the angle with measure
x° also has measure x°. It’s given that lines s and t are parallel. Therefore, same
side interior angles between lines s and t are supplementary. It follows that
x + 110 = 180. Subtracting 110 from both sides of this equation yields x = 70.

QUESTION 7
The correct answer is 1. It’s given that the function f is defined by f ^xh= x + 11
8
.

Substituting 3
11
for x in the given function yields f b 11
3
l= 11 + 11 , which gives
3 8

f b 11 l= 11 , or f b 11 l= 1. Therefore, when x = 11 , the value of f ^xh is 1.


3 11 3 3

QUESTION 8
Choice D is correct. A linear relationship can be represented by an equation of the
form y = mx + b, where m and b are constants. It’s given in the table that when
x = 0, y = 18. Substituting 0 for x and 18 for y in y = mx + b yields
18 = m ^0h + b, or 18= b. Substituting 18 for b in the equation y = mx + b yields
y = mx + 18. It’s also given in the table that when x = 1, y = 13. Substituting 1 for
x and 13 for y in the equation y = mx + 18 yields 13 = m ^1h + 18, or 13 = m + 18.
Subtracting 18 from both sides of this equation yields -5 = m. Therefore, the
equation y =-5x + 18 represents the relationship between x and y.

41 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 9
Choice A is correct. The solution to a system of equations is the ordered pair
^x, y h that satisfies all equations in the system. It’s given by the first equation in
the system that x + 7 = 10. Substituting 10 for x + 7 into the second equation
yields 10 2 = y , or y = 100. The x-coordinate of the solution to the system of
equations can be found by subtracting 7 from both sides of the equation
x + 7 = 10, which yields x = 3. Therefore, the ordered pair ^3, 100h is a solution to
the given system of equations.

Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 10
Choice D is correct. The given function f is a linear function. Therefore, the graph
of y = f ^xh in the xy-plane has one x-intercept at the point ^k, 0h, where k is a
constant. Substituting 0 for f ^xh and k for x in the given function yields
0 = 7k - 84. Adding 84 to both sides of this equation yields 84 = 7k . Dividing
both sides of this equation by 7 yields 12= k . Therefore, the x-intercept of the
graph of y = f ^xh in the xy-plane is ^12, 0h.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 11
Choice C is correct. It’s given that the relationship between t and n is
exponential. The table shows that the value of n increases as the value of t
increases. Therefore, the relationship between t and n can be represented by an
increasing exponential equation of the form n = a ^1 + bht , where a and b are
positive constants. The table shows that when t = 0, n = 604. Substituting 0 for t
and 604 for n in the equation n = a ^1 + bht yields 604 = a ^1 + bh0 , which is
equivalent to 604 = a ^1h, or 604= a. Substituting 604 for a in the equation
n = a ^1 + bht yields n = 604 ^1 + bht . The table also shows that when t = 1,
n = 606.42. Substituting 1 for t and 606.42 for n in the equation n = 604 ^1 + bht
yields 606.42 = 604 ^1 + bh1 , or 606.42 = 604 ^1 + bh. Dividing both sides of this
equation by 604 yields approximately 1.004 = 1 + b. Subtracting 1 from both
sides of this equation yields that the value of b is approximately 0.004.
Substituting 0.004 for b in the equation n = 604 ^1 + bht yields
n = 604 ^1 + 0.004ht . Therefore, of the choices, choice C best represents the
relationship between t and n.

42 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 12
Choice D is correct. It’s given that the function w models the volume of liquid, in
milliliters, in a container t seconds after it begins draining from a hole at the
bottom. The given function w ^t h= 300 - 4t can be rewritten as w ^t h=-4t + 300.
Thus, for each increase of t by 1, the value of w ^t h decreases by 4 ^1h, or 4.
Therefore, the predicted volume, in milliliters, draining from the container each
second is 4 milliliters.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the amount of liquid, in milliliters, in the container


before the liquid begins draining. Choice B is incorrect and may result from
conceptual errors. Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual errors.

QUESTION 13
The correct answer is 45. It’s given that h ^0h= 45. Therefore, for the given
function h, when x = 0, h ^xh= 45. Substituting 0 for x and 45 for h ^xh in the
given function, h ^xh= x + b, yields 45 = 0 + b, or 45= b. Therefore, the value of b
is 45.

QUESTION 14
The correct answer is either 2 or -12. The left-hand side of the given equation
can be rewritten by factoring. The two values that multiply to -24 and add to 10
are 12 and -2. It follows that the given equation can be rewritten as
^z + 12h^z - 2h= 0. Setting each factor equal to 0 yields two equations: z + 12 = 0
and z - 2 = 0. Subtracting 12 from both sides of the equation z + 12 = 0 results in
z =-12. Adding 2 to both sides of the equation z - 2 = 0 results in z = 2. Note
that 2 and -12 are examples of ways to enter a correct answer.

QUESTION 15
Choice B is correct. If two triangles are similar, then their corresponding angles
are congruent. It’s given that right triangle FGH is similar to right triangle JKL and
angle F corresponds to angle J. It follows that angle F is congruent to angle J
and, therefore, the measure of angle F is equal to the measure of angle J. The
sine ratios of angles of equal measure are equal. Since the measure of angle F is
equal to the measure of angle J, sin ^F h= sin ^Jh. It’s given that sin ^F h= 308
317
.
Therefore, sin ^Jh is 308
317
.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the value of cos ^Jh, not the value of sin ^Jh. Choice C
is incorrect. This is the reciprocal of the value of sin ^Jh, not the value of sin ^Jh.
Choice D is incorrect. This is the reciprocal of the value of cos ^Jh, not the value of
sin ^Jh.

43 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 16
Choice C is correct. Let x be the 2015 population of Greenville. It’s given that the
population increased by 7% from 2015 to 2016. The increase in population can
be written as ^0.07h x . The 2016 population of Greenville is given as the sum of the
2015 population of Greenville and the increase in population from 2015 to 2016.
This can be rewritten as x + ^0.07h x , or 1.07x . Therefore, the value of k is 1.07.

Choice A is incorrect. This is the percent, represented as a decimal, that the


population increased from 2015 to 2016, not the value of k. Choice B is incorrect
and may result from conceptual or calculation errors. Choice D is incorrect. This is
the value of k if the population increased by 70%, not 7%, from 2015 to 2016.

QUESTION 17
Choice B is correct. Standard deviation is a measure of the spread of a data set
from its mean. The dot plot for class A and the dot plot for class B have the same
shape. Thus, the frequency distributions for both class A and class B are the
same. Since both class A and class B have the same frequency distribution of
glue sticks brought in by each student, it follows that both class A and class B
have the same spread of the number of glue sticks brought in by each student
from their respective means. Therefore, the standard deviation of the number of
glue sticks brought in by each student for class A is equal to the standard
deviation of the number of glue sticks brought in by each student for class B.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 18
Choice B is correct. In the statement “m ^330h is approximately equal to 362,” the
input of the function, 330, is the value of t, the elapsed time, in days, since the
animal was born. The approximate value of the function, 362, is the predicted
body mass, in kilograms, of the animal after that time has elapsed. Therefore, the
predicted body mass of the animal was approximately 362 kg 330 days after it
was born.

Choice A is incorrect. This would be the best interpretation of the statement


“m ^362h is approximately equal to 330.” Choice C is incorrect. The number 330
7
is
the number of weeks, not the number of days, after the animal was born. Choice D
is incorrect. This would be the best interpretation of the statement “m ^362h is
approximately equal to 330
7
.”

QUESTION 19
Choice C is correct. It’s given that triangle XYZ is similar to triangle RST , such
that X , Y , and Z correspond to R, S, and T , respectively. Since corresponding
angles of similar triangles are congruent, it follows that the measure of +Z is
congruent to the measure of +T . It’s given that the measure of +Z is 20°.
Therefore, the measure of +T is 20°.

44 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect and may result from a conceptual error. Choice B is


incorrect. This is half the measure of +Z . Choice D is incorrect. This is twice the
measure of +Z .

QUESTION 20
The correct answer is 410. It’s given that t minutes after an initial observation, the
number of bacteria in a population is 60,000 ^2h410 . This expression consists of the
t

t
initial number of bacteria, 60,000, multiplied by the expression 2 410 . The time it
takes for the number of bacteria to double is the increase in the value of t that
t t
causes the expression 2 410 to double. Since the base of the expression 2 410 is 2,
t
the expression 2 410 will double when the exponent increases by 1. Since the
t
t
exponent of the expression 2 410 is 410
, the exponent will increase by 1 when t
increases by 410. Therefore the time, in minutes, it takes for the number of
bacteria in the population to double is 410.

QUESTION 21
The correct answer is -19. It’s given that function f is defined by f ^xh= a x + b,
where a and b are constants and a > 0. It’s also given that the graph of y = f ^xh in
the xy-plane has a y-intercept at ^0, - 25h and passes through the point ^2, 23h.
Since the graph has a y-intercept at ^0, - 25h, f ^0h=-25. Substituting 0 for x in
the given equation yields f ^0h= a 0 + b, or f ^0h= 1 + b, and substituting -25 for
f ^0h in this equation yields -25 = 1 + b. Subtracting 1 from each side of this
equation yields -26 = b. Substituting -26 for b in the equation f ^xh= a x + b
yields f ^xh= a x - 26. Since the graph also passes through the point ^2, 23h,
f ^2h= 23. Substituting 2 for x in the equation f ^xh= a x - 26 yields f ^2h= a 2 - 26,
and substituting 23 for f ^2h yields 23 = a 2 - 26. Adding 26 to each side of this
equation yields 49 = a 2 . Taking the square root of both sides of this equation
yields !7 = a. Since it’s given that a > 0, the value of a is 7. It follows that the
value of a + b is 7 - 26, or -19.

QUESTION 22
Choice D is correct. All the tables in the choices have the same three values of x,
so each of the three values of x can be substituted in the given inequality to
compare the corresponding values of y in each of the tables. Substituting 3 for
x in the given inequality yields y > 13 ^3h - 18, or y > 21. Therefore, when x = 3,
the corresponding value of y is greater than 21. Substituting 5 for x in the given
inequality yields y > 13 ^5h - 18, or y > 47. Therefore, when x = 5, the
corresponding value of y is greater than 47. Substituting 8 for x in the given
inequality yields y > 13 ^8h - 18, or y > 86. Therefore, when x = 8, the
corresponding value of y is greater than 86. For the table in choice D, when x = 3,
the corresponding value of y is 26, which is greater than 21; when x = 5, the
corresponding value of y is 52, which is greater than 47; when x = 8, the
corresponding value of y is 91, which is greater than 86. Therefore, the table in
choice D gives values of x and their corresponding values of y that are all
solutions to the given inequality.

45 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

Choice A is incorrect. In the table for choice A, when x = 3, the corresponding


value of y is 21, which is not greater than 21; when x = 5, the corresponding value
of y is 47, which is not greater than 47; when x = 8, the corresponding value of y
is 86, which is not greater than 86. Choice B is incorrect. In the table for choice B,
when x = 5, the corresponding value of y is 42, which is not greater than 47;
when x = 8, the corresponding value of y is 86, which is not greater than 86.
Choice C is incorrect. In the table for choice C, when x = 3, the corresponding
value of y is 16, which is not greater than 21; when x = 5, the corresponding value
of y is 42, which is not greater than 47; when x = 8, the corresponding value of y
is 81, which is not greater than 86.

QUESTION 23
Choice D is correct. Since the number of yards in 1 mile is 1,760, the number of
square yards in 1 square mile is ^1,760h^1,760h= 3,097,600. Therefore, if the area
of the town is 4.36 square miles, it is 4.36 ^3,097,600h= 13,505,536, in square
yards.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from dividing the number of yards in a mile by
the square mileage of the town. Choice B is incorrect and may result from
multiplying the number of yards in a mile by the square mileage of the town.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from dividing the number of square yards in a
square mile by the square mileage of the town.

QUESTION 24
Choice A is correct. When a square is inscribed in a circle, a diagonal of the
square is a diameter of the circle. It’s given that a square is inscribed in a circle
and the length of a radius of the circle is 20 2
2
inches. Therefore, the length of a
diameter of the circle is 2 c 202 2 m inches, or 20 2 inches. It follows that the length
of a diagonal of the square is 20 2 inches. A diagonal of a square separates the
square into two right triangles in which the legs are the sides of the square and
the hypotenuse is a diagonal. Since a square has 4 congruent sides, each of
these two right triangles has congruent legs and a hypotenuse of length 20 2
inches. Since each of these two right triangles has congruent legs, they are both
45-45-90 triangles. In a 45-45-90 triangle, the length of the hypotenuse is 2
times the length of a leg. Let s represent the length of a leg of one of these
45-45-90 triangles. It follows that 20 2 = 2 ^sh. Dividing both sides of this
equation by 2 yields 20= s. Therefore, the length of a leg of one of these
45-45-90 triangles is 20 inches. Since the legs of these two 45-45-90 triangles
are the sides of the square, it follows that the side length of the square is
20 inches.

Choice B is incorrect. This is the length of a radius, in inches, of the circle.


Choice C is incorrect. This is the length of a diameter, in inches, of the circle.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

46 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS


SAT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS n MATH: MODULE 2

QUESTION 25
Choice C is correct. Factoring the denominator in the second term of the given
y + 12 y^x - 8h
expression gives x-8
+ xy^x - 8h. This expression can be rewritten with common
xy xy^y + 12h y^x - 8h
denominators by multiplying the first term by xy , giving xy^x - 8h + xy^x - 8h. Adding
xy^y + 12h+ y^x - 8h
these two terms yields xy^x - 8h
. Using the distributive property to rewrite
xy 2 + 12xy + xy - 8y
this expression gives . Combining the like terms in the numerator
x 2 y - 8xy
xy 2 + 13xy - 8y
of this expression gives .
x 2 y - 8xy

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice D is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 26
Choice D is correct. A y-intercept of a graph in the xy-plane is a point where the
graph intersects the y-axis, or a point where x = 0. Substituting 0 for x in the
equation defining function f yields f ^0h= a ^2.2 0 + 2.2 bh, or f ^0h= a ^1 + 2.2 bh. So,
the y-coordinate of the y-intercept of the graph is a ^1 + 2.2 bh, or equivalently,
a + a ^2.2hb . It’s given that function g is equivalent to function f , where 0< a < b. It
follows that k = 2.2 b . Since a ^2.2hb can’t be equal to 0, the coefficient a can’t be
equal to a + a ^2.2hb . Since 0< a, the constant k, which is equal to 2.2 b , can’t be
equal to a + a ^2.2hb . Therefore, function g doesn’t display the y-coordinate of the
y-intercept of the graph of y = f ^xh in the xy-plane as a constant or coefficient. It’s
also given that function h is equivalent to function f , where 0< a < b. The equation
defining f can be rewritten as f ^xh= a ^2.2hx + a ^2.2hb . It follows that m = a ^2.2hb .
Since a ^2.2hb can’t be equal to 0, the coefficient a can’t be equal to a + a ^2.2hb .
Since 0< a, the constant m, which is equal to a ^2.2hb , can’t be equal to a + a ^2.2hb .
Therefore, function h doesn’t display the y-coordinate of the y-intercept of the
graph of y = f ^xh in the xy-plane as a constant or coefficient. Thus, neither
function g nor function h displays the y-coordinate of the y-intercept of the
graph of y = f ^xh in the xy-plane as a constant or coefficient.

Choice A is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.


Choice B is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from conceptual or calculation errors.

QUESTION 27
The correct answer is 50. An equation of the form ax 2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b,
and c are constants, has no real solutions if and only if its discriminant, b 2 - 4ac,
is negative. Applying the distributive property to the left-hand side of the equation
x ^kx - 56h=-16 yields kx 2 - 56x =-16. Adding 16 to each side of this equation
yields kx 2 - 56x + 16 = 0. Substituting k for a, -56 for b, and 16 for c in
b 2 - 4ac yields a discriminant of ^-56h2 - 4 ^kh^16h, or 3,136 - 64k . If the given
equation has no real solution, it follows that the value of 3,136 - 64k must be
negative. Therefore, 3,136 - 64k < 0. Adding 64k to both sides of this inequality
yields 3,136 < 64k . Dividing both sides of this inequality by 64 yields 49< k , or
k > 49. Since it’s given that k is an integer, the least possible value of k is 50.

47 SAT PRACTICE TEST #9 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

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